Practice Test Flashcards
Which earned value management (EVM) metric is a measure of the cost efficiency of budgeted resources expressed as a ratio of earned value (EV) to actual cost (AC) and is considered a critical EVM metric?
A. Cost variance (CV)
B. Cost performance index (CPI)
C. Budget at completion (BAC)
D. Variance at completion (VAC)
Cost performance index (CPI)
Which type of contract gives both the seller and the buyer flexibility to deviate from performance with
financial incentives?
A. Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF)
B. Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)
C. Cost Pius Award Re (CPAF)
D. Time and Material (T&M)
Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)
Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?
A. Document analysis
B. Observations
C. Product analysis
D. Expert judgment
Expert judgment
The organization’s perceived balance between risk taking and risk avoidance is reflected in the risk:
A. Responses
B. Appetite
C. Tolerance
D. Attitude
Responses
Organizational theory is a tool used in which Project Human Resource Management process?
A. Manage Project Team
B. Acquire Project Team
C. Develop Project Team
D. Plan Human Resource Management
Plan Human Resource Management
Which Collect Requirements output links the product requirements to the deliverables that satisfy
them?
A. Requirements documentation
B. Requirements traceability matrix
C. Project management plan updates
D. Project documents updates
Requirements traceability matrix
The iterative and interactive nature of the Process Groups creates the need for the processes in which
Knowledge Area?
A. Project Communications Management
B. Project Integration Management
C. Project Risk Management
D. Project Scope Management
Project Integration Management
A strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis is a tool or technique used in
which process?
A. Identify Risks
B. Control Risks
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
Identify Risks
A project manager builds consensus and overcomes obstacles by employing which communication
technique?
A. Listening
B. Facilitation
C. Meeting management
D. Presentation
Facilitation
When should quality planning be performed?
A. While developing the project charter
B. In parallel with the other planning processes
C. As part of a detailed risk analysis
D. As a separate step from the other planning processes
In parallel with the other planning processes
Scope, schedule, and cost parameters are integrated in the:
A. Performance measurement baseline.
B. Analysis of project forecasts,
C. Summary of changes approved in a period,
D. Analysis of past performance.
Performance measurement baseline.
Units of measure, level of precision, level of accuracy, control thresholds, and rules of performance
measurement are examples of items that are established in the:
A. Cost management plan.
B. Work performance information.
C. Quality management plan.
D. Work breakdown structure.
Cost management plan.
The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action is known as:
A. Plan Risk Management.
B. Plan Risk Responses.
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.
Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.
Which risk management strategy seeks to eliminate the uncertainty associated with a particular
upside risk by ensuring that the opportunity is realized?
A. Enhance
B. Share
C. Exploit
D. Accept
Exploit
An output of the Develop Project Team process is:
A. Organizational process assets.
B. Enterprise environmental factors updates.
C. Project staff assignments.
D. Organizational charts and position descriptions.
Enterprise environmental factors updates.
When does the project team determine which dependencies are discretionary?
A. Before the Define Activities process
B. During the Define Activities process
C. Before the Sequence Activities process
D. During the Sequence Activities process
During the Sequence Activities process
Which cost is associated with nonconformance?
A. Liabilities
B. Inspections
C. Training
D. Equipment
Liabilities
An input used in developing the communications management plan is:
A. Communication models.
B. Enterprise environmental factors.
C. Organizational communications.
D. Organizational cultures and styles.
Enterprise environmental factors.
Status of deliverables, implementation status for change requests, and forecasted estimates to
complete are examples of:
A. Earned value management.
B. Enterprise environmental factors.
C. Organizational process assets.
D. Work performance information.
Work performance information.
An output of the Plan Quality Management process is:
A. A process improvement plan.
B. Quality control measurements.
C. Work performance information.
D. The project management plan.
A process improvement plan.
Processes in the Planning Process Group are typically carried out during which part of the project life cycle?
A. Only once, at the beginning
B. At the beginning and the end
C. Once during each phase
D. Repeatedly
Repeatedly
Regression analysis, failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), fault tree analysis (FTA), and trend
analysis are examples of which tool or technique?
A. Expert judgment
B. Forecasting methods
C. Earned value management
D. Analytical techniques
Analytical techniques
The Monitoring and Controlling Process Group includes processes that:
A. Establish the scope, objectives, and course of action of a project,
B. Define a new project or a new phase of an existing project.
C. Track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of a project.
D. Complete the work defined in the project management plan.
Track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of a project.
An effective technique for resolving conflict that incorporates multiple viewpoints from differing
perspectives to achieve consensus and commitment is:
A. smooth/accommodate.
B. force/direct.
C. collaborate/problem solve.
D. compromise/reconcile.
collaborate/problem solve.
In a project, total float measures the:
A. Ability to shuffle schedule activities to lessen the duration of the project.
B. Amount of time an activity can be extended or delayed without altering the project finish date.
C. Cost expended to restore order to the project schedule after crashing the schedule.
D. Estimate of the total resources needed for the project after performing a forward pass.
Amount of time an activity can be extended or delayed without altering the project finish date.
The Perform Integrated Change Control process occurs in which Process Group?
A. Initiating
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Planning
Monitoring and Controlling
Which process identifies whether the needs of a project can best be met by acquiring products,
services, or results outside of the organization?
A. Plan Procurement Management
B. Control Procurements
C. Collect Requirements
D. Plan Cost Management
Plan Procurement Management
Which Define Activities output extends the description of the activity by identifying the multiple
components associated with each activity?
A. Project document updates
B. Activity list
C. Activity attributes
D. Project calendars
Activity attributes
Which type of project management office (PMO) supplies templates, best practices, and training to project teams?
A. Supportive
B. Directive
C. Controlling
D. Instructive
Supportive
Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?
A. Control Scope
B. Define Scope
C. Plan Scope Management
D. Collect Requirements
Plan Scope Management
The iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project management plan as greater
amounts of information become available is known as:
A. Continuous improvement.
B. Predictive planning.
C. Progressive elaboration.
D. Quality assurance.
Progressive elaboration.
Typical outcomes of a project include:
A. Products, services, and improvements.
B. Products, programs, and services.
C. Improvements, portfolios, and services.
D. Improvements, processes, and products.
Products, services, and improvements.
Using values such as scope, cost, budget, and duration or measures of scale such as size, weight,
and complexity from a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the same parameter or
measurement for a current project describes which type of estimating?
A. Bottom-up
B. Parametric
C. Analogous
D. Three-point
Analogous
Which process involves monitoring the status of the project to update the project costs and managing
changes to the cost baseline?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Control Costs
C. Determine Budget
D. Plan Cost Management
Control Costs
Which process involves developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete
project activities?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Control Costs
C. Determine Budget
D. Plan Cost Management
Estimate Costs
The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Initiating
D. Planning
Executing
Reserve analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?
A. Plan Risk Management
B. Plan Risk Responses
C. Identify Risks
D. Control Risks
Control Risks
A method of obtaining early feedback on requirements by providing a working model of the expected product before actually building is known as:
A. Benchmarking.
B. Context diagrams.
C. Brainstorming.
D. Prototyping.
Prototyping.
Which input provides suppliers with a clear set of goals, requirements, and outcomes?
A. Procurement statement of work
B. Purchase order
C. Source selection criteria
D. Bidder conference
Procurement statement of work
Sending letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes to share information is an example of which type of communication?
A. Direct
B. Interactive
C. Pull
D. Push
Push
Which basic quality tool is most useful when gathering attributes data in an inspection to identify
defects?
A. Control charts
B. Pareto diagrams
C. Ishikavva diagrams
D. Checksheets
Checksheets
Which tool or technique is used to manage change requests and the resulting decisions?
A. Change control tools
B. Expert judgment
C. Delphi technique
D. Change log
Change control tools
Which tools or techniques are used in the Plan Schedule Management process?
A. Benchmarking, expert judgment, and analytical techniques
B. Statistical sampling, benchmarking, and meetings
C. Negotiations, pre-assignment, and multi-criteria decision analysis
D. Expert judgment, analytical techniques, and meetings
Expert judgment, analytical techniques, and meetings
Which process in Project Time Management includes reserve analysis as a tool or technique?
