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Patient Care Practice Test #2 > Practice Test 2 > Flashcards

Practice Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the study of cells?

A

Cytology

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2
Q

What is the study of tissue called

A

Histology

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3
Q

A group of similar cells that perform specialized functions are called a

A

Tissue

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4
Q

__________ is the state of balance in the body. The body is at the state, it means it performs at its maximum potential

A

Homeostasis

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5
Q

Organs functioning together for a common purpose is called an

A

Organ system

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6
Q

In anatomical position, the palms are facing backwards true or false

A

False. In anatomical position the palms are facing up

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7
Q

Sagittal view divides the body into anterior and posterior, true or false?

A

False. The sagittal divides the body into unequal left and right portions

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8
Q

_________ plane divides the body into superior and inferior

A

Transverse

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9
Q

Sagittal plane divides the body into left and right, true or false?

A

True

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10
Q

Tissue serving a common purpose or function makes up

A

An organ

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11
Q

In anatomical position, the thumb is on the medial side of the hand true or false?

A

False. In anatomical position the thumb is on the lateral side of the hand

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12
Q

The great toe is on the medial side of the foot, true or false?

A

True

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13
Q

Opposite of contralateral is

A

Ipsilateral

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14
Q

What are other terms for superior?

A

Cranial or hyper

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15
Q

The other term for inferior is

A

Claudial

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16
Q

If you know the superficial femoral artery extends from slightly inferior to the groin area to the knee area which part of it is the proximal part in which part is the distal part?

A

The portion by the groin is proximal, distal is by the knee

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17
Q

The other term for anterior is?

A

Ventral.

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18
Q

The other term for posterior is

A

Dorsal

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19
Q

Pertaining to the covering of an organ is

A

Visceral

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20
Q

Pertaining to the outer wall of cavity is

A

Parietal

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21
Q

Laying down on the back is called the

A

Supine position

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22
Q

Laying down on the chest is the

A

Prone position

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23
Q

Laying down supine, with feet elevated is called the

A

Trendelenburg position

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24
Q

Laying down supine, with feet lowered is called the

A

Reverse Trendelenburg position

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25
Q

In the ________ position, the patient lies on their back, thighs acutely flexed on the abdomen, and legs flexed on thighs; legs are widely separated and raised. Used freq in GYN

A

Lithotomy

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26
Q

___________ position is useful in advanced pregnancy to avoid hypotension caused by IVC compression

A

Semi – Fowler

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27
Q

Sitting in this position is also called ________. It prevents aspiration

A

Fowler

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28
Q

__________ is the position used for rectal exams.

A

Sims. The position consists of the patient in left or right oblique, with opposite leg flexed at the hip and knee.

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29
Q

Turning the foot inward is called

A

Inversion

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30
Q

Turning the foot outward is called

A

Eversion

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31
Q

Turning The forearm so that the palm of the hand faces backward is called

A

Supination. Seen in anatomical position

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32
Q

Turning the forearm so that the palm of the hand faces forward is called

A

Pronation

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33
Q

Describe flexion and extension of the forearm

A

Flexion of the forearm is when the fist moves towards the shoulder. Extension of the forearm is when the fist moves away from the shoulder. The movement originates at the elbow

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34
Q

A sagittal plane divides the body into ventral and dorsal Plains, true or false?

A

False. The coronal plane divides the body into ventral and dorsal planes

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35
Q

The ventral cavity consists of:

A

The thoracic, abdominal, and pelvic cavities. Sometimes the abdominal and pelvic cavities are referred to together, forming the abdominopelvic cavity. The diaphragm is also included in the ventral cavity

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36
Q

The dorsal cavity consists of:

A

The cranial and spinal cavities

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37
Q

Name the nine regions of Addison’s planes

A

Left and right hypochondria, left and right lumbar, left and right iliac fossa, epigastric, hypogastirum, umbilicus

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38
Q

What are the four quadrants of the abdominal pelvic area?

A

right upper quadrant, left upper quadrant, right lower quadrant left lower quadrant

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39
Q

The right hypochondriac region of the abdomen corresponds to which quarter?

A

Right upper quadrant

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40
Q

What does BOS stand for?

A

Base of support.

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41
Q

Narrow base of support characterizes unstable and mobile systems, true or false?

A

True

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42
Q

What constitutes a person’s base of support?

A

Feet and the space between them.

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43
Q

Center of gravity is a hypothetical point at which the object will balance, true or false?

