Practice Test Flashcards
Which earned value management (EVM) metric is a measure of the cost efficiency of budgeted resources expressed as a ratio of earned value (EV) to actual cost (AC) and is considered a critical EVM metric?
A. Cost variance (CV)
B. Cost performance index (CPI)
C. Budget at completion (BAC)
D. Variance at completion (VAC)
Cost performance index (CPI)
Which type of contract gives both the seller and the buyer flexibility to deviate from performance with
financial incentives?
A. Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF)
B. Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)
C. Cost Pius Award Re (CPAF)
D. Time and Material (T&M)
Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)
Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?
A. Document analysis
B. Observations
C. Product analysis
D. Expert judgment
Expert judgment
The organization’s perceived balance between risk taking and risk avoidance is reflected in the risk:
A. Responses
B. Appetite
C. Tolerance
D. Attitude
Responses
Organizational theory is a tool used in which Project Human Resource Management process?
A. Manage Project Team
B. Acquire Project Team
C. Develop Project Team
D. Plan Human Resource Management
Plan Human Resource Management
Which Collect Requirements output links the product requirements to the deliverables that satisfy
them?
A. Requirements documentation
B. Requirements traceability matrix
C. Project management plan updates
D. Project documents updates
Requirements traceability matrix
The iterative and interactive nature of the Process Groups creates the need for the processes in which
Knowledge Area?
A. Project Communications Management
B. Project Integration Management
C. Project Risk Management
D. Project Scope Management
Project Integration Management
A strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis is a tool or technique used in
which process?
A. Identify Risks
B. Control Risks
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
Identify Risks
A project manager builds consensus and overcomes obstacles by employing which communication
technique?
A. Listening
B. Facilitation
C. Meeting management
D. Presentation
Facilitation
When should quality planning be performed?
A. While developing the project charter
B. In parallel with the other planning processes
C. As part of a detailed risk analysis
D. As a separate step from the other planning processes
In parallel with the other planning processes
Scope, schedule, and cost parameters are integrated in the:
A. Performance measurement baseline.
B. Analysis of project forecasts,
C. Summary of changes approved in a period,
D. Analysis of past performance.
Performance measurement baseline.
Units of measure, level of precision, level of accuracy, control thresholds, and rules of performance
measurement are examples of items that are established in the:
A. Cost management plan.
B. Work performance information.
C. Quality management plan.
D. Work breakdown structure.
Cost management plan.
The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action is known as:
A. Plan Risk Management.
B. Plan Risk Responses.
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.
Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.
Which risk management strategy seeks to eliminate the uncertainty associated with a particular
upside risk by ensuring that the opportunity is realized?
A. Enhance
B. Share
C. Exploit
D. Accept
Exploit
An output of the Develop Project Team process is:
A. Organizational process assets.
B. Enterprise environmental factors updates.
C. Project staff assignments.
D. Organizational charts and position descriptions.
Enterprise environmental factors updates.
When does the project team determine which dependencies are discretionary?
A. Before the Define Activities process
B. During the Define Activities process
C. Before the Sequence Activities process
D. During the Sequence Activities process
During the Sequence Activities process
Which cost is associated with nonconformance?
A. Liabilities
B. Inspections
C. Training
D. Equipment
Liabilities
An input used in developing the communications management plan is:
A. Communication models.
B. Enterprise environmental factors.
C. Organizational communications.
D. Organizational cultures and styles.
Enterprise environmental factors.
Status of deliverables, implementation status for change requests, and forecasted estimates to
complete are examples of:
A. Earned value management.
B. Enterprise environmental factors.
C. Organizational process assets.
D. Work performance information.
Work performance information.
An output of the Plan Quality Management process is:
A. A process improvement plan.
B. Quality control measurements.
C. Work performance information.
D. The project management plan.
A process improvement plan.
Processes in the Planning Process Group are typically carried out during which part of the project life cycle?
A. Only once, at the beginning
B. At the beginning and the end
C. Once during each phase
D. Repeatedly
Repeatedly
Regression analysis, failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), fault tree analysis (FTA), and trend
analysis are examples of which tool or technique?
A. Expert judgment
B. Forecasting methods
C. Earned value management
D. Analytical techniques
Analytical techniques
The Monitoring and Controlling Process Group includes processes that:
A. Establish the scope, objectives, and course of action of a project,
B. Define a new project or a new phase of an existing project.
C. Track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of a project.
D. Complete the work defined in the project management plan.
Track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of a project.
An effective technique for resolving conflict that incorporates multiple viewpoints from differing
perspectives to achieve consensus and commitment is:
A. smooth/accommodate.
B. force/direct.
C. collaborate/problem solve.
D. compromise/reconcile.
collaborate/problem solve.
In a project, total float measures the:
A. Ability to shuffle schedule activities to lessen the duration of the project.
B. Amount of time an activity can be extended or delayed without altering the project finish date.
C. Cost expended to restore order to the project schedule after crashing the schedule.
D. Estimate of the total resources needed for the project after performing a forward pass.
Amount of time an activity can be extended or delayed without altering the project finish date.
The Perform Integrated Change Control process occurs in which Process Group?
A. Initiating
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Planning
Monitoring and Controlling
Which process identifies whether the needs of a project can best be met by acquiring products,
services, or results outside of the organization?
A. Plan Procurement Management
B. Control Procurements
C. Collect Requirements
D. Plan Cost Management
Plan Procurement Management
Which Define Activities output extends the description of the activity by identifying the multiple
components associated with each activity?
A. Project document updates
B. Activity list
C. Activity attributes
D. Project calendars
Activity attributes
Which type of project management office (PMO) supplies templates, best practices, and training to project teams?
A. Supportive
B. Directive
C. Controlling
D. Instructive
Supportive
Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?
A. Control Scope
B. Define Scope
C. Plan Scope Management
D. Collect Requirements
Plan Scope Management
The iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project management plan as greater
amounts of information become available is known as:
A. Continuous improvement.
B. Predictive planning.
C. Progressive elaboration.
D. Quality assurance.
Progressive elaboration.
Typical outcomes of a project include:
A. Products, services, and improvements.
B. Products, programs, and services.
C. Improvements, portfolios, and services.
D. Improvements, processes, and products.
Products, services, and improvements.
Using values such as scope, cost, budget, and duration or measures of scale such as size, weight,
and complexity from a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the same parameter or
measurement for a current project describes which type of estimating?
A. Bottom-up
B. Parametric
C. Analogous
D. Three-point
Analogous
Which process involves monitoring the status of the project to update the project costs and managing
changes to the cost baseline?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Control Costs
C. Determine Budget
D. Plan Cost Management
Control Costs
Which process involves developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete
project activities?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Control Costs
C. Determine Budget
D. Plan Cost Management
Estimate Costs
The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Initiating
D. Planning
Executing
Reserve analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?
A. Plan Risk Management
B. Plan Risk Responses
C. Identify Risks
D. Control Risks
Control Risks
A method of obtaining early feedback on requirements by providing a working model of the expected product before actually building is known as:
A. Benchmarking.
B. Context diagrams.
C. Brainstorming.
D. Prototyping.
Prototyping.
Which input provides suppliers with a clear set of goals, requirements, and outcomes?
A. Procurement statement of work
B. Purchase order
C. Source selection criteria
D. Bidder conference
Procurement statement of work
Sending letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes to share information is an example of which type of communication?
A. Direct
B. Interactive
C. Pull
D. Push
Push
Which basic quality tool is most useful when gathering attributes data in an inspection to identify
defects?
A. Control charts
B. Pareto diagrams
C. Ishikavva diagrams
D. Checksheets
Checksheets
Which tool or technique is used to manage change requests and the resulting decisions?
A. Change control tools
B. Expert judgment
C. Delphi technique
D. Change log
Change control tools
Which tools or techniques are used in the Plan Schedule Management process?
A. Benchmarking, expert judgment, and analytical techniques
B. Statistical sampling, benchmarking, and meetings
C. Negotiations, pre-assignment, and multi-criteria decision analysis
D. Expert judgment, analytical techniques, and meetings
Expert judgment, analytical techniques, and meetings
Which process in Project Time Management includes reserve analysis as a tool or technique?
A. Estimate Activity Resources
B. Sequence Activities
C. Estimate Activity Durations
D. Develop Schedule
Estimate Activity Durations
The process of confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete
project activities is known as:
A. Plan Human Resource Management.
B. Acquire Project Team.
C. Manage Project Team.
D. Develop Project Team.
Acquire Project Team.
An input to the Identify Stakeholders process is:
A. The project management plan.
B. The stakeholder register.
C. Procurement documents.
D. Stakeholder analysis.
Procurement documents.
Which input to the Plan Risk Management process provides information on high-level risks?
A. Project charter
B. Enterprise environmental factors
C. Stakeholder register
D. Organizational process assets
Project charter
Which input may influence quality assurance work and should be monitored within the context of a
system for configuration management?
A. Work performance data
B. Project documents
C. Scope baseline
D. Requirements documentation
Project documents
Sensitivity analysis is typically displayed as a/an:
A. Decision tree diagram.
B. Tornado diagram.
C. Pareto diagram.
D. Ishikawa diagram.
Tornado diagram.
Lessons learned are created and project resources are released in which Process Group?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Closing
D. Initiating
Closing
In which Knowledge Area is the project charter developed?
A. Project Cost Management
B. Project Scope Management
C. Project Time Management
D. Project Integration Management
Project Integration Management
Which item is an example of personnel assessment?
A. Resource calendar
B. Tight matrix
C. Team-building activity
D. Focus group
Focus group
Payback period, return on investment, internal rate of return, discounted cash flow, and net present value are all examples of:
A. Expert judgment.
B. Analytical techniques.
C. Earned value management.
D. Group decision-making techniques.
Analytical techniques.
A project charter is an output of which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Initiating
D. Closing
Initiating
The basis of identification for current or potential problems to support later claims or new
procurements is provided by:
A. A risk urgency assessment.
B. The scope baseline.
C. Work performance information.
D. Procurement audits.
Work performance information.
Plan Schedule Management is a process in which Knowledge Area?
A. Project Scope Management
B. Project Human Resource Management
C. Project Integration Management
D. Project Time Management
Project Time Management
An input to Conduct Procurements is:
A. Independent estimates.
B. Selected sellers.
C. Seller proposals.
D. Resource calendars.
Seller proposals.
Which type of dependency is established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or some unusual aspect of the project in which a specific sequence is desired, even
though there may be other acceptable sequences?
A. External
B. Internal
C. Mandatory
D. Discretionary
Discretionary
Which Plan Schedule Management tool or technique may involve choosing strategic options to
estimate and schedule the project?
A. Facilitation techniques
B. Expert judgment
C. Analytical techniques
D. Variance analysis
Analytical techniques
Which tool or technique is used in validating the scope of a project?
A. Facilitated workshops
B. Interviews
C. Inspection
D. Meetings
Inspection
Inputs to the Plan Schedule Management process include:
A. Organizational process assets and the project charter.
B. Enterprise environmental factors and schedule tools.
C. Time tables and Pareto diagrams.
D. Activity attributes and resource calendars.
Organizational process assets and the project charter.
Which process numerically analyzes the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives?
A. Plan Risk Management
B. Plan Risk Responses
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
The process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities is known as:
A. Control Schedule.
B. Sequence Activities.
C. Define Activities.
D. Develop Schedule.
Sequence Activities.
Conditions that are not under the control of the project team that influence, direct, or constrain a
project are called:
A. Enterprise environmental factors
B. Work performance reports
C. Organizational process assets
D. Context diagrams
Enterprise environmental factors
Which conflict resolution technique searches for solutions that bring some degree of satisfaction to all
parties in order to temporarily or partially resolve the conflict?
A. Force/direct
B. Withdraw/avoid
C. Compromise/reconcile
D. Collaborate/problem solve
Force/direct
The Identify Stakeholders process is found in which Process Group?
A. Initiating
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Planning
D. Executing
Initiating
An example of a group decision-ma king technique is:
A. Nominal group technique.
B. Majority.
C. Affinity diagram.
D. Multi-criteria decision analysis.
Majority.
Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a
typical project progresses?
A. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases.
B. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases,
C. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases.
D. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases.
Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases.
External organizations that have a special relationship with the enterprise and provide specialized
expertise are called:
A. Customers.
B. Business partners.
C. Sellers.
D. Functional managers.
Business partners.
Which Control Quality tool is also known as an arrow diagram?
A. Matrix diagram
B. Affinity diagram
C. Tree diagram
D. Activity network diagram
Activity network diagram
Which quality management and control tool is useful in visualizing parent-to-child relationships in any decomposition hierarchy that uses a systematic set of rules that define a nesting relationship?
A. Interrelationship digraphs
B. Tree diagram
C. Affinity diagram
D. Network diagram
Tree diagram
Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is used to document changes that
occur during the project?
A. Issue log
B. Change log
C. Expert judgment
D. Change requests
Change log
Which process determines the risks that may affect the project and documents their characteristics?
A. Control Risks
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Plan Risk Responses
D. Identify Risks
Identify Risks
The process of estimating the type and quantity of material, human resources, equipment, or supplies
required to perform each activity is known as:
A. Collect Requirements.
B. Conduct Procurements.
C. Estimate Activity Durations.
D. Estimate Activity Resources.
Estimate Activity Resources.
An element of the project scope statement is:
A. Acceptance criteria.
B. A stakeholder list.
C. A summary budget,
D. High-level risks.
Acceptance criteria.
Which input to Collect Requirements is used to identify stakeholders who can provide information on requirements?
A. Stakeholder register
B. Scope management plan
C. Stakeholder management plan
D. Project charter
Stakeholder register
A project manager managing a cross-cultural virtual project team across several time zones should be concerned about the impacts of which communication technology factor?
A. Urgent information need
B. Sensitivity of information
C. Project environment
D. Ease of use
Project environment
A key benefit of the Manage Communications process is that it enables:
A. The best use of communication methods.
B. An efficient and effective communication flow.
C. Project costs to be reduced.
D. The best use of communication technology.
An efficient and effective communication flow.
The business needs, assumptions, and constraints and the understanding of the customers needs and high-level requirements are documented in the:
A. Project management plan.
B. Project charter.
C. Work breakdown structure.
D. Stakeholder register.
Project charter.
The ways in which the roles and responsibilities, reporting relationships, and staffing management will be addressed and structured within a project is described in the:
A. Human resource management plan.
B. Activity resource requirements.
C. Personnel assessment tools,
D. Multi-criteria decision analysis.
Human resource management plan.
When a backward pass is calculated from a schedule constraint that is later than the early finish date that has been calculated during a forward pass calculation, this causes which type of total float?
A. Negative
B. Zero
C. Positive
D. Free
Positive
The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule is known as:
A. Plan Schedule Management.
B. Develop Project Charter.
C. Develop Schedule.
D. Plan Scope Management.
Plan Schedule Management
Which type of dependency is legally or contractually required or inherent in the nature of work and
often involves physical limitations?
A. Mandatory
B. Discretionary
C. Internal
D. External
Mandatory
Which item is an output of Plan Quality Management and an input to Perform Quality Assurance?
A. Organizational process updates
B. Quality metrics
C. Change requests
D. Quality control measurements
Quality metrics
The number of potential communication channels for a project with 5 stakeholders is:
A. 10.
B. 12.
C. 20.
D. 24.
10.
A temporary endeavor that creates a unique product or service is called a:
A. Project
B. Plan
C. Program
D. Portfolio
Project
Which document describes the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment?
A. Cost baseline
B. Service level agreement
C. Memorandum of understanding
D. Business case
Business case
During which process does a project manager review all prior information to ensure that all project work is completed and that the project has met its objectives?
A. Monitor and Control Project Work
B. Perform Quality Assurance
C. Close Project or Phase
D. Control Scope
Close Project or Phase
A technique used to determine the cause and degree of difference between baseline and actual
performance is:
A. Product analysis.
B. Variance analysis.
C. Document analysis,
D. Decomposition.
Variance analysis.
Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities?
A. Independent estimates
B. Market research
C. Analytical techniques
D. Bidder conferences
Market research
Which tool or technique is used in the Estimate Costs process?
A. Acquisition
B. Earned value management
C. Vendor bid analysis
D. Forecasting
Vendor bid analysis
An input to the Plan Stakeholder Management process is:
A. The project charter.
B. The stakeholder analysis.
C. A communication management plan.
D. A stakeholder register.
A stakeholder register.
The planned work contained in the lowest level of work breakdown structure (WBS) components is
known as:
A. Work packages.
B. Accepted deliverables.
C. The WBS dictionary.
D. The scope baseline.
Work packages.
A reward can only be effective if it is:
A. Given immediately after the project is completed.
B. Something that is tangible.
C. Formally given during project performance appraisals.
D. Satisfying a need valued by the individual.
Satisfying a need valued by the individual.
Identify Risks is part of which Process Group?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Closing
D. Initiating
Planning
Which grid shows which resources are tied to work packages?
A. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
B. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
C. Project assignment chart
D. Personnel assignment matrix
Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?
A. Strategic plan
B. Project charter
C. Project management plan
D. Service level agreement
Project management plan
In the Plan Stakeholder Management process, expert judgment is used to:
A. Provide information needed to plan appropriate ways to engage project stakeholders.
B. Ensure comprehensive identification and listing of new stakeholders.
C. Analyze the information needed to develop the project scope statement.
D. Decide the level of engagement of the stakeholders at each required stage.
Decide the level of engagement of the stakeholders at each required stage.
A regression line is used to estimate:
A. Whether or not a process is stable or has predictable performance.
B. How a change to the independent variable influences the value of the dependent variable.
C. The upper and lower specification limits on a control chart.
D. The central tendency, dispersion, and shape of a statistical distribution.
How a change to the independent variable influences the value of the dependent variable.
A project manager providing information to the right audience, in the right format, at the right time is an example of which type of communication?
A. Efficient
B. Effective
C. Push
D. Pull
Effective
Which process involves subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable portions?
A. Develop Schedule
B. Create VVBS
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Define Scope
Create VVBS
Which Knowledge Areas include processes from the Closing Process Group?
A. Project Quality Management and Project Time Management
B. Project Scope Management and Project Risk Management
C. Project Stakeholder Management and Project Cost Management
D. Project Integration Management and Project Procurement Management
Project Integration Management and Project Procurement Management
Configuration identification, configuration status accounting, and configuration verification and audit are all activities in which process?
A. Perform Quality Assurance
B. Direct and Manage Project Work
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
Perform Integrated Change Control
An output of the Direct and Manage Project Work process is:
A. Deliverables.
B. Activity lists.
C. A work breakdown structure.
D. A scope statement.
Deliverables.
Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process provides guidance on how
stakeholders can best be involved in a project?
A. Feedback analysis
B. Stakeholder analysis
C. Communication management plan
D. Stakeholder management plan
Stakeholder management plan
The ability to influence cost is greatest during which stages of the project?
A. Early
B. Middle
C. Late
D. Completion
Early
Which item is an input to the Define Activities process?
A. Schedule data
B. Activity list
C. Risk register
D. Scope baseline
Scope baseline
A project manager should document the escalation path for unresolved project risks in the:
A. Change control plan
B. Stakeholder register
C. Risk log
D. Communications management plan
Communications management plan
An output of the Validate Scope process is:
A. A requirements traceability matrix.
B. The scope management plan.
C. Work performance reports.
D. Change requests.
Change requests.
The review of a sellers progress toward achieving the goals of scope and quality within cost and
schedule compared to the contract is known as:
A. Work performance information.
B. Inspections and audits.
C. Payment systems.
D. Procurement performance reviews.
Procurement performance reviews.
Which Knowledge Area involves identifying the people, groups, or organizations that may be
impacted by or impact a project?
A. Project Risk Management
B. Project Human Resource Management
C. Project Scope Management
D. Project Stakeholder Management
Project Stakeholder Management
The definition of when and how often the risk management processes will be performed throughout the project life cycle is included in which risk management plan component?
A. Timing
B. Methodology
C. Risk categories
D. Budgeting
Timing
The only Process Group that comprises processes that typically occur from the beginning to the end of the project life cycle is:
A. Planning.
B. Executing,
C. Monitoring and Controlling.
D. Closing.
Monitoring and Controlling.
What is the schedule performance index (SPI) if the planned value (PV) is $100, the actual cost (AC)
is $150, and the earned value (EV) is $50?
A. 0.50
B. 0.67
C. 1.50
D. 2.00
0.50
An output of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is:
A. change requests
B. enterprise environmental factors
C. the stakeholder management plan
D. the change log
change requests
An input to the Plan Cost Management process is:
A. Cost estimates.
B. Resource calendars.
C. The project charter.
D. The risk register.
The project charter.
An input to the Manage Project Team process is:
A. Work performance reports.
B. Change requests.
C. Activity resource requirements.
D. Enterprise environmental factors.
Work performance reports.
A project in which the scope, time, and cost of delivery are determined as early as possible is
following a life cycle that is:
A. Adaptive
B. Predictive
C. Incremental
D. Iterative
Predictive
What is the estimate at completion (EAC) if the budget at completion (BAC) is $100, the actual cost
(AC) is $50, and the earned value (EV) is $25?
A. $50
B. $100
C. $125
D. $175
$125
An output of the Create WBS process is:
A. Scope baseline.
B. Change requests.
C. Accepted deliverables.
D. Variance analysis.
Scope baseline.
The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills, and reporting relationships and creating a staffing management plan is known as:
A. Develop Project Team.
B. Manage Project Team.
C. Acquire Project Team.
D. Plan Human Resource Management.
Plan Human Resource Management.
An input to the Plan Procurement Management process is:
A. Source selection criteria.
B. Market research.
C. A stakeholder register.
D. A records management system.
A stakeholder register.
Which Process Group and Knowledge Area include the Sequence Activities process?
A. Executing Process Group and Project Time Management
B. Executing Process Group and Project Cost Management
C. Planning Process Group and Project Time Management
D. Planning Process Group and Project Cost Management
Planning Process Group and Project Time Management
Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external parties related to the project?
A. Procurement documents
B. Communications plan
C. Project charter
D. Stakeholder register
Project charter
Which tool or technique allows a large number of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis?
A. Nominal group technique
B. Idea/mind mapping
C. Affinity diagram
D. Brainstorming
Affinity diagram
When alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is necessary, which tool or technique should be utilized?
