Practice Test Flashcards
Among the Iroquois tribes, women possessed a position of ascendancy because:
A: They were elected as monarchs
B: They were the only ones allowed to be sachems
C: The were believed to be connected to the earth deity
D: They were the owners of the longhouses
C
Why were Europeans interested in finding a passage to India?
A: They wanted to import pepper directly from India
B: They wanted to access the Asian commercial market
C: They wanted to attack the Ottoman Turks from behind
D: They were interested in Indian silk and cotton products
B
The Great Awakening was among the intellectual trends behind the American Revolution because:
A: It instilled Enlightenment ideals in the American society
B: It promoted the rule of the people
C: It allowed religious plurality and diversity
D: It highlighted the religious foundations of the colonies
C
The early growth in the population of the Virginia colony was due to which of the following?
A: Immigrants coming in search of gold
B: Criminals being exiled from England to the New World
C: Immigration of indentured workers
D: High fertility rate of the settlers in the New World
C
“But where says some is the King of America? I’ll tell you Friend, he reigns above, and doth not make havoc of mankind like the Royal Brute of Britain…let it be brought forth placed on the divine law, the word of God; let a crown be placed thereon, by which the world may know, that so far as we approve of monarchy, that in America THE LAW IS KING.” This quote would have been advocated by which of the following:
A: A loyalist Tory
B: A “New Light” minster
C: One of the Sons of Liberty
D: A Puritan
C
In 1796, the Democratic-Republicans represented which segment of the colonial population?
A: Wealthy northern merchants
B: Southern tobacco farmers
C: Puritans
D: Those loyal to the Constitution
B
Which of the following was the primary motivation for the Western expansion of the U.S.:
A: A Manifest Destiny to convert all Native Americans to Christianity
B: Jeffersonian expansionism
C: The need to limit the power of the Mexican government west of Mississippi
D: The search for gold
B
In what way did the railroad help the American economy in the 19th century:
A: It allowed for quicker travel to the west and helped move more settlers
B: The cost of shipping agricultural goods was lowered
C: It allowed for quicker access to the ports in the south
D: It gave rise to rich, entrepreneurial railroad magnates
B
“But what is government itself, but the greatest of all reflections on human nature? If men were angels, no government would be necessary. If angels were to govern men, neither external nor internal controls on government would be necessary. In framing a government which is to be administered by men over men, the great difficulty lies in this: you must first enable the government to control the governed; and in the next place, oblige it to control itself.” - Federalist (Papers) 51
Which of the following best summarizes the quote above:
A: A strong government is necessary to protect the people; & that government must also be empowered to regulate itself
B: Individual freedoms and local concerns must be protected explicitly to properly protect the people
C: The best government is one run by the religious, because they are inspired by angels
D: Governments need no regulation as long as moral men are in charge of the government
A
“If your Union does not symbolize universal emancipation, it brings no Union for me. If your Constitution does not guarantee freedom for all, it is not a Constitution I can ascribe to. If your flag is stained by the blood of a brother held in bondage, I repudiate it in the name of God.” This passage reflects the political opinions of which historical figure?
A: Frederick Douglas
B: Lucretia Mott
C: Jefferson Davis
D: Henry Clay
A
What was the legal debate that prompted the secession of the states from the Union prior to the Civil War?
A: The imposition of federal tariffs
B: The right of the federal government to interfere with state laws
C: The abolition of slavery in the Northern states
D: The right of the southern states to continue owning slaves
B
In what way did the Black Codes limit African- American equality:
A: Prohibited the public expression of legal concern
B: Prohibited testifying against whites
C: Restricted voting rights
D: All of the above
D
“Look things in the face. Don’t fear a governor; don’t fear anybody. You pay the governor; he has the right to protect you. You are the biggest part of the population in the state. You create its wealth, so I say, ‘let the fight go on; if anybody else will keep on, I will.’” This passage can best be linked to which social ideology:
A: Women’s Suffrage
B: Labor Unions
C: Social Darwinism
D: Gospel of Wealth
B
Which of the following was a reform on the excesses of the Gilded Age?
A: Gospel of Wealth
B: Social Darwinism
C: Trust busting
D: Manifest Destiny
C
The Spanish-American war occurred over what issue:
A: The independence of Texas from New Spain (Mexico)
B: The US control of Philippines
C: The independence of Cuba
D: The US control of Puerto Rico
C
What conflict prompted the US entry into the theatre of the First World War:
A: German attack on France
B: Germany’s unrestricted submarine warfare
C: German-Mexican alliance
D: German alliance with Spain
B
How were urbanization and industrialization developed in the post WWI American economy?
A: Large companies started establishing headquarters in the great cities
B: Industries serving the urban household started to rise
C: Automobile industry helped decrease urban concentration of the population
D: Factories concentrated in cities helped increase the concentration of urban populations
B
Other than the crash of the Market, which one of the following best describes the elements which contributed to the deepening of the Great Depression?