A. Estimate Activity Resources
B. Sequence Activities
C. Estimate Activity Durations
D. Develop Schedule
Estimate Activity Durations
The process of confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete
project activities is known as:
A. Plan Human Resource Management.
B. Acquire Project Team.
C. Manage Project Team.
D. Develop Project Team.
Acquire Project Team.
An input to the Identify Stakeholders process is:
A. The project management plan.
B. The stakeholder register.
C. Procurement documents.
D. Stakeholder analysis.
Procurement documents.
Which input to the Plan Risk Management process provides information on high-level risks?
A. Project charter
B. Enterprise environmental factors
C. Stakeholder register
D. Organizational process assets
Project charter
Which input may influence quality assurance work and should be monitored within the context of a
system for configuration management?
A. Work performance data
B. Project documents
C. Scope baseline
D. Requirements documentation
Project documents
Sensitivity analysis is typically displayed as a/an:
A. Decision tree diagram.
B. Tornado diagram.
C. Pareto diagram.
D. Ishikawa diagram.
Tornado diagram.
Lessons learned are created and project resources are released in which Process Group?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Closing
D. Initiating
Closing
In which Knowledge Area is the project charter developed?
A. Project Cost Management
B. Project Scope Management
C. Project Time Management
D. Project Integration Management
Project Integration Management
Which item is an example of personnel assessment?
A. Resource calendar
B. Tight matrix
C. Team-building activity
D. Focus group
Focus group
Payback period, return on investment, internal rate of return, discounted cash flow, and net present value are all examples of:
A. Expert judgment.
B. Analytical techniques.
C. Earned value management.
D. Group decision-making techniques.
Analytical techniques.
A project charter is an output of which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Initiating
D. Closing
Initiating
The basis of identification for current or potential problems to support later claims or new
procurements is provided by:
A. A risk urgency assessment.
B. The scope baseline.
C. Work performance information.
D. Procurement audits.
Work performance information.
Plan Schedule Management is a process in which Knowledge Area?
A. Project Scope Management
B. Project Human Resource Management
C. Project Integration Management
D. Project Time Management
Project Time Management
An input to Conduct Procurements is:
A. Independent estimates.
B. Selected sellers.
C. Seller proposals.
D. Resource calendars.
Seller proposals.
Which type of dependency is established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or some unusual aspect of the project in which a specific sequence is desired, even
though there may be other acceptable sequences?
A. External
B. Internal
C. Mandatory
D. Discretionary
Discretionary
Which Plan Schedule Management tool or technique may involve choosing strategic options to
estimate and schedule the project?
A. Facilitation techniques
B. Expert judgment
C. Analytical techniques
D. Variance analysis
Analytical techniques
Which tool or technique is used in validating the scope of a project?
A. Facilitated workshops
B. Interviews
C. Inspection
D. Meetings
Inspection
Inputs to the Plan Schedule Management process include:
A. Organizational process assets and the project charter.
B. Enterprise environmental factors and schedule tools.
C. Time tables and Pareto diagrams.
D. Activity attributes and resource calendars.
Organizational process assets and the project charter.
Which process numerically analyzes the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives?
A. Plan Risk Management
B. Plan Risk Responses
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
The process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities is known as:
A. Control Schedule.
B. Sequence Activities.
C. Define Activities.
D. Develop Schedule.
Sequence Activities.
Conditions that are not under the control of the project team that influence, direct, or constrain a
project are called:
A. Enterprise environmental factors
B. Work performance reports
C. Organizational process assets
D. Context diagrams
Enterprise environmental factors
Which conflict resolution technique searches for solutions that bring some degree of satisfaction to all
parties in order to temporarily or partially resolve the conflict?
A. Force/direct
B. Withdraw/avoid
C. Compromise/reconcile
D. Collaborate/problem solve
Force/direct
The Identify Stakeholders process is found in which Process Group?
A. Initiating
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Planning
D. Executing
Initiating
An example of a group decision-ma king technique is:
A. Nominal group technique.
B. Majority.
C. Affinity diagram.
D. Multi-criteria decision analysis.
Majority.
Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a
typical project progresses?
A. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases.
B. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases,
C. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases.
D. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases.
Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases.
External organizations that have a special relationship with the enterprise and provide specialized
expertise are called:
A. Customers.
B. Business partners.
C. Sellers.
D. Functional managers.
Business partners.
Which Control Quality tool is also known as an arrow diagram?
A. Matrix diagram
B. Affinity diagram
C. Tree diagram
D. Activity network diagram
Activity network diagram
Which quality management and control tool is useful in visualizing parent-to-child relationships in any decomposition hierarchy that uses a systematic set of rules that define a nesting relationship?
A. Interrelationship digraphs
B. Tree diagram
C. Affinity diagram
D. Network diagram
Tree diagram
Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is used to document changes that
occur during the project?
A. Issue log
B. Change log
C. Expert judgment
D. Change requests
Change log
Which process determines the risks that may affect the project and documents their characteristics?
A. Control Risks
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Plan Risk Responses
D. Identify Risks
Identify Risks
The process of estimating the type and quantity of material, human resources, equipment, or supplies
required to perform each activity is known as:
A. Collect Requirements.
B. Conduct Procurements.
C. Estimate Activity Durations.
D. Estimate Activity Resources.
Estimate Activity Resources.
An element of the project scope statement is:
A. Acceptance criteria.
B. A stakeholder list.
C. A summary budget,
D. High-level risks.
Acceptance criteria.
Which input to Collect Requirements is used to identify stakeholders who can provide information on requirements?
A. Stakeholder register
B. Scope management plan
C. Stakeholder management plan
D. Project charter
Stakeholder register
A project manager managing a cross-cultural virtual project team across several time zones should be concerned about the impacts of which communication technology factor?
A. Urgent information need
B. Sensitivity of information
C. Project environment
D. Ease of use
Project environment
A key benefit of the Manage Communications process is that it enables:
A. The best use of communication methods.
B. An efficient and effective communication flow.
C. Project costs to be reduced.
D. The best use of communication technology.
An efficient and effective communication flow.
The business needs, assumptions, and constraints and the understanding of the customers needs and high-level requirements are documented in the:
A. Project management plan.
B. Project charter.
C. Work breakdown structure.
D. Stakeholder register.
Project charter.
The ways in which the roles and responsibilities, reporting relationships, and staffing management will be addressed and structured within a project is described in the:
A. Human resource management plan.
B. Activity resource requirements.
C. Personnel assessment tools,
D. Multi-criteria decision analysis.
Human resource management plan.
When a backward pass is calculated from a schedule constraint that is later than the early finish date that has been calculated during a forward pass calculation, this causes which type of total float?
A. Negative
B. Zero
C. Positive
D. Free
Positive
The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule is known as:
A. Plan Schedule Management.
B. Develop Project Charter.
C. Develop Schedule.
D. Plan Scope Management.
Plan Schedule Management
Which type of dependency is legally or contractually required or inherent in the nature of work and
often involves physical limitations?
A. Mandatory
B. Discretionary
C. Internal
D. External
Mandatory
Which item is an output of Plan Quality Management and an input to Perform Quality Assurance?
A. Organizational process updates
B. Quality metrics
C. Change requests
D. Quality control measurements
Quality metrics
The number of potential communication channels for a project with 5 stakeholders is:
A. 10.
B. 12.
C. 20.
D. 24.
10.
A temporary endeavor that creates a unique product or service is called a:
A. Project
B. Plan
C. Program
D. Portfolio
Project
Which document describes the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment?
A. Cost baseline
B. Service level agreement
C. Memorandum of understanding
D. Business case
Business case
During which process does a project manager review all prior information to ensure that all project work is completed and that the project has met its objectives?
A. Monitor and Control Project Work
B. Perform Quality Assurance
C. Close Project or Phase
D. Control Scope
Close Project or Phase
A technique used to determine the cause and degree of difference between baseline and actual
performance is:
A. Product analysis.
B. Variance analysis.
C. Document analysis,
D. Decomposition.
Variance analysis.
Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities?