A

True

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44
Q

Stability can be achieved when a body center of gravity is over its base of support, true or false?

A

True

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45
Q

The body will topple if the center of gravity is displaced outside its base of support, true or false?

A

True

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46
Q

Smooth muscles, not skeletal muscles in the body have red and white fibers, true or false?

A

False. smooth muscles ARE skeletal muscles

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47
Q

Red fibers are considered the slow twitch fibers, true or false?

A

True

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48
Q

Exercise intensity initiates which type dominates force production- true or false?

A

True

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49
Q

White muscle fibers do not fatigue quickly, so we don’t collapse, true or false?

A

False. White muscle fibers do fatigue quickly. They are responsible for rapid movements

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50
Q

Red muscle fibers are responsible for postural stability, true or false?

A

True

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51
Q

When lifting boxes or patients, keep your knees straight, true or false?

A

False – keep your back straight, and bend your knees

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52
Q

For effective transfers, a person should use the motility of white muscles for lifting and the postural muscles for support, true or false?

A

True

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53
Q

When lifting boxes or patients, keep your back straight as much as possible, true or false?

A

True

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54
Q

When transporting a patient, the most important things to verify is the:________ and ________

A

Name and DOB

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55
Q

When transporting a patient, when you leave the patient alone, when your test includes the patient turning to the other side, or when the patient appears drowsy or showing altered level of consciousness, make sure to
____________!!!!!

A

Put up the bedrails!

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56
Q

When transferring a patient from wheelchair to a bed or vice versa always position the patient so that he or she is transferring towards their strong side, true or false

A

True

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57
Q

When transferring a patient to a wheelchair or a bed or vice versa make sure that the bed and the wheelchair are both

A

Locked, and the brakes are on

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58
Q

When transferring a patient from wheelchair to a bed or vice versa, make sure necessary personnel are employed to help assist in the move, communication has ensured that the patient understands the procedure, true or false?

A

True.
Always explain to the patient that they are about to be transferred and how that will be happening. They are people, not luggage.

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59
Q

When lifting a patient, the person performing the transfer should stand with feet apart shoulder width apart to widen the base of support-true or false?

A

True

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60
Q

When lifting a patient, the patient center of gravity should be held close to the transfers center of gravity, true or false?

A

True

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61
Q

When lifting patients, it is important to keep the back stationary and straight and do all the lifting by bending the knees, true or false

A

True. The back should be kept as straight as possible and the weight lifted with the thighs and knees.

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62
Q

Ambulatory means_______.

Sometimes the term is used for ______

A

Mobile. Outpatients.

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63
Q

When transferring a patient, you can twist your trunk, true or false?

A

False. Never twist at the trunk. It weakens the base of support by shifting the center of gravity.

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64
Q

The condition when someone feels dizzy when he or she sits up quickly after prolonged we company position is called___________. Patient might show slurring or slowing of speech. This is indicative of decreased blood flow to the brain.

A

Orthostatic blood pressure

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65
Q

If you’re going to do a study on a patient in wheelchair and the patient informs you that he or she is capable of the transfer to the bed on their own, what should you do?

A

Allow them to move themselves as much as possible

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66
Q

When assisting patients while transferring from bed to wheelchair or vice versa, which one can you choose – the gait belt or Bill Gates?

A

The gait belt

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67
Q

If you were transferring a patient who weighs 130 pounds and the patient can’t bear weight on their lower extremities, which method of transfer can be used? In this method where does the stronger transfer stand? And who is in charge of the transfer?

A

It is called a two person transfer. The strongest person is at the patient’s head and is in charge of overall transfer orders.

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68
Q

Before you transfer a patient from or to a wheelchair, make sure the wheelchair is locked and the feet rest are swung away, true or false?

A

True

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69
Q

If you were transferring a patient who is a sumo wrestler, what method of transfer is preferable?

A

Hydraulic lift

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70
Q

When transferring a patient from bed to a stretcher and the patient can do the transfer on their own, make sure the bed and the stretcher are ___________.

A

Aligned right next to each other, the brakes are on, and the outer rails are up.

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71
Q

When transferring a patient from bed to stretcher and the patient can’t help with the transfer usage of ________ and _______ to help with the transfer.

A

A bodyboard, other staff.

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72
Q

50% of the population has this body habitus

A

What is Sthenic?

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73
Q

In sthenic body habitus, the stomach is J-shaped and is located low in comparison with that of the hypersthenic true or false?