A: Increasing reliance of the American consumers on credit purchases
B: Lack of government regulations for banks and bank failures
C: Decreasing European taste for American products
D: Government bankruptcy and the decrease in federal services
B
What was the achievement of the Glass-Steagall Banking Reform Act?
A: It divided the failing banks into four categories based on their performance
B: It allowed the federal government to bail out failing banks
C: It created the Securities and Exchange Commission
D: It created the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation
D
How did WWII help the American economy?
A: It encouraged the entry of women laborers into the factories
B: It initiated technological innovations
C: American armament factories sold weapons to the Allies
D: Munitions factories employed more laborers and helped solve the unemployment problem
D
In which way was the Nazi treatment of Jews not similar to the American treatment of Japanese-Americans during WWII?
A: Denial of citizenship rights
B: Internment in labor camps
C: Formation of segregated military units to serve in the armed forces
D: Eviction from homes, jobs, & universities
C
“As an essential step in our own national defense, to aid Britain in holding the line until we can be more adequately and thoroughly prepared, to keep the war away from our own shores, to furnish supplies ammunitions and thus saving calling of men to defend our own soil, to oppose and resist the establishment of world dictatorship and the destruction of free government in order that military masters may not establish a “new world order” on the ruins and ashes of liberty, I am supporting [this action]. The voice of America demands that we act now. We must not wait until the invader sets his footsteps upon our soil or challenges us upon the sea and in the air.”
- Speech by Senator Tom Connally (D-TX) on February 17, 1941
The passage most likely supports:
A: U.S. entry into the war
B: Internment of the Japanese-Americans
C: Passage of the Lend Lease Act
D: U.S. invasion of Japan
C
What triggered U.S. intervention in Vietnam?
A: Expansion into foreign markets
B: Desire to colonize the country
C: American dependence on oil
D: Belief in the Domino Theory
D
How were African-Americans affected by policies under President Truman?
A: Cabinet positions were offered to A-As for the first time
B: The Armed Forces were desegregated
C: Public schools in the South were desegregated
D: The first A-A Supreme Court judge was appointed
B
Which demographic was most impacted by the changes in the Immigration Act of 1965?
A: Africans
B: Asians
C: Latin Americans
D: Western Europeans
C
“Because of their impotence they marched - - and many were beaten. For three years, they had watched their President step up a wretched war he had promised not to escalate. They had participated in teach-ins, marches, and election campaigns, only to see the Administration widen the war as their protest increased.” This passage best describes which of the following events:
A: The Great March on Washington, calling for civil and economic rights for African Americans in 1963
B: Chicago Democratic National Convention Protests, 1968
C: The March on the Pentagon in 1967
D: The New York City Stonewall Riots of 1969
C
Why was the Persian Empire the first “world empire”?
A: It was the first to conquer the three river systems of the Nile, Indus, & Mesopotamia
B: It improved transportation systems with the canal connecting the Nile to the Red Sea
C: It integrated each of it’s satraps into the imperial bureaucracy in order to ensure long term production & payment of tribute
D: It preceded the empire of Alexander the Great
C
Who was qualified to run for an office in ancient Athenian democracy?
A: Any adult citizen
B: Male citizens
C: Only free citizens
D: Anyone who owned property
B
What was the outcome of the Punic Wars for Rome?
A: Control of the trade and commerce in the Mediterranean
B: Possession of North African and Spain
C: Defeat of the Seleucid Empire
D: The Social Revolution
A
In what ways are Judaism and Christianity similar?
A: Compassion & charity to the poor & unfortunate is a religious responsibility
B: Monotheistic belief in one God who is all-powerful
C: Despite persecution, both remained faithful to their religion
D: All of the above
D
In Confucianism, the major qualification for serving in a public office is:
A: Possessing the virtues of a gentleman
B: Performing the correct rituals
C: Proving political merit
D: Possessing noble blood
C
What were the causes of the fall of the Roman Empire?
A: Invasions by various barbarian peoples
B: Lack of tax revenue led to a weakened military & deterioration of transportation & trade routes
C: Power struggles over succession
D: All of the above
D
How was the political crisis following the death of the Prophet Muhammad resolved?
A: By appointing his cousin, Ali, as an imam
B: By the election of his friend Abu Bakr as the Caliph
C: By establishing a governing council
D: Muhammad’s death was followed by a civil war among the Muslims
B
In which way is Japanese Feudalism different from European Feudalism?
A: In Japan, power and wealth was land-based where in Europe it was gold-based
B: In Europe, the warrior class swore fealty to the landed class, but in Japan the landed class swore fealty to the warrior class
C: After the death of a vassal lord in Europe, land ownership reverted to the great lord/king; In Japan, land of a vassal lord was inherited by the eldest son
D: In Japan, there was only one ruler to whom all lords swore fealty; In Europe, there were many kings/great lords
D
What was the motivation for the Crusades?
A: To increase trade with Asia
B: To spread Christianity
C: To free the Holy Land from the Muslim rule & unite Christian countries under the influence of the Pope
D: To strengthen a jumping off point for an invasion of Asia
C
How did the Mongols conquer the greatest land empire in history?