A. Independent estimates
B. Market research
C. Analytical techniques
D. Bidder conferences
Market research
Which tool or technique is used in the Estimate Costs process?
A. Acquisition
B. Earned value management
C. Vendor bid analysis
D. Forecasting
Vendor bid analysis
An input to the Plan Stakeholder Management process is:
A. The project charter.
B. The stakeholder analysis.
C. A communication management plan.
D. A stakeholder register.
A stakeholder register.
The planned work contained in the lowest level of work breakdown structure (WBS) components is
known as:
A. Work packages.
B. Accepted deliverables.
C. The WBS dictionary.
D. The scope baseline.
Work packages.
A reward can only be effective if it is:
A. Given immediately after the project is completed.
B. Something that is tangible.
C. Formally given during project performance appraisals.
D. Satisfying a need valued by the individual.
Satisfying a need valued by the individual.
Identify Risks is part of which Process Group?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Closing
D. Initiating
Planning
Which grid shows which resources are tied to work packages?
A. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
B. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
C. Project assignment chart
D. Personnel assignment matrix
Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?
A. Strategic plan
B. Project charter
C. Project management plan
D. Service level agreement
Project management plan
In the Plan Stakeholder Management process, expert judgment is used to:
A. Provide information needed to plan appropriate ways to engage project stakeholders.
B. Ensure comprehensive identification and listing of new stakeholders.
C. Analyze the information needed to develop the project scope statement.
D. Decide the level of engagement of the stakeholders at each required stage.
Decide the level of engagement of the stakeholders at each required stage.
A regression line is used to estimate:
A. Whether or not a process is stable or has predictable performance.
B. How a change to the independent variable influences the value of the dependent variable.
C. The upper and lower specification limits on a control chart.
D. The central tendency, dispersion, and shape of a statistical distribution.
How a change to the independent variable influences the value of the dependent variable.
A project manager providing information to the right audience, in the right format, at the right time is an example of which type of communication?
A. Efficient
B. Effective
C. Push
D. Pull
Effective
Which process involves subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable portions?
A. Develop Schedule
B. Create VVBS
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Define Scope
Create VVBS
Which Knowledge Areas include processes from the Closing Process Group?
A. Project Quality Management and Project Time Management
B. Project Scope Management and Project Risk Management
C. Project Stakeholder Management and Project Cost Management
D. Project Integration Management and Project Procurement Management
Project Integration Management and Project Procurement Management
Configuration identification, configuration status accounting, and configuration verification and audit are all activities in which process?
A. Perform Quality Assurance
B. Direct and Manage Project Work
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
Perform Integrated Change Control
An output of the Direct and Manage Project Work process is:
A. Deliverables.
B. Activity lists.
C. A work breakdown structure.
D. A scope statement.
Deliverables.
Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process provides guidance on how
stakeholders can best be involved in a project?
A. Feedback analysis
B. Stakeholder analysis
C. Communication management plan
D. Stakeholder management plan
Stakeholder management plan
The ability to influence cost is greatest during which stages of the project?
A. Early
B. Middle
C. Late
D. Completion
Early
Which item is an input to the Define Activities process?
A. Schedule data
B. Activity list
C. Risk register
D. Scope baseline
Scope baseline
A project manager should document the escalation path for unresolved project risks in the:
A. Change control plan
B. Stakeholder register
C. Risk log
D. Communications management plan
Communications management plan
An output of the Validate Scope process is:
A. A requirements traceability matrix.
B. The scope management plan.
C. Work performance reports.
D. Change requests.
Change requests.
The review of a sellers progress toward achieving the goals of scope and quality within cost and
schedule compared to the contract is known as:
A. Work performance information.
B. Inspections and audits.
C. Payment systems.
D. Procurement performance reviews.
Procurement performance reviews.
Which Knowledge Area involves identifying the people, groups, or organizations that may be
impacted by or impact a project?
A. Project Risk Management
B. Project Human Resource Management
C. Project Scope Management
D. Project Stakeholder Management
Project Stakeholder Management
The definition of when and how often the risk management processes will be performed throughout the project life cycle is included in which risk management plan component?
A. Timing
B. Methodology
C. Risk categories
D. Budgeting
Timing
The only Process Group that comprises processes that typically occur from the beginning to the end of the project life cycle is:
A. Planning.
B. Executing,
C. Monitoring and Controlling.
D. Closing.
Monitoring and Controlling.
What is the schedule performance index (SPI) if the planned value (PV) is $100, the actual cost (AC)
is $150, and the earned value (EV) is $50?
A. 0.50
B. 0.67
C. 1.50
D. 2.00
0.50
An output of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is:
A. change requests
B. enterprise environmental factors
C. the stakeholder management plan
D. the change log
change requests
An input to the Plan Cost Management process is:
A. Cost estimates.
B. Resource calendars.
C. The project charter.
D. The risk register.
The project charter.
An input to the Manage Project Team process is:
A. Work performance reports.
B. Change requests.
C. Activity resource requirements.
D. Enterprise environmental factors.
Work performance reports.
A project in which the scope, time, and cost of delivery are determined as early as possible is
following a life cycle that is:
A. Adaptive
B. Predictive
C. Incremental
D. Iterative
Predictive
What is the estimate at completion (EAC) if the budget at completion (BAC) is $100, the actual cost
(AC) is $50, and the earned value (EV) is $25?
A. $50
B. $100
C. $125
D. $175
$125
An output of the Create WBS process is:
A. Scope baseline.
B. Change requests.
C. Accepted deliverables.
D. Variance analysis.
Scope baseline.
The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills, and reporting relationships and creating a staffing management plan is known as:
A. Develop Project Team.
B. Manage Project Team.
C. Acquire Project Team.
D. Plan Human Resource Management.
Plan Human Resource Management.
An input to the Plan Procurement Management process is:
A. Source selection criteria.
B. Market research.
C. A stakeholder register.
D. A records management system.
A stakeholder register.
Which Process Group and Knowledge Area include the Sequence Activities process?
A. Executing Process Group and Project Time Management
B. Executing Process Group and Project Cost Management
C. Planning Process Group and Project Time Management
D. Planning Process Group and Project Cost Management
Planning Process Group and Project Time Management
Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external parties related to the project?
A. Procurement documents
B. Communications plan
C. Project charter
D. Stakeholder register
Project charter
Which tool or technique allows a large number of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis?
A. Nominal group technique
B. Idea/mind mapping
C. Affinity diagram
D. Brainstorming
Affinity diagram
When alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is necessary, which tool or technique should be utilized?
A. Interactive communication
B. Claims administration
C. Conflict management
D. Performance reporting
Claims administration
The Plan Stakeholder Management process belongs to which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Initiating
C. Planning
D. Monitoring and Controlling
Planning
Which tool or technique is used in the Develop Project Management Plan process?
A. Pareto diagram
B. Performance reporting
C. SWOT analysis
D. Expert judgment
Expert judgment
Which tool or technique of the Define Activities process allows for work to exist at various levels of
detail depending on where it is in the project life cycle?
A. Historical relationships
B. Dependency determination
C. Bottom-up estimating
D. Rolling wave planning
Rolling wave planning
Which tool or technique is used in the Perform Integrated Change Control process?
A. Decomposition
B. Modeling techniques
C. Resource optimization
D. Meetings
Meetings
Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives?
A. Identify Risks
B. Control Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Plan Risk Responses
Plan Risk Responses
Market conditions and published commercial information are examples of which input to the
Estimate Costs process?
A. Scope baseline
B. Organizational process assets
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Risk register
Enterprise environmental factors
Which item is a formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline?
A. Change request
B. Requirements documentation
C. Scope baseline
D. Risk urgency assessment
Change request
Which stakeholder classification model groups stakeholders based on their level of authority and
their active involvement in the project?
A. Power/influence grid
B. Power/interest grid
C. Influence/impact grid
D. Salience model
Power/influence grid
A large portion of a projects budget is typically expended on the processes in which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Closing
Planning
A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has
finished is known as:
A. Start-to-start (SS).
B. Start-to-finish (SF).
C. Finish-to-start (FS).
D. Finish-to-finish (FF).
Finish-to-start (FS).