A

True.

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74
Q

The elderly have what body habitus?

A

Asthenic

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75
Q

People who are usually thin but healthy and somewhat under wait for his or her height have a body habitus of

A

Hyposthenic 35% of population

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76
Q

A patient with hypersthenic body habitus possesses a gallbladder that is high and lies farther to the right, a stomach which is located high and in transverse section, is this true or false?

A

True

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77
Q

What does MSI stand for?

A

Musculoskeletal injury

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78
Q

Define musculoskeletal injury

A

Musculoskeletal injury refers to a group of disorders caused by or aggravated by workplace activities.

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79
Q

More than 80% of sonographers surveyed reported symptoms of MSA, true or false?

A

True

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80
Q

What are five contributing factors to the increased incidence of MSI reports?

A

More scans, more obese patients, staffing shortages, aging workforce, increased awareness

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81
Q

Left handed scanners tend to have shoulder and neck injuries; right handed scanners tend to have wrist and elbow problems, true or false?

A

False. Lefties have wrist and elbow problems. Right handed scanners tend to have shoulder and neck injuries

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82
Q

Sonographers who lack variety in studies are less prone to MSI, true or false.

A

False. Sonographers need variety in studies to stop repetitive injury.

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83
Q

Wrist or fingers extended or flexed for a long period of time exposes the sonographer to musculoskeletal injury, true or false?

A

True

84
Q

What are five symptoms associated with musculoskeletal injury?

A 
Pain 
swelling 
numbness
 loss of sensation 
muscle spasm
85
Q

Stage III of musculoskeletal injury is permanently disabling and career ending, true or false?

A

True.

86
Q

What side of the hand is affected in carpal tunnel syndrome, and what nerve is affected?

A

The palm of the hand is affected because the median nerve is inflamed.

87
Q

What is trigger finger?

A

Trigger finger is the inability to extend or flex a digit

88
Q

Tennis elbow indicates pain on the _______ Side of the elbow

A

Lateral

89
Q

Golfers elbow indicate pain is on the ________ Side of the elbow

A

Medial

90
Q

De-Quervain disease is considered a tendinitis and it indicates the inability to abduct the thumb, true or false?

A

True

91
Q

Thoracic outlet syndrome occurs because of excessive stretching and reaching, true or false?

A

True.

92
Q

In rotator cuff tear, symptoms include: inability to raise the affected arm out to the side of the body, true or false?

A

True

93
Q

Wrapping the transducers cable around your neck is a correct practice, true or false?

A

False. Wrapping the transducer’s cable around your neck is disgusting.

94
Q

Wearing appropriate size gloves helps with the transducer gripped and is a correct practice, true or false?

A

True

95
Q

You should use pillows, towels, or other supports when necessary to avoid extreme of flexion or extension on the wrist and arm, True or false?

A

True

96
Q

Position the patient’s bed, the chair if you use one, the ultrasound machines monitor, and the keyboard in the most comfortable position for YOU, true or false?

A

True

97
Q

Practice the exercises you learned in class as often as you can to reduce the risk of musculoskeletal injury, true or false?

A

True

98
Q

Describe five related techniques that are affected in the prevention of musculoskeletal injury

A 
Posture of sonographer
Position of exam table
Position of patient
Position of equipment
Support wrist, elbow, hand
99
Q

When you were going to do a portable study, pull and do not push the ultrasound machine true or false?

A

False. Do not ever pull the ultrasound machine around, they are heavy and you do not have as much power/controll pulling as you do pushing

100
Q

Nowadays ultrasound machines have a good ergonomic design, true or false?

A

True. They are not everything they could be, but they are much better than they were.

101
Q

Having a Palmar grip on the transducer is a correct practice, true or false?

A

True

102
Q

When scanning a patient, maintain an arm abduction of less than 30°, true or false?

A

True

103
Q

Refocus your eyes onto distant objects while scanning, true or false?

A

False! Focus your eyes on the damn scan when scanning. Don’t miss the pathology! Refocus your eyes on the distant objects in between scans or at mini breaks

104
Q

Minimization of sustained bending, twisting, reaching, lifting, and awkward positioning are good practices, true or false?

A

True

105
Q

You might need to take short breaks during an ultrasound study to stretch your body, your shoulder, head, arms and legs, your fingers, and refocus your eyes on to a distant object for a moment, true or false?