A: They used advanced military technology of rifles & cannons
B: They vastly outnumbered their opponents
C: They negotiated peace with educated diplomats & trade agreements
D: They used superior military strategy & psychological warfare
D
What was the major cause of the Hundred Years War?
A: Competition between two rival English royal houses
B: The claim of the king of France over the English crown
C: The claim of the king of England over the French crown
D: The rebellion of Jeanne d’Arc
C
How did the Silk Road transform European society?
A: Increased interest in Asian goods & trade with Asia
B: Diffused ideas, art, & religion from Asia & the Middle East
C: Spread the Black Plague, decimating a third of the European population
D: All of the above
D
The dome of St. Peter’s cathedral in Rome was inspired by:
A: The dome of Hagia Sophia in Constantinople
B: The dome of the Cathedral of Granada
C: It was designed independently by Michaelangelo
D: It was developed based on ancient Roman principles re-discovered during the Renaissance
A
How did the Protestant Reformation affect European politics?
A: It inspired the unification of small states within Italy & within Germany
B: It inspired the French Revolution
C: It united the countries of England, France, & Prussia against the Holy Roman Empire
D: It caused numerous wars, including the 30 Years War & diminished the power of the Catholic church
D
What was the motivation for the voyages of exploration in the 1500s:
A: Gaining direct access to Asian & Indian Ocean trade
B: Scientific exploration of unknown waters
C: Nationalistic desire to expand territory overseas
D: Industrial need for new markets of manufactured goods
A
How did colonialism affect the European economies?
A: It provided them with gold and silver
B: It allowed their population to migrate out of Europe
C: It allowed them to have many slaves
D: It provided them with resources to compete against Asian economies
D
What was the major declaration of the French Revolution called?
A: The French Constitution
B: The Declaration of the Abolishment of the Monarchy
C: The Declaration of the Rights of Man and of the Citizen
D: The Magna Carta
C
What was the major motivation for the German Reunification in the 19th Century?
A: The threat against the Germans by the Russians and the French
B: Prussian expansionism
C: Rise of German nationalism
D: The rising trend of centralization and consolidation in industrial nations
C
What were the major catalysts for European industrialization?
A: Expensive human capital and their relative disadvantage in global commerce
B: European scientific ingenuity and liberal market forces
C: Advancements of technical knowledge and the presence of capital
D: Protestant ethics and the spirit of capitalism
A
Which of the following best describes the reasons for the rise of racism in 19th century Europe?
A: Rise of nationalism and xenophobia along with religious fanaticism
B: The impoverishment of the working classes and social disturbances
C: The rise of European colonialism and the development of the theory of Social Darwinism
D: The high number of slaves in the Americas and their secondary migration to Europe
C
What was the underlying reason for the start of World War One?
A: The competition between German and France
B: The assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand of Serbia
C: The colonial competition between the European powers
D: The German-Austrian treaty against France and Britain
C
How did WWI accelerate the fall of the Russian empire?
A: The losses of the German empire led to a spread of democratic ideals, leading to the fall of all empires
B: The war crippled the industrial economy and, combined with losses at the front, inspired a revolution from the working class
C: The capture of the czar by the Central Powers ended the Romanov dynasty and instigated an interim government
D: The treaty that ended Russia’s involvement in WWI led to the civil war between the czar and those who wished to continue fighting
B
Which of the following events best marks the turning point in World War II?
A: The Rape of Nanking by the Japanese
B: Operation Barbarossa by the Nazis
C: The D-Day invasion by the Allies
D: The signing of the Rome-Berlin Axis
D
What is the term used to denote the socio-political thought prevalent in the countries who gained their independence from European colonial powers?
A: Anti-Imperialism
B: Extremism
C: Post-Structuralism
D: Post-Colonialism
D
“The Cold War was wildly expensive and consumed the entire globe.” Which of the following statements most closely expresses the meaning of this quote?
A: Nuclear research devoured all countries’ economies and resulted in a holocaust that we have yet to recover from
B: The competition between the superpowers for supremacy depleted their resources, claimed many casualties, and left no continent militarily or politically untouched
C: The Cold War was the Third World War because it cost more in lives and economic dedication than World War I and II put together
D: The Cold War directly involved every nation in the world
B
Which one best characterizes the achievements of the Cold War?
A: Triumph of Capitalism
B: Freedom of Soviet Bloc countries
C: Technological competition and achievements
D: Competition in sports and other social control methods
C
“The keystone is the concept of the State, of its essence, its functions, and its aims. The State is absolute, individuals and groups relative.” This passage captures the central idea of which political theory?
A: Liberalism
B: Conservatism
C: Multilateralism
D: Fascism
D
What was the intellectual basis of the establishment of the three branches of the government?
A: Montesquieu’s the Spirit of the Laws
B: John Locke’s the Two Treatises of Government
C: The Magna Carta
D: Rousseau’s Social Contract
A
Which of the following is the bets definition of the Moderate political stance?