A. Interactive communication
B. Claims administration
C. Conflict management
D. Performance reporting
Claims administration
The Plan Stakeholder Management process belongs to which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Initiating
C. Planning
D. Monitoring and Controlling
Planning
Which tool or technique is used in the Develop Project Management Plan process?
A. Pareto diagram
B. Performance reporting
C. SWOT analysis
D. Expert judgment
Expert judgment
Which tool or technique of the Define Activities process allows for work to exist at various levels of
detail depending on where it is in the project life cycle?
A. Historical relationships
B. Dependency determination
C. Bottom-up estimating
D. Rolling wave planning
Rolling wave planning
Which tool or technique is used in the Perform Integrated Change Control process?
A. Decomposition
B. Modeling techniques
C. Resource optimization
D. Meetings
Meetings
Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives?
A. Identify Risks
B. Control Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Plan Risk Responses
Plan Risk Responses
Market conditions and published commercial information are examples of which input to the
Estimate Costs process?
A. Scope baseline
B. Organizational process assets
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Risk register
Enterprise environmental factors
Which item is a formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline?
A. Change request
B. Requirements documentation
C. Scope baseline
D. Risk urgency assessment
Change request
Which stakeholder classification model groups stakeholders based on their level of authority and
their active involvement in the project?
A. Power/influence grid
B. Power/interest grid
C. Influence/impact grid
D. Salience model
Power/influence grid
A large portion of a projects budget is typically expended on the processes in which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Closing
Planning
A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has
finished is known as:
A. Start-to-start (SS).
B. Start-to-finish (SF).
C. Finish-to-start (FS).
D. Finish-to-finish (FF).
Finish-to-start (FS).
Which tool or technique is effective in a project in which the deliverable is not a service or result?
A. Inspection
B. Variance analysis
C. Decomposition
D. Product analysis
Product analysis
An input to Develop Project Charter is a/an:
A. Business case.
B. Activity list.
C. Project management plan.
D. Cost forecast.
Business case.
What are the Project Procurement Management processes?
A. Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, Integrate Procurements, and Close Procurements
B. Estimate Procurements, Integrate Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements
C. Plan Procurement Management, Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, and Close
Procurements
D. Plan Procurement Management, Perform Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate
Procurements
Plan Procurement Management, Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, and Close
Procurements
Risk categorization is a tool or technique used in which process?
A. Plan Risk Responses
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
A risk response strategy in which the project team shifts the impact of a threat, together with
ownership of the response, to a third party is called:
A. mitigate
B. accept
C. transfer
D. avoid
transfer
Change requests are processed for review and disposition according to which process?
A. Control Quality
B. Control Scope
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
Perform Integrated Change Control
A project manager is appointed full-time to a project and is given full-time administrative staff and
full-time project team members. This situation describes which type of organizational structure?
A. Projectized
B. Weak matrix
C. Functional
D. Balanced matrix
Projectized
Stakeholder satisfaction should be managed as a key project:
A. Benefit
B. Initiative
C. Objective
D. Process
Objective
A tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process is:
A. Expert judgment.
B. Performance reporting.
C. Bidder conferences.
D. Reserve analysis.
Performance reporting.
An input to Close Project or Phase is:
A. Accepted deliverables.
B. Final products or services.
C. Document updates.
D. Work performance information.
Accepted deliverables.
Updates to organizational process assets such as procurement files, deliverable acceptances, and
lessons learned documentation are typical outputs of which process?
A. Close Project or Phase
B. Conduct Procurements
C. Control Procurements
D. Close Procurements
Close Procurements
Which tool or technique is used to develop the human resource management plan?
A. Ground rules
B. Expert judgment
C. Team-building activities
D. Interpersonal skills
Expert judgment
Which process involves defining, preparing, and coordinating all subsidiary plans and integrating
them into a comprehensive plan?
A. Direct and Manage Project Work
B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Plan Quality Management
D. Monitor and Control Project Work
Develop Project Management Plan
Which group is formally chartered and responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying, or
rejecting changes to the project and for recording and communicating decisions?
A. Project team
B. Focus group
C. Change control board
D. Project stakeholders
Change control board
In a typical project, project managers spend most of their time:
A. Estimating
B. Scheduling
C. Controlling
D. Communicating
Communicating
The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is known as its risk:
A. Analysis
B. Appetite
C. Tolerance
D. Response
Tolerance
Which process is usually a rapid and cost-effective means of establishing priorities for Plan Risk
Responses?
A. Identify Risks
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
The purpose of developing a project scope management plan is to:
A. Manage the timely completion of the project.
B. Ensure that the project includes all of the work required.
C. Make sure the project will satisfy the needs for which it was begun.
D. Reduce the risk of negative events in the project.
Ensure that the project includes all of the work required.
Those who enter into a contractual agreement to provide services necessary for a project are:
A. buyers
B. sellers
C. business partners
D. product users
sellers
Which process is conducted from project inception through completion and is ultimately the
responsibility of the project manager?
A. Control Quality
B. Monitor and Control Project Work
C. Control Scope
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
Perform Integrated Change Control
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The total float for the project is how many days?
A. 5
B. 9
C. 12
D. 14
9
During which process does the project team receive bids and proposals?
A. Conduct Procurements
B. Plan Procurements
C. Estimate Costs
D. Control Budget
Conduct Procurements
Which item is a cost of conformance?
A. Training
B. Liabilities
C. Lost business
D. Scrap
Training
A tool and technique used in the Develop Project Charter process is:
A. change control tools
B. expert judgment
C. meetings
D. analytical techniques
expert judgment
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The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.
Based on the chart, what is the cost performance index (CPI) for Task 2?
A. 0.8
B. 1
C. 1.25
D. 1.8
1.25
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The following is a network diagram for a project.
What is the critical path for the project?
A. A-B-D-G
B. A-B-E-G
C. A-C-F-G
D. A-C-E-G
A-C-F-G
Which enterprise environmental factors may influence Plan Schedule Management?
A. Cultural views regarding time schedules and professional and ethical behaviors
B. Historical information and change control procedures
C. Risk control procedures and the probability and impact matrix
D. Resource availability and organizational culture and structure
Resource availability and organizational culture and structure
Requirements documentation will typically contain at least:
A. Stakeholder requirements, staffing requirements, and transition requirements.
B. Business requirements, the stakeholder register, and functional requirements.
C. Stakeholder impact, budget requirements, and communications requirements.
D. Business objectives, stakeholder impact, and functional requirements.
Business objectives, stakeholder impact, and functional requirements.
The Project Human Resource Management process that involves confirming human resource
availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is:
A. Acquire Project Team.
B. Plan Human Resource Management.
C. Manage Project Team.
D. Develop Project Team.
Acquire Project Team.
Which Project Time Management process includes bottom-up estimating as a tool or technique?
A. Estimate Activity Resources
B. Sequence Activities
C. Estimate Activity Durations
D. Develop Schedule
Estimate Activity Resources
A project team attempts to produce a deliverable and finds that they have neither the expertise nor the time to complete the deliverable in a timely manner.
This issue could have been avoided if they had created and followed a:
A. risk management plan
B. human resource management plan
C. scope management plan
D. procurement management plan
procurement management plan
An issue log is an input to which Project Human Resource Management process?
A. Manage Project Team
B. Acquire Project Team
C. Plan Human Resource Management
D. Develop Project Team
Manage Project Team
A risk that arises as a direct result of implementing a risk response is called a:
A. contingent risk
B. residual risk
C. potential risk
D. secondary risk
secondary risk
Retreating from an actual or potential conflict or postponing the issue to be better prepared or to be resolved by others describes which of the five general techniques for managing conflict?
A. Smooth/accommodate
B. Withdraw/avoid
C. Compromise/reconcile
D. Force/direct
Withdraw/avoid
An intentional activity to modify a nonconforming product or product component is called:
A. defect repair
B. work repair
C. corrective action
D. preventive action
defect repair
The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:
A. organizational process assets
B. a requirements traceability matrix
C. the project charter
D. the project management plan
the project management plan
A graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships is known as a:
A. Resource calendar.
B. Project organization chart.
C. Resource breakdown structure (RBS).
D. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM).
Project organization chart.
Which Process Group includes the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?
A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Initiating
Executing
Outputs of the Control Communications process include:
A. expert judgment and change requests.
B. work performance information and change requests.
C. organizational process asset updates and an issue log.
D. project management plan updates and an issue log.
work performance information and change requests.
Which schedule method allows the project team to place buffers on the project schedule path to
account for limited resources and project uncertainties?
A. Critical path method
B. Critical chain method
C. Resource leveling
D. Schedule network analysis
Critical chain method
Which type of dependency used in the Sequence Activities process is sometimes referred to as
preferred logic, preferential logic, or soft logic?
A. Internal
B. External
C. Discretionary
D. Mandatory
Discretionary
Impacts to other organizational areas, levels of service, and acceptance criteria are typical
components of which document?
A. Business case
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Requirements documentation
D. Risk register
Requirements documentation
Which is an enterprise environmental factor?
A. Marketplace conditions
B. Policies and procedures
C. Project files from previous projects
D. Lessons learned from previous projects
Marketplace conditions
Which key interpersonal skill of a project manager is defined as the strategy of sharing power and
relying on interpersonal skills to convince others to cooperate toward common goals?
A. Collaboration
B. Negotiation
C. Decision making
D. Influencing
Influencing
A disadvantage associated with virtual teams is that they:
A. Require communication technology that is not readily available.
B. Create difficulties when including people with disabilities.
C. Often cannot accommodate teams that work different hours or shifts.
D. Create the possibility for misunderstandings to arise.
Create the possibility for misunderstandings to arise.
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The following is a network diagram for a project.
The total float for the project is how many days?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 9
3
The most appropriate project life cycle model for an environment with a high level of change and
extensive stakeholder involvement in projects is:
A. adaptive
B. reflexive
C. predictive
D. iterative
adaptive
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Which type of organizational structure is displayed in the diagram provided?
A. Balanced matrix
B. Projectized
C. Strong matrix
D. Functional
Projectized
Projects that share common outcomes, collective capability, knowledge, or skills are often grouped into a:
A. portfolio
B. program
C. selection
D. sub portfolio
program
A benefit of using virtual teams in the Acquire Project Team process is the reduction of the:
A. cultural differences of team members
B. possibility of communication misunderstandings
C. costs associated with travel
D. costs associated with technology
costs associated with travel
Using parametric estimating, if an assigned resource is capable of producing 120 units per hour,
how many hours are required to produce 12,000 units?
A. 100
B. 120
C. 1,000
D. 1,200
100
Correlated and contextualized information on how closely the scope is being maintained relative to the scope baseline is contained within:
A. project documents updates.
B. project management plan updates.
C. change requests.
D. work performance information.
work performance information.
For a stakeholder with low interest and high power, the project manager should:
A. Monitor the stakeholder.
B. Manage the stakeholder closely.
C. Keep the stakeholder satisfied.
D. Keep the stakeholder informed.
Keep the stakeholder satisfied.
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The chart below is an example of a:
A. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
B. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
C. RACI chart
D. Requirements traceability matrix
Requirements traceability matrix
Which term describes an assessment of correctness?
A. Accuracy
B. Precision
C. Grade
D. Quality
Accuracy
At the completion of a project, a report is prepared that details the outcome of the research
conducted on a global trend during the project.
Which item did this project create?
A. Result
B. Product
C. Service
D. Improvement
Result
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The following is a network diagram for a project.
The critical path for the project is how many days in duration?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 17
17
Which document in the project management plan can be updated in the Plan Procurement
Management process?
A. Budget estimates
B. Risk matrix
C. Requirements documentation
D. Procurement documents
Requirements documentation
Which element does a project charter contain?
A. Management reserves
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Stakeholder list
D. Stakeholder register
Stakeholder list
Tools and techniques used in Direct and Manage Project Work include:
A. Process analysis and expert judgment
B. Analytical techniques and a project management information system
C. Performance reviews and meetings
D. Expert judgment and meetings
Expert judgment and meetings
Every project creates a unique product, service, or result that may be:
A. tangible
B. targeted
C. organized
D. variable
tangible
An output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process is:
A. Deliverables.
B. Validated changes.
C. The change log.
D. The requirements traceability matrix.
The change log.
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The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.
Based on the chart, what is the schedule performance index (5PI) for Task 4?
A. 0.83
B. 0.9
C. 1.11
D. 1.33
1.11
An example of a group decision-making technique is:
A. nominal group technique
B. majority
C. affinity diagram
D. multi-criteria decision analysis
majority
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The following is a network diagram for a project.
The shortest non-critical path for the project is how many days in duration?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 16
10
Which stakeholder approves a project’s result?
A. Customer
B. Sponsor
C. Seller
D. Functional manager
Customer
Which of the Perform Quality Assurance tools and techniques may enhance the creation of the work breakdown structure (VVBS) to give structure to the decomposition of the scope?
A. Activity network diagrams
B. Affinity diagrams
C. Matrix diagrams
D. Interrelationship digraphs
Affinity diagrams
Project managers who lead by example and follow through on the commitments they make demonstrate the key interpersonal skill of:
A. influencing
B. leadership
C. motivation
D. coaching
influencing
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The following is a network diagram for a project.
How many possible paths are identified for this project?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 6
D. 7
4
Which project risk listed in the table below is most likely to occur?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
2
Stakeholder communication requirements should be included as a component of:
A. enterprise environmental factors
B. organizational process assets
C. the project management plan
D. the stakeholder register
the project management plan
A project team member agrees to change a project deliverable after a conversation with an external
stakeholder. It is later discovered that the change has had an adverse effect on another deliverable. This could have been avoided if the project team had implemented:
A. Quality assurance.
B. A stakeholder management plan.
C. Project team building.
D. Integrated change control.
Integrated change control.
Which quality tool may prove useful in understanding and estimating the cost of quality in a
process?
A. Checksheets
B. Histograms
C. Flowcharts
D. Control charts
Flowcharts
Power, urgency, and legitimacy are attributes of which stakeholder classification model?
A. Salience
B. Influence/impact
C. Power/interest
D. Power/influence
Salience
Organizational process assets, a lessons-learned database, and historical information are all inputs to which process?
A. Plan Cost Management
B. Plan Scope Management
C. Plan Stakeholder Management
D. Plan Schedule Management
Plan Stakeholder Management
A stakeholder expresses a need not known to the project manager.
The project manager most likely missed a step in which stakeholder management process?
A. Plan Stakeholder Management
B. Identify Stakeholders
C. Manage Stakeholder Engagement
D. Control Stakeholder Engagement
Plan Stakeholder Management
High-level project risks are included in which document?
A. Business case
B. Risk breakdown structure
C. Project charter
D. Risk register
Project charter
When closing a project or phase, part of the process may require the use of which type of analysis?
A. Reserve analysis
B. Regression analysis
C. Document analysis
D. Product analysis
Regression analysis
Grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority and their level of concern regarding
project outcomes describes which classification model for stakeholder analysis?
A. Influence/impact grid
B. Power/influence grid
C. Power/interest grid
D. Salience model
Power/interest grid
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The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.
Based on the chart, what is the schedule variance (SV) for Task 8?
A. -2,000
B. -1,000
C. 1,000
D. 2,000
-1,000
An input to the Perform Integrated Change Control process is:
A. expert judgment
B. seller proposals
C. the project charter
D. the project management plan
the project management plan
Which Define Activities tool or technique is used for dividing and subdividing the project scope and
project deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts?
A. Decomposition
B. Inspection
C. Project analysis
D. Document analysis
Decomposition
Which quality tool incorporates the upper and lower specification limits allowed within an
agreement?
A. Control chart
B. Flowchart
C. Checksheet
D. Pareto diagram
Control chart
In complex projects/ initiating processes should be completed:
A. Within a work package.
B. In each phase of the project.
C. To estimate schedule constraints.
D. To estimate resource allocations.
In each phase of the project.
A project requires a component with well-understood specifications. Performance targets are established at the outset, and the final contract price is determined after completion of all work based on the seller’s performance. The most appropriate agreement with the supplier is:
A. Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF).
B. Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF).
C. Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF).
D. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment (FP-EPA).
Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF).
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The following is a network diagram for a project.
The free float for Activity E is how many days?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 8
5
A complete set of concepts, terms, and activities that make up an area of specialization is known as:
A. a Knowledge Area
B. a Process Group
C. program management
D. portfolio management
a Knowledge Area
Which type of probability distribution is used to represent uncertain events such as the outcome of a test or a possible scenario in a decision tree?
A. Uniform
B. Continuous
C. Discrete
D. Linear
Discrete
Which action is included in the Control Costs process?
A. Identify how the project costs will be planned, structured, and controlled
B. Determine policies, objectives, and responsibilities to satisfy stakeholder needs
C. Develop an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities
D. Monitor cost performance to isolate and understand variances from the approved cost baseline
Monitor cost performance to isolate and understand variances from the approved cost baseline
A project manager who communicates to the project team though email is using which type of communication?
A. Formal
B. Informal
C. Horizontal
D. Unofficial
Informal
The purpose of the Project Communications Management Knowledge Area is to:
A. Monitor and control communications throughout the entire project life cycle.
B. Maintain an optimal flow of information among all project participants.
C. Develop an appropriate approach for project communications.
D. Ensure timely and appropriate collection of project information.
Ensure timely and appropriate collection of project information.
Variance and trend analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?
A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
C. Control Risks
D. Plan Risk Responses
Control Risks
When painting a bedroom, preparing the walls can be done while the paint is being chosen.
This is an example of a:
A. lead
B. lag
C. mandatory dependency
D. internal dependency
lead
While processes in the Planning Process Group seek to collect feedback and define project
documents to guide project work, organizational procedures dictate when the project planning:
A. ends.
B. begins.
C. delays.
D. deviates.
ends.
Perform Integrated Change Control is the process of:
A. Reviewing, approving, and managing all change requests
B. Facilitating change management, manuals, or automation tools
C. Comparing actual results with planned results in order to expand or change a project
D. Documenting changes according to the change control system by the change control board
Reviewing, approving, and managing all change requests
Specification of both the deliverables and the processes is the focus of:
A. Change control
B. Configuration control
C. Project monitoring and control
D. Issue control
Configuration control
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The following is a network diagram for a project.
The free float for Activity H is how many days?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 10
D. 11
4
When the business objectives of an organization change, project goals need to be:
A. realigned.
B. performed.
C. improved.
D. controlled.
realigned.
Which items are an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?
A. Work performance reports
B. Accepted deliverables
C. Project management plan updates
D. Organizational process assets
Project management plan updates
Which tools or techniques are used during the Close Project or Phase process?
A. Reserve analysis and expert judgment
B. Facilitation techniques and meetings
C. Expert judgment and analytical techniques
D. Performance reviews and meetings
Expert judgment and analytical techniques
Which basic quality tool explains a change in the dependent variable in relationship to a change
observed in the corresponding independent variable?
A. Cause-and-effect diagram
B. Histogram
C. Control chart
D. Scatter diagram
Scatter diagram
Project Scope Management is primarily concerned with:
A. Developing a detailed description of the project and product.
B. Determining how requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed.
C. Defining and controlling what is and is not included in the project.
D. Formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.
Defining and controlling what is and is not included in the project.
A projects purpose or justification, measurable project objectives and related success criteria, a
summary milestone schedule, and a summary budget are all components of which document?
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Requirements document
C. Project charter
D. Project management plan
Project charter
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The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.
Based on the chart, what is the cost variance (CV) for Task 6?
A. -2,000
B. 0
C. 1,000
D. 2,000
2,000
Which Control Stakeholder Engagement tool or technique allows the project manager to consolidate and facilitate distribution of reports?
A. Information management systems
B. Work performance reports
C. Stakeholder analysis
D. Data gathering and representation
Information management systems
The degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on in anticipation of a reward is known as its risk:
A. management
B. response
C. tolerance
D. appetite
appetite
Progressively elaborating high-level information into detailed plans is performed by the:
A. project management office
B. portfolio manager
C. program manager
D. project manager
project manager
The zero duration of milestones in project planning occurs because milestones:
A. Are unpredictable and challenge the Plan Schedule Management process.
B. Occur at random times in the project plans.
C. Represent a moment in time such as a significant project point or event.
D. Represent both significant and insignificant points in the project and are difficult to anticipate.
Represent a moment in time such as a significant project point or event.
Job satisfaction, challenging work, and sufficient financial compensation are values related to which interpersonal skill?
A. Influencing
B. Motivation
C. Negotiation
D. Trust building
Motivation
The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:
A. organizational process assets
B. a requirements traceability matrix
C. the project charter
D. the project management plan
the project management plan
Which Perform Quality Assurance tool or technique is used to identify a problem, discover the
underlying causes that lead to it, and develop preventative actions?
A. Inspection
B. Quality audits
C. Design of experiments
D. Root cause analysis
Root cause analysis
Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique of which Project Cost Management process?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Control Costs
C. Plan Cost Management
D. Determine Budget
Determine Budget
In project management, a temporary project can be:
A. Completed without planning
B. A routine business process
C. Long in duration
D. Ongoing to produce goods
Long in duration
The process of defining how the project scope will be validated and controlled is known as:
A. Define Scope.
B. Develop Project Management Plan.
C. Plan Scope Management.
D. Plan Quality Management.
Plan Scope Management.
Which project document is updated in the Control Stakeholder Engagement process?
A. Project reports
B. Issue log
C. Lessons learned documentation
D. Work performance information
Issue log
Activity cost estimates and the project schedule are inputs to which Project Cost Management
process?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Control Costs
C. Plan Cost Management
D. Determine Budget
Determine Budget
A project manager should communicate to stakeholders about resolved project issues by updating the:
A. project records
B. project reports
C. stakeholder notifications
D. stakeholder register
project records
Stakeholders can be identified in later stages of the project because the Identify Stakeholders
process should be:
A. Continuous
B. Discrete
C. Regulated
D. Arbitrary
Continuous
Skills necessary for project management such as motivating to provide encouragement; listening actively; persuading a team to perform an action; and summarizing, recapping, and identifying next steps
are known as:
A. organizational skills
B. technical skills
C. communication skills
D. hard skills
communication skills
An input to the Control Quality process is:
A. Activity attributes
B. Quality control measurements
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Deliverables
Deliverables
Which output of Project Cost Management consists of quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to complete project work?
A. Activity cost estimates
B. Earned value management
C. Cost management plan
D. Cost baseline
Activity cost estimates
Which change request is an intentional activity that realigns the performance of the project work with the project management plan?