A

True

106
Q

If the ultrasound order has elevated Amylase and lipase under indication it means that the study is to perform abdominal ultrasound with more focused on the_________

A

Pancreas

107
Q

If the ultrasound order has under indication: elevated BUN and creatine, which organ is affected?

A

The kidney

108
Q

Small amounts of blood in urine is normal, true or false?

A

False. There should never be blood in urine.

109
Q

Small amounts of protein in the urine is normal, true or false?

A

False. There should never be protein in the urine

110
Q

Small amount of sugar in the urine is normal, true or false?

A

False. Sugar should never be in the urine. If it is, it means that the body’s glucose level is over 180.

111
Q

The presence of protein in the urine in a pregnant woman is an indication of _______. This is a fetal condition and can be fatal if not treated. and its main symptom is high blood pressure

A

Eclampsia

112
Q

What is urine sediment?

A

Anything solid left over after the urine has been through the centrifuge

113
Q

The presence of leukocyte esterase and nitrates in the urine indicates:

A

Urinary tract infection

114
Q

ALP and AST are increased in_________?

A

Liver diseases or infections like hepatitis

115
Q

The bilirubin that results from hemolytic anemia is direct Bilirubin true or false?

A

False. The Bilirubin that results from hemolytic anemia is unconjugated and indirect Bilirubin

116
Q

The Bilirubin that results from tumor to the head of the pancreas is conjugated, true or false?

A

True

117
Q

Normal level of serum glucose is

A

70-100 mg/dl

118
Q

ESR stands for:

A

Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

119
Q

ESR is a specific indicator of certain diseases, true or false?

A

False. ESR is an indicator of no particular disease.

120
Q

These three tests are used to determine the clotting a tendency of blood in a patient:

A

PT- prothrombin time
PTT-partial thromboplastin time
5 platelet count

121
Q

If a patient is on anticoagulation medicine due to stroke or DVT and he or she needed a procedure, he or she should stop the specific medications that increase the risk of bleeding for five days before the procedure and INR should be taken on him on the day of the procedure and the number should not be more than one, true or false?

A

True

122
Q

All patients who are going to have a procedure should not take anti-coagulation or any blood thinners like warfarin or any aspirin contain medications, fish oil antifactor 10 medications, true or false?

A

True

123
Q

Normal PT is:

A

12-13 seconds

124
Q

What are the two tests that are nonspecific indicators of inflammation in the body?

A

ESR

C-reactive protien

125
Q

What is the normal range count of white blood cells?

A

4,500-10,000 per microliter

126
Q

What does wbc differential mean?

A

It means the percentage of each type of white blood cells found in the blood

127
Q

Mention six categories included in the white blood cell differential and the percentage of the three most dominant ones

A

1neutrophils 40-60%

  1. lymphocytes (b/t cells) 20-40%
  2. Monocytes 2-8%
  3. Eosinophils 1-4%
  4. Basophils .5-1%
  5. Bands (young neutrophils) 0-3%
128
Q

Leukopenia is…

A

Low white blood cell count

129
Q

High white blood cell count is indicative of ______ and/or ________

A

Infection or leukemia

130
Q

Mention for conditions that cause leukopenia

A

Bone marrow disease, some leukemias, HIV, chemo

131
Q

Knowing the white blood cell differential is important, because depending on the category that is increased or decreased, you can lead the position into a more accurate differential diagnosis, true or false?

A

True

132
Q

What is the normal level of hemoglobin for men and for women

A

Men: 13.5 g/dl
Women: 12g/dl

133
Q

What’s hemocrit?

A

Hemocrit is the proportion of red blood cells in the total blood volume

134
Q

Normal hemocrit for men and women are, respectively:

A

40-50% for men and

35-45% for women

135
Q

People living in high altitude’s are expected to have a lower hemoglobin than others, true or false?

A

False. People living in higher altitudes have higher hemoglobin than people who live in low altitude’s.

136
Q

Anemia is accompanied by a decrease in red blood cells, hemoglobin, and hematocrit, true or false?

A

True

137
Q

What is hemoglobin and where is it found?

A

It is in oxygen-carrying protein. It is found in red blood cells.