A: Generally reform-minded aspires to a constitutional based government
B: Desires revolutionary change that places governmental power in the hands of the formerly oppressed
C: Argues for universal suffrage
D: Posits that order and hierarchy are the foremost priorities of government
A
Which one is an example of the application of the principle of Checks and Balances?
A: The power of the president to grant pardons
B: The power of the Supreme Court to overrule legal decisions
C: The power of Congress to impeach the president
D: The role of the vice-president as the Chair of the Senate
C
Which of the following is the primary function of Cabinet members?
A: To play devil’s advocate to the President’s administration
B: To lobby for special interest groups
C: To advise the President on the subject matter of each respective office
D: To influence and control the campaigns of presidential candidates
C
Which of the following is not a required step in the legislative process?
A: Committee Review
B: Passage in the House of Representatives
C: Introduction by a member of Congress
D: Signature of the President into law
D
The primary role of the Supreme Court is:
A: To evaluate all legislation
B: To interpret the meaning, relevancy, application, and/or Constitutionality of a law in question
C: To hear all appellate cases from federal courts
D: To try criminals who violate federal law
B
Based on the 11th Amendment to the Constitution, the Supreme Court does not have the authority to:
A: Overrule decisions made by a federal judge
B: Overrule decisions made by a state supreme court
C: Hear any suits brought against a state
D: Prosecute those service in public offices
C
Based on the Constitution, which one of the following is true regarding the relationship between states and the federal government?
A: The laws of the state take precedence over federal laws, except the Constitution
B: States have the authority to reject federal laws
C: States have the freedom to choose whatever form of government they like
D: The federal government is the supreme authority in matters of legal importance
A
Which of the following is not a role or responsibility of the federal government?
A: To protect the states against foreign invasion
B: To conduct and regulate intrastate trade
C: To act as a broker between the states on disputed issues
D: To regulate income from taxation and trade
B
How does the United States government preserve the freedom and rights of the people?
A: It guarantees personal liberties of freedom of speech, religion, and due process of law in the Bill of Rights
B: It guarantees that no one branch of government has absolute power
C: It guarantees personal liberties of freedom of speech, religion, and due process of law in the Magna Carta
D: It taxes all classes of people equally
A
How does American government protect against the “tyranny of the majority”?
A: Strong presence of minor/third parties in national elections
B: Strengthening minority rights through Constitutional Amendments and federal laws
C: Diversity in Congress and the Supreme Court
D: Universal suffrage
B
“The decades long decrease in US voter turnout came shortly after the US became a welfare state, a government increasingly socialist in domestic policy.” Which of the following statements best disputes this claim?
A: In a recent presidential election, voters making $150, 000 a year turned out to vote 30 percentage points more than voters making $15,000 a year
B: The older citizens are, the more likely they are to vote
C: Foreign nations with the most extensive social programs tend to have the highest voter turnouts
D: Although voter turnout among the ages of 18-25 is low, it is not declining
C
The United States president is elected by:
A: An electoral college chosen based on the total vote of each state
B: An electoral college chosen based on the vote of the majority of districts in each state
C: An electoral college chosen based on different criteria in each state
D: By the direct vote of the people, only formally appointed by the electoral college
C
What is the functional basis for the existence of political parties in the United States?
A: To organize fundraising and election campaigns for political candidates
B: To provide a platform for expressing political ideals by the individuals
C: To organize political ideas and influence the government’s function
D: To provide an institution for political consensus in the country
C
Compared to economic special interest groups, what is the primary goal of non-economic interest groups?
A: Contribute to political campaigns in order to influence government policy
B: Provide specialize information to government officials
C: Protect or win private goods for the benefit of their members
D: Advocate collective goods for universal benefit
D
Which of the following best describes the relationship between politicians and the media in America?
A: By law, all media coverage must be balanced and unbiased when covering political issues; while politicians may not pander to media during their own election campaigns
B: Politicians and candidates may use the media to advance their agendas, while the media may use bias in order to increase sales and viewership
C: Politicians are expected to act like “gentlemen” and rise above the media ploys to pit them against each other
D: Recent evolution of news through social media has made the interdependent relationship between politicians and the media obsolete
B
What important process was established by the Supreme Court case Marbury vs. Madison in 1803?
A: Habeas Corpus
B: The Fifth Amendment
C: The Judicial Review
D: The Appeal Process
C
How does the republican system avoid the need for formation of coalitions for guaranteeing an effective government?
A: By independent election of the chief executive
B: By allowing candidates for president to chose their own vice-presidents
C: By using a two party system
D: By employing lobbies
A
What is the major difference between the parliamentary and republican systems of representative government?
A: In the parliamentary system, there is only one legislative chamber
B: The republican system has the principle of Checks and Balances
C: In the parliamentary system, the executive is selected by the legislative branch
D: In the republican system, the final legislative decision lies with an ‘upper’ (e.g. Senate) legislative chamber
C
Which of the following demonstrates a difference between democracy in Ancient Athens and modern day America?