A. Update
B. Preventive action
C. Defect repair
D. Corrective action
Corrective action
At the start of a typical project life cycle, costs are:
A. low, peak as work is carried out, and drop as the project nears the end.
B. low, become steady as work is carried out, and increase as the project nears the end.
C. high, drop as work is carried out, and increase as the project nears the end.
D. high, become low as work is carried out, and drop as the project nears the end.
low, peak as work is carried out, and drop as the project nears the end.
n which phase of team building activities do team members begin to work together and adjust their
work habits and behavior to support the team?
A. Performing
B. Storming
C. Norming
D. Forming
Norming
Which items are components of a project management plan?
A. Change management plan, process improvement plan, and scope management plan
B. Agreements, procurement management plan, and work performance information
C. Schedule management plan, project schedule, and resource calendars
D. Scope baseline, project statement of work, and requirements traceability matrix
Change management plan, process improvement plan, and scope management plan
Project deliverables that have been completed and checked for correctness through the Control
Quality process are known as:
A. Verified deliverables.
B. Validated deliverables.
C. Acceptance criteria.
D. Activity resource requirements.
Verified deliverables.
In the Plan Procurement Management process, which source selection criteria analyzes if the seller’s proposed technical methodologies, techniques, solutions, and services meet the procurement documents requirements?
A. Technical approach
B. Technical capability
C. Business size and type
D. Production capacity and interest
Technical approach
The risk response strategy in which the project team acts to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact of a risk is known as:
A. exploit
B. avoid
C. mitigate
D. share
mitigate
Which process involves determining, documenting, and managing stakeholders’ needs and
requirements to meet project objectives?
A. Collect Requirements
B. Plan Scope Management
C. Define Scope
D. Define Activities
Collect Requirements
Which tool or technique is required in order to determine the project budget?
A. Cost of quality
B. Historical relationships
C. Project management software
D. Forecasting
Historical relationships
The primary benefit of the Plan Schedule Management process is that it:
A. provides guidance to identify time or schedule challenges within the project.
B. tightly links processes to create a seamless project schedule.
C. guides how the project schedule will be managed throughout the project.
D. creates an overview of all activities broken down into manageable subsections.
guides how the project schedule will be managed throughout the project.
Success is measured by benefits realization for a:
A. strategic plan
B. project
C. portfolio
D. program
portfolio
The process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract is called:
A. Close Procurements.
B. Control Procurements.
C. Plan Procurements.
D. Conduct Procurements.
Conduct Procurements.
Through whom do project managers accomplish work?
A. Consultants and stakeholders
B. Stakeholders and functional managers
C. Project team members and consultants
D. Project team members and stakeholders
Project team members and stakeholders
Plan Communications Management develops an approach and plan for project communications based on stakeholders’ needs and requirements and:
A. Available organizational assets
B. Project staff assignments
C. Interpersonal skills
D. Enterprise environmental factors
Available organizational assets
Which process involves the creation of a document that provides the project manager with the authority to apply resources to a project?
A. Define Activities
B. Direct and Manage Project Work
C. Develop Project Management Plan
D. Develop Project Charter
Develop Project Charter
Which tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process can be conducted during the
execution of the project to verify compliance with deliverables?
A. Procurement documents
B. Inspection and audits
C. Estimate budget
D. Risk register
Inspection and audits
Project Stakeholder Management focuses on:
A. project staff assignments
B. project tea m acquisition
C. managing conflicting interests
D. communication methods
managing conflicting interests
The lowest level normally depicted in a work breakdown structure (VVBS) is called a/an:
A. work package
B. deliverable
C. milestone
D. activity
work package
In the Define Activities process, the schedule management plan is used to:
A. Capture the lessons learned from other projects for comparison.
B. Contain the standard activity list.
C. Document and support the project change requests.
D. Prescribe the level of detail needed to manage the work.
Prescribe the level of detail needed to manage the work.
One of the key benefits of the Plan Human Resource Management process is that it:
A. outlines team selection guidelines and team member responsibilities.
B. establishes project roles and responsibilities.
C. improves teamwork, interpersonal skills, and competencies.
D. provides an accurate appraisal of team member performance.
establishes project roles and responsibilities.
Picture: Will Upload Soon
The following is a network diagram for a project.
What is the critical path for the project?
A. A-B-C-F-G-I
B. A-B-C-F-H-I
C. A-D-E-F-G-I
D. A-D-E-F-H-I
A-B-C-F-G-I
Whose approval may be required for change requests after change control board (CCB)
approval?
A. Functional managers
B. Business partners
C. Customers or sponsors
D. Subject matter experts
Customers or sponsors
Which type of analysis is used to determine the cause and degree of difference between the
baseline and actual performance?
A. Schedule network analysis
B. Reserve analysis
C. Alternative analysis
D. Variance analysis
Variance analysis
A special type of bar chart used in sensitivity analysis for comparing the relative importance of the
variables is called a:
A. triangular distribution
B. tornado diagram
C. beta distribution
D. fishbone diagram
tornado diagram
Processes in the Initiating Process Group may be completed at the organizational level and be
outside of the project’s:
A. Level of control.
B. Communication channels.
C. Scope.
D. Strategic alignment.
Level of control
Analytical techniques are a tool and technique of which process in Project Procurement
Management?
A. Plan Procurement Management
B. Control Procurements
C. Conduct Procurements
D. Close Procurements
Conduct Procurements
The process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope as well as managing the
changes to the scope baseline is known as:
A. Validate Scope.
B. Plan Scope Management.
C. Control Scope.
D. Define Scope.
Control Scope.
Technical capability, past performance, and intellectual property rights are examples of:
A. performance measurement criteria
B. source selection criteria
C. product acceptance criteria
D. phase exit criteria
source selection criteria
Project management processes ensure the:
A. alignment with organizational strategy
B. efficient means to achieve the project objectives
C. performance of the project team
D. effective flow of the project throughout its life cycle
effective flow of the project throughout its life cycle
The component of the risk management plan that documents how risk activities will be recorded is called:
A. tracking
B. scoping
C. timing
D. defining
tracking
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Which type of graphic is displayed below?
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Context diagram
C. Control chart
D. Pareto diagram
Work breakdown structure
The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is called risk:
A. appetite
B. tolerance
C. threshold
D. management
tolerance
When a project is undertaken to reduce defects in a product or service, the objective of the project is to create a/an:
A. improvement
B. program
C. result
D. portfolio
improvement
Which output is the approved version of the time-phased project budget?
A. Resource calendar
B. Scope baseline
C. Trend analysis
D. Cost baseline
Cost baseline
An element of the modern quality management approach used to achieve compatibility with the
International Organization for Standardization (ISO) is known as:
A. Forecasting,
B. Brainstorming.
C. Historical databases.
D. Cost of quality.
Cost of quality.
A full-time project manager with low to moderate authority and part-time administrative staff is
working in an organizational structure with which type of matrix?
A. Strong
B. Weak
C. Managed
D. Balanced
Balanced
The component of the human resource management plan that includes ways in which team
members can obtain certifications that support their ability to benefit the project is known as:
A. recognition and rewards
B. compliance
C. staff acquisition
D. training needs
training needs
Completion of the product scope is measured against the product:
A. prototypes
B. requirements
C. analyses
D. benchmarks
requirements
The cost baseline and project funding requirements are outputs of which process in Project Cost
Management?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Control Costs
C. Plan Cost Management
D. Determine Budget
Determine Budget
The methodology that combines scope, schedule, and resource measurements to assess project
performance and progress is known as:
A. Earned value management.
B. Forecasting.
C. Critical chain methodology.
D. Critical path methodology.
Earned value management.
A project manager requesting industry groups and consultants to recommend project intervention is
relying on:
A. Communication models.
B. Stakeholder participation.
C. Expert judgment
D. Enterprise environmental factors.
Expert judgment
What is the risk rating if the probability of occurrence is 0.30 and the impact if it does occur is
moderate (0.20)?
A. 0.03
B. 0.06
C. 0.10
D. 0.50
0.06
Which Manage Communications tool or technique focuses on identifying and managing barriers?
A. Communication methods
B. Information technology
C. Communication models
D. Information management systems
Communication models
Which of the following is an output of the Monitor and Control Project Work process?
A. Change requests
B. Performance reports
C. Organizational process assets
D. Project management plan
Change requests
Which defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired?
A. Procurement management plan
B. Evaluation criteria
C. Work breakdown structure
D. Procurement statement of work
Procurement statement of work
Cost baseline is an output of which of the following processes?
A. Control Costs
B. Determine Budget
C. Estimate Costs
D. Estimate Activity Resources
Determine Budget
When is a Salience Model used?
A. In a work breakdown structure (WBS)
B. During quality assurance
C. In stakeholder analysis
D. During quality control (QC)
In stakeholder analysis
Projects can be divided into phases to provide better management control. Collectively, what are these phases known as?
A. Complete project phase
B. Project life
C. The project life cycle
D. Project cycle
The project life cycle
What is the probability of occurrence if the risk rating is 0.56 and the impact if the risk does occur is very high (0.80)?
A. 0.45
B. 0.56
C. 0.70
D. 1.36
0.70
Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of
changes as project time advances?
A. The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes increases.
B. The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes increases.
C. The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes decreases.
D. The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes decreases.
The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes increases.
The product scope description is used to:
A. Gain stakeholders’ support for the project.
B. Progressively elaborate the characteristics of the product, service, or result.
C. Describe the project in great detail.
D. Define the process and criteria for accepting a completed product, service, or result.
Progressively elaborate the characteristics of the product, service, or result.
Organizations perceive risks as:
A. events that will inevitably impact project and organizational objectives.
B. the effect of uncertainty on their project and organizational objectives.
C. events which could have a negative impact on project and organizational objectives.
D. the negative impact of undesired events on their project and organizational objectives.
the effect of uncertainty on their project and organizational objectives.
In an organization with a projectized organizational structure, who controls the project budget?
A. Functional manager
B. Project manager
C. Program manager
D. Project management office
Project manager
A collection of projects managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives is referred to as a:
A. plan
B. process
C. program
D. portfolio
portfolio
Perform Quality Control is accomplished by:
A. Identifying quality standards that are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy them.
B. Monitoring and recording the results of executing the quality activities to assess performance and recommend necessary changes.
C. Ensuring that the entire project team has been adequately trained in quality assurance processes.
D. Applying Monte Carlo, sampling, Pareto analysis, and benchmarking techniques to
ensure conformance to quality standards.
Monitoring and recording the results of executing the quality activities to assess performance and recommend necessary changes.
A change log for communications can be used to communicate to the appropriate stakeholders that
there are changes:
A. To the project management plan.
B. To the risk register.
C. In the scope verification processes.
D. And their impact to the project in terms of time, cost, and risk.
And their impact to the project in terms of time, cost, and risk.
At which point of the project is the uncertainty the highest and the risk of failing the greatest?
A. Final phase of the project
B. Start of the project
C. End of the project
D. Midpoint of the project
Start of the project
When does Monitor and Control Risks occur?
A. At project initiation
B. During work performance analysis
C. Throughout the life of the project
D. At project milestones
Throughout the life of the project
Work performance information and cost forecasts are outputs of which Project Cost Management
process?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Plan Cost Management
C. Determine Budget
D. Control Costs
Control Costs
What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?
A. Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)
B. Resource breakdown structure (RBS)
C. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
D. Project breakdown structure (PBS)
Resource breakdown structure (RBS)
Which schedule network analysis technique modifies the project schedule to account for limited
resources?
A. Human resource planning
B. Fast tracking
C. Critical chain method
D. Rolling wave planning
Critical chain method
What are the formal and informal policies, procedures, and guidelines that could impact how the project’s scope is managed?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Enterprise environmental factors
C. Project management processes
D. Project scope management plan
Organizational process assets
What is one of the objectives of Project Risk Management?
A. Decrease the probability and impact of an event on project objectives.
B. Distinguish between a project risk and a project issue so that a risk mitigation plan can be put in
place.
C. Increase the probability and impact of positive events.
D. Removal of project risk.
Increase the probability and impact of positive events.
Which of the seven basic quality tools is especially useful for gathering attributes data while
performing inspections to identify defects?
A. Histograms
B. Scatter diagrams
C. Flowcharts
D. Checksheets
Checksheets
An output of Control Schedule is:
A. A project schedule network diagram
B. A schedule management plan
C. Schedule data
D. Schedule forecasts
Schedule forecasts
Which enterprise environmental factors are considered during Estimate Costs?
A. Market conditions and published commercial information
B. Company structure and market conditions
C. Commercial information and company structure
D. Existing human resources and market conditions
Market conditions and published commercial information
Which group creativity technique asks a selected group of experts to answer questionnaires and
provide feedback regarding the responses from each round of requirements gathering?
A. The Delphi technique
B. Nominal group technique
C. Affinity diagram
D. Brainstorming
The Delphi technique
What is the function of a Project Management Office (PMO)?
A. To focus on the coordinated planning, prioritization, and execution of projects and subprojects that are tied to the parent organizations or the client’s overall business objectives.
B. To coordinate and manage the procurement of projects relevant to the parent organization’s business objectives and to administer the project charters accordingly.
C. To administer performance reviews for the project manager and the project team members and to handle any personnel and payroll issues.
D. To focus on the specified project objectives and to manage the scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the work packages.
To focus on the coordinated planning, prioritization, and execution of projects and subprojects that are tied to the parent organizations or the client’s overall business objectives.
Change requests are an output from which Project Integration Management process?
A. Direct and Manage Project Execution
B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Close Project
D. Develop Project Charter
Direct and Manage Project Execution
What cost control technique is used to compare actual project performance to planned or expected performance?
A. Cost aggregation
B. Trend analysis
C. Forecasting
D. Variance analysis
Variance analysis
The individual or group that provides resources and support for a project and is accountable for success is the:
A. sponsor
B. customer
C. business partners
D. functional managers
sponsor
As part of a mid-project evaluation, the project sponsor has asked for a forecast of the total project cost. What should be used to calculate the forecast?
A. BAC
B. EAC
C. ETC
D. WBS
EAC
The links between the processes in the Process Groups are often:
A. Intuitive
B. Iterative
C. Measured
D. Monitored
Iterative
What type of planning is used where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while work in the future is planned at a higher level?
A. Finish-to-start planning
B. Rolling wave planning
C. Short term planning
D. Dependency determination
Rolling wave planning
Project or phase closure guidelines or requirements, historical information, and the lessons learned knowledge base are examples of which input to the Close Project or Phase process?
A. Organizational process assets
B. A work breakdown structure
C. The project management plan
D. Enterprise environmental factors
Organizational process assets
The most commonly used type of precedence relationship in the precedence diagramming method
(PDM) is:
A. start-to-start (SS)
B. start-to-finish (SF)
C. finish-to-start (FS)
D. finish-to-finish (FF)
finish-to-start (FS)
Which schedule compression technique has phases or activities done in parallel that would normally have been done sequentially?
A. Crashing
B. Fast tracking
C. Leads and lags adjustment
D. Parallel task development
Fast tracking
Who selects the appropriate processes for a project?
A. Project stakeholders
B. Project sponsor and project stakeholder
C. Project manager and project team
D. Project manager and project sponsor
Project manager and project team
The process of identifying and documenting the specific actions to be performed to produce the
project deliverables is known as:
A. Define Activities.
B. Sequence Activities.
C. Define Scope.
D. Control Schedule.
Define Activities.
What type of reward can hurt team cohesiveness?
A. Sole-sum
B. Win-lose
C. Lose-win
D. Partial-sum
Win-lose
Which is an example of Administer Procurements?
A. Negotiating the contract
B. Authorizing contractor work
C. Developing the statement of work
D. Establishing evaluation criteria
Authorizing contractor work
Plan Risk Management is the process of defining how to:
A. Communicate identified risks to the project stakeholders.
B. Conduct risk management activities for a project.
C. Analyze the impact a specific risk may have on the project.
D. Address unexpected risks that may occur during a project.
Conduct risk management activities for a project.
The creation of an internet site to engage stakeholders on a project is an example of which type of
communication?
A. Push
B. Pull
C. Interactive
D. Iterative
Pull
What is the total float of the critical path?
A. Can be any number
B. Zero or positive
C. Zero or negative
D. Depends on the calendar
Zero or negative
Which type of manager is assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is
responsible for achieving the project objectives?
A. Program
B. Functional
C. Project
D. Portfolio
Project
Which process involves documenting the actions necessary to define, prepare, integrate, and coordinate all subsidiary plans?
A. Collect Requirements
B. Direct and Manage Project Execution
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Develop Project Management Plan
Develop Project Management Plan
Organizational planning impacts projects by means of project prioritization based on risk, funding, and an organizations:
A. Budget plan
B. Resource plan
C. Scope plan
D. Strategic plan
Strategic plan
Which of the following is contained within the communications management plan?
A. An organizational chart
B. Glossary of common terminology
C. Organizational process assets
D. Enterprise environmental factors
Glossary of common terminology
The Define Scope process is in which of the following Process Groups?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Executing
Planning
Which Knowledge Area is concerned with the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project information?
A. Project Integration Management
B. Project Communications Management
C. Project Information Management System (PIMS)
D. Project Scope Management
Project Communications Management
Which tools or techniques will a project manager use for Develop Project Team?
A. Negotiation
B. Roles and responsibilities
C. Recognition and rewards
D. Prizing and promoting
Recognition and rewards
Which technique is used in Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?
A. Sensitivity analysis
B. Probability and impact matrix
C. Risk data quality assessment
D. Risk categorization
Sensitivity analysis
Which component of the human resource management plan describes when and how project team members are acquired and how long they will be needed?
A. Resource breakdown structure
B. Staffing management plan
C. Project organizational chart
D. Scope management plan
Staffing management plan
Which organizational process assets update is performed during the Close Procurements process?
A. Procurement audit
B. Lessons learned
C. Performance reporting
D. Payment requests
Lessons learned
Information collected on the status of project activities being performed to accomplish the project work is known as what?
A. Project management information system
B. Work performance information
C. Work breakdown structure
D. Variance analysis
Work performance information
Which estimating technique uses the actual costs of previous similar projects as a basis for
estimating the costs of the current project?
A. Analogous
B. Parametric
C. Bottom-up
D. Top-down
Analogous
What is the difference between the critical path and the critical chain?
A. Scope changes
B. Resource limitations
C. Risk analysis
D. Quality audits
Resource limitations
An input of the Plan Procurement Management process is:
A. Make-or-buy decisions.
B. Activity cost estimates.
C. Seller proposals.
D. Procurement documents.
Activity cost estimates.
Which Process Group’s purpose is to track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of
the project; identify any areas in which changes to the plan are required; and initiate the corresponding
changes?
A. Monitoring and Controlling
B. Initiating
C. Planning
D. Executing
Monitoring and Controlling
The process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables is known as:
A. Validate Scope.
B. Close Project or Phase.
C. Control Quality.
D. Verify Scope.
Validate Scope.
What is the definition of Direct and Manage Project Execution?
A. Integrating all planned activities
B. Performing the activities included in the plan
C. Developing and maintaining the plan
D. Execution of deliverables
Performing the activities included in the plan
Which is one of the major outputs of Sequence Activities?
A. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
B. Work breakdown structure (WBS) update
C. Project schedule network diagram
D. Mandatory dependencies list
Project schedule network diagram
What is the name of the statistical method that helps identify which factors may influence specific variables of a product or process under development or in production?
A. Failure modes and effects analysis
B. Design of experiments
C. Quality checklist
D. Risk analysis
Design of experiments
Which Project Management Process Group includes Collect Requirements, Define Activities,
Sequence Activities, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, and Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?
A. Initiating
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Planning
D. Closing
Planning
Which of the following techniques is used during Control Scope?
A. Cost-benefit analysis
B. Variance analysis
C. Reserve analysis
D. Stakeholder analysis
Variance analysis
The CPI is .92, and the EV is US$172,500. What is the actual cost of the project?
A. US$158,700
B. US$172,500
C. US$187,500
D. US$245,600
$187,500
Which is a tool or technique used in Define Scope?
A. Templates, forms, and standards
B. Change requests
C. Product analysis
D. Project assumptions
Product analysis
Which of the following is an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Develop Project Charter process?
A. Organizational standard processes
B. Marketplace conditions
C. Historical information
D. Templates
Marketplace conditions
The formal and informal interaction with others in an organization industry, or professional environment is known as:
A. negotiation
B. organizational theory
C. meeting
D. networking
networking
What is a hierarchically organized depiction of the identified project risks arranged by risk category?
A. Risk register
B. Risk breakdown structure (RBS)
C. Risk management plan
D. Risk category
Risk breakdown structure (RBS)
Conflict should be best addressed in which manner?
A. Early, in private, using a direct, collaborative approach
B. Early, in public, using an indirect, collaborative approach
C. Early, in private, using an indirect, cooperative approach
D. As late as possible, in public, using a direct, confrontational approach
Early, in private, using a direct, collaborative approach
Which action should a project manager take to ensure that the project management plan is effective and current?
A. Conduct periodic project performance reviews.
B. Identify quality project standards.
C. Follow ISO 9000 quality standards.
D. Complete the quality control checklist.
Conduct periodic project performance reviews.
What is the name of a graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships?
A. Role dependencies chart
B. Reporting flow diagram
C. Project organization chart
D. Project team structure diagram
Project organization chart
Which process documents the business needs of a project and the new product, service, or other
result that is intended to satisfy those requirements?
A. Develop Project Management Plan
B. Develop Project Charter
C. Direct and Manage Project Execution
D. Collect Requirements
Develop Project Charter
Which of the following is TRUE about most project life cycles?
A. Staffing level is highest at the start.
B. The stakeholders’ influence is highest at the start.
C. The level of uncertainty is lowest at the start.
D. The cost of changes is highest at the start.
The stakeholders’ influence is highest at the start.
The scope of a project cannot be defined without some basic understanding of how to create the specified:
A. objectives
B. schedule
C. product
D. approach
product
Which document includes the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints?
A. Project charter
B. Project scope statement
C. Scope management plan
D. Project document updates
Project scope statement
Which type of managers do composite organizations involve?
A. Functional managers and manager of project managers
B. Functional managers only
C. Project managers only
D. Technical managers and project managers
Functional managers and manager of project managers
A project management office manages a number of aspects including the:
A. Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the work packages.
