Practice test Flashcards by pamela marte

Which of the following converts trypsinogen to trypsin?
a. Elastase
b. Chymotrypsin
c. Enteropeptidase
d. Pancreatic lipase

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Which of the following nerves do not innervate the extraocular muscles?

a. Oculomotor-
b. Optic
c. Trochlear
d. Abducens

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The MHC II on conventional dendritic cells allows for?

a. Recognition of PAMPs
b. Cell to cell communication
c. Antigen presentation
d. Identifying blood type

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A patient PTC for foul-smelling diarrhea that she developed 6 days after her antibiotic treatment for S.aureus. Which of the following microorganisms is the cause of her new symptom?

a. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
b. Clostridium botulinum
c. Enterotoxigenic E.coli
d. Clostridium difficile

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Which of the following is responsible for the committing step in glycolysis?

a. Phosphofructokinase-1
b. Hexokinase
c. Pyruvate kinase
d. Phosphoglycerate kinase

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Which of the following controls body temperature set point in the brain?

a. Hippocampus
b. Hypothalamus
c. Thalamus
d. Medulla oblongata

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Which of the following lies at the level of the diencephalon?

a. Lateral ventricles
b. Third ventricle
c. Cerebral aqueduct
d. Fourth ventricle

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Which of the following recognizes PAMPS?
a. MCHI- virus
b. MCHII- bacteria
c. TAGs
d. Toll-like receptors

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Which of the following presents with painful genital sores?

a. Haemophilus ducreyi
b. Treponema pallidum
c. Chlamydia trachomatis
d. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

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All are components of the G-protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs) hormone signal transduction unit EXCEPT:
a. protein kinase A.
b. adenylyl cyclase.
c. hormone receptor.
d. G-protein.
e. all of the above.

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The Rb protein is in which phase of the cell cycle?
a. Mitosis
b. cytokinesis
c. Cell growth
d. DNA synthesis

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Which of the following converts fibrinogen into fibrin?
a. Prothrombin
b. Thrombin
c. Tissue factor
d. Factor IX

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Which of the following is the epithelium in the urinary bladder?

a. Transitional epithelium
b. Stratified squamous
c. Simple columnar
d. Simple cuboidal

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Goodpastures is what type of hypersensitivity reaction?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

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Which of the following organisms is coagulase positive?

a. Staphylococcus epidermidis
b. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
c. Staphylococcus haemolyticus
d. Staphylococcus aureus

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Steroid hormones, such as glucocorticoids, affect their action by:

a. binding to a plasma membrane receptor and then entering the cell.
b. binding the plasma membrane receptor, which stimulates the receptor to enter the cell.
c. entering into the cell and affecting the production of secondary messengers.
d. entering into the cell and then acting as transcription regulators.
e. none of the above

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Amino acids are transported across the apical membrane by which of the following?

a. Facilitated diffusion
b. Active transport
c. Passive diffusion
d. Osmosis

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Langerhan cells are found in which of the following layers of the epidermis?
a. Stratum corneum
b. Stratum lucidum
c. Stratum granulosum
d. Stratum spinosum

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Which of the following initiates the alternative complement cascade?
a. MBL
b. C3b
c. CRP
d. C1 complex

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Pelvic inflammatory disease is associated with which of the following?
a. N. gonorrhoeae
b. Chlamydia trachomatis
c. Clostridium difficile
d. Haemophilus ducreyi

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Which of the following does NOT correctly pair a hormone with its function?

a. ACTH - promotes production of thyroxin
b. calcitonin - regulates plasma Ca2+
c. FSH - stimulates processes within the gonads
d. insulin - regulates metabolism and blood glucose
e. prolactin - stimulates milk production

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In chronic obstructive lung disease, what does the Va/Q ratio look like?
a. Increased
b. Decreased
c. unchanged

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Which of the following vitamins prevents peroxidation of polyunsaturated membrane fatty acids?
a. A
b. D
c. E
d. K

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Which of the following microorganisms presents with a rash that starts on the trunk and spreads to the hands and feet?
a. Treponema pallidum
b. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
c. Haemophilus influenzae
d. Chlamydia trichomoniasis

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Which of the following congenital disorders results from a defect in the metabolism of branched chain amino acids? a. PKU b. MSUD c. Homocystinuria d. None of the above

b maple syrup urine disease

26. Which of the following occurs at the end of isovolumetric contraction? a. Mitral valve opens b. Mitral valve closes c. Aortic valve closes d. Aortic valve opens

27. The amount of cAMP generated in the cytoplasm is dependent on the: a. activity of adenylyl cyclase only. b. activity of the phosphodiesterase only. c. the length of time the GTP remains bound to the Ga-protein only. d. all of the above.