A: All citizens enjoy suffrage
B: Only citizens may hold office
C: Representatives make major national decisions while many community decisions are held by plebiscite
D: Only citizens 18 years and older may vote
C
“The US can more than support itself with essentials such as food and fuel, and can secure everything else through trade. Domestic protection and investment therefore, outweigh the need for foreign intervention.” Which of the following statements is an accurate claim about interventionism that disputes this statement?
A: The international community is becoming increasingly less violent, which is entirely a results of increase political and economic integration and cooperation through international organizations
B: While national protection is important, the integrity of US political ideals requires intervention in the interest of Human Rights
C: Trade, and therefore the political and social well-being of trade partners, is vital to Americans’ present standard of living; and that means trade routes and trade partners also require American protection
D: Global issues like terrorism and economic depression require the US to work with the international community, so that it can create joint agreements to tackle these problems at the source, wherever that may be
C
“There are no universal principles by which all states may guide their actions. States must always be aware of the actions of other states and use a pragmatic approach to resolve problems.” This statement reflects which theory of international relations?
A: Realism
B: Social Liberalism
C: Classical Liberalism
D: Regime Theory
A
Which of the following international events is an example of international Multilateralism?
A: The 1997 creation and implementation of the Chemical Weapons Treaty
B: The partition of Czechoslovakia in the Czech Republic and Slovakia
C: US occupation of Japan after WWII
D: The Islamic Revolution in Iran in 1978
A
Which of the following is not a goal or responsibility of the United Nations:
A: Promote and protect human rights and fundamental freedoms
B: Provide emergency loans to indebted countries
C: Enforce peace agreements and discourage resumption of hostiles between nations
D: Encourage international economic cooperation
B
Which article of the Constitution prohibits the administration of a religious test for the political candidates?
A: Article one
B: Article six
C: The First Amendment
D: The Fifth Amendment
B
A map showing population and language use would be classified as which of the following?
A: A topographical map
B: A secondary source
C: A primary source
D: Autobiographical in nature
B
Which of the following map projections is best used for a close up on a specific region?
A: Small scale
B: Compromise projection
C: Equal area projection
D: Conformal Large Scale
D
Which of the following groups is most likely to have a mental map that covers a small geographic scale?
A: The wealthy
B: Those with post-graduate education
C: The working class
D: Americans
C
Mountains are most likely to form along which type of plate boundary?
A: Transform
B: Convergent
C: Divergent
D: Mid-continental
B
The maximum, sustained level of use of an environment that is possible without incurring significant environmental deterioration is called ________?
A: Saturation point
B: Resource critical mass
C: Carrying capacity
D: Natural breaking point
C
Which of the following benefits of recycling would least relate to an area’s physical geography?
C
How are biomass and fossil fuels related?
A: Fossil fuels are consumed, biomass is created.
B: Over time biomass becomes fossil fuels.
C: Fossil fuels over time will become biomass.
D: Biomass undergoes fusion to become fossil fuel.
B
Which of the following statements best explains why trade and shipping are historically more dominant industries in the Northeast than they are in the South?
A: Settlers who populated New England were predominantly of the college educated merchant class while settlers in the South were predominantly aristocrats and indentured servants, precursors of plantation owners and slaves
B: The natural abundance of timber in the Northeast lent itself to the building of ships for trade, while the natural abundance of tobacco and cotton in the South lent itself to growing cash crops
C: The abundance of natural harbors and fast moving rivers in the Northeast lent itself to the ease of creating canals and ports for trade, while the longer warm climate in the South lent itself to commercial agriculture
D: The frequency of tropical storms in the South are devastating to shipping while the relatively calm currents along the Northeast coast are favorable to shipping
C
Which of the following best describes the benefits, to farmers, of genetically modified organisms:
A: Allow farmers to charge more for their crops
B: Allow farmers to reduce chemical spraying, use less harmful chemicals, or increase output
C: Prevent chemical run-off into water supply due to the elimination of tilling to control weeds
D: Increase the cost of seeds and thus the profits for farmers
B
What is considered the primary reason the U.S. built the Panama Canal in 1907?
A: To open up South American tourism
B: To allow military ships to travel between oceans
C: To create a faster way to ship goods from the Atlantic to the Pacific Ocean
D: To establish a U.S. presence in Central America
C
In what way has the modern creation of nation-states and boundaries affected the working of international commerce?
A: It has allowed for more government control of trade and exchange
B: It has made it necessary to draw international treaties and has made it harder to trade across borders
C: It has allowed nation-states to protect their economies and gain income through tariffs
D: It has made international commerce possible and has facilitated it
C
Which of the following is usually true of demand and supply curves?
A: Market demand curves slope downward and to the right, as do supply curves
B: Market demand curves slope downward and to the right and supply curves slope upward from left to right
C: Market demand curves slope upward to the left and supply curves slope downward to the right
D: Market demand curves slope upward and to the right, as do supply curves
B
A macroeconomist would focus on all of the following except:
A: growth of GDP
B: impact of unemployment
C: monetary policy
D: a firm’s policy
D
What is an opportunity cost?