B. Central coordination of communication management across projects.
C. Assignment of project resources to best meet project objectives.
D. Overall risk, overall opportunity, and interdependencies among projects at the enterprise level.
Overall risk, overall opportunity, and interdependencies among projects at the enterprise level.
A project manager seeking insight on previous stakeholder management plans and their
effectiveness should evaluate:
A. Historical information and the lessons-learned database.
B. Historical information and the stakeholder register.
C. Organizational process assets and the lessons-learned database.
D. Project documents and historical information.
Historical information and the lessons-learned database.
Which of the following statements correctly characterizes pull communication?
A. It includes letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes.
B. It requires recipients to access communication content at their own discretion.
C. It is the most efficient way to ensure a common understanding among all participants.
D. It is primarily used when the volume of information to be transferred is minimal.
It requires recipients to access communication content at their own discretion.
Which type of estimating can produce higher levels of accuracy, depending upon the sophistication
and underlying data built into the model?
A. Bottom-up
B. Three-point
C. Parametric
D. Analogous
Parametric
Which type of analysis is used to examine project results through time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating?
A. Control chart
B. Earned value
C. Variance
D. Trend
Trend
Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?
A. Requested changes
B. Approved change requests
C. Work performance information
D. Implemented defect repair
Approved change requests
Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of
identified risks?
A. Identify Risks
B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
Which is the Define Scope technique used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of the project?
A. Build vs. buy
B. Expert judgment
C. Alternatives identification
D. Product analysis
Alternatives identification
Which Process Group typically consumes the bulk of a project’s budget?
A. Monitoring and Controlling
B. Executing
C. Planning
D. Initiating
Executing
When an activity cannot be estimated with a reasonable degree of confidence, the work within the activity is decomposed into more detail using which type of estimating?
A. Bottom-up
B. Parametric
C. Analogous
D. Three-point
Bottom-up
When can pre-assignment of project team members occur?
A. When the project uses capital expenditures
B. When the required staff can be acquired from outside sources
C. When the project would be ignored due to travel expenses
D. When the project is the result of specific people being promised as part of a competitive proposal
When the project is the result of specific people being promised as part of a competitive proposal
Which illustrates the connection between work that needs to be done and its project team
members?
A. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
B. Network diagrams
C. Staffing management plan
D. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
What is an objective of the Develop Project Team process?
A. Feelings of trust and improved cohesiveness
B. Ground rules for interaction
C. Enhanced resource availability
D. Functional managers becoming more involved
Feelings of trust and improved cohesiveness
A measure of cost performance that is required to be achieved with the remaining resources in order to meet a specified management goal and is expressed as the ratio of the cost needed for finishing the
outstanding work to the remaining budget is known as the:
A. budget at completion (BAC)
B. earned value management (EVM)
C. to-complete performance index
D. cost performance index
to-complete performance index
Which Develop Schedule tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date and late start
date?
A. Critical path method
B. Variance analysis
C. Schedule compression
D. Schedule comparison bar charts
Critical path method
What tool and technique is used to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria?
A. Decomposition
B. Benchmarking
C. Inspection
D. Checklist analysis
Inspection
An input required in Define Scope is an organizational:
A. structure.
B. process asset.
C. matrix.
D. breakdown structure.
process asset.
What is the term assigned to products or services having the same functional use but different
technical characteristics?
A. Scope
B. Quality
C. Specification
D. Grade
Grade
The integrative nature of project management requires which Process Group to interact with the
other Process Groups?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Project Management
Monitoring and Controlling
Which tool or technique of Plan Quality involves comparing actual or planned practices to those of
other projects to generate ideas for improvement and provide a basis by which to measure
performance?
A. Histogram
B. Quality audits
C. Benchmarking
D. Performance measurement analysis
Benchmarking
The approaches, tools, and data sources that will be used to perform risk management on a project are determined by the:
A. Methodology
B. Risk category
C. Risk attitude
D. Assumption analysis
Methodology
An input of the Control Schedule process is the:
A. resource calendar.
B. activity list.
C. risk management plan.
D. organizational process assets.
organizational process assets.
Which type of contract is most commonly used by buying organizations because the price for goods is set at the outset and is not subject to change unless the scope of work changes?
A. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments Contract (FP-EPA)
B. Cost-Reimbursable Contract (CR)
C. Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)
D. Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee Contract (FPIF)
Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)
Which technique should a project manager use in a situation in which a collaborative approach to
conflict management is not possible?
A. Coaching
B. Avoidance
C. Consensus
D. Influencing
Avoidance
To which process is work performance information an input?
A. Administer Procurements
B. Direct and Manage Project Execution
C. Create WBS
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
Administer Procurements
Which process includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing and
combining their probability of occurrence and impact?
A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Plan Risk Responses
Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
Identifying major deliverables, deciding if adequate cost estimates can be developed, and identifying tangible components of each deliverable are all part of which of the following?
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Organizational breakdown structure
C. Resource breakdown structure
D. Bill of materials
Work breakdown structure
The project manager notes that stakeholders are aware of the project and potential impacts and are actively engaged in ensuring that the project is a success.
The engagement level of the stakeholders should be classified as:
A. Supportive
B. Leading
C. Neutral
D. Resistant
Leading
The stakeholder register is an output of:
A. Identify Stakeholders.
B. Plan Stakeholder Management.
C. Control Stakeholder Engagement.
D. Manage Stakeholder Engagement.
Identify Stakeholders.
The Verify Scope process is primarily concerned with:
A. formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.
B. accuracy of the work deliverables.
C. formalizing approval of the scope statement.
D. accuracy of the work breakdown structure (WBS).
formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.
Which type of analysis systemically gathers and analyzes qualitative and quantitative information to determine which interests should be taken into account throughout the project?
A. Product
B. Cost-benefit
C. Stakeholder
D. Research
Stakeholder
Activity resource requirements and the resource breakdown structure (RBS) are outputs of which Project Time Management process?
A. Control Schedule
B. Define Activities
C. Develop Schedule
D. Estimate Activity Resources
Estimate Activity Resources
When is a project finished?
A. After verbal acceptance of the customer or sponsor
B. After lessons learned have been documented in contract closure
C. When the project objectives have been met
D. After resources have been released
When the project objectives have been met
Which of the following processes are part of the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?
A. Develop Project Management Plan, Collect Requirements, Create WBS
B. Develop Project Management Plan, Control Scope, Develop Schedule
C. Develop Project Charter, Define Scope, Estimate Costs
D. Develop Project Charter, Direct and Manage Project Execution, Close Project or Phase
Develop Project Charter, Direct and Manage Project Execution, Close Project or Phase
Which tool and technique identifies inefficient and ineffective policies, processes, and procedures?
A. Scope audits
B. Scope reviews
C. Quality audits
D. Control chart
Quality audits
The scope management plan is a subsidiary of which project document?
A. Schedule management plan
B. Project management plan
C. Quality management plan
D. Resource management plan
Project management plan
The project management processes presented in the PMBOK Guide® should:
A. always be applied uniformly.
B. be selected as appropriate by the sponsor.
C. be selected as appropriate by the project team.
D. be applied based on ISO guidelines.
be selected as appropriate by the project team.
Which process is included in the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?
A. Manage Project Team
B. Collect Requirements
C. Sequence Activities
D. Direct and Manage Project Work
Direct and Manage Project Work
What is the number of stakeholders, if the project has 28 potential communication channels?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 14
D. 16
8
Which of the following is a tool and technique for Estimate Activity Durations?
A. Parametric estimating
B. Monte Carlo analysis
C. Alternatives analysis
D. Bottom-up estimating
Parametric estimating
Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule activities or work packages?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Estimate Activity Resources
C. Control Costs
D. Determine Budget
Determine Budget
Which of the following tools or techniques is used for Estimate Activity Durations?
A. Critical path method
B. Rolling wave planning
C. Precedence diagramming method
D. Parametric estimating
Parametric estimating
Which of the following is an output of the Define Activities process?
A. Activity list
B. Project plan
C. Activity duration estimates
D. Project schedule
Activity list
An electronics firm authorizes a new project to develop a faster, cheaper, and smaller laptop after
improvements in the industry and electronics technology.
With which of the following strategic considerations is this project mainly concerned?
A. Customer request
B. Market demand
C. Technological advance
D. Strategic opportunity
Technological advance
A work package has been scheduled to cost $1,000 to complete and was to be finished today. As of today, the actual expenditure is $1,200 and approximately half of the work has been completed.
What is the cost variance?
A. -700
B. -200
C. 200
D. 500
-700
The procurement process that documents agreements and related documentation for future
reference is known as:
A. Plan Procurements.
B. Control Procurements.
C. Close Procurements.
D. Conduct Procurements.
Close Procurements.
Which of the following risk response strategies involves allocating ownership of a positive risk to a third party?
A. Mitigate
B. Transfer
C. Share
D. Avoid
Share
Projects are undertaken by an organization to support the:
A. Product performance.
B. Budget process.
C. Collective capabilities.
D. Organizational strategy.
Organizational strategy.
Which type of analysis would be used for the Plan Quality process?
A. Schedule
B. Checklist
C. Assumption
D. Cost-Benefit
Cost-Benefit
Managing ongoing production of goods and services to ensure business continues efficiently
describes which type of management?
A. Portfolio
B. Project
C. Program
D. Operations
Operations
Outputs of the Control Communications process include:
A. expert judgment and change requests
B. work performance information and change requests
C. project management plan updates and work performance information
D. issue logs and organizational process assets updates
work performance information and change requests
Which of the following investigates the likelihood that each specific risk will occur?
A. Risk register
B. Risk audits
C. Risk urgency assessment
D. Risk probability and impact assessment
Risk probability and impact assessment
The Human Resource Management processes are:
A. Develop Human Resource Plan, Acquire Project Team, Develop Project Team, and Manage Project
Team.
B. Acquire Project Team, Manage Project Team, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Develop Project
Team.
C. Acquire Project Team, Develop Human Resource Plan, Conflict Management, and Manage Project
Team.
D. Develop Project Team, Manage Project Team, Estimate Activity Resources, and Acquire Project
Team.
Develop Human Resource Plan, Acquire Project Team, Develop Project Team, and Manage Project
Team.
What name(s) is (are) associated with the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?
A. Pareto
B. Ishikawa
C. Shewhart-Deming
D. Delphi
Shewhart-Deming
Most experienced project managers know that:
A. every project requires the use of all processes in the PMBOK® Guide.
B. there is no single way to manage a project.
C. project management techniques are risk free.
D. there is only one way to manage projects successfully.
there is no single way to manage a project.
An output of the Create WBS process is:
A. Scope baseline.
B. Project scope statement.
C. Organizational process assets.
D. Requirements traceability matrix.
Scope baseline.
Taking out insurance in relation to risk management is called what?
A. Transference
B. Avoidance
C. Exploring
D. Mitigation
Transference
While implementing an approved change, a critical defect was introduced. Removing the defect will delay the product delivery.
What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing this situation?
A. Utilize the change control process.
B. Crash the schedule to fix the defect.
C. Leave the defect in and work around it.
D. Fast-track the remaining development.
Utilize the change control process.
A procurement management plan is a subsidiary of which other type of plan?
A. Resource plan
B. Project management plan
C. Cost control plan
D. Expected monetary value plan
Project management plan
Which of the following is a narrative description of products, services, or results to be delivered by a project?
A. Project statement of work
B. Business case
C. Accepted deliverable
D. Work performance information
Project statement of work
Which activity is an input to the Conduct Procurements process?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Resource availability
C. Perform Integrated Change Control
D. Team performance assessment
Organizational process assets
An input to the Create WBS process is a:
A. project charter.
B. stakeholder register.
C. project scope statement.
D. requirements traceability matrix.
project scope statement.
Which tool is used to develop technical details within the project management plan?
A. Expert judgment
B. Project management methodology
C. Project management information system (PMIS)
D. Project selection methods
Expert judgment
Sharing good practices introduced or implemented in similar projects in the organization and/or
industry is an example of:
A. quality audits
B. process analysis
C. statistical sampling
D. benchmarking
quality audits
If the most likely duration of an activity is five weeks, the best-case duration is two weeks, and the
worst-case duration is 14 weeks, how many weeks is the expected duration of the activity?
A. One
B. Five
C. Six
D. Seven
Six
Which of the following consists of the detailed project scope statement and its associated WBS and WBS dictionary?
A. Scope plan
B. Product scope
C. Scope management plan
D. Scope baseline
Scope baseline
An output of the Develop Project Team process is:
A. change requests
B. team performance assessments
C. project staff assignments
D. project documents updates
team performance assessments
During which process group is the quality policy determined?
A. Initiating
B. Executing
C. Planning
D. Controlling
Planning
Who, along with the project manager, is supposed to direct the performance of the planned project activities and manage the various technical and organizational interfaces that exist within the project?
A. The customer and functional managers
B. The risk owners and stakeholders
C. The sponsors and stakeholders
D. The project management team
The project management team
Which of the following involves making information available to project stakeholders in a timely
manner?
A. Plan Communications
B. Performance reporting
C. Project status reports
D. Distribute Information
Distribute Information
Portfolio Management is management of:
A. a project by dividing the project into more manageable sub-projects.
B. a project by utilizing a portfolio of general management skills such as planning, organizing, staffing,
executing, and controlling.
C. all projects undertaken by a company.
D. a collection of projects that are grouped together to facilitate effective management and meet strategic business objectives.
a collection of projects that are grouped together to facilitate effective management and meet strategic business objectives.
Assigned risk ratings are based upon:
A. Root cause analysis.
B. Risk probability and impact assessment.
C. Expert judgment.
D. Revised stakeholders’ tolerances.
Revised stakeholders’ tolerances.
When would resource leveling be applied to a schedule model?
A. Before constraints have been identified
B. Before it has been analyzed by the critical path method
C. After it has been analyzed by the critical path method
D. After critical activities have been removed from the critical path
After it has been analyzed by the critical path method
Definitions of probability and impact, revised stakeholder tolerances, and tracking are components of which subsidiary plan?
A. Cost management plan
B. Quality management plan
C. Communications management plan
D. Risk management plan
Risk management plan
Ensuring that both parties meet contractual obligations and that their own legal rights are protected is a function of:
A. Conduct Procurements.
B. Close Procurements.
C. Administer Procurements.
D. Plan Procurements.
Administer Procurements.
Managing procurement relationships and monitoring contract performance are part of which process?
A. Conduct Procurements
B. Plan Procurements
C. Administer Procurements
D. Close Procurements
Administer Procurements
Which piece of information is part of the WBS Dictionary?
A. Responsible organization
B. Change requests
C. Validated deliverables
D. Organizational process assets
Responsible organization
When calculating the cost of quality (COQ) for a product or service, money spent for cost of
conformance would include the areas of:
A. training, testing, and warranty work.
B. equipment, rework, and scrap.
C. training, document processes, and inspections.
D. inspections, rework, and warranty work.
training, document processes, and inspections.
As the project progresses, which of the following is routinely collected from the project activities?
A. Communication management activities
B. Change requests
C. Configuration verification and audit
D. Work performance information
Work performance information
Which of the following is the primary output of the Identify Risks process?
A. Risk management plan
B. Risk register
C. Change requests
D. Risk response plan
Risk register
The purpose of inspection in Perform Quality Control is to keep errors:
A. in line with a measured degree of conformity.
B. out of the hands of the customer.
C. in a specified range of acceptable results.
D. out of the process.
out of the hands of the customer.
In which process is a project manager identified and given the authority to apply resources to project activities?
A. Acquire Project Team
B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Manage Project Execution
D. Develop Project Charter
Develop Project Charter
Which is an output from Distribute Information?
A. Earned value analysis
B. Trend analysis
C. Project records
D. Performance reviews
Project records
Which process determines the risks that might affect the project?
A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
B. Identify Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
Identify Risks
A project has a current cost performance index (CPI) of 1.25. To date, US$10,000 have been spent on performing the project work. What is the earned value of the work completed to date?
A. US$S000
B. US$9500
C. US$10,000
D. US$12,500
$12,500
Which provides the basic framework for managing a project?
A. Project life cycle
B. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Project initiation
Project life cycle
Which type of analysis is used as a general management technique within the Plan Procurements
process?
A. Risk assessment analysis
B. Make or buy analysis
C. Contract value analysis
D. Cost impact analysis
Make or buy analysis
Which of the following are outputs of Develop Project Team?
A. Human resources plan changes and project staff assignment updates
B. Project management plan updates and enterprise environmental factor updates
C. Resource calendars and project management plan updates
D. Team performance assessments and enterprise environmental factor updates
Team performance assessments and enterprise environmental factor updates
When sequencing activities, what does the common acronym FF stand for?
A. Fixed Fee
B. Free Float
C. Fixed Finish
D. Finish-to-Finish
Finish-to-Finish
Which of the following events would result in a baseline update?
A. A project is behind schedule and the project manager wants the baseline to reflect estimated actual completion.
B. A customer has approved a change request broadening the project scope and increasing the budget.
C. One of the risks identified in the risk management plan occurs, resulting in a schedule delay.
D. One of the key project team resources has left the team and no replacement is available.
A customer has approved a change request broadening the project scope and increasing the budget.
Which of the following project documents is an input to the Control Scope process?
A. Vendor risk assessment diagram
B. Risk register
C. Requirements traceability matrix
D. Area of responsibility summary
Requirements traceability matrix
Lessons learned documentation is gathered during which of the following Project Management
Process Groups?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Closing
D. Initiating
Closing
What is the primary benefit of meeting quality requirements?
A. Quality metrics
B. Less rework
C. Quality control measurements
D. Benchmarking
Less rework
Project contracts generally fall into which of the following three broad categories?
A. Fixed-price, cost reimbursable, time and materials
B. Make-or-buy, margin analysis, fixed-price
C. Time and materials, fixed-price, margin analysis
D. Make-or-buy, lump-sum, cost-plus-incentive
Fixed-price, cost reimbursable, time and materials
Which type of agreement is legal, contractual, and between two or more entities to form a
partnership, joint venture, or some other arrangement as defined by the parties?
A. Teaming
B. Collective bargaining
C. Sharing
D. Working
Teaming
Which process involves identifying and documenting the logical relationships between project
activities?
A. Develop Schedule
B. Sequence Activities
C. Create WBS
D. Applying leads and lags
Sequence Activities
A tool or technique in Perform Quality Control that a project manager would use is:
A. quality audits.
B. process analysis.
C. benchmarking.
D. inspection.
inspection.
What is the schedule performance index (SPI) using the following data?
BAC = $100,000
PV = $50,000
AC = $80,000
EV = $40,000
A. 1
B. 0.4
C. 0.5
D. 0.8
0.8
In Project Cost Management, which input is exclusive to the Determine Budget process?
A. Scope baseline
B. Organizational process assets
C. Project schedule
D. Resource calendars
Resource calendars
Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Define Activities process?
A. Rolling wave planning
B. Precedence diagramming method (PDM)
C. Alternatives analysis
D. Parametric estimating
Rolling wave planning
Which of the following is an output from Control Scope?
A. Change requests
B. Variance analysis
C. Accepted deliverables
D. Requirements documentation
Change requests
Changes to formally controlled documentation, plans, etc. to reflect modified or additional ideas or content are known as:
A. updates.
B. defect repairs.
C. preventive actions.
D. corrective actions.
updates.
Which activity involves ensuring that the composition of a projects configuration items is correct?
A. Configuration Identification
B. Configuration Status Accounting
C. Configuration Verification and Audit
D. Configuration Quality Assurance
Configuration Verification and Audit
The process of monitoring the status of the project to update project progress and manage changes to the schedule baseline is:
A. Control Schedule.
B. Quality Control.
C. Perform Integrated Change Control.
D. Develop Schedule.
Control Schedule.
Monte Carlo is which type of risk analysis technique?
A. Probability
B. Quantitative
C. Qualitative
D. Sensitivity
Quantitative
Which of the following is an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?
A. Project document updates
B. Organizational process assets updates
C. Change requests
D. Deliverables
Project document updates
Which standard has interrelationships to other project management disciplines such as program management and portfolio management?
A. Program Management Body of Knowledge Guide
B. The Standard for Program Management
C. Organizational Project Management Maturity Model (OPM3$)
D. Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK®)
Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK®)
“Tailoring” is defined as the:
A. effort of addressing each process to determine which are appropriate and their appropriate degree of rigor.
B. act of creating a project team with the specialized skills required to produce a required product or
service.
C. action taken to bring a defective or nonconforming component into compliance with requirements or
specifications.
D. adjustment of the respective influences of time, cost, and quality in order to most efficiently achieve scope.
effort of addressing each process to determine which are appropriate and their appropriate degree of rigor.
In which domain of project management would a Pareto chart provide useful information?
A. Project Scope Management
B. Project Time Management
C. Project Communications Management
D. Project Quality Management
Project Quality Management
Based on the following metrics: EV= $20,000, AC= $22,000, and PV= $28,000, what is the project
CV?
A. -8000
B. -2000
C. 2000
D. 8000
-2000
What is the most accurate rough order of magnitude (ROM)?
A. In the Initiation phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%.
B. In the Planning phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%.
C. In the Monitoring and Controlling phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%.
D. In the Closing phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%.
In the Initiation phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%.
The definition of operations is a/an:
A. organizational function performing the temporary execution of activities that produce the same product
or provide repetitive service.
B. temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.
C. organization that provides oversight for an administrative area.
D. organizational function performing the ongoing execution of activities that produce the same product
or provide repetitive service.
organizational function performing the ongoing execution of activities that produce the same product
or provide repetitive service.
Which is the correct formula for calculating expected activity cost for three-point estimating?
A. Ce = (C0 + 6Cm + Cp)/4
B. Ce = (6C0 + Cm + Cp)/4
C. Ce = (C0 + 4Cm + Cp)/6
D. Ce = (C0 + C„, + 4Cp) / 6
Ce = (C0 + 4Cm + Cp)/6
Which of the following strategies is used to deal with risks that may have a negative impact on
project objectives?
A. Exploit
B. Share
C. Enhance
D. Transfer
Transfer
A method to manage stakeholder expectations in the scope statement is to clearly:
A. state the guiding principles of the organization.
B. identify alternatives to generate different approaches.
C. state what is out of scope.
D. outline the results of the Delphi technique.
state what is out of scope.
