Practice Test Flashcards
1
Q
DD 200
A
Financial Liability Investigation or Property Loss Form (FLIPL)
2
Q
NAVSUP 1250-1
A
Requestion and Invoice/ Shipping Doc (External)
3
Q
DD 1249
A
Single Line Document Consumption Requestion Document (Internal)
4
Q
DD 1348
A
Issue Release RECEIPT Document
5
Q
Reasonable travel time to receive health care
A
2 hours 1 way
6
Q
BUMEDINST 6410.9
A
Medical Surveillance in remote areas where flight surgeons are not available
7
Q
How many days after going UA does the record get sent to PSD?
A
10
8
Q
Decedent Affairs: Who is responsible for the formulation and promulgation of policies, standards, procedures, and training?
A
Medcom 332
9
Q
What labs must be drawn during a mishap investigation for aviation?
A
2 gray, 2 purple, 3 red, 75 ml UA
10
Q
What is the purpose of the EFMP?
A
Tailor medical needs to family members
11
Q
Who provides medical waiver guidance for aviators? Who approves the medical waivers?
A
NAMI
12
Q
Where are the individual ship requirements for the number and location of First aid boxes specified?
A
Genspec 652 - O
13
Q
What are the objectives of the Decedent Affairs program? (4 of them)
A
Communication with PNOK SNOK
High standards of uniformity
Fast delivery of remains
Recovery of remains
14
Q
NAVMED 6150/7
A
Charge out reciept
15
Q
DD2215
A
Reference Audiogram
16
Q
DD2216
A
Hearing Conservation Data
17
Q
6150/4
A
Abstract Of Service and Medical History
18
Q
6230/4
A
Immunization Record
19
Q
SF600
A
Chronological Record of Medical History
20
Q
NAVMED 6000/2
A
Chronological Record of HIV Testing
21
Q
NAVMED 6150/2
A
Special Duty Medical Abstract
22
Q
SF 513
A
Consultation Sheet
23
Q
DD 2808
A
Report of Medical Examination
24
Q
OPNAV 5211/9
A
Record of Disclosure
25
DD2766
Adult Preventative Medicine and Chronic Care Flow Sheet
26
DD2807
Report of Medical History
27
DD 2005
Privacy Act Statement
28
NAVMED 6224/1
TB Contact/ Reactor
29
What are the 3 occasions that you verify a medical record?
Check in, Check out, Examinations
30
What is the field activity of the undersecretary of Defense for Personal and Readiness??
DHA (Big daddy)
31
What are the 3 categories of Privacy act Violations and what is the penalty?
Wrongful disclosure
Wrongful maintaining
Wrongfully obtaining records
Misdemeanor, 5k, civil penalties
32
EFMP Categories: 1,2,3,4,5,6
1. Monitoring purposes
2. No CONUS restriction
3. Some CONUS and OCONUS limitations
4. No Oversees
5. Homesteading
6. Temporary 6mos-1 year
33
Whoe provides guidance and counseling on pre pregnancy and prevention and risk mangment?
Occ Health
34
Types of Feedback reports:
Urgent: Safety of ship and crew
Cat A: Non Technical
Cat B: Technical
35
How do you prepare a casket while on ship?
4 top lid, 4 bottoms lid, 2 each side, 8 bottoms, 5 3/4 inch straps on top lid, bottom lid, and 1 vertical
36
What does HIPAA stand for?
Health Insurance Portability Accountability Act
37
If you have a service member who returns to active duty service, what form do you use to request the record and where are you requesting from?
NPRC- National Personal Records Center
DD877
38
When conducting a down chit, who recieves the original and who reiceives copies?
Co gets original
Ops O get copy
Train O gets a copy
SVM should get a copy
39
What Instruction governs Suitability Screenings?
BUMEDINST 1300.2
40
The SMDR will develop a financial plan based on what four things?
Experience
Projected Requirements
Shelf Life
Ship Schedule
41
Current Death Program
Peace time disposition of remains
42
Graves Program
War time - Search, recovery and evacuation
43
Concurrent Death Program
Mixes Graves and Current
44
Return Of Remains Program
Act of Congress, Temporary Cemetaries or Permanent Cemetaries overseas
45
Form number for an up/ down chit.