A: A choice between two equally desirable items
B: The time expended to make a choice
C: The most desirable alternative given up
D: A good exchanged for another
C
Marginal product is:
A: The increase in costs from adding one more worker
B: The increase in revenue from adding one more worker
C: The total product divided by the total number of workers employed
D: The increase in output from adding one more worker
D
Which cost curve declines continuously with increasing output?
A: None, they all rise
B: Average fixed cost
C: Average variable cost
D: Marginal cost
B
In a perfectly competitive scenario, a firm’s marginal revenue:
A: is greater than the market price of its product
B: is less than the market price of its product
C: is equal to the market price of its product
D: increases as output grows
C
A business is trying to increase its revenues. If the elasticity of demand for one of its product is .5, it should:
A: leave the price as is
B: consider raising the price
C: consider lowering the price
D: indeterminable, based on the information given
B
When the demand for an item affects the demand for the workers who make the item, this is referred to as:
A: predictive demand
B: associated demand
C: derived demand
D: incidental demand
C
Establishing a legal framework through which a market economy can operate efficiently is a function of:
A: the private sector
B: citizens
C: government
D: the courts
C
Which two market structures are characterized as having many buyers and sellers?
A: Monopoly and oligopoly
B: Perfect competition and monopolistic competitive
C: Perfect competition and oligopoly
D: Monopoly and monopolistic competitive correct
B
Demand-side inflation is best described as:
A: increased in price while supply remains the same
B: increases in price while supply falls
C: decreases in price while supply remains the same
D: decreases in price while supply falls
A
What is one of the most important sources of growth in a modern economy?
A: Instituting a democratic form of government
B: Discovering the presence of significant natural resources
C: Increasing the amount of capital per worker
D: Increasing population
C
The U.S. money supply, M1, includes all of the following except:
A: currency
B: money market funds
C: checking accounts
D: coins
B
Which part of the U.S. government determines monetary policies?
A: The president, through the Office of Management and Budget
B: The chairman of the Senate Committee on Banking, Housing, and Urban Affairs
C: The Secretary of the Treasury
D: The Fed’s Federal Open Market Committee
D
Which of the following would not be considered an automatic stabilizer?
A: A tax cut
B: Social Security payment
C: Unemployment check
D: Income taxes
A
If the U.S. can produce a cell phone using two resource units and and China can produce the same phone using one resource unit, one can conclude that:
A: China has a comparative advantage in manufacturing cell phones
B: China has an absolute advantage in manufacturing cell phones
C: Neither country has an absolute nor comparative advantage
D: The U.S. has a comparative advantage in manufacturing cell phones
B
If a country’s currency increases in value, what is the likely effect on its exports?
A: Exports would decrease
B: Exports would increase
C: Exports would not change
D: Exports would increase briefly
A
Why is a trade agreement which includes a “most favored nation” clause important to countries with which the U.S. trades?
A: It gives them immediate membership in the WTO
B: It gives them special rights unavailable to other countries
C: It provides a set of goals for them to reach before they receive any trade benefits
D: It gives them the same tariff reductions that the U.S. negotiates with other nations
D
Which of the following is NOT a developmental disorder?
A: Major Depressive Disorder
B: Attention Deficit Hyperactive Disorder
C: Autism Spectrum Disorder
D: Oppositional Defiant Disorder
A
The understanding that objects continue to exist even if they are outside one’s field of perception is known as _______?
A: Transitive inference
B: Object permanence
C: Conservation
D: Causal reasoning
B
“If a student associates negative emotional experiences with school then this can obviously have bad results, such as creating a school phobia. For example, if a student is bullied at school they may learnt to associate school with fear.”
The statement above can be most closely associated with which psychological theories?
A: Jean Piaget
B: B.F. Skinner
C: Franz Boas
D: Ivan Pavlov
D
A teacher asks four children why you should not hit others and records their answers as follows:
Child 1: “Because you get in trouble and can’t go to recess”
Child 2: “Because it is important for everyone to follow the classroom behavior rules”
Child 3: “Because I wouldn’t want someone to hit me”
Child 4: “Because the teacher says hitting others can cause injuries and isn’t nice”
According to Kohlberg’s stages of moral development, which child’s answer represents the most advanced stage of moral development?
A: Child 1
B: Child 2
C: Child 3
D: Child 4
C
According to Piaget’s stages of cognitive development, which of the following first begins to occur during the Concrete Operational stage?
A: egocentrism
B: metacognition
C: accomodation
D: animism
B
A young boy is given a series of instructions when first assembling a complex toy made of building blocks, and then later reassembles the toy without assistance. This could be best described as an example of ______.
A: a child using accommodation to modify his schema
B: habituation based on similar repeated stimuli
C: success in a task through scaffolding
D: group learning
C
A child with a secure attachment to her caregiver usually develops a sense of ______.