When large or complex projects are separated into distinct phases or subprojects, all of the Process
Groups would normally be:
A. divided among each of the phases or subprojects.
B. repeated for each of the phases or subprojects.
C. linked to specific phases or subprojects.
D. integrated for specific phases or subprojects.
repeated for each of the phases or subprojects.
Which is an input to the Verify Scope process?
A. Performance report
B. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
C. Requested changes
D. Project management plan
Project management plan
Control charts, flowcharting, histograms, Pareto charts, and scatter diagrams are tools and
techniques of which process?
A. Perform Quality Control
B. Perform Quality Assurance
C. Plan Quality
D. Report Performance
Plan Quality
The key benefit of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group is the ability to:
A. establish and manage project communication channels, both external and internal to the project team.
B. influence the stakeholders that want to circumvent integrated change control so that their changes are
implemented.
C. monitor the ongoing project team against the team performance assessments and the project
performance baseline.
D. observe and measure project performance regularly and consistently to identify variances from the
project management plan.
observe and measure project performance regularly and consistently to identify variances from the
project management plan.
Testing falls into which of the following categories of cost of quality?
A. Internal failure costs
B. Prevention costs
C. Appraisal costs
D. External failure costs
Appraisal costs
The PV is $1000, EV is $2000, and AC is $1500.
What is CPI?
A. 1.33
B. 2
C. 0.75
D. 0.5
1.33
The Project Management Process Group in which performance is observed and measured regularly
from project initiation through completion is:
A. Executing.
B. Initiating.
C. Monitoring and Controlling.
D. Planning.
Monitoring and Controlling.
What risk technique is used to quantify the probability and impact of risks on project objectives?
A. Expert judgment
B. Risk registry
C. Risk response planning
D. Interviewing
Interviewing
Which technique is commonly used for the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process?
A. Brainstorming
B. Strategies for opportunities
C. Decision tree analysis
D. Risk data quality assessment
Decision tree analysis
Which tool within the Perform Quality Control process identifies whether or not a process has a predictable performance?
A. Cause and effect diagram
B. Control charts
C. Pareto chart
D. Histogram
Control charts
Which is a communication method used in the Report Performance process?
A. Expert judgment
B. Project management methodology
C. Stakeholder analysis
D. Status review meetings
Status review meetings
Which of the following is an example of the simplest fixed-price contract?
A. Purchase requisition
B. Purchase order
C. Verbal agreement
D. Request for quote
Purchase order
Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Verify Scope process?
A. Inspection
B. Variance analysis
C. Expert judgment
D. Decomposition
Inspection
In which process might a project manager use risk reassessment as a tool and technique?
A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
B. Monitor and Control Risk
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Plan Risk Responses
Monitor and Control Risk
Which type of risk diagram is useful for showing time ordering of events?
A. Ishikawa
B. Milestone
C. Influence
D. Decision tree
Influence
Which of the following characteristics are found in a functional organizational structure?
A. Little or no project manager authority, little or no resource availability, and the functional manager
controls the project budget
B. Limited project manager authority, limited resource availability, and a part-time project manager’s role
C. Low to moderate project manager authority, low to moderate resource availability, and a full-time
project manager’s role
D. High to almost total project manager authority, high to almost total resource availability, and full-time
project management administrative staff
Little or no project manager authority, little or no resource availability, and the functional manager controls the project budget
Which of the following is an output of Direct and Manage Project Execution?
A. Project management plan
B. Change request status updates
C. Organizational process assets updates
D. Work performance information
Work performance information
Which of the following reduces the probability of potential consequences of project risk events?
A. Preventive action
B. Risk management
C. Corrective action
D. Defect repair
Preventive action
Which of the following is a set of interrelated actions and activities performed to achieve a prespecified product, result, or service?
A. Portfolio
B. Process
C. Project
D. Program
Process
Which type of management focuses on ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to prioritize resource allocation?
A. Project
B. Functional
C. Program
D. Portfolio
Portfolio
Documented identification of a flaw in a project component together with a recommendation is termed a:
A. corrective action.
B. preventive action.
C. non-conformance report,
D. defect repair.
defect repair.
Which technique helps to determine the risks that have the most potential impact on a project?
A. Cost risk simulation analysis
B. Expected monetary value analysis
C. Modeling and simulation
D. Sensitivity analysis
Sensitivity analysis
Which of the following helps to ensure that each requirement adds business value by linking it to the business and project objectives?
A. Requirements traceability matrix
B. Work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary
C. Requirements management plan
D. Requirements documentation
Requirements traceability matrix
Tools and techniques used for Plan Communications include the communication:
A. requirements analysis, communication technology, communication models, and communication
methods.
B. methods, stakeholder register, communication technology, and communication models.
C. requirements, communication technology, communication requirements analysis, and communication
methods.
D. management plan, communication technology, communication models, and communication
requirements analysis.
requirements analysis, communication technology, communication models, and communication
methods.
Which of the following types of a dependency determination is used to define the sequence of
activities?
A. Legal
B. Discretionary
C. Internal
D. Resource
Discretionary
Analogous cost estimating relies on which of the following techniques?
A. Expert judgment
B. Project management software
C. Vendor bid analysis
D. Reserve analysis
Expert judgment
Which category of contracts are sellers legally obligated to complete, with possible financial damages if the project objectives are not met?
A. Cost-reimbursable contracts
B. Time and Material contracts (T&M)
C. Fixed-price contracts
D. Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contracts (CPFF)
Fixed-price contracts
Which characteristic do projects and operational work share in common?
A. Performed by systems
B. Constrained by limited resources
C. Repetitiveness
D. Uniqueness
Constrained by limited resources
Which of the following is an input to the Direct and Manage Project Execution process?
A. Approved change requests
B. Approved contract documentation
C. Work performance information
D. Rejected change requests
Approved change requests
In which type of organizational structure are staff members grouped by specialty?
A. Functional
B. Projectized
C. Matrix
D. Balanced
Functional
Which Perform Quality Control tool graphically represents how various elements of a system
interrelate?
A. Control chart
B. Flowchart
C. Run chart
D. Pareto chart
Flowchart
How many Project Management Process Groups are there?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
5
Which of the following is developed from the project scope baseline and defines only that portion of
the project scope that is to be included within a related contract?
A. Product scope description
B. Procurement statement of work
C. Project schedule
D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
Procurement statement of work
Which of the following is an input to Develop Human Resource Plan?
A. Team performance assessment
B. Roles and responsibilities
C. Staffing management plan
D. Enterprise environmental factors
Enterprise environmental factors
What causes replanning of the project scope?
A. Project document updates
B. Project scope statement changes
C. Variance analysis
D. Change requests
Change requests
What does a CPI value greater than 1.0 indicate?
A. Cost right at the estimated value
B. Cost under the estimated value
C. Cost right at the actual value
D. Cost over the estimated value
Cost under the estimated value
Which of the following factors is lowest at the start of the project?
A. Cost of changes
B. Stakeholder influences
C. Risk
D. Uncertainty
Cost of changes
A purchase order for a specified item to be delivered by a specified date for a specified price is the simplest form of what type of contract?
A. Cost-reimbursable
B. Time and material
C. Fixed price or lump-sum
D. Cost-plus-fixed-fee
Fixed price or lump-sum
Which type of elaboration allows a project management team to manage at a greater level of detail
as the project evolves?
A. Cyclic
B. Progressive
C. Repetitive
D. Iterative
Progressive
Which of the following strategic considerations often results in project authorization?
A. Customer requests and/or issue resolution
B. Stakeholder expectations and/or strategic opportunity (business need)
C. Technological advancement and/or senior executive request
D. Market demand and/or legal requirements
Market demand and/or legal requirements
The project scope statement and resource calendars are inputs to which Project Time Management
process?
A. Sequence Activities
B. Estimate Activity Resources
C. Develop Schedule
D. Control Schedule
Develop Schedule
Which of the following is an input to the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process?
A. Risk register
B. Risk data quality assessment
C. Risk categorization
D. Risk urgency
Risk register
Which is used to solicit proposals from prospective sellers?
A. Procurement statement of work
B. Resource calendars
C. Procurement document
D. Independent estimates
Procurement document
During which process would stakeholders provide formal acceptance of the completed project
scope?
A. Perform Quality Control
B. Verify Scope
C. Control Scope
D. Develop Schedule
Verify Scope
Which tool or technique is used in Manage Stakeholder Expectations?
A. Stakeholder management strategy
B. Communication methods
C. Issue log
D. Change requests
Communication methods
The output that defines an approach to increase the support and minimize negative impacts of stakeholders is the:
A. stakeholder management strategy.
B. communications management plan,
C. stakeholder register,
D. performance report.
stakeholder management strategy.
Which of the following is a conflict resolution technique that emphasizes areas of agreement rather
than areas of difference?
A. Compromising
B. Collaborating
C. Smoothing
D. Problem Solving
Smoothing
The process of aggregating the estimated costs of individual activities or work packages to establish
an authorized cost baseline is:
A. Determine Budget.
B. Baseline Budget.
C. Control Costs.
D. Estimate Costs.
Determine Budget.
Labor, materials, equipment, and supplies are examples of:
A. Resource attributes.
B. Resource types.
C. Resource categories.
D. Resource breakdown structures (RBS).
Resource categories.
What is the responsibility of the project manager and the functional manager respectively?
A. Oversight for an administrative area; a facet of the core business
B. Achieving the project objectives; providing management oversight for an administrative area
C. A facet of the core business; achieving the project objectives
D. Both are responsible for achieving the project objectives.
Achieving the project objectives; providing management oversight for an administrative area
Which written document helps monitor who is responsible for resolving specific problems and concerns by a target date?
A. Project Plan
B. Responsibility Matrix
C. Issue Log
D. Scope Document
Issue Log
How is the schedule variance calculated using the earned value technique?
A. EV less AC
B. AC less PV
C. EV less PV
D. AC less EV
EV less PV
A given schedule activity is most likely to last four weeks. In a best-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last two weeks. In a worst-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last
12 weeks. Given these three estimates, what is the expected duration of the activity?
A. Three weeks
B. Four weeks
C. Five weeks
D. Six weeks
Five weeks
Which of the following documents allows the project manager to assess risks that may require near term action?
A. Probability and impact matrix
B. Contingency analysis report
C. Risk urgency assessment
D. Rolling wave plan
Risk urgency assessment
Which degree of authority does a project manager have on a project in a strong matrix organizational structure?
A. Limited
B. Low to moderate
C. Moderate to high
D. High to almost total
Moderate to high
Which type of estimating is used to improve the accuracy of an activity’s duration?
A. Analogous
B. Parametric
C. Three-point
D. What-if scenario analysis
Three-point
Which of the following Process Groups covers all nine Project Management Knowledge Areas?
A. Executing
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Planning
D. Initiating
Planning
Co-location is a tool and technique of:
A. Develop Human Resource Plan.
B. Manage Project Team.
C. Develop Project Team.
D. Acquire Project Team.
Develop Project Team.
In a construction project schedule, what is the logical relationship between the delivery of the concrete materials and the pouring of concrete?
A. Start-to-start (SS)
B. Start-to-finish (SF)
C. Finish-to-finish (FF)
D. Finish-to-start (FS)
Finish-to-start (FS)
Quality metrics are an output of which process?
A. Plan Quality
B. Perform Quality Control
C. Perform Quality Assurance
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
Plan Quality
Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources are processes in which project management
Knowledge Area?
A. Project Time Management
B. Project Cost Management
C. Project Scope Management
D. Project Human Resource Management
Project Time Management
What is a deliverable-oriented, hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed to accomplish
the project objectives and create the required deliverables?
A. Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)
B. Work performance information
C. Work package
D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
Work breakdown structure (WBS)
Which of the following is a tool and technique used in the Develop Schedule process?
A. Three-point estimates
B. Resource leveling
C. Precedence diagramming method
D. Bottom-up estimating
Resource leveling
Prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact takes place in which process?
A. Monitor and Control Risks
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
Which cost estimate technique includes contingencies to account for cost uncertainty?
A. Vendor bid analysis
B. Three-point estimates
C. Parametric estimating
D. Reserve analysis
Reserve analysis
The project manager at an organization has just realized that some of the engineering staff has been
allocated to project Y and will not be available to finish task X. The project manager has also discovered
that at the current pace, it will not be possible to complete the project on time. Due to cost constraints,
hiring more work force is not a viable option. Which tools are at the manager’s disposal?
A. Resource leveling and fast tracking
B. Fast tracking and crashing
C. Crashing and applying leads and lags
D. Scheduling tools and applying leads and lags
Resource leveling and fast tracking
The milestone list is an input to which process from the Planning Process Group?
A. Define Activities
B. Estimate Activity Durations
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Sequence Activities
Sequence Activities
Which tool or technique is used in Close Procurements?
A. Contract plan
B. Procurement plan
C. Closure process
D. Procurement audits
Procurement audits
Types of internal failure costs include:
A. inspections.
B. equipment and training.
C. lost business.
D. reworking and scrapping.
reworking and scrapping.
In the Estimate Activity Durations process, productivity metrics and published commercial information inputs are part of the:
A. enterprise environmental factors.
B. organizational process assets.
C. project management plan,
D. project funding requirements.
enterprise environmental factors.
Which of the following schedule network analysis techniques is applied when a critical path method
calculation has been completed and resources availability is critical?
A. Applying calendars
B. Resource leveling
C. Resource planning
D. Resource conflict management
Resource leveling
Another name for an Ishikawa diagram is:
A. cause and effect diagram.
B. control chart.
C. flowchart.
D. histogram.
cause and effect diagram.
A weighting system is a tool for which area of Conduct Procurements?
A. Plan contracting
B. Requesting seller responses
C. Selecting seller’s
D. Planning purchase and acquisition
Selecting seller’s
To please the customer, a project team member delivers a requirement which is uncontrolled. This is not part of the plan. This describes:
A. scope creep.
B. a change request.
C. work performance information.
D. deliverables.
scope creep.
Which of the following outputs from the Control Schedule process aids in the communication of schedule variance (SV), schedule performance index (SPI), or any performance status to stakeholders?
A. Performance organizations
B. Schedule baselines
C. Work performance measurements
D. Change requests
Work performance measurements
What provides information regarding the ways people, teams, and organizational units behave?
A. Organizational chart
B. Organizational theory
C. Organizational structure
D. Organizational behavior
Organizational theory
The risk management team of a software project has decided that due to the lack of adequate talent in the company, development of a specific part of the system is under high risk, so the team has decided to outsource it. This is an example of which risk response?
A. Transfer
B. Share
C. Avoid
D. Accept
Transfer
Which of the following terms indicates a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the project work?
A. WBS directory
B. Activity list
C. WBS
D. Project schedule
WBS
Which Process Group contains those processes performed to define a new project?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Closing
Initiating
Which of the following is an example of schedule compression?
A. Activity sequencing
B. Resource leveling
C. Lead and lag adjusting
D. Crashing
Crashing
One of the tools and techniques of the Manage Project Team process is:
A. organization charts.
B. ground rules.
C. organizational theory,
D. conflict management.
conflict management.
The project manager needs to review the templates in use.
The templates are part of the:
A. Enterprise environmental factors.
B. Historical information,
C. Organizational process assets.
D. Corporate knowledge base.
Organizational process assets.
Which can be used to determine whether a process is stable or has predictable performance?
A. Matrix diagram
B. Histogram
C. Control chart
D. Flowchart
Control chart
Which of the following is an output of the Distribute Information process?
A. Project calendar
B. Communications management plan
C. Organizational process assets updates
D. Project document updates
Organizational process assets updates
The progressive detailing of the project management plan is called:
A. expert judgment.
B. rolling wave planning.
C. work performance information.
D. specification.
rolling wave planning.
When addressing roles and responsibilities, which item ensures that the staff has the skills required
to complete project activities?
A. Authority
B. Role
C. Competency
D. Responsibility
Competency
Which tool and technique is used in Conduct Procurements?
A. Teaming agreements
B. Expert judgment
C. Bidder conferences
D. Contract types
Bidder conferences
Change request status updates are an output of which process?
A. Perform Integrated Change Control
B. Direct and Manage Project Execution
C. Close Project or Phase
D. Monitor and Control Project Work
Perform Integrated Change Control
Change requests, project management plan updates, project document updates, and organizational
process assets updates are all outputs of which project management process?
A. Plan Risk Responses
B. Manage Stakeholder Expectations
C. Define Scope
D. Report Performance
Manage Stakeholder Expectations
Which process should be conducted from the project inception through completion?
A. Monitor and Control Project Work
B. Perform Quality Control
C. Perform Integrated Change Control
D. Monitor and Control Risks
Perform Integrated Change Control
In which Process Group are lessons learned documented?
A. Planning
B. Closing
C. Executing
D. Initiating
Closing
In which Project Management Process Group is the project charter developed?
A. Monitoring and Controlling
B. Executing
C. Initiating
D. Planning
A tool and technique used during the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process is:
A. risk data quality assessment.
B. variance and trend analysis.
C. data gathering and representation techniques.
D. risk audits.
risk data quality assessment.
The process of identifying the stakeholders’ information needs is completed during:
A. Plan Communications.
B. Manage Stakeholder Expectations.
C. Stakeholder Analysis.
D. Identify Stakeholders.
Plan Communications.
In the Develop Project Team process, which of the following is identified as a critical factor for a
project’s success?
A. Team meetings
B. Subcontracting teams
C. Virtual teams
D. Teamwork
Teamwork
Which of the following Project Communication Management processes uses performance reports as
an input?
A. Manage Stakeholder Expectations
B. Report Performance
C. Distribute Information
D. Plan Communications
Distribute Information
The precedence diagramming method (PDM) is also known as:
A. Arrow Diagram.
B. Critical Path Methodology (CPM).
C. Activity-On-Node (AON).
D. schedule network diagram.
Activity-On-Node (AON).
In a weak matrix, the project managers role is:
A. part-time
B. full-time
C. occasional
D. unlimited
part-time
Which type of chart is a graphic representation of a process showing the relationships among
process steps?
A. Control
B. Bar
C. Flow
D. Pareto
Flow
What is a tool to improve team performance?
A. Staffing plan
B. External feedback
C. Performance reports
D. Co-location
Co-location
Who provides the inputs for the original estimates of activity durations for tasks on the project plan?
A. Project sponsor
B. Project manager
C. Person responsible for project scheduling
D. Person who is most familiar with the task
Person who is most familiar with the task
Which of the following is an input to Control Scope?
A. Project schedule
B. Organizational process assets updates
C. Project document updates
D. Work performance information
Work performance information
Which of the following is an information gathering technique in Identify Risks?
A. Influence diagrams
B. Brainstorming
C. Assumption analysis
D. SWOT analysis
Brainstorming
Which of the following correctly explains the term “progressive elaboration’?
A. Changing project specifications continuously
B. Elaborate tracking of the project progress
C. Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control system
D. Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses
Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses
Which of the following processes audits the quality requirements and the results from quality control measures to ensure appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used?
A. Perform Quality Control
B. Quality Metrics
C. Perform Quality Assurance
D. Plan Quality
Perform Quality Assurance
Which of the following statements is true regarding project and product lifecycles?
A. A single product lifecycle may consist of multiple project lifecycles.
B. A product lifecycle is always shorter than the project lifecycle.
C. A single product lifecycle can only have one project lifecycle.
D. A single project lifecycle may consist of multiple product lifecycles.
A single product lifecycle may consist of multiple project lifecycles.
An input to the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process is the:
A. quality management plan.
B. project management plan.
C. communications management plan.
D. schedule management plan.
schedule management plan.
A required input for Create WBS is a project:
A. quality plan.
B. schedule network.
C. management document update.
D. scope statement.
scope statement.
A project has an EV of 100 workdays, an AC of 120 workdays, and a PV of 80 workdays. What should be the concern?
A. There is a cost underrun.
B. There is a cost overrun.
C. The project may not meet the deadline.
D. The project is 20 days behind schedule.
There is a cost overrun.
Which is one of the determining factors used to calculate CPI?
A. EV
B. SPI
C. PV
D. ETC
EV
The three processes of Project Cost Management are:
A. Estimate Costs, Control Schedule, and Control Costs.
B. Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Estimate Activity Resources.
C. Determine Budget, Control Schedule, and Estimate Activity Resources.
D. Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Control Costs.
Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Control Costs.
The technique of subdividing project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components until
the work and deliverables are defined to the work package level is called:
A. a control chart.
B. baseline.
C. Create WBS.
D. decomposition.
decomposition.
What happens to a stakeholder’s project influence over time?
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Stays the same
D. Has no bearing
Decreases
The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique?
A. Alternatives identification
B. Scope decomposition
C. Expert judgment
D. Product analysis
The process of identifying specific actions to be performed to produce project deliverables is:
A. Define Activities.
B. Create WBS.
C. Define Scope.
D. Develop Schedule.
Define Activities.
Which input will be used when tasked with developing the human resource plan?
A. Project management plan
B. Activity resource requirements
C. Resource calendar
D. Project staff assignments
Activity resource requirements
Which characteristics do effective project managers possess?
A. Project management knowledge, performance skills, and personal effectiveness
B. Preparedness, project management knowledge, and personality characteristics
C. General management, preparedness, and project management knowledge
D. Assertiveness, collaboration, and performance skills
Project management knowledge, performance skills, and personal effectiveness
Which type of dependency is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work?
A. External
B. Lead
C. Discretionary
D. Mandatory
Mandatory
Risk responses reflect an organization’s perceived balance between:
A. risk taking and risk avoidance.
B. known risk and unknown risk.
C. identified risk and analyzed risk.
D. varying degrees of risk.
risk taking and risk avoidance.
Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?
A. Performance reports
B. Project charter
C. Outputs from planning processes
D. Enterprise environmental factors
Enterprise environmental factors
Which of the following is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future
includes scenarios that may or may not happen?
A. Sensitivity analysis
B. Three-point estimate
C. Modeling and simulation
D. Expected monetary value analysis
Expected monetary value analysis
Which of the following are an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Identify Risks
process?
A. Work performance reports
B. Assumptions logs
C. Network diagrams
D. Academic studies
Academic studies
Under which type of contract does the seller receive reimbursement for all allowable costs for performing contract work, as well as a fixed-fee payment calculated as a percentage of the initial
estimated project costs?
A. Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF)
B. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)
C. Firm Fixed Price Contract (FFP)
D. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contract (FP-EPA)
Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF)
Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without changing project scope. Which of the following can result from fast tracking?