28. What is the product of urea cycle? a. Ammonia b. Citrulline c. arginine d. ornithine

29. What inhibits lactogenesis during pregnancy? a. Estrogen b. Testosterone c. DHEA d. Progesterone

30. In the forearm, the lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve arises from the: a. Median nerve b. Ulnar nerve c. Musculocutaneous nerve d. Radial nerve

31. Increasing sertoli cell numbers leads to: a. Increase in spermatozoa b. Increase in testosterone c. Decrease in testosterone d. Decrease in spermatozoa

32. Cells infected by viruses can also signal the presence of intracellular infection by expressing on their surfaces viral proteins that can be recognized by antibodies. Cells bound by such antibodies can then be killed by a specialized lymphoid cell called a: a. Mast cell b. Natural killer cell c. Eosinophil d. Macrophage

33. Which of the following are non-motile enteric gram-negative bacteria with a very distinct polysaccharide capsule? This capsule is thought to interfere with immunologic reactivity of the organism. These bacteria are commonly associated with lobular pneumonia and can be highly resistant to antimicrobial agents a. E. coli b. Klebsiella pneumoniae c. N. meningitidis d. Shigella sonnei

34. The rate-limiting step in the synthesis of bile acids is catalyzed by a. 7α-Hydroxylase b. HMG CoA reductase c. 25-hydroxycholecalciferol 1-hydroxylase d. 12α-Hydroxylase

35. The taste sensation is supplied to the tongue with which of the following nerves? a. The lingual nerve supplies the anterior ⅔ and the glossopharyngeal the posterior ⅓ b. The chorda tympani supplies the anterior ⅔ and the glossopharyngeal the posterior ⅓ c. The glossopharyngeal nerve supplies the anterior ⅔ and the hypoglossal the posterior ⅓ d. The lingual nerve supplies the anterior ⅔ and the glossopharyngeal the posterior ⅓ e. The chorda tympani supplies the anterior ⅔ and the hypoglossal nerve the posterior ⅓

36. Increase in plasma K+ concentrations stimulates aldosterone synthesis by: a. Stimulating ACTH secretion from the pituitary gland b. Reducing atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) level c. Activating adenylyl cyclase of the zona glomerulosa d. Stimulating Ca2+ influx into the zona glomerulosa cells

37. Which of the following etiological agents corresponds with acute epiglottitis? a. Bordetella pertussis b. Haemophilus ducreyi c. Haemophilus influenzae d. Legionella pneumophila

38. The function of acyl carrier protein in the fatty acid synthase complex is to a. Activate acetyl CoA carboxylase b. Serve as a precursor to coenzyme A c. Transfer acyl groups to malonyl CoA d. Carry acyl groups

39. Which of the following events occurs last during embryogenesis? a. Appearance of the amniotic cavity b. Breakup of the primary yolk sac c. Formation of the chorionic cavity d. Opening of the trophoblastic lacunae

40. A deficiency in which of the following vitamins can lead to night blindness? a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin E c. Vitamin K d. Vitamin D

41. Growth hormone stimulates which of the following? a. Somatostatin b. Calcitonin c. IGF-1 d. Cortisol

42. Which of the following makes the medial wall of the bony orbit? a. Lesser wing of the sphenoid b. Zygomatic c. Frontal d. Lacrimal

43. Which of the following is primarily involved in a viral infection? a. TGF-beta b. TNF-alpha c. IL-22 d. IL-6

44. Delta cells in the pancreas secrete which of the following hormones? a. Insulin b. Glucagon c. Somatostatin d. Ghrelin