A: constant need for the caregiver’s presence
B: autonomy
C: clinginess
D: entitlement
B
A child sings into a hairbrush. This could be considered an example of ______.
A: rule-based pay
B: symbolic play
C: transference
D: emotional withdrawal
B
Positive role models are considered to be important during a child’s early development because _______.
A: children depend on modeling to develop various aspects of their personality
B: they can take the place of peer relationships
C: they prevent self-efficacy
D: children require these relationships in order to develop language skills
A
The English language using many words from other languages, the popularity of sushi in the United States, and Buddhism spreading from India to China during the Han dynasty are all examples of:
A: Socialization
B: Cultural Relativism
C: Cultural Diffusion
D: Culture Lag
C
Despite making his own observations to the contrary, a student matches his answer to the teacher’s question according to the enthusiastic suggestions of his team members in a classroom game. This is an example of which of the following?
A: group polarization
B: scapegoating
C: conformity
D: social loafing
C
Which of the following would not be considered a sociocultural factor influencing individual development?
A: family
B: race
C: cultural perspective
D: poverty
D
“The comparative study of the multitude of ways people make sense of the world around them, as well as the relationships between people and groups.” This definition best fits which branch of Anthropology?
A: Biocultural
B: Archaeological
C: Linguistic
D: Sociocultural
D
Which statement is consistent with the theory of unilinear cultural evolutionism?
A: Culture develops based on the essential process needs of society
B: Culture develops based on one predominant gender’s priorities, which evolve over time
C: Culture develops from basic similarities common to all human beings
D: Culture develops in a uniform and progressive manner
D
Friction between English settlers and Native Americans is called what?
Bacon’s Rebellion
Goal that was clearly expressed was a limit on the power of the national government. This document, the nation’s first constitution, was adopted by the second continental congress in 1781 during the revolution. The document was limited because states held most of the power, and congress lacked the power to tax, regulate trade, or control coinage
Articles of Confederation
This colony was distinctive because it had a popularly elected legislature
British Colony of Virginia
One of the regions of the South that had the strongest pro-Union sentiments at the outbreak of the Civil War.
The Appalachian Plateau
Primarily intended on paying for the military defense of the colonies. Parliament required that all revenue stamps be affixed to all colonial printed matter
Stamp Act
An ethnic group that gained the most political power as a result of the American Revolution
White men of middle income
This group was opposed to the ratification of the Constitution because it lacked a bill of rights. These opponents of the Constitution saw it as a limitation on individual and states’ rights; their demands led to the addition of the Bill of Rights to the document
Anti-Federalists
Was a prominent American abolitionist, journalist, and social reformer. Best known as the editor of the radical abolitionist newspaper, The Liberator, and as one of the founders of the American Anti-Slavery Society, he promoted “immediate emancipation” of slaves in the United States
William Lloyd Garrison
Was an American abolitionist, who advocated and practiced armed insurrection as a means to end all slavery. He led the Pottawatomie Massacre in 1856 in Bleeding Kansas and made his name in the unsuccessful raid at Harpers Ferry in 1859.
John Brown
American abolitionist, women’s suffragist, editor, orator, author, statesman, minister, and reformer. Escaping from slavery, he made strong contributions to the abolitionist movement and achieved a public career that led to his being called “The Sage of Anacostia” and “The Lion of Anacostia”. Is one of the most prominent African American figures in US history.
Frederick Douglass
Refers to the era of rapid economic and population growth in the US during the post-Civil War and post-Reconstruction era of the late 19th century (1865-1901). Is most famous for the creation of a modern industrial economy. Characterized by robber barons, panics, and political corruption.
The Gilded Age
Increased scale of cotton production during the 1830s and 1840s in the United States
Migration to the trans-Mississippi southwest
Was a movement in western Europe and the Americas to end the slave trade and set slaves free. The slave system aroused little protest until the 18th century
Abolitionism
Was an American abolitionist, attorney, educator, and political activist. Together with his older brothers (Gideon and Charles), he became active in the Abolitionist movement. He helped runaway slaves to escape to the north along the Ohio part of the Underground Railroad. In 1858, he and Charles partnered in leading the Ohio Anti-Slavery Society
John Mercer Langston
Favors the interests of certain established inhabitants of an area or nation as compared to claims of newcomers or immigrants. Typically means opposition to immigration or efforts to lower the political or legal status of specific ethnic or cultural groups because the groups are considered hostile or alien to the natural culture, and it is assumed that they cannot be assimilated.
Nativism
Is a foreign policy which combines a non-interventionist military policy and a political policy of economic nationalism (protectionism). In other words, it asserts both of the following: Non-interventionism and Protectionism
Isolationism
The idea that: “Political rulers should avoid entangling alliances with other nations and avoid all wars not related to direct territorial self-defense”
Non-interventionism
The idea that: “There should be legal barriers to control trade and cultural exchange with people in other states”
Protectionism
Is a social movement against the use of alcoholic beverage. Its movements may criticize excessive alcohol use, promote complete abstinence, or pressure the government to enact anti-alcohol legislation.