A. The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased.
B. The critical path will have positive total float.
C. Contingency reserves are released for redeployment by the project manager.
D. Duration buffers are added to maintain a focus on planned activity durations.
The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased.
Resource calendars are included in the:
A. staffing management plan.
B. work breakdown structure (WBS).
C. project communications plan.
D. project charter.
staffing management plan.
In the basic communication model, which term refers to the method that is used to convey the message?
A. Decode
B. Encode
C. Medium
D. Noise
Medium
Picture: Will Upload Soon
The diagram below is an example of a:
A. Risk breakdown structure (RBS).
B. Project team.
C. SWOT Analysis.
D. Work breakdown structure (WBS).
Risk breakdown structure (RBS).
The risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:
A. assumption log.
B. quality checklist.
C. risk register.
D. contract type.
contract type.
Which Control Scope input is compared to actual results to determine if corrective action is required
for the project?
A. Scope baseline
B. Scope management plan
C. Change management plan
D. Cost baseline
Scope baseline
The probability and impact matrix is primarily used to:
A. Quantify risk issues for trends during a quality audit.
B. Develop a risk register for risk planning.
C. Evaluate each risk’s importance and priority during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.
D. Define risk and compare impacts during Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.
Evaluate each risk’s importance and priority during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.
In Plan Risk Management, which of the management plans determines who will be available to share information on various risks and responses at different times and locations?
A. Schedule
B. Quality
C. Communications
D. Cost
Communications
Which tool or technique can a project manager use to select in advance a team member who will be
crucial to the task?
A. Acquisition
B. Negotiation
C. Virtual team
D. Pre-assignment
Pre-assignment
During project selection, which factor is most important?
A. Types of constraints
B. Internal business needs
C. Budget
D. Schedule
Internal business needs
At the end of the project, what will be the value of SV?
A. Positive
B. Zero
C. Negative
D. Greater than one
Zero
Which of the following response strategies are appropriate for negative risks or threats?
A. Share, Accept, Transfer, or Mitigate
B. Exploit, Enhance, Share, or Accept
C. Mitigate, Share, Avoid, or Accept
D. Avoid, Mitigate, Transfer, or Accept
Avoid, Mitigate, Transfer, or Accept
In which type of contract are the performance targets established at the onset and the final contract price determined after completion of all work based on the sellers performance?
A. Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP)
B. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments (FP-EPA)
C. Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee (FPIF)
D. Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)
Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee (FPIF)
Which type of diagram includes groups of information and shows relationships between factors, causes, and objectives?
A. Affinity
B. Scatter
C. Fishbone
D. Matrix
Matrix
When a permitting agency takes longer than planned to issue a permit, this can be described as a risk:
A. event.
B. response,
C. perception.
D. impact.
event.
Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?
A. Recognized by every project manager
B. Constantly evolving
C. The sum of all knowledge related to project management
D. A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project
Constantly evolving
A project manager at a publishing company decides to initiate the editing phase of the project as soon as each chapter is written. Which type of Sequence Activities tool and technique is involved, considering that there was a start-to-start relationship with a 15-day delay?
A. Slack
B. Float
C. Lag
D. Lead
Lag
Which of the following change requests can bring expected future performance of the project work in line with the project management plan?
A. Corrective action
B. Defect repair
C. Preventative action
D. Probable action
Corrective action
Using the three-point estimating technique, if the most likely duration is four months, the optimistic duration is two months, and the pessimistic duration is one year, how many months is the expected activity duration?
A. Two
B. Four
C. Five
D. Twelve
Five
Which index is the calculated projection of cost performance that must be achieved on the remaining work to meet a specified management goal?
A. Estimate at completion
B. Cost performance
C. Schedule performance
D. To-complete performance
To-complete performance
Prototype development may be used as a tool for which of the following risk response strategies?
A. Avoid
B. Accept
C. Mitigate
D. Exploit
Mitigate
Which is an output of the Collect Requirements process?
A. Requirements traceability matrix
B. Project scope statement
C. WBS dictionary
D. Work performance measurements
Requirements traceability matrix
The group technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for prioritization is called the:
A. majority rule technique.
B. nominal group technique.
C. Delphi technique,
D. idea/mind mapping technique.
nominal group technique.
The correct equation for schedule variance (SV) is earned value:
A. minus planned value [EV - PV].
B. minus actual cost [EV - AC].
C. divided by planned value [EV/PV],
D. divided by actual cost [EV/AC].
minus planned value [EV - PV].
Which of the following is an estimating technique that uses the values of parameters from previous similar projects for estimating the same parameter or measure for a current project?
A. Reserve analysis
B. Three-point estimating
C. Parametric estimating
D. Analogous estimating
Analogous estimating
The cost benefit analysis tool is used for creating:
A. Pareto charts.
B. quality metrics.
C. change requests,
D. Ishikawa diagrams.
quality metrics.
Which of the following includes how requirements activities will be planned, tracked, and reported?
A. Configuration management plan
B. Scope baseline
C. Requirements management plan
D. Schedule baseline
Requirements management plan
When cost variance is negative and schedule variance is positive, the project is:
A. under budget and behind schedule.
B. over budget and ahead of schedule.
C. on schedule.
D. complete; all planned values have been earned.
over budget and ahead of schedule.
The total of the planned value (PV) is also known as:
A. work breakdown structure (WBS).
B. schedule target.
C. performance measurement baseline (PMB).
D. earned value baseline.
performance measurement baseline (PMB).
Requirements documentation, requirements management plan, and requirements traceability matrix
are all outputs of which process?
A. Control Scope
B. Collect Requirements
C. Create WBS
D. Define Scope
Collect Requirements
While preparing the project management plan on a weekly basis, the project manager indicates the
intention to provide an issues report to the staff via e-mail. In which part of the plan will this type of information be included?
A. Communications management plan
B. Human resource plan
C. Quality management plan
D. Procurement management plan
Communications management plan
Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?
A. Project scope statement
B. Project charter
C. Project plan
D. Project schedule
Project scope statement
Which of the following is a group decision-making technique?
A. Brainstorming
B. Focus groups
C. Affinity diagram
D. Plurality
Plurality
Which of the following can be used as an input for Define Scope?
A. Product analysis
B. Project charter
C. Scope baseline
D. Project scope statement
Project charter
An input of the Create WBS process is:
A. requirements documentation.
B. scope baseline.
C. project charter.
D. validated deliverables.
requirements documentation.
The completion of the project scope is measured against the:
A. requirements documentation.
B. project scope statement.
C. project management plan.
D. work performance measurements.
project management plan.
Inputs to the Plan Risk Management process include the:
A. cost management plan.
B. risk management plan,
C. activity list,
D. risk register.
cost management plan.
After Define Activities and Sequence Activities, the next process is:
A. Estimate Activity Resources.
B. Estimate Activity Durations.
C. Develop Schedule.
D. Control Schedule.
Estimate Activity Resources.
Which of the following is an output of the Conduct Procurements process?
A. Project statement of work
B. Selected sellers
C. Risk register updates
D. Teaming agreements
Selected sellers
Which process requires implementation of approved changes?
A. Direct and Manage Project Execution
B. Monitor and Control Project Work
C. Perform Integrated Change Control
D. Close Project or Phase
Direct and Manage Project Execution
Which of the following is a project constraint?
A. Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected.
B. The technology to be used is cutting-edge.
C. Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment.
D. The product is needed in 250 days.
The product is needed in 250 days.
Which of the following are three inputs to the risk register?
A. Risk register updates, stakeholder register, and quality management plan
B. Communication management plan, enterprise environmental factors, and activity duration estimates
C. Risk management plan, activity cost estimates, and project documents
D. Project scope statement, organizational process assets, and scope baseline
Risk management plan, activity cost estimates, and project documents
One of the objectives of a quality audit is to:
A. highlight the need for root cause analysis.
B. share the process documentation among stakeholders.
C. offer assistance with non-value-added activities.
D. identify all of the gaps or shortcomings.
identify all of the gaps or shortcomings.
What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS?
A. Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellers
B. Insufficient project funding and ineffective use of resources
C. Disqualification of sellers and non-productive management efforts
D. Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources
Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources
Which risk response strategy is common for both positive and negative risks?
A. Share
B. Accept
C. Mitigate
D. Transfer
Accept
The process improvement plan details the steps for analyzing processes to identify activities which enhance their:
A. quality.
B. value.
C. technical performance.
D. status.
value.
Which statement correctly describes the value of a business case?
A. It provides the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment.
B. It provides for alternative dispute resolution procedures in event of contract default.
C. It offers one of several alternative scenarios which assist in performing qualitative risk analysis.
D. It is used to help a project manager understand the scope of commercial advantages.
It provides the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment.
Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique used in which process?
A. Control Costs
B. Determine Budget
C. Estimate Costs
D. Control Budget
Determine Budget
Which activity may occur at project or phase closure?
A. Acceptance of deliverables
B. Change requests
C. Project management plan updates
D. Benchmarking
Acceptance of deliverables
A project manager has created an issue log to document issues communicated by project team members during weekly team meetings. This is an input of:
A. Manage Stakeholder Expectations.
B. Monitor and Control Risks.
C. Plan Risk Management.
D. Report Performance.
Manage Stakeholder Expectations.
Who is responsible for initiating a project?
A. Project sponsor
B. Project manager
C. Program manager
D. Project management office (PMO)
Project sponsor
Activity cost estimates are quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to:
A. Create WBS.
B. complete project work.
C. calculate costs.
D. Develop Project Management Plan.
complete project work.
A tool and technique used during the Collect Requirements process is:
A. prototypes.
B. expert judgment.
C. alternatives identification.
D. product analysis.
prototypes.
Which type of contract is a hybrid of both a cost-reimbursable and a fixed-price contract?
A. Cost Plus Award Fee Contract (CPAF)
B. Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)
C. Time and Material Contract (T&M)
D. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)
Time and Material Contract (T&M)
The contract in which the seller is reimbursed for all allowable costs for performing the contract work
and then receives a fee based upon achieving certain performance objectives is called a:
A. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF).
B. Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF).
C. Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contract (FPIF).
D. Time and Material Contract (T&M).
Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF).
Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Acquire Project Team process?
A. Networking
B. Training
C. Negotiation
D. Issue log
Negotiation
Identify Stakeholders is the process of identifying all of the people or organizations impacted by the project and documenting relevant information regarding their interests in, involvement in, and impact on the project:
A. manager.
B. success.
C. deadline.
D. scope.
success.
The item that provides more detailed descriptions of the components in the work breakdown structure (WB5) is called a WBS:
A. dictionary.
B. chart.
C. report.
D. register.
dictionary.
Risk exists the moment that a project is:
A. planned.
B. conceived.
C. chartered.
D. executed.
conceived.
A tool and technique used during the Define Scope process is:
A. facilitated workshops.
B. observations.
C. questionnaires and surveys.
D. group creativity techniques.
facilitated workshops.
Which technique is utilized in the Control Schedule process?
A. Performance measure
B. Baseline schedule
C. Schedule network analysis
D. Variance analysis
Variance analysis
The process for performing variance analysis may vary, depending on:
A. scenario building, technology forecasting, and forecast by analogy.
B. working relationships among various stakeholders and team members.
C. application area, the standard used, and the industry.
D. work to be completed next.
application area, the standard used, and the industry.
The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements describes management of which of the following?
A. Project
B. Scope
C. Contract
D. Program
Project
Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these phases include:
A. feasibility study, concept development, design, and prototype.
B. initiate, plan, execute, and monitor.
C. Develop Charter, Define Activities, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Report Performance.
D. Identify Stakeholders, develop concept, build, and test.
feasibility study, concept development, design, and prototype.
Which Process Group contains the processes performed to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project specifications?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Closing
Executing
An input to the Estimate Activity Resources process is:
A. Activity resource requirements.
B. Published estimating data.
C. Resource calendars.
D. Resource breakdown structure (RBS).
Resource calendars.
Expected monetary value (EMV) is computed by which equation?
A. Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of occurrence
B. Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of non-occurrence
C. Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of occurrence and adding the
products together
D. Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of non-occurrence and adding the
products together
Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of occurrence and adding the
products together
The project budget is set at $150,000. The project duration is planned to be one year. At the completion of Week 16 of the project, the following information is collected: Actual cost = $50,000,
Plan cost = $45,000, Earned value = $40,000. What is the cost performance index?
A. 0.8
B. 0.89
C. 1.13
D. 1.25
0.8
How should a stakeholder who is classified as high power and low interest be grouped in a power/interest grid during stakeholder analysis?
A. Keep satisfied
B. Keep informed
C. Manage closely
D. Monitor
Keep satisfied
Which of the following is an output of Close Procurements?
A. Accepted deliverables
B. Organizational process assets updates
C. Managing stakeholder expectations
D. Performance reports
Organizational process assets updates
What is project management?
A. A logical grouping of project management inputs, outputs, tools, and techniques
B. Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements
C. Launching a process that can result in the authorization of a new project
D. A formal, approved document that defines how the project is executed, monitored, and controlled
Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements
Which of the following is a tool and technique used to monitor risk?
A. Technical performance measurement
B. Cost performance baseline
C. Benchmarking
D. Cost of quality
Technical performance measurement
Administer Procurements is part of which Process Group?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Closing
Monitoring and Controlling
Which baselines make up the performance measurement baseline?
A. Scope baseline, cost baseline, and schedule baseline
B. Scope baseline, project management baseline, and quality baseline
C. Cost baseline, schedule baseline, and risk baseline
D. Cost baseline, project management baseline, and schedule baseline
Scope baseline, cost baseline, and schedule baseline
Plan-do-check-act is also known as:
A. prevention over inspection.
B. statistical sampling.
C. management responsibility,
D. continuous improvement.
continuous improvement.
At which stage of team development do members begin to work together, adjust work habits, and trust each other?
A. Forming
B. Storming
C. Norming
D. Performing
Norming
A project lifecycle is defined as:
A. a collection of generally sequential and sometimes overlapping project phases.
B. a process required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work
required, to complete the project successfully.
C. a recognized standard for the project management profession.
D. the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project
requirements.
a collection of generally sequential and sometimes overlapping project phases.
The staffing management plan is part of the:
A. organizational process assets.
B. resource calendar.
C. human resource plan.
D. Develop Project Team process.
human resource plan.
The project management processes are usually presented as discrete processes with defined interfaces, while in practice they:
A. operate separately.
B. move together in batches,
C. overlap and interact.
D. move in a sequence.
overlap and interact.
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Exhibit A is an example of which of the following types of Sequence Activities?
A. Activity-on-arrow diagramming
B. Precedence diagramming
C. Project schedule network diagramming
D. Mathematical analysis diagramming
Precedence diagramming
The processes required to establish the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and define the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project has been undertaken to achieve are grouped within which Process Group?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Monitoring and Controlling
Planning
The project has a current cost performance index of 0.80. Assuming this performance will continue,
the new estimate at completion is $1000. What was the original budget at completion for the project?
A. $800
B. $1000
C. $1250
D. $1800
$800
Which process is responsible for monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline?
A. Variance Analysis
B. Define Scope
C. Verify Scope
D. Control Scope
Control Scope
Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Determine Budget process?
A. Variance analysis
B. Three-point estimating
C. Bottom-up estimating
D. Historical relationships
Historical relationships
Which of the following is an input to the Develop Project Charter process?
A. Work performance information
B. Project management plan
C. Business case
D. Change requests
Business case
Which quality control technique illustrates the 80/20 principle?
A. Ishikawa diagram
B. Control chart
C. Run chart
D. Pareto chart
Pareto chart
Who determines which dependencies are mandatory during the Sequence Activities process?
A. Project manager
B. External stakeholders
C. Internal stakeholders
D. Project team
Project team
An input to the Collect Requirements process is the:
A. stakeholder register.
B. project management plan.
C. project scope statement.
D. requirements management plan.
stakeholder register.
Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities?
A. Mitigate
B. Transfer
C. Exploit
D. Avoid
Exploit
The process to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used is:
A. Plan Quality.
B. Perform Quality Assurance.
C. Perform Quality Control.
D. Total Quality Management.
Perform Quality Assurance.
Which of these is true of project integration management?
A. Project Integration Management is mandatory and more effective in larger projects.
B. Project Integration Management and expert judgment are mutually exclusive.
C. Project Integration Management is the responsibility of the project manager
D. Project Integration Management excludes the triple constraints if cost performance index (CPI) equals
zero.
Project Integration Management excludes the triple constraints if cost performance index (CPI) equals
zero.
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Match the project life cycle type with its corresponding definition.
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ADAPTATIVE
ITERATIVE
PREDICTIVE
INCREMENTAL
What is one of the main purposes of the project charter?
A. Formal authorization of the existence of the project
B. Formal acceptance of the project management plan
C. Formal approval of the detailed project budget
D. Formal definilion of stakeholder roles and responsibilities
Formal authorization of the existence of the project
What important leadership quality/qualities should project managers possess?
A. Skills and behaviors related to specific domains of project management
B. Skills and behaviors needed to guide a team and help an organization reach its goals
C. Industry expertise that helps to better deliver business outcomes
D. Industry and organizational expertise that enhances performance
Industry expertise that helps to better deliver business outcomes
The project manager is explaining to others the essential business aspects of the project. To which skill category does this ability belong?
A. Technical project management skills
B. Time management skills
C. Strategic and business management skills
D. Leadership skills
Strategic and business management skills
What communication methods would a project manager use for overall effective project communication?
A. Interactive communication, push communication, interpersonal communication
B. Interactive communication, push communication, pull communication
C. Push communication, pull communication, interpersonal communication
D. Pull communication, interactive communication, interpersonal communication
Push communication, pull communication, interpersonal communication
Which of the following can a project manager use to represent dellned team member roles in a group of tasks?
A. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
B. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
C. Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)
D. Resource breakdown structure (RBS)
Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
According to the PMI Talent Triangle. leadership skills relate to the ability to:
A. understand the high-level overview of the organization
B. tailor traditional and agile tools for the project
C. work with stakeholders to develop an appropriate project delivery
D. guide, motivate, and direct a team to reach project goals
guide, motivate, and direct a team to reach project goals
A project manager is launching an information system to provide a lessons learned database. This action is necessary for recipients to access content at their own discretion.
Which communication method is described?
A. Push communication
B. Pull communication
C. Interactive communication
D. Stakeholder communication
Pull communication
During which process of Project Cost Management does a project manager produce the cost baseline?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Control Schedule
C. Determine Budget
D. Develop Project Charter
Determine Budget
Which statement about identification and engagement of stakeholders during a project is correct?
A. Project stakeholders should be Identified and engaged in every phase of the project to influence the
success of the project directly.
B. Project stakeholders should be identified and engaged once the prototype is completed to provide
their feedback but refrain from making inputs during the project.
C. Project stakeholders should be identified when the project chatter is being completed and engaged
during requirements gathering.
D. Project stakeholders should be identified and engaged during requirements elicitation but not during
the Define Scope process.
Project stakeholders should be Identified and engaged in every phase of the project to influence the
success of the project directly.
Which tasks should a project manager accomplish in order to manage project scope correctly?
A. Define. Validate, and Control Scope. Control Schedule; Control Costs and Manage Stakeholder
Engagement
B. Collect Requirements. Define Scope. Create WBS. Develop Schedule, and Manage Stakeholder
Engagement
C. Plan Scope Management; Collect Requirements; Define. Validate, and Control Scope; and Create
WBS
D. Define. Validate, and Control Scope. Control Costs. Manage Stakeholder Engagement, and keep
budget under control
Plan Scope Management; Collect Requirements; Define. Validate, and Control Scope; and Create
WBS
Which group of inputs will a project manager use during the Monitor Stakeholder Engagement
process?
A. Project charter, business documents, and project management plan
B. Agreements, scope baseline, and project management plan
C. Project charter, business case, and project management plan
D. Work performance data, enterprise environmental factors, and project management plan
Work performance data, enterprise environmental factors, and project management plan
In which sphere of influence is the project manager demonstrating the value of project management and advancing the efficacy of the project management office (PMO)?
A. The organization
B. The project
C. The industry
D. The product
The project
Which are examples of processes that may be used once or at predefined points in the project life
cycle?
A. Develop Project Charter and Close Project or Phase
B. Define Activities and Acquire Resources
C. Control Schedule and Conduct Procurements
D. Monitor Communications and Control Costs
Develop Project Charter and Close Project or Phase
The project leam is brainstorming on approaches to deliver the upcoming product launch for which the project has been chartered. The project manager is laying out hybrid, adaptive, iterative methods. What is the team trying to address?
A. Co-location
B. Lite-cycle
C. Diversity
D. Management
Management
Company A has just been notified about a new legal requirement for its business operations.
What is the classification of this item?
A. Internal enterprise environmental factor
B. Risk register database
C. External enterprise environmental factor
D. Organizational process asset
External enterprise environmental factor
To which knowledge area does the Collect Requirements process belong?
A. Quality Management
B. Scope Management
C. Cost Management
D. Integration Management
Scope Management
Which two processes should be used to influence costs in the early stages of a project?
A. Estimate Costs and Determine Budget
B. Plan Cost Management and Estimate Activity Durations
C. Control Quality and Control Costs
D. Plan Stakeholder Engagement and Plan Communications Management
Estimate Costs and Determine Budget
What is the project manager’s responsibility in Project Integration Management?
A. Ensuring that requirements-related work is clarified in the project management plan
B. Investing sufficient effort in acquiring, managing, motivating, and empowering the project team
C. Combining the results in all other knowledge areas, and overseeing the project as a whole
D. Developing a strategy to ensure effective stakeholder communication
Ensuring that requirements-related work is clarified in the project management plan
When project requirements are documented in user stones then prioritized and refined just prior to
construction, which approach is being used for scheduling?
A. Iterative scheduling with backlog
B. On-demand scheduling
C. Life cycle scheduling with backlog
D. Defining Iterative activities
Iterative scheduling with backlog
Which knowledge area includes the processes to identify, define, and unify the various project management processes?
A. Project Integration Management
B. Project Communications Management
C. Project Qualify Management
D. Project Risk Management
Project Integration Management
Which of the following is used as an input to prepare a cost management plan?
A. Expert judgment
B. Lessons learned
C. Cost estimates
D. Project management plan
Project management plan
In a large organization, with projects of different types and sizes, what kind of approach or method would be best to use?