45. Which statement regarding the blastocyst is correct? a. It attaches to the endometrial epithelium b. Its disappearance results from enlargement of the blastocyst and degeneration caused by enzymatic lysis c. It begins to differentiate into two layers, syncytiotrophoblast and cytotrophoblast d. It erodes endometrial tissues (capillaries, glands, stroma)

46. A 22-year-old man recovering from third-degree burns develops a wound infection. There is a distinct grape-smelling odor and a blue pigment develops when grown in vitro on nutrient agar. What is the most likely etiology? a. Pseudomonas b. Staph. Aureus c. Streptococcus pyogenes d. Clostridium perfringens

47. Which of the following innervates semispinalis? a. Accessory nerve b. Greater occipital nerve c. Axillary nerve d. Dorsal scapular nerve

48. In which part of the stomach does gastric mixing occur? a. Pylorus b. Fundus c. Antrum d. Body

The second rib or its costal cartilages articulate with all of the following EXCEPT? a. Body of the sternum b. Manubrium c. 2nd vertebral body d. 3rd vertebral body

50. Which of the following factors causes arteriolar constriction? a. Adenosine b. Neuropeptide Y c. K+ d. VIP

51. A parasitic infection will induce the activation of which of the following? a. IL-4 b. IL-10 c. IL-6 d. IL-12

52. Which of the following is an example of a symphysis joint? a. Radio-ulnar joint b. Metacarpal-phalangeal joint c. Intervertebral disc d. Distal tibiofibular

53. Alkaptonuria is a rare genetic metabolic disorder characterized by the accumulation of which of the following in the body? a. Succinyl Acetoacetic acid b. Homogentisic acid c. Phenylalanine hydroxylase d. Tyrosine aminotransferase

54. Which of the following responses occurs after moving from the supine to the standing position? a. Increased firing of sympathetic nerves going to veins b. Increased firing of parasympathetic nerves going to the heart c. Decreased firing of parasympathetic nerves to blood vessels in skeletal muscle d. Arteriolar vasodilation in skin and muscle

55. Which of the following valves limits blood flow from the aorta to the left ventricle? a. Mitral valve b. Tricuspid valve c. Tricuspid valve d. Aortic valve

A medical student forgot to eat breakfast and lunch while studying for their exam, the will brain use which of the following as a first response source of fuel? a. Glucose b. Ketones c. Fatty acids d. glycogen

57. During the cardiac resting cycle, the largest volume of blood passing through the mitral valve occurs during which of the following? a. Isovolumetric contraction b. Rapid ejection c. Isovolumetric relaxation d. Systole

58. A deep abscess may be caused by which of the following gram positive bacteria? a. Listeria monocytogenes b. Clostridium difficile c. Bacillus cereus d. Staphylococcus aureus

Microcytic anemia can be caused by a deficiency in which of the following? a. Niacin b. pyridoxine c. Folate d. Cobalamin

Vision depends on light-induced regulation of which of the following channels? a. Voltage gated sodium channels b. Nicotinic cholinergic ligand gated channels c. Acetylcholine gated channels d. ATP sensitive potassium pump

61. Which of the following is the embryological derivation of the palatine tonsil? a. 1st pharyngeal pouch b. 2nd pharyngeal pouch c. 3rd pharyngeal pouch d. 4th pharyngeal pouch

62. Which of the following vitamins is responsible for the activation of precursors of prothrombin and other clotting factors by hydroxylation and decarboxylation of glutamate residues? a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin E c. Vitamin K d. Vitamin D

63. Which of the following is expected during exercise? a. Increased blood flow to the intestines b. Increased cardiac output c. Decreased blood pressure d. Decreased ejection fraction

64. Which of the following is responsible for the destruction of cellular proteins during apoptosis? a. Caspases b. Methionine c. Phospholipases d. Glutathione peroxidase

65. Which of the following microorganisms can cause blindness? a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae b. Chlamydia trachomatis c. Rickettsia rickettsii d. Borrelia burgdorferi

66. Which of the following is an example of supportive connective tissue? a. Ligaments b. Platelets c. Adipose d. Cartilage