Which tool or technique is effective in a project in which the deliverable is not a service or result?
A. Inspection
B. Variance analysis
C. Decomposition
D. Product analysis
Product analysis
An input to Develop Project Charter is a/an:
A. Business case.
B. Activity list.
C. Project management plan.
D. Cost forecast.
Business case.
What are the Project Procurement Management processes?
A. Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, Integrate Procurements, and Close Procurements
B. Estimate Procurements, Integrate Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements
C. Plan Procurement Management, Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, and Close
Procurements
D. Plan Procurement Management, Perform Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate
Procurements
Plan Procurement Management, Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, and Close
Procurements
Risk categorization is a tool or technique used in which process?
A. Plan Risk Responses
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
A risk response strategy in which the project team shifts the impact of a threat, together with
ownership of the response, to a third party is called:
A. mitigate
B. accept
C. transfer
D. avoid
transfer
Change requests are processed for review and disposition according to which process?
A. Control Quality
B. Control Scope
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
Perform Integrated Change Control
A project manager is appointed full-time to a project and is given full-time administrative staff and
full-time project team members. This situation describes which type of organizational structure?
A. Projectized
B. Weak matrix
C. Functional
D. Balanced matrix
Projectized
Stakeholder satisfaction should be managed as a key project:
A. Benefit
B. Initiative
C. Objective
D. Process
Objective
A tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process is:
A. Expert judgment.
B. Performance reporting.
C. Bidder conferences.
D. Reserve analysis.
Performance reporting.
An input to Close Project or Phase is:
A. Accepted deliverables.
B. Final products or services.
C. Document updates.
D. Work performance information.
Accepted deliverables.
Updates to organizational process assets such as procurement files, deliverable acceptances, and
lessons learned documentation are typical outputs of which process?
A. Close Project or Phase
B. Conduct Procurements
C. Control Procurements
D. Close Procurements
Close Procurements
Which tool or technique is used to develop the human resource management plan?
A. Ground rules
B. Expert judgment
C. Team-building activities
D. Interpersonal skills
Expert judgment
Which process involves defining, preparing, and coordinating all subsidiary plans and integrating
them into a comprehensive plan?
A. Direct and Manage Project Work
B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Plan Quality Management
D. Monitor and Control Project Work
Develop Project Management Plan
Which group is formally chartered and responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying, or
rejecting changes to the project and for recording and communicating decisions?
A. Project team
B. Focus group
C. Change control board
D. Project stakeholders
Change control board
In a typical project, project managers spend most of their time:
A. Estimating
B. Scheduling
C. Controlling
D. Communicating
Communicating
The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is known as its risk:
A. Analysis
B. Appetite
C. Tolerance
D. Response
Tolerance
Which process is usually a rapid and cost-effective means of establishing priorities for Plan Risk
Responses?
A. Identify Risks
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
The purpose of developing a project scope management plan is to:
A. Manage the timely completion of the project.
B. Ensure that the project includes all of the work required.
C. Make sure the project will satisfy the needs for which it was begun.
D. Reduce the risk of negative events in the project.
Ensure that the project includes all of the work required.
Those who enter into a contractual agreement to provide services necessary for a project are:
A. buyers
B. sellers
C. business partners
D. product users
sellers
Which process is conducted from project inception through completion and is ultimately the
responsibility of the project manager?
A. Control Quality
B. Monitor and Control Project Work
C. Control Scope
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
Perform Integrated Change Control
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The total float for the project is how many days?
A. 5
B. 9
C. 12
D. 14
9
During which process does the project team receive bids and proposals?
A. Conduct Procurements
B. Plan Procurements
C. Estimate Costs
D. Control Budget
Conduct Procurements
Which item is a cost of conformance?
A. Training
B. Liabilities
C. Lost business
D. Scrap
Training
A tool and technique used in the Develop Project Charter process is:
A. change control tools
B. expert judgment
C. meetings
D. analytical techniques
expert judgment
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The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.
Based on the chart, what is the cost performance index (CPI) for Task 2?
A. 0.8
B. 1
C. 1.25
D. 1.8
1.25
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The following is a network diagram for a project.
What is the critical path for the project?
A. A-B-D-G
B. A-B-E-G
C. A-C-F-G
D. A-C-E-G
A-C-F-G
Which enterprise environmental factors may influence Plan Schedule Management?
A. Cultural views regarding time schedules and professional and ethical behaviors
B. Historical information and change control procedures
C. Risk control procedures and the probability and impact matrix
D. Resource availability and organizational culture and structure
Resource availability and organizational culture and structure
Requirements documentation will typically contain at least:
A. Stakeholder requirements, staffing requirements, and transition requirements.
B. Business requirements, the stakeholder register, and functional requirements.
C. Stakeholder impact, budget requirements, and communications requirements.
D. Business objectives, stakeholder impact, and functional requirements.
Business objectives, stakeholder impact, and functional requirements.
The Project Human Resource Management process that involves confirming human resource
availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is:
A. Acquire Project Team.
B. Plan Human Resource Management.
C. Manage Project Team.
D. Develop Project Team.
Acquire Project Team.
Which Project Time Management process includes bottom-up estimating as a tool or technique?
A. Estimate Activity Resources
B. Sequence Activities
C. Estimate Activity Durations
D. Develop Schedule
Estimate Activity Resources
A project team attempts to produce a deliverable and finds that they have neither the expertise nor the time to complete the deliverable in a timely manner.
This issue could have been avoided if they had created and followed a:
A. risk management plan
B. human resource management plan
C. scope management plan
D. procurement management plan
procurement management plan
An issue log is an input to which Project Human Resource Management process?
A. Manage Project Team
B. Acquire Project Team
C. Plan Human Resource Management
D. Develop Project Team
Manage Project Team
A risk that arises as a direct result of implementing a risk response is called a:
A. contingent risk
B. residual risk
C. potential risk
D. secondary risk
secondary risk
Retreating from an actual or potential conflict or postponing the issue to be better prepared or to be resolved by others describes which of the five general techniques for managing conflict?
A. Smooth/accommodate
B. Withdraw/avoid
C. Compromise/reconcile
D. Force/direct
Withdraw/avoid
An intentional activity to modify a nonconforming product or product component is called:
A. defect repair
B. work repair
C. corrective action
D. preventive action
defect repair
The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:
A. organizational process assets
B. a requirements traceability matrix
C. the project charter
D. the project management plan
the project management plan
A graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships is known as a:
A. Resource calendar.
B. Project organization chart.
C. Resource breakdown structure (RBS).
D. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM).
Project organization chart.
Which Process Group includes the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?
A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Initiating
Executing
Outputs of the Control Communications process include:
A. expert judgment and change requests.
B. work performance information and change requests.
C. organizational process asset updates and an issue log.
D. project management plan updates and an issue log.
work performance information and change requests.
Which schedule method allows the project team to place buffers on the project schedule path to
account for limited resources and project uncertainties?
A. Critical path method
B. Critical chain method
C. Resource leveling
D. Schedule network analysis
Critical chain method
Which type of dependency used in the Sequence Activities process is sometimes referred to as
preferred logic, preferential logic, or soft logic?
A. Internal
B. External
C. Discretionary
D. Mandatory
Discretionary
Impacts to other organizational areas, levels of service, and acceptance criteria are typical
components of which document?
A. Business case
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Requirements documentation
D. Risk register
Requirements documentation
Which is an enterprise environmental factor?
A. Marketplace conditions
B. Policies and procedures
C. Project files from previous projects
D. Lessons learned from previous projects
Marketplace conditions
Which key interpersonal skill of a project manager is defined as the strategy of sharing power and
relying on interpersonal skills to convince others to cooperate toward common goals?
A. Collaboration
B. Negotiation
C. Decision making
D. Influencing
Influencing
A disadvantage associated with virtual teams is that they:
A. Require communication technology that is not readily available.
B. Create difficulties when including people with disabilities.
C. Often cannot accommodate teams that work different hours or shifts.
D. Create the possibility for misunderstandings to arise.
Create the possibility for misunderstandings to arise.
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The following is a network diagram for a project.
