Practice Test

Question 1

Among the Iroquois tribes, women possessed a position of ascendancy because:

A: They were elected as monarchs
B: They were the only ones allowed to be sachems
C: The were believed to be connected to the earth deity
D: They were the owners of the longhouses

Answer 1

C

Question 2

Why were Europeans interested in finding a passage to India?

A: They wanted to import pepper directly from India
B: They wanted to access the Asian commercial market
C: They wanted to attack the Ottoman Turks from behind
D: They were interested in Indian silk and cotton products

Answer 2

B

Question 3

The Great Awakening was among the intellectual trends behind the American Revolution because:

A: It instilled Enlightenment ideals in the American society
B: It promoted the rule of the people
C: It allowed religious plurality and diversity
D: It highlighted the religious foundations of the colonies

Answer 3

C

Question 4

The early growth in the population of the Virginia colony was due to which of the following?

A: Immigrants coming in search of gold
B: Criminals being exiled from England to the New World
C: Immigration of indentured workers
D: High fertility rate of the settlers in the New World

Answer 4

C

Question 5

“But where says some is the King of America? I’ll tell you Friend, he reigns above, and doth not make havoc of mankind like the Royal Brute of Britain…let it be brought forth placed on the divine law, the word of God; let a crown be placed thereon, by which the world may know, that so far as we approve of monarchy, that in America THE LAW IS KING.” This quote would have been advocated by which of the following:

A: A loyalist Tory
B: A “New Light” minster
C: One of the Sons of Liberty
D: A Puritan

Answer 5

C

Question 6

In 1796, the Democratic-Republicans represented which segment of the colonial population?

A: Wealthy northern merchants
B: Southern tobacco farmers
C: Puritans
D: Those loyal to the Constitution

Answer 6

B

Question 7

Which of the following was the primary motivation for the Western expansion of the U.S.:

A: A Manifest Destiny to convert all Native Americans to Christianity
B: Jeffersonian expansionism
C: The need to limit the power of the Mexican government west of Mississippi
D: The search for gold

Answer 7

B

Question 8

In what way did the railroad help the American economy in the 19th century:

A: It allowed for quicker travel to the west and helped move more settlers
B: The cost of shipping agricultural goods was lowered
C: It allowed for quicker access to the ports in the south
D: It gave rise to rich, entrepreneurial railroad magnates

Answer 8

B

Question 9

“But what is government itself, but the greatest of all reflections on human nature? If men were angels, no government would be necessary. If angels were to govern men, neither external nor internal controls on government would be necessary. In framing a government which is to be administered by men over men, the great difficulty lies in this: you must first enable the government to control the governed; and in the next place, oblige it to control itself.” - Federalist (Papers) 51

Which of the following best summarizes the quote above:

A: A strong government is necessary to protect the people; & that government must also be empowered to regulate itself
B: Individual freedoms and local concerns must be protected explicitly to properly protect the people
C: The best government is one run by the religious, because they are inspired by angels
D: Governments need no regulation as long as moral men are in charge of the government

Answer 9

A

Question 10

“If your Union does not symbolize universal emancipation, it brings no Union for me. If your Constitution does not guarantee freedom for all, it is not a Constitution I can ascribe to. If your flag is stained by the blood of a brother held in bondage, I repudiate it in the name of God.” This passage reflects the political opinions of which historical figure?

A: Frederick Douglas
B: Lucretia Mott
C: Jefferson Davis
D: Henry Clay

Answer 10

A

Question 11

What was the legal debate that prompted the secession of the states from the Union prior to the Civil War?

A: The imposition of federal tariffs
B: The right of the federal government to interfere with state laws
C: The abolition of slavery in the Northern states
D: The right of the southern states to continue owning slaves

Answer 11

B

Question 12

In what way did the Black Codes limit African- American equality:

A: Prohibited the public expression of legal concern
B: Prohibited testifying against whites
C: Restricted voting rights
D: All of the above

Answer 12

D

Question 13

“Look things in the face. Don’t fear a governor; don’t fear anybody. You pay the governor; he has the right to protect you. You are the biggest part of the population in the state. You create its wealth, so I say, ‘let the fight go on; if anybody else will keep on, I will.’” This passage can best be linked to which social ideology:

A: Women’s Suffrage
B: Labor Unions
C: Social Darwinism
D: Gospel of Wealth

Answer 13

B

Question 14

Which of the following was a reform on the excesses of the Gilded Age?