A baroreceptor reflex response to low arterial pressure will result in: a. Increased sympathetic tone b. Decreased sympathetic tone c. Increased vagal nerve activity d. Miosis

68. During which stage of an infection of Treponema pallidum will it present with a rash on the trunk spreading to the hands and feet? a. Primary stage b. Secondary stage c. Latent stage d. Tertiary stage

69. Absorbed lipids are condensed with glycerol in the epithelial cells into __ and re-packaged into ___ that are initially transported by the ___ system. a. Phospholipases; VLDL; lymphatic b. Triacylglycerols ; VLSL; portal c. Triacylglycerols ; chylomicrons ; portal d. Triacylglycerols ; chylomicrons ; lymphatic

70. Which spinal nerve exits at the L4-L5 intervertebral foramen? a. L3 b. L4 c. L5 d. S1

71. Cholinergic postganglionic fibers of the sympathetic division mediate which of the following? a. Positive chronotropy b. Positive inotropy c. Cutaneous vasodilation d. Pupillary miosis

72. Which of the following lies within the investing fascia? a. Trachea b. Internal jugular vein c. Recurrent laryngeal nerve d. Trapezius

73. A child presenting with a stiff neck, severe headache, epiglottis, and difficulty breathing may be infected with which of the following? a. Helicobacter pylori b. Neisseria meningitidis c. Clostridium botulinum d. Haemophilus influenzae

Which of the following results in a negative chronotropic effect? a. Epinephrine b. Norepinephrine c. Vagus stimulation

75. The majority of lipid digestion occurs in the duodenum by the enzyme ___ that produces ___ and __ for absorption. a. Acid lipase ; diacylglycerols ; fatty acids b. Pancreatic lipase ; monoacylglycerols ; fatty acids c. Pancreatic lipase ; glycerols ; fatty acids d. Triacylglycerol lipases ; fatty acids ; glycerol

76. Which of the following is the outermost layer of connective tissue surrounding skeletal muscle? a. Epimysium b. Perimysium c. Endomysium d. Myomysium

The main cause of vasodilation in active skeletal muscle is? a. Activated mAchRs b. Activated alpha adrenergic receptors c. Activated beta adrenergic receptors d. Local metabolic signals like adenosine

78. Which of the following is produced by the bone marrow in an innate immune response? a. IL-13 b. IL-17 c. IL-7 d. IL-1 beta

79. Which of the following is the embryological derivation of the fallopian tubes? a. Paramesonephros b. Mesonephros c. Allantois d. Neural crest

Which of the following will be a result of Dr. Schmidt going hiking and undergoing high altitude respirations causing hypoxia-induced hyperventilation? a. Hypocapnia b. Hypercapnia c. Hyperoxia d. Acidemia

81. Which one of the following is the predominant finding during the plateau phase of the cardiac action potential? a. Efflux of potassium b. Rapid sodium influx c. Slow influx of calcium d. Resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ ATPase

82. Which one of the following is the predominant finding during phase 0 of the cardiac action potential? a. Efflux of potassium b. Rapid sodium influx c. Efflux of calcium

83. When would you expect to see hypoxemia hypercapnia? a. Asthma b. Sleep apnea c. Exercise

84. What is the most likely cause of hypercholesterolemia? a. High HDL b. Abnormal LDL receptors c. Gallbladder removal d. Low LDL

85. Antihistamines would be most effective against? a. Mast cells b. Cytotoxic t cells c. INF alpha d. Neutrophils

86. Which reflex is triggered to prevent overinflation of the lungs a. Hering breuer b. Baroreceptor reflex c. Vasovagal reflex

failure to fuse the maxillary and medial nasal processes results in

cleft lip

______ are on _____ cells and trigger the slowing of the heart by vagal nerve activity.

Muscarinic Ach receptors, pacemaker cells

Vitamin A deficiency leads to ___ that can be reversed by adding __ to the diet.

night blindness, beta carotene

Vitamin E prevents __ of polyunsaturated membrane fatty acids.

peroxidation

Vitamin K is involved in activation and of precursors of prothrombin and other clotting factors by _ and _ of glutamate residues.

Hydroxylation and carboxylation

Vitamin D deficiency leads to

Bone demineralization and Rickets

During ___, the body anticipates demand for oxygen.