DD2992
46
What Office directly supports the provision of medical care to remotely located Active Duty and reserve members through tricare remote?
MMSO
47
HIPAA violations and their penalties.
Wrongful Disclosure -50k 1 years
Wrongful disclosure under false pretense- 100k 5 years
Wrongful disclosure with intent to sell or transfer or malicious intent- 250k - 10 years
48
Who is authorized to release information from the medical record?
Cognizant, system managers
49
How far back do statements need to be in the case of a mishap?
72 hours
50
Reasons for a suitability exam
Match needs
Increase quality of life
Decrease early returns, gaps, spending
51
Enrollment criteria for EFMP
For spouses and children, Deers enrollment, chronic illness
52
MILPERSMAN 1770-030
Casualty Reporting Requirements
53
Three categories of fund types
CER
Consumable
Equipment
Repair
54
Who is responsible for executing the Privacy act for the USN?
CNO
55
When may and IDC clear a downed aviator and how?
Via a flight surgeon consult
56
Navy policy for worldwide assignment and appointing a guardian?
OPNAV 1740.4F
57
Who is responsible for disposition of unidentified remains?
Commander of Navy medical, Commandant
Medcom 332
58
Reason to Initiate a survey
Missing equipment- Ordinance, Line items over 800, Classified info, sensitive material, narcotics, repetitive loss
59
4 places to record allergies
Front of record, NAVMED 6230/4, SF600, NAVMED 6150/4
60
When looking for further guidance on medication use and grounding what place can you contact to get help?
NAMI
61
Reimbursement for health care related expenses forms and additional documents
DD2642
Itemized bill and reciepts
62
Forms for suitability screenings
1300/1/2
2807
1300/16
63
What instruction governs EFMP
OPNAV 1754.2C
64
Periodicity code for situational maintenance
R
65
Adjudicating authority for payment CONUS and OCONUS
WHP
MCSC
66
How many days do system managers have to respond to a request for an amendment?
10 days
67
4 used for medical record
Education
Communication between providers
Legal document
History of treatment
68
BUMED responsibilities (Suitability)
Determines causes, corrective action for screening deficiencies
69
Transferring CO (Suitability)
Coordinates suitability screening
70
MTF SSC (Suitability)
Coordinates suitability inquiry with MTF providers
71
MTF CO
Provides suitability recommendation
72
Gaining MTF
Make Suitability determination
73
Responsibilities of CO (EFMP)
EFM needs Assessment
Annual EFM training
Appoint EFM POC
Ensure enrollment
74
IDCs first priority in aircraft mishap
Treatment
75
What age do children come off TRICARE
21, 23 in college
76
Civilian Hospital
Forward HREC, original to Admin Cognizant
77
Federal Facs
HREC with patient, forward if needed
78
Foreign Hospital
Make a copy, translate, send to MTF with Cognizance
79
COSAL
Lists equipment on ship necessary for saftey care and upkeep of the ship
80
ESL
Verify status of all equipment used in 3m
81
MRC
Detailed guide on each maintenance requirement and how to perform it
82
AEL
Items not covered under other categories
83
MIP
an index, identifies all components in a table and tells you where they are and what they do and how to maintain them
84
APL
IDs part requirements in navy supply system
85
LOEP
listing of MIPs, an equipment not requiring PMS assigned to each work center
86
CSMP
Detailed lisiting of deferred maintenance used for workload planning and coordination
86
Tricare regions
E,W, Overseas
86
Form number for Certificate of Death
DD 2064
87
Know the meds in aviation
88
Who periodically evaluates shipboard repro hazards and makes recommendations
IH
89
What is NAVSUP P485
Supply manual afloat
90
Expiration for a down chit, expiration for an up chit
Never expires, last day of birth month
91
Instruction for Decedent Affairs
NAVMEDCOMINST 5360.1
92
MANMED chapters for physical exams
15
93
List some pregnancy limitations
Prt exemption till 6 mos post partum, off ship by 20 weeks, no high risk training, exempt from TDAP, FLU, Dipth, tet
94
What does the CACO do
Admin stuff with deceased family
Personal effects
ship HHG
Employment and Ed
SGLI
NEX Privs
95
Manual you can utilize to get guidance regarding aircraft mishaps investigations
Flight surgeons pocket reference
96