A. Predictive
B. Adaptive
C. A mix
D. Agile
A mix
Which are the main objectives of Project Risk Management?
A. Increase the probability of positive risks and decrease the probability of negative risks
B. Avoid all kind of risks
C. Increase the probability of positive risks and eliminate all negative risks
D. Identify positive and negative risks
Increase the probability of positive risks and decrease the probability of negative risks
What is a tailoring consideration in Project Integration Management?
A. Validation and control
B. Benefits
C. Technology support
D. Physical location
Validation and control
Directing another person to get from one point to another using a known set of expected behaviors and the ability to lead a team and inspire them to do their jobs well is related to?
A. Influence and challenge
B. Innovation and administration
C. Leadership and management
D. Engagement and guidance
Leadership and management
A project manager is assigned to a strategic project Senior management asks the project manager to give a presentation in order to request support that will ensure the success of the project. Which entities will the project manager attempt to influence?
A. The project and the organization
B. The organization and the industry
C. The subject matter experts and the project
D. The change control board and the organization
The change control board and the organization
The project manager is using co-location and providing training to the project team. On which of the following Project Resource Management processes is the project manager working?
A. Acquire Resources
B. Control Resources
C. Manage Team
D. Develop Team
Develop Team
What tool should a project manager use to efficiently manage project resources?
A. List of project resources
B. Resource breakdown structure
C. Resources detailed in the project scope
D. Resource requirements
Resources detailed in the project scope
Which is the tool or technique that is used to obtain the list of activities from the work packages?
A. Data analysis
B. Leads and lags
C. Precedence diagramming method
D. Decomposition
Decomposition
A project manager is formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables. What is an input to this process?
A. Verified deliverables
B. Validated deliverables
C. Accepted deliverables
D. Completed change requests
Verified deliverables
What process is included in Project Schedule Management?
A. Estimate Activity Durations
B. Create Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
C. Direct and Manage Project Work
D. Estimate Activity Resources
Estimate Activity Durations
Which statement summarizes the role of the change control board?
A. The change control board is responsible for presenting the change for approval.
B. The change control board will analyze the change impact in terms of cost and schedule.
C. The change control board is responsible for managing the change management and configuration
management systems.
D. The change control board is responsible for reviewing and approving changes to the project.
The change control board is responsible for reviewing and approving changes to the project.
A project manager is working in an environment where requirements are not very clear and may change during the project. In addition, the project has several stakeholders and is technically complex. Which strategies should the project manager take into account for risk management in this environment?
A. Occasionally identify, evaluate, and classify risks.
B. Review requirements and cross-functional project teams.
C. Include contingency reserves and update the project management plan frequently.
D. Frequently review incremental work products and update the requirements for proper prioritization
Frequently review incremental work products and update the requirements for proper prioritization
A project manager is experiencing a project with a high degree of change.
Which type of stakeholder engagement does this project require?
A. Discussing with management
B. Escalating to the sponsors
C. Engaging regularly with stakeholders
D. Engaging only with decision makers
Engaging regularly with stakeholders
Due to today’s competitive global market, organizations require more than technical project management skills. Which of the following skills can support long-range strategic objectives that contribute to the bottom line?
A. Planning and risk management skills
B. Communication and time management skills
C. Business intelligence and leadership skills
D. Strategic and business management skills
Business intelligence and leadership skills
Which is an example of leveraging evolving trends and emerging practices in Project Integration Management?
A. Hybrid methodologies
B. Risk register updates
C. Outsourced project resources
D. Reliance on lessons learned documents
Hybrid methodologies
An organizational structure that standardizes the project-related governance processes and facilitates the sharing of resources, methodologies, tools, and techniques is referred to as:
A. Project Management Information System
B. Project Management System
C. Project Management Office
D. Project Management Knowledge Area
Project Management Office
A functional manager is delegating a key project to a project team without a project manager. Which communication method will be most effective?
A. Interactive
B. Push
C. Verbal
D. Oral
Interactive
A new project has been set. Four main stakeholders besides the project manager and four other team members have been identified.
How many communication channels are available?
A. 8
B. 18
C. 36
D. 40
36
A project team submits a weekly progress report to the project manager. The project manager consolidates the same report and sends a complete progress report to the stakeholders.
What is this an example of?
A. Informal communication
B. Internal communication
C. Formal communication
D. Horizontal communication
Formal communication
Stakeholder identification and engagement should begin during what phase of the project?
A. After the project management plan is completed
B. After the stakeholder engagement plan is completed
C. As soon as the project charter has been approved
D. After the communications management plan is completed
After the project management plan is completed
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DRAG DROP
Match the project manager’s sphere of influence with the associated primary role.
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A project manager uses their networking skills to build agreement with a difficult stakeholder. What level of influence did the project manager apply?
A. Project level
B. Organizational level
C. Industry level
D. Influential level
Influential level
Explanation:
Relationship skills involving the development of extensive networks of people throughout the project
manager’s spheres of influence. These networks include formal networks such as organizational
reporting structures. However, the informal networks that project managers develop, maintain, and
nurture are more important. Informal networks include the use of established relationships with
individuals such as subject matter experts and
influential leaders. Use of these formal and informal networks allows the project manager to engage
multiple people in solving problems and navigating the bureaucracies encountered in a project
How can a project manager evaluate project team development?
A. Produce team performance assessments.
B. Hold weekly meetings to engage every member
C. Complete a personal skill assessment on each team member
D. Provide recognition awards to team members
Produce team performance assessments.
Which are inputs for the Plan Quality Management process?
A. Quality metrics, project documents, and financial performance
B. Quality management plan, project documents, and quality metrics
C. Project management plan, project documents, and organizational process assets
D. Project management plan, quality metrics. and project documents
Project management plan, project documents, and organizational process assets
The project manager and the project team are having a meeting with the purpose of identifying risks. Which tools and techniques might help in this process?
A. Prompt lists and data analysis
B. Reports and representations of uncertainty
C. Data analysis and risk audits
D. Interpersonal and team skills and project management Information system
Prompt lists and data analysis
What is a tool or technique used in the Control Quality process?
A. Attribute sampling
B. Parametric estimating
C. Statistical sampling
D. Expert judgment
Attribute sampling
What scenario describes when a project must be created due to market demand?
A. A public company authorizes a project to create a new service for electric car sharing to reduce
pollution.
B. A car company authorizes a project to build more fuel-efficient cars in response to gasoline shortages.
C. Researchers develop an autonomous car. with several new features to be commercialized in the
future.
D. Stakeholders request that raw materials be changed due to locally high costs.
A car company authorizes a project to build more fuel-efficient cars in response to gasoline shortages.
A project is just beginning, and management creates a long list of potential stakeholders. Which statement about identifying and engaging stakeholders is correct?
A. The project manager should identify and deal with stakeholders only during the execution phase.
B. Stakeholder satisfaction should be identified immediately and managed as a project objective.
C. The project manager should focus on project objectives and deal with stakeholders as a secondary
priority.
D. Stakeholder satisfaction is the most important goal, and project objectives should be considered a
secondary priority.
Stakeholder satisfaction should be identified immediately and managed as a project objective.
A new project manager wishes to recommend creating a project management office to senior
management. Which statement would the project manager use to describe the Importance of creating the project
management office?
A. It will give the project manager Independence to make decisions without other departmental input.
B. It Integrates organizational data and information to ensure that strategic objectives are fulfilled.
C. The project management office can execute administrative tasks.
D. The project management office can coordinate projects.
It Integrates organizational data and information to ensure that strategic objectives are fulfilled.
The primary purpose of the stakeholder register is to:
A. Record stakeholder issues on the project
B. Maintain lessons learned earlier in the project
C. Maintain a list of all project stakeholders
D. Document change requests and their status
Maintain a list of all project stakeholders
During the execution phase of a project a detect is found. The project manager takes responsibility and with the correct documentation, begins the task necessary to repair the defect. What process was applied?
A. Change request
B. Risk response
C. Risk management plan
D. Lessons learned
Change request
What is the difference between verified and accepted deliverables?
A. Accepted deliverables have been completed and checked for correctness; verified deliverables have
been formally approved by the customer or authorized stakeholder.
B. Accepted deliverables have been inspected by the quality team; verified deliverables are outputs from
the Validate Scope process.
C. Accepted deliverables have been formally signed off and approved by the authorized stakeholder;
verified deliverables have been completed and checked for correctness.
D. Accepted deliverables have been formally accepted by the project manager; verified deliverables are
the outputs from the Control Quality process.
Accepted deliverables have been formally accepted by the project manager; verified deliverables are
the outputs from the Control Quality process.
What are the inputs of the Estimate Costs process?
A. Project management plan, work performance data, enterprise environmental factors, and
organizational process assets
B. Project management plan, project documents, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational
process assets
C. Cost baseline, enterprise environmental factors, benefits management plan, and organizational
process assets
D. Project management plan, enterprise environmental factors, basis of estimates, and organizational
process assets
Cost baseline, enterprise environmental factors, benefits management plan, and organizational
process assets
What can increase the complexity of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?
A. The project must be of high quality.
B. The stakeholders are from different countries.
C. The project must comply with strict local government regulations.
D. The project has a tight budget and timeline.
The stakeholders are from different countries.
A team was hired to develop a next generation drone. The team created a prototype and sent it to the customer for testing. The feedback collected was used to refine the requirements.
What technique is the team using?
A. Early requirements gathering
B. Feedback analysis
C. Progressive elaboration
D. Requirements documentation
Feedback analysis
In an adaptive or agile life cycle, how are the customer and sponsor involved in the project scope management activities?
A. Involvement is needed only during project initiation.
B. Minimal involvement of stakeholders is sufficient.
C. They should be continuously engaged.
D. They should be involved only during phase or deliverable reviews.
They should be continuously engaged.
Which of the following are outputs of the Define Scope process in Project Scope Management?
A. Requirements documentation and requirements traceability matrix
B. Scope management plan and requirements management plan
C. Project scope statement and project documents updates
D. Scope baseline and project documents updates
Scope baseline and project documents updates
An important project stakeholder has low risk tolerance. Which type of communication should a project manager use to provide this stakeholder with a difficult update?
A. Informal conversation
B. Face-to-face meeting
C. Short email update
D. Written report
Informal conversation
In a functional organization, the director of an important stakeholder business group expressed concern to a line manager about the progress of the project. What should the line manager do next?
A. Hold a face-to-face meeting with the project manager and warn them.
B. Point the director to a link where they can take a look at the reports.
C. Invite stakeholders to attend monthly progress review meetings.
D. Ask the project manager to update the monthly status report distribution list.
Invite stakeholders to attend monthly progress review meetings.
What is the first step in the Stakeholder Management process?
A. Plan Stakeholder Engagement
B. Identify Stakeholders
C. Manage Stakeholder Responsibility
D. Monitor Stakeholder Activity
Identify Stakeholders
A project manager Is in the process of working with stakeholders to meet their needs and expectations, and identifying and fostering communication and involvement. Which process does this typically represent?
A. Monitor Stakeholder Engagement
B. Monitor Communications
C. Manage Communications
D. Manage Stakeholder Engagement
Manage Stakeholder Engagement
Which of the following tasks focuses on decomposing work packages?
A. Adjust duration estimates
B. Define activities
C. Complete rolling wave planning
D. Develop milestone list
Complete rolling wave planning
What purpose does the hierarchical locus of stakeholder communications serve?
A. Maintains the focus on project and organizational stakeholders
B. Preserves the focus on external stakeholders—such as customers and vendors—as well as on other
projects
C. Sustains the focus on general communication activities using email, social media, and websites
D. Keeps the focus on the position of the stakeholder or group with respect to the project team
Sustains the focus on general communication activities using email, social media, and websites
Which components of the project management plan are inputs used when creating the stakeholder
engagement plan?
A. Risk, resource, and communications management plans
B. Scope, quality, and resource management plans
C. Procurement, integration, and risk management plans
D. Communications, schedule, and cost management plans
Risk, resource, and communications management plans
The Agile principle “welcome changing requirement, even late in development” relates to which agile manifesto?
A. Working software over comprehensive documentation
B. Individuals and interactions over processes and tools
C. Customer collaboration over contract negotiation
D. Responding to change over following a plan
Responding to change over following a plan
Which tasks should a project manager perform in order to manage the project schedule effectively?
A. Plan Schedule Management, Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Durations,
Define Quality of Activities. Develop Schedule
B. Plan Schedule Management. Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Durations.
Develop Schedule. Control Schedule
C. Plan Schedule Management. Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Durations.
Estimate Cost of Activities. Develop Schedule
D. Define Activities. Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Durations. Define Quality of Activities.
Estimate Cost of Activities, Develop Schedule
Plan Schedule Management. Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Durations.
A project team conducts regular standup meetings to keep everyone updated on what each one of
them is working on. What type of communication is this?
A. Informal
B. Unofficial
C. Formal
D. Hierarchical
Informal
In order to detect quality Issues earlier in the project life cycle, the project manager is using an agile/adaptive environment. What is the main difference between waterfall and agile/adaptive development approaches tor Project Quality Management?
A. The frequency of the quality and review steps
B. The number of deliverables
C. The duration of each of the quality and review steps
D. The tools used in the quality and review steps
The frequency of the quality and review steps
A project manager is analyzing a few network diagrams in order to determine the minimum duration of a project. Which diagram should the project manager reference?
A. A diagram in which resource optimization has been applied.
B. A diagram in which the critical path method has been applied.
C. A diagram in which a predefined series of activities has been organized.
D. A diagram which shows a combination of resource and time optimization.
A diagram in which the critical path method has been applied.
Under which circumstances should multiple projects be grouped in a program?
A. When they are needed to accomplish a set of goals and objectives for an organization
B. When they have the same project manager and the same organizational unit
C. When they have the same scope, budget, and schedule
D. When they are from the same unit of the organization
When they are needed to accomplish a set of goals and objectives for an organization
Which of the following are outputs from the process of creating a work breakdown structure (WBS)?
A. Project scope statement and accepted deliverables
B. Scope baseline and project documents update
C. Accepted deliverables and enterprise environmental factors
D. Scope baseline and work performance information
Scope baseline and project documents update
Which is a list of organizational systems that may have an impact on a project?
A. Internal policies, company procedures, and organizational resources
B. Company culture, purchasing system, and project management information system
C. Organizational structure, governance framework, and management elements
D. Organizational process assets, enterprise environmental factors, and corporate knowledge
Organizational process assets, enterprise environmental factors, and corporate knowledge
Which process is engaged when a project team member makes a change to project budget with the project manager’s approval?
A. Manage Cost Plan
B. Estimate Costs
C. Determine Budget
D. Control Costs
Manage Cost Plan
Which of the following is an example of an organizational system that is arranged based on the job being performed?
A. Simple
B. Multi-divisional
C. Functional
D. Project-oriented
Functional
Which of the following best correspond to the organizational process assets (OPAs) that affect the project?
A. Policies and lessons learned from other projects
B. Information technology software and employee capability
C. Resource availability and employee capability
D. Marketplace conditions and legal restrictions
Policies and lessons learned from other projects
If you are using an Ishikawa diagram to determine the root cause of problems, which process are you engaged in?
A. Plan Quality Management
B. Control Quality
C. Risk Management
D. Plan Scope Management
Control Quality
Why is tailoring in a project necessary?
A. Requirements keep changing.
B. An artifact must be produced.
C. A tool or technique is required.
D. Each project is unique.
Each project is unique.
Explanation: Each project is unique, and the members of the project team should select the appropriate tools,
techniques, inputs, and outputs from the PMBOK Guide.
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DRAG DROP
Match the influence with its corresponding category of influence.
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A company must implement sales software because it is opening a new branch in a foreign market. Although this software is used in every domestic branch, multiple changes are expected during the implementation because It is a foreign location. Which type of life cycle would the project manager use in this case?
A. Predictive life cycle
B. Waterfall life cycle
C. Hybrid life cycle
D. Product life cycle
Hybrid life cycle
Which is the best way for a project manager to ensure efficient and frequent communication with
management and stakeholders in an agile/adaptive environment?
A. Post project artifacts in a transparent fashion and engage stakeholders on a regular basis.
B. Make surveys among the stakeholders and meet with the team once a month.
C. Create a social network and post news there.
D. Create
Post project artifacts in a transparent fashion and engage stakeholders on a regular basis.
In a project using agile methodology, who may perform the quality control activities?
A. A group of quality experts at specific times during the project
B. The project manager only
C. All team members throughout the project life cycle
D. Selected stakeholders at specific times during the project
All team members throughout the project life cycle
Howls program success measured?
A. By delivering the benefit of managing the program’s projects in a coordinated manner
B. By the quality, timeliness, cost-etfectiveness. and customer saDstaction of the product or service
C. By completing the right projects to achieve objectives rather than completing projects the right way
D. By aggregating the successes of the individual projects in the program
By delivering the benefit of managing the program’s projects in a coordinated manner
Which of the following is used to classify stakeholders based on their assessments of power, urgency, and legitimacy?
A. Power interest grid
B. Stakeholder cube
C. Salience model
D. Directions of influence
Salience model
How can a project manager determine if the project activities comply with organizational and project policies, processes, and procedures?
A. Look at the quality metrics.
B. Validate the scope.
C. Review the quality checklist.
D. Conduct a quality audit.
Conduct a quality audit.
In an agile or adaptive environment. when should risk be monitored and prioritized?
A. Only during the initiation and Closing phases
B. During the initiation and Planning phases
C. During each iteration as the project progresses
D. Throughout the Planning process group and retrospective meeting
During each iteration as the project progresses
What conflict resolution technique involves delaying the issue or letting others resolve it?
A. Smooth/accommodate
B. Collaborate/problem solve
C. Withdraw/avoid
D. Force/direct
Withdraw/avoid
Which of the following is an example of an internal factor that influences the outcome of the project?
A. Legal restrictions
B. Financial considerations
C. Commercial database
D. Geographic distribution of facilities
Geographic distribution of facilities
Explanation:
(Geographic distribution of facilities and resources) EEFs internal to the organization pg 76 of 6th
Edition. All other options are listed under the EEFs External to the organization
Given the following information:
Activity A takes one week. Activity B takes three weeks. Activity C takes two weeks. Activity D takes five weeks. Activity A starts at the same time as Activity B. Activity C follows Activity B and Activity A. Activity D follows Activity C. How long will it take to complete the project?
A. Eleven weeks
B. Nine weeks
C. Eight weeks
D. Ten weeks
Ten weeks
A project manager is searching for solutions that bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties in order to temporarily resolve a conflict. What conflict management technique is described in this situation?
A. Withdraw/avoid
B. Smooth /accommodate
C. Collaborate/problem solve
D. Compromise/ reconcile
Compromise/ reconcile
Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis focuses on:
A. compiling a list of known risks and preparing responses to them.
B. assessing the probability of occurrence and Impact for every risk in the risk register.
C. evaluating the contingency and management reserves required for the project.
D. analyzing numerically the impact of individual risks on the overall project’s time and cost objectives.
analyzing numerically the impact of individual risks on the overall project’s time and cost objectives.
Which of the following describes the similarities of the process groups and project life cycle?
A. The life cycle involves three project management process groups.
B. Both provide a basic framework to manage the project.
C. Each project must have a life cycle and all processes in the five process groups.
D. The project life cycle is managed by executing the processes within the five process groups.
Each project must have a life cycle and all processes in the five process groups.
The features and functions that characterize a result, product, or service can refer to:
A. project scope
B. product scope
C. service scope
D. product breakdown structure
product scope
What is the role of project management in terms of organizational strategy?
A. Project management aligns initiatives, prioritizes work, and provides resources.
B. Project management provides the strategic vision (or an organization lo achieve its goals.
C. Project management enables the achievement of organizational goals and objectives.
D. Project management harmonizes components and controls interdependencies to realize specific
benefits.
Project management enables the achievement of organizational goals and objectives.
Which of the following set of elements is part of an effective communications management plan?
A. Escalation processes, person responsible for communicating the information, glossary of common
terminology, methods or technologies used to convey the information
B. Phone book directory, stakeholder communication requirements, project charter, glossary of common
terminology
C. Organizational chart, escalation processes, person responsible for communicating the information,
project management plan, glossary of common terminology
D. Glossary of common terminology, constraints denved from specific legislation and regulation, person
responsible for communicating information, project management plan, resource management plan
Escalation processes, person responsible for communicating the information, glossary of common
terminology, methods or technologies used to convey the information
Which of the following lists represents the outputs of the Monitor Communications process?
A. Project communications, project management plan updates, project documents updates, and organizational process assets updates
B. Work performance information, change requests, project management plan updates.
and project documents updates
C. Communications management plan, project management plan updates, work performance report, and
project documents update
D. Stakeholder engagement plan, change requests, project management plan updates, and project
documents updates
Work performance information, change requests, project management plan updates.
Which project manager competency is displayed through the knowledge, skills, and behaviors related to specific domains of project, program, and portfolio management?
A. Leadership management
B. Technical project management
C. Strategic management
D. Business management
Technical project management
During the planning phase, a project manager must create a work breakdown structure (WBS) to
improve management of the project’s components. What should be included in the WBS?
A. Activity dependencies
B. Work package risks
C. Description of work
D. Resource estimates
Description of work
Which is the correct hierarchy in a project environment, from most to least Inclusive?
A. Projects, portfolios, then programs
B. Portfolios, programs, then projects
C. Portfolios, projects, then programs
D. Projects, programs, then portfolios
Projects, programs, then portfolios
What are the objectives of Initiation processes?
A. Initiation processes are performed in order to develop the project charier and Identify stakeholders.
B. Initiation processes are performed in order to obtain budget approval for a project or phase and approve scope with customers.
C. Initiation processes are performed to identify business objectives for a project or phase and identify
stakeholders’ goals.
D. Initiation processes are performed to map initial requirements for a project or phase and prioritize them with stakeholders.
Initiation processes are performed to map initial requirements for a project or phase and prioritize them with stakeholders.
A project manager is monitoring and recording results of executing the quality management activities to assess performance and ensure the project outputs are complete, correct, and meet customer expectations. Which output is the project manager using?
A. Approved change requests
B. Verified deliverables
C. Lessons learned
D. Work performance data
Verified deliverables
Which set of activities should a project manager use as part of the Develop Team process?
A. Training and establishing ground rules
B. Networking activities and estimating team resources
C. Conflict management activities and tracking team performance
D. Recruit new team members and training
Training and establishing ground rules
Which of the following is an example of tacit knowledge?