A: Gospel of Wealth
B: Social Darwinism
C: Trust busting
D: Manifest Destiny

Answer 14

C

Question 15

The Spanish-American war occurred over what issue:

A: The independence of Texas from New Spain (Mexico)
B: The US control of Philippines
C: The independence of Cuba
D: The US control of Puerto Rico

Answer 15

C

Question 16

What conflict prompted the US entry into the theatre of the First World War:

A: German attack on France
B: Germany’s unrestricted submarine warfare
C: German-Mexican alliance
D: German alliance with Spain

Answer 16

B

Question 17

How were urbanization and industrialization developed in the post WWI American economy?

A: Large companies started establishing headquarters in the great cities
B: Industries serving the urban household started to rise
C: Automobile industry helped decrease urban concentration of the population
D: Factories concentrated in cities helped increase the concentration of urban populations

Answer 17

B

Question 18

Other than the crash of the Market, which one of the following best describes the elements which contributed to the deepening of the Great Depression?

A: Increasing reliance of the American consumers on credit purchases
B: Lack of government regulations for banks and bank failures
C: Decreasing European taste for American products
D: Government bankruptcy and the decrease in federal services

Answer 18

B

Question 19

What was the achievement of the Glass-Steagall Banking Reform Act?

A: It divided the failing banks into four categories based on their performance
B: It allowed the federal government to bail out failing banks
C: It created the Securities and Exchange Commission
D: It created the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation

Answer 19

D

Question 20

How did WWII help the American economy?

A: It encouraged the entry of women laborers into the factories
B: It initiated technological innovations
C: American armament factories sold weapons to the Allies
D: Munitions factories employed more laborers and helped solve the unemployment problem

Answer 20

D

Question 21

In which way was the Nazi treatment of Jews not similar to the American treatment of Japanese-Americans during WWII?

A: Denial of citizenship rights
B: Internment in labor camps
C: Formation of segregated military units to serve in the armed forces
D: Eviction from homes, jobs, & universities

Answer 21

C

Question 22

“As an essential step in our own national defense, to aid Britain in holding the line until we can be more adequately and thoroughly prepared, to keep the war away from our own shores, to furnish supplies ammunitions and thus saving calling of men to defend our own soil, to oppose and resist the establishment of world dictatorship and the destruction of free government in order that military masters may not establish a “new world order” on the ruins and ashes of liberty, I am supporting [this action]. The voice of America demands that we act now. We must not wait until the invader sets his footsteps upon our soil or challenges us upon the sea and in the air.”

• Speech by Senator Tom Connally (D-TX) on February 17, 1941

The passage most likely supports:

A: U.S. entry into the war
B: Internment of the Japanese-Americans
C: Passage of the Lend Lease Act
D: U.S. invasion of Japan

Answer 22

C

Question 23

What triggered U.S. intervention in Vietnam?

A: Expansion into foreign markets
B: Desire to colonize the country
C: American dependence on oil
D: Belief in the Domino Theory

Answer 23

D

Question 24

How were African-Americans affected by policies under President Truman?

A: Cabinet positions were offered to A-As for the first time
B: The Armed Forces were desegregated
C: Public schools in the South were desegregated
D: The first A-A Supreme Court judge was appointed

Answer 24

B

Question 25

Which demographic was most impacted by the changes in the Immigration Act of 1965? A: Africans B: Asians C: Latin Americans D: Western Europeans

Answer 25

C

Question 26

"Because of their impotence they marched - - and many were beaten. For three years, they had watched their President step up a wretched war he had promised not to escalate. They had participated in teach-ins, marches, and election campaigns, only to see the Administration widen the war as their protest increased." This passage best describes which of the following events: A: The Great March on Washington, calling for civil and economic rights for African Americans in 1963 B: Chicago Democratic National Convention Protests, 1968 C: The March on the Pentagon in 1967 D: The New York City Stonewall Riots of 1969

Answer 26

C

Question 27

Why was the Persian Empire the first "world empire"? A: It was the first to conquer the three river systems of the Nile, Indus, & Mesopotamia B: It improved transportation systems with the canal connecting the Nile to the Red Sea C: It integrated each of it's satraps into the imperial bureaucracy in order to ensure long term production & payment of tribute D: It preceded the empire of Alexander the Great