138
Q

Pollycythemia Vera

A

A disease characterized by an increase of red blood cells

139
Q

Two diseases that can change the shape of red blood cells are:

A

Sickle cell anemia and pernicious anemia

140
Q

Normal number of red blood cells is:

A

4-6 million per cubic mm

141
Q

The scientific term used for red blood cells is

A

Erythrocytes

142
Q

The scientific term used for white blood cells is

A

Leukocytes

143
Q

____________ are the most common type of blood cells.

A

Erythrocytes

144
Q

Normal platelet level is

A

150,000-400,000 per microliter

145
Q

What happens if there are less than normal numbers of platelets?

A

A person does not clot and uncontrolled bleeding may become a problem

146
Q

Platelets are the largest type of blood cells, true or false

A

False. Platelets are tiny, and the smallest type of blood cell

147
Q

What happens if there are more than the normal number of platelets?

A

Clotting. The potential for thrombus

148
Q

CBC stands for and includes

A 
Complete blood count and includes values from a multitude of tests including 
Red blood cell count 
white blood cell count w:differential
Hemoglobin
Hematocrit
5 platelet count
149
Q

What are the four vital signs?

A
  1. Temp
  2. Pulse rate
  3. Respiratory rate
  4. Blood pressure
150
Q

What is the organ that regulates body temperature?

A

The hypothalamus which is located at the base of the brain

151
Q

What does the body do when the hypothalamus sense is a heat level above the set point?

A

It will be begin to bring blood to the surface of the skin as a flush, produce sweat to cool the body,

152
Q

What does the body do when the hypothalamus senses a heat level below the set point?

A

It begins to generate heat through shivering

153
Q

Mention five reasons that cause body temperature to fluctuate

A 
Infection
Exercise
Ovulation
Time of day ( highest in evening)
Teething
154
Q

On the day of ovulation, body temperature is 1° less, true or false?

A

False. On the day of ovulation body temperature is 1° more

155
Q

Temperature below normal is called

A

Hypothermia

156
Q

Temperature above normal is called

A

Hyperthermia

157
Q

What’s fever? What is the other name for fever? What number on the thermometer reflects a fever?

A

A fever is another name for hyperthermia. The body’s temperature rises above 99° for a prolonged period this made happen acutely or slowly. Should the temperature rise over 107° brain cell death occurs.

158
Q

Febrile seizures in children often develop into epilepsy, true or false?

A

False this theory is as of yet unproven.

159
Q

What is the definition of fever of unknown origin:

A

A prolonged incidence of hyperthermia of 101 with several spikes a week over 3 consecutive weeks which, despite inpatient investigation, has no known cause.

160
Q

Normal temperature in Fahrenheit and Celsius for humans:

A

Oral: 97-99 degrees F
36-37.5C

Axillary temp 96.5-98.5 F
35.5-37C
Rectal: 97.5-99.5F
36.5-38C

161
Q

Mention all the sites for body temp taking

A 
Mouth
Armpit
Rectal
Ear
Forehead
162
Q

What is the safest method of taking a temp?

What is the most reliable?

A

Safest: armpit- just not super reliable.

Most accurate: rectal- super unpleasant, but the core body temp.

163
Q

What is the range of normal pulse?

A

Adult: 60-100 bpm
Child: 100-120 bpm
Infant: 120-140 bpm

164
Q

Name all the sites of detecting pulse and know where each one is located

A
  1. Temporal- anterior to the superior portion of the ear
  2. Carotid- anterior portion of the kneck
  3. Apical - base of the heart
  4. Radial- base of the thumb, lateral side of the lower arm
  5. Ulnar- at the medial side of the lower arm
  6. Brachial – in the group between the biceps and triceps above the elbow at the antecubital fossa
  7. Femoral – in the medial groin region
  8. Popliteal- at the posterior aspect of the knee
  9. Posterior tibial – posterior to the medial ankle
  10. Dorsalis pedis – on the dorsal surface of the foot
165
Q

Which side is the most common site for measuring pulse rate?

A

The radial artery is the most common site for measuring pulse rate

166
Q

What are the three characteristics you have to evaluate when measuring pulse rate?

A

Pulse Rate
Pulse Rhythm
Volume
Any variations

167
Q

Abnormal rhythm is called

A

Arrhythmia

168
Q

Abnormal rhythm is described by patients as having__________ or _______.