Temperance movement
Was an American military officer, statesman, and leader of the Confederacy during the American Civil War, serving as the president of the Confederate States of America for its entire history, 1861 to 1865
Jefferson Davis
This book chronicles the experiences of Native Americans in the United States, focusing on examples of injustice
“A Century of Dishonor” by Helen Hunt Jackson
The story takes place in 1757, during the French and Indian War (the Seven Years’ War), when France and Great Britain battled for control of the North American colonies. During this war, the French called on allied Native American tribes to fight with the more numerous British colonists
“The Last of the Mohicans” by James Fennimore Cooper
Leader of the Mingo Indians. Ware leader how urged his people not to attack whites settling in Ohio Country. May 3rd, 1774, a group of Virginia settlers murdered one doze of his people, including his mother and sister. He then demanded the Mingos and the Shawnee tribes take revenge. He wrote a famous speech and sent it to the English, refusing to negotiate peace.
Logan’s Lament
Is an anti-slavery novel by American author Harriet Beecher Stowe which inspired people in the North to join antislavery campaigns.
Uncle Tom’s Cabin
Was sparked by the factor of a continuing dispute over the southern boundary of Texas
Mexican American War
This president’s platform encouraged decreasing taxes and government regulation
Ronald Reagan
Dominant agricultural model in the post-Civil War South. Is a system of agriculture in which a landowner allows a tenant to use the land in return for a share of the crop produced on the land (e.g., 50% of the crop)
Sharecropping
A historian would be interested
in:
A. The manner in which
scientific knowledge is
advanced
B. The effects of the
French Revolution on
world colonial policy
C. The viewpoint of
persons who have
written previous
“history”
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Historians are interested in broad developments through history (A), as
well as
how individual events affected the
time in which they happened (B).
Knowing the
viewpoint of earlier historians can also
help explain the common thinking
among
historical cultures and groups (C), so
all of these answers are correct (D)
The Native Americans of the Eastern Woodlands lived on:
A. Buffalo and crops such
as corn, beans, and
sunflowers
B. Chiefly farming of
squash, beans, and
corn
C. A variety of game (deer,
bear, moose) and crops
(squash, pumpkins,
corn)
D. Wolves, foxes, polar
bears, walruses, and
fish
C. A variety of game (deer,
bear, moose) and crops
(squash, pumpkins,
corn)
(A) Buffalo live in the plains habitat found in Western and Midwestern
North
America. (B) & (C) While the Native
Americans did farm the “Three Sisters” of
corn, squash and beans, the woods of
the East also meant that a variety of
game
(deer, bear, moose) were widely available for them to hunt. (D) However,
wolves,
foxes, walruses, polar bears, and fish
are only found together within the Arctic
Circle, not the eastern woodlands.
Apartments built out of cliff faces;
shared government by adult citizens; absence of aggression toward other groups. These factors
characterize the Native American
group known as:
A. Pueblo
B. Comanche
C. Seminole
D. Sioux
A. Pueblo
(B) The Comanches were a nomadic Native American group which
emerged
around 1700 AD in the North American Plains and were decidedly aggressive
towards their neighbors. (C) The
Seminoles are a Native American
group which
originally emerged in Florida in the
mid-18th century and was made up of
refugees from other Native tribes and
escaped slaves. (D) The Sioux were a
Native American people who originally lived in the Dakotas, Nebraska, and
Minnesota and clashed extensively
with white settlers.
Bartholomeu Dias, in seeking a
route around the tip of Africa,
was forced to turn back. Nevertheless, the cape he discovered near
the southern tip of Africa became
known as:
A. Cape Horn
B. Cabo Bojador
C. Cape of Good Hope
D. Cape Hatteras
C. Cape of Good Hope
(A) Cape Horn was discovered by Sir
Francis Drake as he sailed around the
globe in 1578, and it is located at the
southern tip of Chile.
(B) Cajo Bojador on the Western
coast of northern Africa was first successfully navigated by a European,
Portuguese Gil Eanes, in 1434.
(D) Cape Hatteras is located on
theU.S. Atlantic coast at North Carolina
Columbus first reached Western
Hemisphere lands in what is now:
A. Florida
B. Bermuda
C. Puerto Rico
D. Bahamas
D. Bahamas
Christopher Columbus (1451-1506)
would visit the Bahamas in 1492 and
Puerto Rico in 1493, but he would never land on either Bermuda or Florida.
The Middle Colonies of the Americas were:
A. Maryland, Virginia,
North Carolina
B. New York, New Jersey,
Pennsylvania, Delaware
C. Rhode Island,
Connecticut, New York,
New Jersey
D. Vermont and New
Hampshire
B. New York, New Jersey,Pennsylvania, Delaware
(A) Maryland, Virginia and North Carolina were southern colonies, (C &
part of D) Rhode Island, Connecticut
and New Hampshire were New England colonies, and (part of D) Vermont was not one of the 13 original
colonies.