A. Risk register
B. Project requirements
C. Expert judgment
D. Make-or-buy analysis
Expert judgment
Which role does the project manager resemble best?
A. Orchestra conductor
B. Facilities supervisor
C. Functional manager
D. School principal
Orchestra conductor
A project has an estimated duration of 10 months with a total budget of US$220,000. At the end of the fifth month, it is estimated that at completion, the project will incur US$250,000. If the actual cost (AC) calculated is US$150,000, what is the earned value (EV) of the project?
A. USS-30,000
B. US$120,000
C. US$370,000
D. US$400,000
$400,000
When should Project Risk Management be conducted?
A. Project Planning
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Quality Planning
D. Throughout the project lifecycle
Quality Planning
A project manager is reviewing the change requests for project documents, deliverables, and the project plan. In which project management process does this review belong?
A. Monitor and Control Project Work
B. Direct and Manage Project Work
C. Close Project or Phase
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
Perform Integrated Change Control
Which task will a project manager undertake while conducting Project Resource Management?
A. Identity the different aspects of me team to manage and control physical resources efficiently.
B. Procure equipment, materials, facilities, and infrastructure for the project.
C. Train the team members in project skill sets.
D. Define the roles and responsibilities of each team member.
Identity the different aspects of me team to manage and control physical resources efficiently.
The project manager is working in the processes of Project Resource Management. Which process is the project manager developing if they are using parametric estimation?
A. Plan Resource Management
B. Estimate Activity Resources
C. Estimate Costs
D. Acquire Resources
Estimate Activity Resources
Deciding the phases of a project life cycle would be considered a part of which of these knowledge areas?
A. Project Schedule Management
B. Project Scope Management
C. Project Resource Management
D. Project Integration Management
Project Integration Management
What type of meeting is held to discuss prioritized product backlog items?
A. Status
B. Daily standup
C. Iteration planning
D. Release planning
Iteration planning
Which type of project life cycle uses an iteration plan?
A. Agile
B. Predictive
C. Waterfall
D. Product
Agile
Analyzing activity sequences, durations, resource requirements, and schedule constraints for project execution and monitoring and controlling relates to which process?
A. Develop Schedule
B. Control Schedule
C. Estimate Activity Durations
D. Define Activities
Develop Schedule
A project manager needs to demonstrate that the project meets quality standards and success criteria. For that reason, the project manager is defining the quality objectives of the project, the quality tools that will be used, and quality metrics for the project deliverables. Which process is the project manager executing?
A. Manage Quality
B. Plan Quality Management
C. Control Quality
D. Plan Scope Management
Plan Quality Management
A project team is discussing an upcoming planned product launch of a highly visible technologically advanced artificial intelligence tool. The team is debating the aspect of iterative and hybrid approaches. Which aspect of tailoring would this best represent?
A. Life cycle approaches
B. Resource availability
C. Project dimensions
D. Technology support
Technology support
What type of change requires the submission of a change request?
A. Changes in assigned resources
B. Changes in a technical solution
C. Changes in status reporting
D. Changes in the project’s scope
Changes in the project’s scope
With regard to a project manager’s sphere of influence in a project, which of the following does the project manager influence most directly?
A. Suppliers
B. Customers
C. Governing bodies
D. Project team
Project team
A project manager has to share a status report with a new stakeholder and is trying to determine the level of detail to include in the report. Which document best details the information the project manager needs to make this decision?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Change management plan
C. Communications management plan
D. Resource management plan
Communications management plan
Which of the following are components of the technical project management skill?
A. Ability to explain business aspects of the project, business strategy, goals and objectives, and business value.
B. Ability to deal with people, to be collaborative, and to apply persuasion and negotiation.
C. Ability to focus on relationships with people, inspire trust, and implement decisions and actions that
support the business strategy.
D. Ability to plan and prioritize, gather the right artifacts available for each project, and focus on critical
success factors.
Ability to plan and prioritize, gather the right artifacts available for each project, and focus on critical
success factors.
Make-or-buy analysis is a tool and technique of which process?
A. Conduct Procurements
B. Plan Procurement Management
C. Analyze Procurements
D. Control Procurements
Plan Procurement Management
What does expert judgment provide as an input to the resource management plan?
A. Geographic distribution of facilities and resources
B. Physical resource management policies and procedures
C. Estimated lead times based on lessons learned
D. Templates for the resource management plan
Geographic distribution of facilities and resources
What is one of the main purposes of the project chatter?
A. Formal authorization of the existence of the project
B. Formal acceptance of the project management plan
C. Formal approval of the detailed project budget
D. Formal definition of stakeholder roles and responsibilities
Formal authorization of the existence of the project
Which is the order of steps in the Procurement Management process?
A. Identifying and planning procurement requirements, obtaining quotes or proposals, negotiating with
vendors, contracting with selected vendors, and controlling procurements
B. Identifying and planning procurement requirements, negotiating with vendors, contracting with
selected vendors, obtaining quotes or proposals, and controlling procurements
C. Controlling procurements, identifying and planning procurement requirements, obtaining quotes or
proposals, negotiating with vendors, and contracting with selected vendors
D. Obtaining quotes or proposals, identifying and planning procurement requirements, negotiating with
vendors, contracting with selected vendors, and controlling procurements
Identifying and planning procurement requirements, obtaining quotes or proposals, negotiating with
vendors, contracting with selected vendors, and controlling procurements
A project manager is preparing to meet with three crucial project stakeholders on a new project Which tools and techniques can the project manager use to capture stakeholder interest?
A. Review stakeholder register and meeting
B. Data analysis and communication skills
C. Data gathering and data analysis
D. Communication skills and cultural awareness
Communication skills and cultural awareness
Which of the following documents ate created as part of Project Integration Management?
A. Project charter and project management plan
B. Communications management plan and scope management plan
C. Quality management plan and risk management plan
D. Project scope statement and communications management plan
Project charter and project management plan
Project reporting is a tool that is most closely associated with which process?
A. Communicate Plan
B. Manage Communications
C. Report Performance
D. Control Communications
Manage Communications
A project manager Is addressing risks and potential concerns related to stakeholder management, and Is clarifying and resolving previously Identified issues. In which process is the project manager engaged?
A. Identify Stakeholders
B. Plan Stakeholder Engagement
C. Manage Stakeholder Engagement
D. Monitor Stakeholder Engagement
Plan Stakeholder Engagement
Which tool should a project manager consider to deal with multiple sources of risk?
A. An updated risk register
B. Risk breakdown structure
C. Issue log
D. Stakeholder register
Risk breakdown structure
What are the key tools for managing project knowledge?
A. Expert judgment and data gathering
B. Networking and storytelling
C. Data analysis and decision making
D. Prototypes and product analysis
Expert judgment and data gathering
A project manager has just completed several brainstorming sessions and has gathered the data to show commonality and differences in one single place.
What technique was followed?
A. Collective decision making
B. Multicriteria decision analysis
C. Mind mapping
D. Affinity diagram
Mind mapping
What is the discipline that focuses on the interdependences between projects to determine the optimal approach for managing them?
A. Project Management
B. Program Management
C. Portfolio Management
D. Operations Management
Project Management
Once the make-or-buy analysis is completed, which document defines the project delivery method?
A. Procurement statement of work (SOW)
B. Procurement strategy
C. Terms of reference
D. Change request
Procurement strategy
A project stakeholder is requesting changes to the project plan. Which process group addresses this?
A. Initiating Process Group
B. Planning Process Group
C. Executing Process Group
D. Monitoring and Controlling Process Group
Monitoring and Controlling Process Group
Which set of competencies should a project manager have?
A. Leadership, strategic and business management, and technical project management
B. Expertise in the Industry, leadership and business management, and bilingual skills
C. Technical project management, expertise in every role, and PMP certification
D. Expertise in every detail on project activities. PMP certification, and leadership
Leadership, strategic and business management, and technical project management
What is the best tool to calculate the critical path on a project?
A. Critical chain method
B. Graphical evaluation and review technique (GERT) diagram
C. Gantt chart
D. Project network diagram
Gantt chart
Which tools and techniques will a project manager use to develop a project charter?
A. Project manager experience, expert judgment, scope statement, and meetings
B. Lessons learned database. Interpersonal and team skills, cost baseline, and meetings
C. Expert judgment, data gathering. scope statement, schedule baseline, and meetings
D. Expert judgment, data gathering. interpersonal and team skills, and meetings
Expert judgment, data gathering. interpersonal and team skills, and meetings
Which statement is related to the project manager’s sphere of influence at the organizational level?
A. A project manager interacts with other project managers to detect common interests and impacts
between their projects.
B. A project manager facilitates communication between the suppliers and contractors on the project.
C. A project manager considers the current industry trends and evaluates how they can impact or be
applied to the project.
D. A project manager may inform other professionals about the value of project management.
A project manager interacts with other project managers to detect common interests and impacts
between their projects.
What is the difference between quality metrics and quality measurements?
A. Quality metrics are product attributes and the measurement is the result of the Monitor and Control Project process
B. Quality metrics are the result of the Monitor and Control Project process and the measurements are
product attributes
C. Quality metrics and measurements are the same concept
D. Quality metrics is the general objective and the measurements are the specific objectives
Quality metrics are product attributes and the measurement is the result of the Monitor and Control Project process
The project manager is distributing project communications, collecting and storing project information, and retrieving documents when required. In which process is the project manager involved?
A. Monitor Communications
B. Plan Communications Management
C. Manage Communications
D. Manage Stakeholder Engagement
Manage Communications
A firm contracted an event management company to conduct the annual sales day event. The agreement states that the event management company will charge the firm for the actuals and receive 8% of the total cost. What type of contract Is this?
A. Time and material (T8M)
B. Fixed price incentive fee (FPIF)
C. Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF)
D. Cost plus award fee (CPAF)
Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF)
The project management plan requires the acquisition of a special part available from a supplier located abroad. Which source selection method is being used?
A. Least cost
B. Qualifications only
C. Sole source
D. Fixed budget
Qualifications only
Which of the following are processes associated with Project Cost Management?
A. Develop Costs. Estimate Costs, Determine Budget. Control Costs
B. Develop Budget, Determine Budget, Determine Risks, Control Costs
C. Plan Cost Management, Estimate Costs. Determine Budget. Control Costs
D. Plan Budget Management. Determine Budget, Create Cost Accounts. Control Costs
Plan Cost Management, Estimate Costs. Determine Budget. Control Costs
How is the Project Scope Management process different in agile and adaptive projects then In traditional projects?
A. Less time spent on defining scope early on
B. More time spent on defining scope early on
C. Less time spent on scope management process
D. Project scope management is the same in all projects
Less time spent on defining scope early on
What charts and figures should project managers use during the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
process?
A. Tornado diagrams and influence diagrams
B. Detectability bubble charts and probability and impact matrix
C. Hierarchical charts and burndown charts
D. Flow charts and responsible, accountable, consult, and inform (RACI) charts
Tornado diagrams and influence diagrams
A project manager needs to tailor the Project Cost Management process.
Which considerations should the project manager apply?
A. Diversity background
B. Stakeholder’s relationships
C. Technical expertise
D. Knowledge management
Knowledge management
A project reports an earned value (EV) of USS45 for work completed with an actual cost (AC) of US$40. What is the cost performance index (CPI)?
A. 0.88
B. 1.12
C. 0.58
D. 1.58
1.12
A project is in progress and about to move to a different phase, according to the plan. This will be a good opportunity for the project manager to:
A. create the project management plan.
B. identify the project objectives.
C. review and update stakeholder engagement.
D. create the schedule baseline.
review and update stakeholder engagement.
The project manager is working with some functional managers and stakeholders on the resource management plan Which elements may be included in this plan?
A. Team values, team agreements, and conflict resolution process
B. Conflict resolution process, communication guidelines, and meeting schedules
C. Team roles and responsibilities, team management, and training plan
D. Resource requirements, resource assignments, and team performance assessments
Resource requirements, resource assignments, and team performance assessments
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DRAG DROP
Match each dimension of the communications management plan to its corresponding focus.
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Tailoring considerations for project scope management may include:
A. requirements management, stability of requirements, development approach, and validation and
control.
B. WBS guidelines, requirements templates, deliverable acceptance forms, and verified deliverables.
C. business needs, product descriptions, project restrictions, and project management plan.
D. issues defining and controlling what is included in the project, vended deliverables, and quality
reports.
requirements management, stability of requirements, development approach, and validation and
control.
Which format can a network diagram take?
A. Flow chart
B. Control chart
C. Affinity diagram
D. Cause-and-effect diagram
Flow chart
What does an S-curve from a Monte Carlo analysis show?
A. Cumulative probability distribution representing probability of achieving a particular outcome
B. Individual project risks or uncertainties that have the most potential impact on outcome
C. Best alternative out of the possible solutions, incorporating associated risks and opportunities
D. Diagram for all project uncertainties and their influence over a period of time
Cumulative probability distribution representing probability of achieving a particular outcome
In which Project Cost Management process is work performance data included?
A. Plan Cost Management
B. Estimate Costs
C. Determine Budget
D. Control Costs
Control Costs
A project manager is identifying the risks of a project. Which technique should the project manager use?
A. Representations of uncertainty
B. Prompt lists
C. Audits
D. Risk categorization
Prompt lists
A project manager held a meeting and listed all team members’ ideas for improving the product on a white board. What data gathering technique did the project manager apply?
A. Focus groups
B. Interviews
C. Brainstorming
D. Delphi technique
Brainstorming
A project using the agile/adaptive approach has reached the Project Integration Management phase.
What is the project manager’s key responsibility during this phase?
A. Defining the scope of the project
B. Building a collaborative environment
C. Creating a detailed project management plan
D. Directing the delivery of the project
Building a collaborative environment
Explanation:
PMBOK pg. 74 Considerations for Agile Adaptive Environments: PjM’s focus is on building a collaborative decision-making environment and ensuring team has ability to respond to changes.
The procurement requirements for a project include working with several vendors. What should the project manager take into consideration during the Project Procurement Management
processes?
A. Work performance information
B. Bidder conferences
C. Complexity of procurement
D. Procurement management plan
Procurement management plan
When developing the project schedule, a project manager uses decomposition and rolling wave planning techniques in this process.
A. Develop Schedule
B. Define Activities
C. Define Scope
D. Collect Requirements
Define Activities
At the beginning of an iteration, the team will work to determine how many of the highest-priority items on the backlog list can be delivered within the next iteration. Which of the following activities is done first?
A. Create Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
B. Create Scope Baseline
C. Collect Requirements
D. Define Scope
Define Scope
The project manager is creating the communications management plan.
Which group of inputs Is required to begin?
A. Work performance reports, change requests, and risk register
B. Work performance data, project documents, and stakeholder engagement plan
C. Project charter, project management plan, and project documents
D. Work performance data, stakeholder register, and team management plan
Project charter, project management plan, and project documents
It you established a contingency reserve including time, money, and resources, how are you handling risk?
A. Accepting
B. Transferring
C. Avoiding
D. Mitigating
Accepting
A project manager is determining the amount of contingency needed for a project. Which analysis is the project manager using?
A. What-if scenario analysis
B. Simulation
C. Alternatives analysis
D. Reserve analysis
Reserve analysis
Which of the following must be included in the risk register when the project manager completes the Identify Risks process?
A. List of identified risks, potential risk owners, list of potential risk response
B. List of identified risks, list of causes, list of risk categories
C. Short risk titles, list of potential risk owners, list of impacts on objectives
D. List of activities affected, list of potential risk responses, list of causes
List of identified risks, potential risk owners, list of potential risk response
Which of the following technology platforms is most effective for sharing information when managing virtual project teams?
A. Video conferencing
B. Audio conferencing
C. Shared portal
D. Email/chat
Email/chat
What is a tailoring consideration for the application of Project Risk Management processes?
A. Project complexity
B. Procurement criteria
C. Communication technology
D. Knowledge management
Project complexity
What should a project manager use to determine how much money is needed to complete a project?
A. Earned value management (EVM)
B. Estimate at completion (EAC)
C. Earned value analysis (EVA)
D. Budget at completion (BAG)
Estimate at completion (EAC)
What tool or technique can improve a products final characteristics?
A. Design for X (DfX)
B. Problem solving
C. Process analysis
D. Risk report
Design for X (DfX)
Which action should the project manager take after the team finishes executing the scope?
A. Verify the deliverables to ensure that they are correct and meet the customer’s satisfaction.
B. Accept all the deliverables and deliver them to the customer for final acceptance.
C. Conduct a joint session with the customer, change the deliverables, and then request approval.
D. Check that all change requests were implemented and release deliverables to the customer.
Verify the deliverables to ensure that they are correct and meet the customer’s satisfaction.
Which of the following sets are inputs to the Collect Requirements process?
A. Project charter and requirements documentation
B. Project charter and business documents
C. Project charter and stakeholder requirements
D. Business documents and requirements traceability matrix
Project charter and business documents
The project manager is dividing the project scope into smaller pieces, and repeating this process until no more subdivisions are required. At this point the project manager is able to estimate costs and activities for each element.
What are these elements called?
A. Project activities
B. Work packages
C. Planning packages
D. Project deliverables
Work packages
In which organizational structure would the project manager have most authority?
A. Matrix-weak
B. Matrix-balanced
C. Matrix-strong
D. Organic or simple
Matrix-strong
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DRAG DROP
A team receives four different requests from separate stakeholders related to one application Match each
requirement with its corresponding type of change request.
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Which term refers to the work performed to deliver results with specified features and functions?
A. Project scope
B. Product scope
C. Change request
D. Acceptance criteria
Project scope
A sponsor asks a project manager to provide a project’s expected total costs based on its progress. What formula should the project manager use to determine this?
A. Earned value (EV) / actual cost (AC)
B. Estimate at completion (EAC) - AC
C. Budget at completion (BAC) / cost performance index (CPI)
D. EV - planned value (PV)
Estimate at completion (EAC) - AC
A project manager is working on an estimate. The project team is estimating each work package and then finding the total of all the work packages. Which technique is the project manager using?
A. Three-point estimating
B. Parametric estimating
C. Bottom-up estimating
D. Data analysis
Bottom-up estimating
In an agile and adaptive project, which scope management entity invokes stakeholder engagement?
A. Collect Requirements
B. Create work breakdown structure (WBS)
C. Plan Scope Management
D. Scope Baseline
Collect Requirements
Which is an example of analogous estimating?
A. Estimates are created by individuals or groups with specialized knowledge.
B. Estimates are created by using information about resources of previous similar projects.
C. Estimates are created by analyzing data.
D. Estimates are created at the task level and aggregated upwards.
Estimates are created by using information about resources of previous similar projects.
Responsible, accountable, consult and inform (RACI) is an example of which of the following?
A. Text-oriented formal
B. Resource management plan
C. Organization chart
D. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
What should the project manager use to evaluate the politics and power structure among stakeholders inside and outside of the organization?
A. Expert judgment
B. Interpersonal skills
C. Team agreements
D. Communication skills
Communication skills
When managing costs in an agile environment, what should a project manager consider?
A. Lightweight estimation methods can be used as changes arise.
B. Agile environments make cost aggregation more difficult.
C. Agile environments make projects more costly and uncertain.
D. Detailed cost calculations benefit from frequent changes.
Lightweight estimation methods can be used as changes arise.
How should a project manager plan communications for a project which has uncertain requirements?
A. Include stakeholders in project meetings and reviews, use frequent checkpoints, and co-locate team
members only.
B. Invite customers to sprint planning and retrospective meetings, update the team quickly and on a daily basis, and use official communication channels.
C. Adopt social networking to engage stakeholders, issue frequent and short messages, and use
informal communication channels.
D. Adopt a strong change control board process, establish focal points for main subjects, and promote formal and transparent communication.
Invite customers to sprint planning and retrospective meetings, update the team quickly and on a daily basis, and use official communication channels.
Why is tailoring required in a project?
A. Because a one-size-fits-all approach avoids complications and saves time.
B. Because every project is unique and not every tool, technique, input, or output identified in the PMBOK Guide is required.
C. Because tailoring allows us to identify the techniques, procedures, and system practices used by those in the project.
D. Project managers should apply every process in the PMBOK Guide to the project, so tailoring is not required.
Because tailoring allows us to identify the techniques, procedures, and system practices used by those in the project.
The project manager is working in an agile/adaptive environment. The project manager is considering different approaches for applying Project Integration Management in this environment. How can the project manager ensure that this will work for the project?
A. Take control of all decisions and product planning.
B. Build a team that can respond to changes within a collaborative, decision-making
environment.
C. Promote a team with a narrow specialization within a hierarchical environment.
D. Delegate project decisions to the product owner and sponsor.
Delegate project decisions to the product owner and sponsor.
In which of the Risk Management processes is the project charter used as an input?
A. Plan Risk Responses
B. Implement Risk Responses
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Responses
Plan Risk Management
Recognition and rewards are tools and techniques of which process?
A. Develop Team
B. Manage Team
C. Control Resources
D. Plan Resource Management
Develop Team
Which conflict resolution technique produces the most lasting results?
A. Withdraw/avoid
B. Smooth/accommodate
C. Compromise/reconcile
D. Collaborate/problem solve
Compromise/reconcile
Which of the following is a category of organizational process assets?
A. Government standards
B. Organizational culture
C. Employee capabilities
D. Organizational knowledge bases
Organizational knowledge bases
What organizational asset can influence the Plan Risk Management process?
A. Corporate policies and procedures for social media, ethics, and security
B. Organizational risk policy
C. Stakeholder register templates and instructions
D. Organizational communication requirements
Stakeholder register templates and instructions
Which contract type is least desirable to a vendor?
A. Fixed price with economic price adjustment (FPEPA)
B. Firm fixed price (FFP)
C. Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF>
D. Cost plus award fee (CPAF>
Firm fixed price (FFP)
How can a project manager maintain the engagement of stakeholders in a project with a high degree of change?
A. Monitor project stakeholder relationships using engaging strategies and plans
B. Send all project documents to stakeholders each time they are modified
C. Schedule monthly meetings with the stakeholders, including team members
D. Engage only with the project sponsors
Schedule monthly meetings with the stakeholders, including team members
Creating the project scope statement is part of which process?
A. Manage Scope
B. Collect Requirements
C. Define Scope
D. Validate Scope
Define Scope