A

Palpitations/skipped beats

169
Q

BPM stands for

A

Beats per minute

170
Q

Mention five causes of an irregular rhythm

A
  1. Strenuous exercise
  2. Fever
  3. Pain
  4. Coronary artery disease
  5. Injury from heart attack
171
Q

Weak or thready pulse is seen in

A

Bradycardia- seen in Hemorrhagic shock

172
Q

Bounding pulse is seen in

A

Tachycardia- seen in fever

173
Q

If someone has greater than 100 bpm this is called

A

HTN

174
Q

If someone has less than 60 bpm this is called

A

Hypotension

175
Q

Mention four causes that might affect pulse rate

A

1 Exercise
2 Emotional state
3 drugs
4 build

176
Q

If the blood pressure is low, what happens to the pulse rate?

A

With low blood pressure, The pulse rate is rapid

177
Q

If blood pressure is high, what happens to the pulse rate?

A

If the blood pressure is high, The pulse rate is slower

178
Q

The patient’s pulse reflects the amount of blood eject it with each heartbeat, true or false

A

False. The pulse reflects the amount of BPM’s

179
Q

Pulse oximetry measures_________. The normal number is______

A

Oxygen saturation

High 90’s is normal (96-100)

180
Q

Nail polish can give an incorrect reading on the pulse oximeter, true or false?

A

True. The pulse ox monitor works on wavelengths of light, polish can displace this

181
Q

External respiration is:

A

Refers to the delivery of O2 to the lungs capillaries during inhalation and releasing carbon dioxide by exhalation

182
Q

Internal respiration is::

A

A metabolic process during which oxygen is released to tissues and carbon dioxide is absorbed by the blood. it occurs at the level of cells

183
Q

What are the four characteristics you evaluate when you measure breathing?

A

1 rate
2 rhythm
3. Character
4. Depth

184
Q

Normal breathing rate is

A

16-20 breaths per min (adults)
20-30 children
35+ for infants

185
Q

Ratio of respirations to heart rate is

A

1:4

186
Q

Shallow breathing can cause

A

Hypoxia

187
Q

Normal breathing is______, ________, __________.

A
  1. Quiet
  2. Effortless
  3. Regular
188
Q

What are five factors that might influence the rate breathing?

A
  1. Exercise
  2. Pathology or Disease
  3. Emotional state
  4. Age
  5. Temp
189
Q

Pulse rate is measured for 30 seconds and multiplied by two. If irregular rhythm is observed, measure pulse rate for one whole minute, true or false?

A

True

190
Q

What is Dyspnea

A

Trouble breathing

191
Q

What is apnea

A

Cessation of breathing for periods of time this may be intermittent before the breath resumes again

192
Q

Tachypnea, what is it

A

Literally rapid breathing

193
Q

What is hyperventilation?

A

Hyperventilation, frequently seen in hysteria, is when the blood oxygen/co2 balance becomes disturbed. This is due to long deep breath’s rapidly taken over a period of time

194
Q

Blood pressure is the product of these three factors

A
  1. Intensity of the contraction of the heart ventricle
  2. The amount of blood being pumped out of the heart
  3. Resistance of blood vessels to heart flow
195
Q

Normal blood pressure is

A

Below 120/80

196
Q

The first number of blood pressure which is the higher number is the ________, and the second number is the ______ pressure

A

Systolic, and diastolic

197
Q

Elevated BP is called________, and it happens when blood pressure measurement is equal or higher then _______.

A

Hypertension or HTN

>90

198
Q

When blood pressure is below______, it is called______

A

80/50

hypotension

199
Q

Isolated increased systolic hypertension is common in the elderly do to hardening of the arteries true or false?

A

True.

200
Q

Mention five factors that might affect blood pressure

A
  1. Age
  2. Activity
  3. Emotions
  4. Gender
  5. Pathology/disease
201
Q

The device we used to measure blood pressure is called_________, The unit of blood pressure is _______

A

A sphygmomanometer

Mm of mercury, written mm Hg

202
Q

Is stethoscope is needed to measure blood pressure using the mercury and android systems, so you can listen to the artery’s pulsation, true or false?

A

True

203
Q

A stethoscope is needed to measure blood pressure using the electronic system, true or false?

A

False. the stethoscope is not needed to measure blood pressure using the electronic system

204
Q

An inflatable ________ is wrapped around the patient’s arm when measuring blood pressure.

A

Cuff

205
Q

When you squeeze the _______, it inflates the ______ with air. When this is inflated, it obstructs of the ________ artery.

A
  1. Bulb
  2. Cuff
  3. Brachial
206
Q

When you need to lower pressure in the cuff, you slowly loosen the _______

A

Valve.

Patient Care Practice Test #2 (1 decks)

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