The total float for the project is how many days?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 9
3
The most appropriate project life cycle model for an environment with a high level of change and
extensive stakeholder involvement in projects is:
A. adaptive
B. reflexive
C. predictive
D. iterative
adaptive
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Which type of organizational structure is displayed in the diagram provided?
A. Balanced matrix
B. Projectized
C. Strong matrix
D. Functional
Projectized
Projects that share common outcomes, collective capability, knowledge, or skills are often grouped into a:
A. portfolio
B. program
C. selection
D. sub portfolio
program
A benefit of using virtual teams in the Acquire Project Team process is the reduction of the:
A. cultural differences of team members
B. possibility of communication misunderstandings
C. costs associated with travel
D. costs associated with technology
costs associated with travel
Using parametric estimating, if an assigned resource is capable of producing 120 units per hour,
how many hours are required to produce 12,000 units?
A. 100
B. 120
C. 1,000
D. 1,200
100
Correlated and contextualized information on how closely the scope is being maintained relative to the scope baseline is contained within:
A. project documents updates.
B. project management plan updates.
C. change requests.
D. work performance information.
work performance information.
For a stakeholder with low interest and high power, the project manager should:
A. Monitor the stakeholder.
B. Manage the stakeholder closely.
C. Keep the stakeholder satisfied.
D. Keep the stakeholder informed.
Keep the stakeholder satisfied.
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The chart below is an example of a:
A. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
B. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
C. RACI chart
D. Requirements traceability matrix
Requirements traceability matrix
Which term describes an assessment of correctness?
A. Accuracy
B. Precision
C. Grade
D. Quality
Accuracy
At the completion of a project, a report is prepared that details the outcome of the research
conducted on a global trend during the project.
Which item did this project create?
A. Result
B. Product
C. Service
D. Improvement
Result
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The following is a network diagram for a project.
The critical path for the project is how many days in duration?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 17
17
Which document in the project management plan can be updated in the Plan Procurement
Management process?
A. Budget estimates
B. Risk matrix
C. Requirements documentation
D. Procurement documents
Requirements documentation
Which element does a project charter contain?
A. Management reserves
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Stakeholder list
D. Stakeholder register
Stakeholder list
Tools and techniques used in Direct and Manage Project Work include:
A. Process analysis and expert judgment
B. Analytical techniques and a project management information system
C. Performance reviews and meetings
D. Expert judgment and meetings
Expert judgment and meetings
Every project creates a unique product, service, or result that may be:
A. tangible
B. targeted
C. organized
D. variable
tangible
An output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process is:
A. Deliverables.
B. Validated changes.
C. The change log.
D. The requirements traceability matrix.
The change log.
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The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.
Based on the chart, what is the schedule performance index (5PI) for Task 4?
A. 0.83
B. 0.9
C. 1.11
D. 1.33
1.11
An example of a group decision-making technique is:
A. nominal group technique
B. majority
C. affinity diagram
D. multi-criteria decision analysis
majority
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The following is a network diagram for a project.
The shortest non-critical path for the project is how many days in duration?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 16
10
Which stakeholder approves a project’s result?
A. Customer
B. Sponsor
C. Seller
D. Functional manager
Customer
Which of the Perform Quality Assurance tools and techniques may enhance the creation of the work breakdown structure (VVBS) to give structure to the decomposition of the scope?
A. Activity network diagrams
B. Affinity diagrams
C. Matrix diagrams
D. Interrelationship digraphs
Affinity diagrams
Project managers who lead by example and follow through on the commitments they make demonstrate the key interpersonal skill of:
A. influencing
B. leadership
C. motivation
D. coaching
influencing
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The following is a network diagram for a project.
How many possible paths are identified for this project?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 6
D. 7
4
Which project risk listed in the table below is most likely to occur?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
2
Stakeholder communication requirements should be included as a component of:
A. enterprise environmental factors
B. organizational process assets
C. the project management plan
D. the stakeholder register
the project management plan
A project team member agrees to change a project deliverable after a conversation with an external
stakeholder. It is later discovered that the change has had an adverse effect on another deliverable. This could have been avoided if the project team had implemented:
A. Quality assurance.
B. A stakeholder management plan.
C. Project team building.
D. Integrated change control.
Integrated change control.
Which quality tool may prove useful in understanding and estimating the cost of quality in a
process?
A. Checksheets
B. Histograms
C. Flowcharts
D. Control charts
Flowcharts
Power, urgency, and legitimacy are attributes of which stakeholder classification model?
A. Salience
B. Influence/impact
C. Power/interest
D. Power/influence
Salience
Organizational process assets, a lessons-learned database, and historical information are all inputs to which process?
A. Plan Cost Management
B. Plan Scope Management
C. Plan Stakeholder Management
D. Plan Schedule Management
Plan Stakeholder Management
A stakeholder expresses a need not known to the project manager.
The project manager most likely missed a step in which stakeholder management process?
A. Plan Stakeholder Management
B. Identify Stakeholders
C. Manage Stakeholder Engagement
D. Control Stakeholder Engagement
Plan Stakeholder Management
High-level project risks are included in which document?
A. Business case
B. Risk breakdown structure
C. Project charter
D. Risk register
Project charter
When closing a project or phase, part of the process may require the use of which type of analysis?
A. Reserve analysis
B. Regression analysis
C. Document analysis
D. Product analysis
Regression analysis
Grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority and their level of concern regarding
project outcomes describes which classification model for stakeholder analysis?
A. Influence/impact grid
B. Power/influence grid
C. Power/interest grid
D. Salience model
Power/interest grid
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The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.
Based on the chart, what is the schedule variance (SV) for Task 8?
A. -2,000
B. -1,000
C. 1,000
D. 2,000
-1,000
An input to the Perform Integrated Change Control process is:
A. expert judgment
B. seller proposals
C. the project charter
D. the project management plan
the project management plan
Which Define Activities tool or technique is used for dividing and subdividing the project scope and
project deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts?
A. Decomposition
B. Inspection
C. Project analysis
D. Document analysis
Decomposition
Which quality tool incorporates the upper and lower specification limits allowed within an
agreement?
A. Control chart
B. Flowchart
C. Checksheet
D. Pareto diagram
Control chart
In complex projects/ initiating processes should be completed:
A. Within a work package.
B. In each phase of the project.
C. To estimate schedule constraints.
D. To estimate resource allocations.
In each phase of the project.
A project requires a component with well-understood specifications. Performance targets are established at the outset, and the final contract price is determined after completion of all work based on the seller’s performance. The most appropriate agreement with the supplier is:
A. Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF).
B. Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF).
C. Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF).
D. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment (FP-EPA).
Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF).
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The following is a network diagram for a project.
The free float for Activity E is how many days?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 8
5
A complete set of concepts, terms, and activities that make up an area of specialization is known as:
A. a Knowledge Area
B. a Process Group
C. program management
D. portfolio management
a Knowledge Area
Which type of probability distribution is used to represent uncertain events such as the outcome of a test or a possible scenario in a decision tree?
A. Uniform
B. Continuous
C. Discrete
D. Linear
Discrete
Which action is included in the Control Costs process?
A. Identify how the project costs will be planned, structured, and controlled
B. Determine policies, objectives, and responsibilities to satisfy stakeholder needs
C. Develop an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities
D. Monitor cost performance to isolate and understand variances from the approved cost baseline
Monitor cost performance to isolate and understand variances from the approved cost baseline
A project manager who communicates to the project team though email is using which type of communication?
A. Formal
B. Informal
C. Horizontal
D. Unofficial
Informal
The purpose of the Project Communications Management Knowledge Area is to:
A. Monitor and control communications throughout the entire project life cycle.
B. Maintain an optimal flow of information among all project participants.
C. Develop an appropriate approach for project communications.
D. Ensure timely and appropriate collection of project information.
Ensure timely and appropriate collection of project information.
Variance and trend analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?
A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
C. Control Risks
D. Plan Risk Responses
Control Risks
When painting a bedroom, preparing the walls can be done while the paint is being chosen.
This is an example of a:
A. lead
B. lag
C. mandatory dependency
D. internal dependency
lead
While processes in the Planning Process Group seek to collect feedback and define project
documents to guide project work, organizational procedures dictate when the project planning:
A. ends.
B. begins.
C. delays.
D. deviates.
ends.