Feed-forward

The function of _ is the destruction of cellular proteins during apoptosis.

Caspases

Storage of declarative memory depends on the _ region.

Hippocampus

The body temperature set point is controlled by the _ region.

hypothalamus

Botulism toxin blocks:

exocytosis

The _ is unique to the axis (C2).

Odontoid process

What decreases the amount of genetic material for one entire chromosome?

Aneuploidy

_ bind to enzymes involved in metabolism, allosterically changing the enzyme activity.

ATP, ADP, AMP

What converts fibrinogen to fibrin?

Thrombin

Pec major is named for its:

Location AND size

Factors that can reduce the stroke volume and reduce cardiac output during prolonged exercise:

Increased cutaneous blood flow AND Increased sympathetic output

Melanocytes are found primarily in the:

Stratum basale

Langerhans Cells are found:

Stratum spinosum

What will become components of urinary and genital systems.

Intermediate mesoderm: kidneys and gonads

The _ branches off of the subclavian artery.

vertebral artery

In a patient with DM, glucose is present in the urine when filtered glucose _ in the proximal tubule.

exceeds maximum rate of transport

Enzymes that remove ammonia from body cells:

Glutamate dehydrogenase AND glutamine synthase (main one)

A bacterial infection on the lining of the throat will induce:

IL-22

Exercise induced hypocapnia is respiratory compensation for _

exercise-induced acidosis

Absorbed lipids are condensed with glycerol to form TAGS and repackaged into _ and are initially transported by the _

Chylomicrons, lymphatic system

Is NOT a key regulatory enzyme in the synthesis of TAGs from carbs.

Phosphofructokinase

Progression of oocyte after fertilization:

zygote, morula, and blastula

Vision depends on light-induced regulation of:

ligand-gated sodium channels

Anatomical position means the patients arms:

supinated, turning the palm upward or forward

Medial wall of the bony orbit is formed by:

sphenoid, lacrimal, frontal, and ethmoid bones

Hormones produced by the pancreas:

insulin and glucagon

Volume loading in a patient with limited kidney function results in:

prolonged and sustained elevation both TPR and BP

Increase of calcium entry into ventricular myocytes in called:

Positive inotropic effect

Breathing at high altitudes and chronic restrictive pulmonary disease (COPD) can cause:

Hypocapnia

In an autosomal recessive trait, two affected individuals can not have an:

Two AFFECTED parents will have AFFECTED offspring

The brain uses ____ as its first response source of fuel AND _____ during times of extended fasting or starvation?

Glycogen, Ketones

Alkaptonuria patients have a deficiency of:

Homogentisate oxidase

The L4 spinal nerve exits through:

L4-L5 intervertebral foramen

Tendon is an example of: (also ligament and aponeurosis)

dense regular connective tissue

Mycoplasma pneumonia can cause a rash on the:

trunk and limbs

Maple syrup urine disease is a defect in the metabolism of:

BCAAs (Branched Chain Amino Acids) leucine, isoleucine, and valine

The epithelium of the bladder is:

transitional

Know how cancerous tumors can develop

From oncogenes or inhibition of tumor suppressor genes.

Progesterone inhibits what during pregnancy?

lactogenesis

What cranial nerves innervate the ocular muscles?

3,4,6

The intervertebral disk is what type of joint

symphysis joint

Chronic pain sensations are carried by:

C-fibers

After 24 hours of fasting, you would expect to find large amounts of _ in the bloodstream.

Glutamine and urea

A deep abscess caused by gram+ cocci is likely:

Staph aureus

What innervates semispinalis thoracis?

posterior primary rami

NMDA can induce LTP at the hippocampus synapse and trigger:

EPSP activated ligand-gated sodium channels

Treponema pallidum is syphilis and can present with a rash on the trunk and extremities during:

second stage of infection

A genetic deficiency of MCAD prevents normal use of FA as fuel, results in _ and is_

results in hypoglycemia, is autosomal recessive

deficiency of pyridoxine (B6)

Sarcoplasmic reticulum is the source of _ that bind to _ and trigger skeletal muscle contraction.