Perform Integrated Change Control is the process of:
A. Reviewing, approving, and managing all change requests
B. Facilitating change management, manuals, or automation tools
C. Comparing actual results with planned results in order to expand or change a project
D. Documenting changes according to the change control system by the change control board
Reviewing, approving, and managing all change requests
Specification of both the deliverables and the processes is the focus of:
A. Change control
B. Configuration control
C. Project monitoring and control
D. Issue control
Configuration control
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The following is a network diagram for a project.
The free float for Activity H is how many days?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 10
D. 11
4
When the business objectives of an organization change, project goals need to be:
A. realigned.
B. performed.
C. improved.
D. controlled.
realigned.
Which items are an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?
A. Work performance reports
B. Accepted deliverables
C. Project management plan updates
D. Organizational process assets
Project management plan updates
Which tools or techniques are used during the Close Project or Phase process?
A. Reserve analysis and expert judgment
B. Facilitation techniques and meetings
C. Expert judgment and analytical techniques
D. Performance reviews and meetings
Expert judgment and analytical techniques
Which basic quality tool explains a change in the dependent variable in relationship to a change
observed in the corresponding independent variable?
A. Cause-and-effect diagram
B. Histogram
C. Control chart
D. Scatter diagram
Scatter diagram
Project Scope Management is primarily concerned with:
A. Developing a detailed description of the project and product.
B. Determining how requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed.
C. Defining and controlling what is and is not included in the project.
D. Formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.
Defining and controlling what is and is not included in the project.
A projects purpose or justification, measurable project objectives and related success criteria, a
summary milestone schedule, and a summary budget are all components of which document?
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Requirements document
C. Project charter
D. Project management plan
Project charter
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The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.
Based on the chart, what is the cost variance (CV) for Task 6?
A. -2,000
B. 0
C. 1,000
D. 2,000
2,000
Which Control Stakeholder Engagement tool or technique allows the project manager to consolidate and facilitate distribution of reports?
A. Information management systems
B. Work performance reports
C. Stakeholder analysis
D. Data gathering and representation
Information management systems
The degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on in anticipation of a reward is known as its risk:
A. management
B. response
C. tolerance
D. appetite
appetite
Progressively elaborating high-level information into detailed plans is performed by the:
A. project management office
B. portfolio manager
C. program manager
D. project manager
project manager
The zero duration of milestones in project planning occurs because milestones:
A. Are unpredictable and challenge the Plan Schedule Management process.
B. Occur at random times in the project plans.
C. Represent a moment in time such as a significant project point or event.
D. Represent both significant and insignificant points in the project and are difficult to anticipate.
Represent a moment in time such as a significant project point or event.
Job satisfaction, challenging work, and sufficient financial compensation are values related to which interpersonal skill?
A. Influencing
B. Motivation
C. Negotiation
D. Trust building
Motivation
The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:
A. organizational process assets
B. a requirements traceability matrix
C. the project charter
D. the project management plan
the project management plan
Which Perform Quality Assurance tool or technique is used to identify a problem, discover the
underlying causes that lead to it, and develop preventative actions?
A. Inspection
B. Quality audits
C. Design of experiments
D. Root cause analysis
Root cause analysis
Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique of which Project Cost Management process?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Control Costs
C. Plan Cost Management
D. Determine Budget
Determine Budget
In project management, a temporary project can be:
A. Completed without planning
B. A routine business process
C. Long in duration
D. Ongoing to produce goods
Long in duration
The process of defining how the project scope will be validated and controlled is known as:
A. Define Scope.
B. Develop Project Management Plan.
C. Plan Scope Management.
D. Plan Quality Management.
Plan Scope Management.
Which project document is updated in the Control Stakeholder Engagement process?
A. Project reports
B. Issue log
C. Lessons learned documentation
D. Work performance information
Issue log
Activity cost estimates and the project schedule are inputs to which Project Cost Management
process?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Control Costs
C. Plan Cost Management
D. Determine Budget
Determine Budget
A project manager should communicate to stakeholders about resolved project issues by updating the:
A. project records
B. project reports
C. stakeholder notifications
D. stakeholder register
project records
Stakeholders can be identified in later stages of the project because the Identify Stakeholders
process should be:
A. Continuous
B. Discrete
C. Regulated
D. Arbitrary
Continuous
Skills necessary for project management such as motivating to provide encouragement; listening actively; persuading a team to perform an action; and summarizing, recapping, and identifying next steps
are known as:
A. organizational skills
B. technical skills
C. communication skills
D. hard skills
communication skills
An input to the Control Quality process is:
A. Activity attributes
B. Quality control measurements
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Deliverables
Deliverables
Which output of Project Cost Management consists of quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to complete project work?
A. Activity cost estimates
B. Earned value management
C. Cost management plan
D. Cost baseline
Activity cost estimates
Which change request is an intentional activity that realigns the performance of the project work with the project management plan?
A. Update
B. Preventive action
C. Defect repair
D. Corrective action
Corrective action
At the start of a typical project life cycle, costs are:
A. low, peak as work is carried out, and drop as the project nears the end.
B. low, become steady as work is carried out, and increase as the project nears the end.
C. high, drop as work is carried out, and increase as the project nears the end.
D. high, become low as work is carried out, and drop as the project nears the end.
low, peak as work is carried out, and drop as the project nears the end.
n which phase of team building activities do team members begin to work together and adjust their
work habits and behavior to support the team?
A. Performing
B. Storming
C. Norming
D. Forming
Norming
Which items are components of a project management plan?
A. Change management plan, process improvement plan, and scope management plan
B. Agreements, procurement management plan, and work performance information
C. Schedule management plan, project schedule, and resource calendars
D. Scope baseline, project statement of work, and requirements traceability matrix
Change management plan, process improvement plan, and scope management plan
Project deliverables that have been completed and checked for correctness through the Control
Quality process are known as:
A. Verified deliverables.
B. Validated deliverables.
C. Acceptance criteria.
D. Activity resource requirements.
Verified deliverables.
In the Plan Procurement Management process, which source selection criteria analyzes if the seller’s proposed technical methodologies, techniques, solutions, and services meet the procurement documents requirements?
A. Technical approach
B. Technical capability
C. Business size and type
D. Production capacity and interest
Technical approach
The risk response strategy in which the project team acts to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact of a risk is known as:
A. exploit
B. avoid
C. mitigate
D. share
mitigate
Which process involves determining, documenting, and managing stakeholders’ needs and
requirements to meet project objectives?
A. Collect Requirements
B. Plan Scope Management
C. Define Scope
D. Define Activities
Collect Requirements
Which tool or technique is required in order to determine the project budget?
A. Cost of quality
B. Historical relationships
C. Project management software
D. Forecasting
Historical relationships
The primary benefit of the Plan Schedule Management process is that it:
A. provides guidance to identify time or schedule challenges within the project.
B. tightly links processes to create a seamless project schedule.
C. guides how the project schedule will be managed throughout the project.
D. creates an overview of all activities broken down into manageable subsections.
guides how the project schedule will be managed throughout the project.
Success is measured by benefits realization for a:
A. strategic plan
B. project
C. portfolio
D. program
portfolio
The process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract is called:
A. Close Procurements.
B. Control Procurements.
C. Plan Procurements.
D. Conduct Procurements.
Conduct Procurements.
Through whom do project managers accomplish work?
A. Consultants and stakeholders
B. Stakeholders and functional managers
C. Project team members and consultants
D. Project team members and stakeholders
Project team members and stakeholders
Plan Communications Management develops an approach and plan for project communications based on stakeholders’ needs and requirements and:
A. Available organizational assets
B. Project staff assignments
C. Interpersonal skills
D. Enterprise environmental factors
Available organizational assets
Which process involves the creation of a document that provides the project manager with the authority to apply resources to a project?
A. Define Activities
B. Direct and Manage Project Work
C. Develop Project Management Plan
D. Develop Project Charter
Develop Project Charter
Which tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process can be conducted during the
execution of the project to verify compliance with deliverables?