calcium ions that bind to troponin

Haemophilus ducreyi (chancroid) causes:

painful genital lesions

The hydrolysis of PIP2 yields _ (a secondary messenger)

DAG and ip3

Graves disease is a_ sensitivity reaction

type 2 hypersensitivity reaction

Transamination requires:

PLP(B6), NOT TPP

During the cardiac resting cycle, the largest volume of blood passing through the mitral valve occurs during:

Isovolumetric relaxation

COPD causes:

Low V/Q ratio

A product of urea is:

ammonia

Most amino acids are absorbed across the _, Peptides are cotransported with protons (H+)

Intestinal apical membrane

TNF alpha is primarily involved in the immune response against:

viruses

Child with severe HA, stiff neck, and difficulty breathing. No lesions on skin.

Haemophilus influenzae (Meningitis)

Patient with inflammatory disease associated with Chlamydia trachomatis, which is associated with:

blindness

Patient with inflammatory disease associated with Chlamydia trachomatis, which is associated with:

blindness

Travelers diarrhea causing symptoms of watery diarrhea and nausea:

Enterotoxigenic E. coli

Patient infected w/Treponema pallidum, primary infection: skin lesion on genitalia and enlarged lymph node. After treatment with penicillin, what symptoms should the patient look out for if it progressed?

Second stage infection: rash on trunk and limbs

Common diagnostic feature of mycoplasma infection

Rash on trunks and limbs (mycoplasma pneumonia )

Patient hospitalized for Staphylococcus infection and treated with high dose antibiotics. After recovery, 1 week later, she develops foul-smelling diarrhea and has pseudomembranous colitis:

Clostridium difficile

Tetrahydrofolate can be deactivated by using _ during cancer treatment

Dihydrofolate reductase

PFK-1 can have _ activity and _ energy change in pathway

PFK-1 is stimulated by low energy signals…

If ATP and/or Acetyl CoA are low pyruvate will go into ____, if they are high pyruvate will go into ___

Low - Urea High = OAA

What are the different structures of protein?

Primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary

Purine degradation. Xanthine oxidase produces ______ from purines?

Production of uric acid

Vitamin A deficiency leads to atrophy and keratinization of epithelium, leading to dry skin and hair, other skin issues and _____

Night blindness

Vitamin E deficiency leads to ____, ___ and ____

Blood cell fragility, neurological disorders and sterility

Vitamin K deficiency leads to _____

delayed clotting time so excessive bleeding ensues

_____ is NOT a regulatory enzyme of the synthesis of TAGs from Carbohydrates but what is?

PFK is NOT

General deficiency in _____ will prevent normal use of FA for fuel, hypoglycemia and is autosomal recessive

MCAD medium chain acetyl-coenzyme a

What are needed for FA synthesis?

Acetyl - CoA, NADPH (B3), one large enzyme complex and Biotin (B7)

Lipid condensed with glycerol in duodenum into ____ and repackaged into _____ initially transported by _____ system

TAG, Chylomicrons, and Lymphatic system

Pancreas produces ____ and ____

Insulin and glucagon

_____ is a precursor for arachidonic acid, which is the precursor to inflammatory eicosanoid production (prostaglandins)

Linoleic acid (omega 6)

Alkaptonuria is due to a deficiency in ____

Homogentisate oxidase

Maple syrup disease is from _____

BCKAD - branched chain a-keto acid dehydrogenase

Transamination requires _____ vitamin

Vitamin B6

What type of chromosomal mutation results in a decrease in the amount of genetic material for one entire chromosome?

Aneuploidy

Autosomal recessive rules include -

Two AFFECTED parents will have AFFECTED offspring Two UNAFFECTED parents can have UNAFFECTED and AFFECTED offspring

Autosomal dominant rules include -

Two AFFECTED parents will have UNAFFECTED and AFFECTED offspring Two UNAFFECTED parents will NEVER have AFFECTED offspring

P53 is known as what and plays a role in what?

Guardian of the cell, plays a central role in the checkpoint pathways and stimulates production of enzymes involved in DNA repair

______ are present in the cell walls of gram-negative bacteria

Lipopolysaccharides (LPS) = endotoxin,