A. Procurement documents
B. Inspection and audits
C. Estimate budget
D. Risk register
Inspection and audits
Project Stakeholder Management focuses on:
A. project staff assignments
B. project tea m acquisition
C. managing conflicting interests
D. communication methods
managing conflicting interests
The lowest level normally depicted in a work breakdown structure (VVBS) is called a/an:
A. work package
B. deliverable
C. milestone
D. activity
work package
In the Define Activities process, the schedule management plan is used to:
A. Capture the lessons learned from other projects for comparison.
B. Contain the standard activity list.
C. Document and support the project change requests.
D. Prescribe the level of detail needed to manage the work.
Prescribe the level of detail needed to manage the work.
One of the key benefits of the Plan Human Resource Management process is that it:
A. outlines team selection guidelines and team member responsibilities.
B. establishes project roles and responsibilities.
C. improves teamwork, interpersonal skills, and competencies.
D. provides an accurate appraisal of team member performance.
establishes project roles and responsibilities.
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The following is a network diagram for a project.
What is the critical path for the project?
A. A-B-C-F-G-I
B. A-B-C-F-H-I
C. A-D-E-F-G-I
D. A-D-E-F-H-I
A-B-C-F-G-I
Whose approval may be required for change requests after change control board (CCB)
approval?
A. Functional managers
B. Business partners
C. Customers or sponsors
D. Subject matter experts
Customers or sponsors
Which type of analysis is used to determine the cause and degree of difference between the
baseline and actual performance?
A. Schedule network analysis
B. Reserve analysis
C. Alternative analysis
D. Variance analysis
Variance analysis
A special type of bar chart used in sensitivity analysis for comparing the relative importance of the
variables is called a:
A. triangular distribution
B. tornado diagram
C. beta distribution
D. fishbone diagram
tornado diagram
Processes in the Initiating Process Group may be completed at the organizational level and be
outside of the project’s:
A. Level of control.
B. Communication channels.
C. Scope.
D. Strategic alignment.
Level of control
Analytical techniques are a tool and technique of which process in Project Procurement
Management?
A. Plan Procurement Management
B. Control Procurements
C. Conduct Procurements
D. Close Procurements
Conduct Procurements
The process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope as well as managing the
changes to the scope baseline is known as:
A. Validate Scope.
B. Plan Scope Management.
C. Control Scope.
D. Define Scope.
Control Scope.
Technical capability, past performance, and intellectual property rights are examples of:
A. performance measurement criteria
B. source selection criteria
C. product acceptance criteria
D. phase exit criteria
source selection criteria
Project management processes ensure the:
A. alignment with organizational strategy
B. efficient means to achieve the project objectives
C. performance of the project team
D. effective flow of the project throughout its life cycle
effective flow of the project throughout its life cycle
The component of the risk management plan that documents how risk activities will be recorded is called:
A. tracking
B. scoping
C. timing
D. defining
tracking
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Which type of graphic is displayed below?
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Context diagram
C. Control chart
D. Pareto diagram
Work breakdown structure
The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is called risk:
A. appetite
B. tolerance
C. threshold
D. management
tolerance
When a project is undertaken to reduce defects in a product or service, the objective of the project is to create a/an:
A. improvement
B. program
C. result
D. portfolio
improvement
Which output is the approved version of the time-phased project budget?
A. Resource calendar
B. Scope baseline
C. Trend analysis
D. Cost baseline
Cost baseline
An element of the modern quality management approach used to achieve compatibility with the
International Organization for Standardization (ISO) is known as:
A. Forecasting,
B. Brainstorming.
C. Historical databases.
D. Cost of quality.
Cost of quality.
A full-time project manager with low to moderate authority and part-time administrative staff is
working in an organizational structure with which type of matrix?
A. Strong
B. Weak
C. Managed
D. Balanced
Balanced
The component of the human resource management plan that includes ways in which team
members can obtain certifications that support their ability to benefit the project is known as:
A. recognition and rewards
B. compliance
C. staff acquisition
D. training needs
training needs
Completion of the product scope is measured against the product:
A. prototypes
B. requirements
C. analyses
D. benchmarks
requirements
The cost baseline and project funding requirements are outputs of which process in Project Cost
Management?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Control Costs
C. Plan Cost Management
D. Determine Budget
Determine Budget
The methodology that combines scope, schedule, and resource measurements to assess project
performance and progress is known as:
A. Earned value management.
B. Forecasting.
C. Critical chain methodology.
D. Critical path methodology.
Earned value management.
A project manager requesting industry groups and consultants to recommend project intervention is
relying on:
A. Communication models.
B. Stakeholder participation.
C. Expert judgment
D. Enterprise environmental factors.
Expert judgment
What is the risk rating if the probability of occurrence is 0.30 and the impact if it does occur is
moderate (0.20)?
A. 0.03
B. 0.06
C. 0.10
D. 0.50
0.06
Which Manage Communications tool or technique focuses on identifying and managing barriers?
A. Communication methods
B. Information technology
C. Communication models
D. Information management systems
Communication models
Which of the following is an output of the Monitor and Control Project Work process?
A. Change requests
B. Performance reports
C. Organizational process assets
D. Project management plan
Change requests
Which defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired?
A. Procurement management plan
B. Evaluation criteria
C. Work breakdown structure
D. Procurement statement of work
Procurement statement of work
Cost baseline is an output of which of the following processes?
A. Control Costs
B. Determine Budget
C. Estimate Costs
D. Estimate Activity Resources
Determine Budget
When is a Salience Model used?
A. In a work breakdown structure (WBS)
B. During quality assurance
C. In stakeholder analysis
D. During quality control (QC)
In stakeholder analysis
Projects can be divided into phases to provide better management control. Collectively, what are these phases known as?
A. Complete project phase
B. Project life
C. The project life cycle
D. Project cycle
The project life cycle
What is the probability of occurrence if the risk rating is 0.56 and the impact if the risk does occur is very high (0.80)?
A. 0.45
B. 0.56
C. 0.70
D. 1.36
0.70
Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of
changes as project time advances?
A. The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes increases.
B. The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes increases.
C. The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes decreases.
D. The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes decreases.
The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes increases.
The product scope description is used to:
A. Gain stakeholders’ support for the project.
B. Progressively elaborate the characteristics of the product, service, or result.
C. Describe the project in great detail.
D. Define the process and criteria for accepting a completed product, service, or result.
Progressively elaborate the characteristics of the product, service, or result.
Organizations perceive risks as:
A. events that will inevitably impact project and organizational objectives.
B. the effect of uncertainty on their project and organizational objectives.
C. events which could have a negative impact on project and organizational objectives.
D. the negative impact of undesired events on their project and organizational objectives.
the effect of uncertainty on their project and organizational objectives.
In an organization with a projectized organizational structure, who controls the project budget?
A. Functional manager
B. Project manager
C. Program manager
D. Project management office
Project manager
A collection of projects managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives is referred to as a:
A. plan
B. process
C. program
D. portfolio
portfolio
Perform Quality Control is accomplished by:
A. Identifying quality standards that are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy them.
B. Monitoring and recording the results of executing the quality activities to assess performance and recommend necessary changes.
C. Ensuring that the entire project team has been adequately trained in quality assurance processes.
D. Applying Monte Carlo, sampling, Pareto analysis, and benchmarking techniques to
ensure conformance to quality standards.
Monitoring and recording the results of executing the quality activities to assess performance and recommend necessary changes.
A change log for communications can be used to communicate to the appropriate stakeholders that
there are changes:
A. To the project management plan.
B. To the risk register.
C. In the scope verification processes.
D. And their impact to the project in terms of time, cost, and risk.
And their impact to the project in terms of time, cost, and risk.
At which point of the project is the uncertainty the highest and the risk of failing the greatest?
A. Final phase of the project
B. Start of the project
C. End of the project
D. Midpoint of the project
Start of the project
When does Monitor and Control Risks occur?
A. At project initiation
B. During work performance analysis
C. Throughout the life of the project
D. At project milestones
Throughout the life of the project
Work performance information and cost forecasts are outputs of which Project Cost Management
process?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Plan Cost Management
C. Determine Budget
D. Control Costs
Control Costs
What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?
A. Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)
B. Resource breakdown structure (RBS)
C. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
D. Project breakdown structure (PBS)
Resource breakdown structure (RBS)
Which schedule network analysis technique modifies the project schedule to account for limited
resources?
A. Human resource planning
B. Fast tracking
C. Critical chain method
D. Rolling wave planning
Critical chain method
What are the formal and informal policies, procedures, and guidelines that could impact how the project’s scope is managed?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Enterprise environmental factors
C. Project management processes
D. Project scope management plan
Organizational process assets
What is one of the objectives of Project Risk Management?
A. Decrease the probability and impact of an event on project objectives.
B. Distinguish between a project risk and a project issue so that a risk mitigation plan can be put in
place.
C. Increase the probability and impact of positive events.
D. Removal of project risk.
Increase the probability and impact of positive events.
Which of the seven basic quality tools is especially useful for gathering attributes data while
performing inspections to identify defects?
A. Histograms
B. Scatter diagrams
C. Flowcharts
D. Checksheets
Checksheets
An output of Control Schedule is:
A. A project schedule network diagram
B. A schedule management plan
C. Schedule data
D. Schedule forecasts
Schedule forecasts
Which enterprise environmental factors are considered during Estimate Costs?
A. Market conditions and published commercial information
B. Company structure and market conditions
C. Commercial information and company structure
D. Existing human resources and market conditions
Market conditions and published commercial information
Which group creativity technique asks a selected group of experts to answer questionnaires and
provide feedback regarding the responses from each round of requirements gathering?
A. The Delphi technique
B. Nominal group technique
C. Affinity diagram
D. Brainstorming
The Delphi technique
What is the function of a Project Management Office (PMO)?
A. To focus on the coordinated planning, prioritization, and execution of projects and subprojects that are tied to the parent organizations or the client’s overall business objectives.
B. To coordinate and manage the procurement of projects relevant to the parent organization’s business objectives and to administer the project charters accordingly.
C. To administer performance reviews for the project manager and the project team members and to handle any personnel and payroll issues.
D. To focus on the specified project objectives and to manage the scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the work packages.
To focus on the coordinated planning, prioritization, and execution of projects and subprojects that are tied to the parent organizations or the client’s overall business objectives.
Change requests are an output from which Project Integration Management process?
A. Direct and Manage Project Execution
B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Close Project
D. Develop Project Charter
Direct and Manage Project Execution
What cost control technique is used to compare actual project performance to planned or expected performance?
A. Cost aggregation
B. Trend analysis
C. Forecasting
D. Variance analysis
Variance analysis
The individual or group that provides resources and support for a project and is accountable for success is the:
A. sponsor
B. customer
C. business partners
D. functional managers
sponsor
As part of a mid-project evaluation, the project sponsor has asked for a forecast of the total project cost. What should be used to calculate the forecast?
A. BAC
B. EAC
C. ETC
D. WBS
EAC
The links between the processes in the Process Groups are often:
A. Intuitive
B. Iterative
C. Measured
D. Monitored
Iterative
What type of planning is used where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while work in the future is planned at a higher level?
A. Finish-to-start planning
B. Rolling wave planning
C. Short term planning
D. Dependency determination
Rolling wave planning
Project or phase closure guidelines or requirements, historical information, and the lessons learned knowledge base are examples of which input to the Close Project or Phase process?
A. Organizational process assets
B. A work breakdown structure
C. The project management plan
D. Enterprise environmental factors
Organizational process assets
The most commonly used type of precedence relationship in the precedence diagramming method
(PDM) is:
A. start-to-start (SS)
B. start-to-finish (SF)
C. finish-to-start (FS)
D. finish-to-finish (FF)
finish-to-start (FS)
Which schedule compression technique has phases or activities done in parallel that would normally have been done sequentially?
A. Crashing
B. Fast tracking
C. Leads and lags adjustment
D. Parallel task development
Fast tracking
Who selects the appropriate processes for a project?
A. Project stakeholders
B. Project sponsor and project stakeholder
C. Project manager and project team
D. Project manager and project sponsor
Project manager and project team
The process of identifying and documenting the specific actions to be performed to produce the
project deliverables is known as:
A. Define Activities.
B. Sequence Activities.
C. Define Scope.
D. Control Schedule.
Define Activities.
What type of reward can hurt team cohesiveness?
A. Sole-sum
B. Win-lose
C. Lose-win
D. Partial-sum
Win-lose
Which is an example of Administer Procurements?
A. Negotiating the contract
B. Authorizing contractor work
C. Developing the statement of work
D. Establishing evaluation criteria
Authorizing contractor work
Plan Risk Management is the process of defining how to:
A. Communicate identified risks to the project stakeholders.
B. Conduct risk management activities for a project.
C. Analyze the impact a specific risk may have on the project.
D. Address unexpected risks that may occur during a project.
Conduct risk management activities for a project.
The creation of an internet site to engage stakeholders on a project is an example of which type of
communication?
A. Push
B. Pull
C. Interactive
D. Iterative
Pull
What is the total float of the critical path?
A. Can be any number
B. Zero or positive
C. Zero or negative
D. Depends on the calendar
Zero or negative
Which type of manager is assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is
responsible for achieving the project objectives?
A. Program
B. Functional
C. Project
D. Portfolio
Project
Which process involves documenting the actions necessary to define, prepare, integrate, and coordinate all subsidiary plans?
A. Collect Requirements
B. Direct and Manage Project Execution
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Develop Project Management Plan
Develop Project Management Plan
Organizational planning impacts projects by means of project prioritization based on risk, funding, and an organizations:
A. Budget plan
B. Resource plan
C. Scope plan
D. Strategic plan
Strategic plan
Which of the following is contained within the communications management plan?
A. An organizational chart
B. Glossary of common terminology
C. Organizational process assets
D. Enterprise environmental factors
Glossary of common terminology
The Define Scope process is in which of the following Process Groups?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Executing
Planning
Which Knowledge Area is concerned with the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project information?
A. Project Integration Management
B. Project Communications Management
C. Project Information Management System (PIMS)
D. Project Scope Management
Project Communications Management
Which tools or techniques will a project manager use for Develop Project Team?
A. Negotiation
B. Roles and responsibilities
C. Recognition and rewards
D. Prizing and promoting
Recognition and rewards
Which technique is used in Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?
A. Sensitivity analysis
B. Probability and impact matrix
C. Risk data quality assessment
D. Risk categorization
Sensitivity analysis
Which component of the human resource management plan describes when and how project team members are acquired and how long they will be needed?
A. Resource breakdown structure
B. Staffing management plan
C. Project organizational chart
D. Scope management plan
Staffing management plan
Which organizational process assets update is performed during the Close Procurements process?
A. Procurement audit
B. Lessons learned
C. Performance reporting
D. Payment requests
Lessons learned
Information collected on the status of project activities being performed to accomplish the project work is known as what?
A. Project management information system
B. Work performance information
C. Work breakdown structure
D. Variance analysis
Work performance information
Which estimating technique uses the actual costs of previous similar projects as a basis for
estimating the costs of the current project?
A. Analogous
B. Parametric
C. Bottom-up
D. Top-down
Analogous
What is the difference between the critical path and the critical chain?
A. Scope changes
B. Resource limitations
C. Risk analysis
D. Quality audits
Resource limitations
An input of the Plan Procurement Management process is:
A. Make-or-buy decisions.
B. Activity cost estimates.
C. Seller proposals.
D. Procurement documents.
Activity cost estimates.
Which Process Group’s purpose is to track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of
the project; identify any areas in which changes to the plan are required; and initiate the corresponding
changes?
A. Monitoring and Controlling
B. Initiating
C. Planning
D. Executing
Monitoring and Controlling
The process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables is known as:
A. Validate Scope.
B. Close Project or Phase.
C. Control Quality.
D. Verify Scope.
Validate Scope.
What is the definition of Direct and Manage Project Execution?
A. Integrating all planned activities
B. Performing the activities included in the plan
C. Developing and maintaining the plan
D. Execution of deliverables
Performing the activities included in the plan