Answer 27

C

Question 28

Who was qualified to run for an office in ancient Athenian democracy? A: Any adult citizen B: Male citizens C: Only free citizens D: Anyone who owned property

Answer 28

B

Question 29

What was the outcome of the Punic Wars for Rome? A: Control of the trade and commerce in the Mediterranean B: Possession of North African and Spain C: Defeat of the Seleucid Empire D: The Social Revolution

Answer 29

A

Question 30

In what ways are Judaism and Christianity similar? A: Compassion & charity to the poor & unfortunate is a religious responsibility B: Monotheistic belief in one God who is all-powerful C: Despite persecution, both remained faithful to their religion D: All of the above

Answer 30

D

Question 31

In Confucianism, the major qualification for serving in a public office is: A: Possessing the virtues of a gentleman B: Performing the correct rituals C: Proving political merit D: Possessing noble blood

Answer 31

C

Question 32

What were the causes of the fall of the Roman Empire? A: Invasions by various barbarian peoples B: Lack of tax revenue led to a weakened military & deterioration of transportation & trade routes C: Power struggles over succession D: All of the above

Answer 32

D

Question 33

How was the political crisis following the death of the Prophet Muhammad resolved? A: By appointing his cousin, Ali, as an imam B: By the election of his friend Abu Bakr as the Caliph C: By establishing a governing council D: Muhammad's death was followed by a civil war among the Muslims

Answer 33

B

Question 34

In which way is Japanese Feudalism different from European Feudalism? A: In Japan, power and wealth was land-based where in Europe it was gold-based B: In Europe, the warrior class swore fealty to the landed class, but in Japan the landed class swore fealty to the warrior class C: After the death of a vassal lord in Europe, land ownership reverted to the great lord/king; In Japan, land of a vassal lord was inherited by the eldest son D: In Japan, there was only one ruler to whom all lords swore fealty; In Europe, there were many kings/great lords

Answer 34

D

Question 35

What was the motivation for the Crusades? A: To increase trade with Asia B: To spread Christianity C: To free the Holy Land from the Muslim rule & unite Christian countries under the influence of the Pope D: To strengthen a jumping off point for an invasion of Asia

Answer 35

C

Question 36

How did the Mongols conquer the greatest land empire in history? A: They used advanced military technology of rifles & cannons B: They vastly outnumbered their opponents C: They negotiated peace with educated diplomats & trade agreements D: They used superior military strategy & psychological warfare

Answer 36

D

Question 37

What was the major cause of the Hundred Years War? A: Competition between two rival English royal houses B: The claim of the king of France over the English crown C: The claim of the king of England over the French crown D: The rebellion of Jeanne d'Arc

Answer 37

C

Question 38

How did the Silk Road transform European society? A: Increased interest in Asian goods & trade with Asia B: Diffused ideas, art, & religion from Asia & the Middle East C: Spread the Black Plague, decimating a third of the European population D: All of the above

Answer 38

D

Question 39

The dome of St. Peter's cathedral in Rome was inspired by: A: The dome of Hagia Sophia in Constantinople B: The dome of the Cathedral of Granada C: It was designed independently by Michaelangelo D: It was developed based on ancient Roman principles re-discovered during the Renaissance

Answer 39

A

Question 40

How did the Protestant Reformation affect European politics? A: It inspired the unification of small states within Italy & within Germany B: It inspired the French Revolution C: It united the countries of England, France, & Prussia against the Holy Roman Empire D: It caused numerous wars, including the 30 Years War & diminished the power of the Catholic church

Answer 40

D

Question 41

What was the motivation for the voyages of exploration in the 1500s: A: Gaining direct access to Asian & Indian Ocean trade B: Scientific exploration of unknown waters C: Nationalistic desire to expand territory overseas D: Industrial need for new markets of manufactured goods

Answer 41

A

Question 42

How did colonialism affect the European economies? A: It provided them with gold and silver B: It allowed their population to migrate out of Europe C: It allowed them to have many slaves D: It provided them with resources to compete against Asian economies

Answer 42

D

Question 43

What was the major declaration of the French Revolution called? A: The French Constitution B: The Declaration of the Abolishment of the Monarchy C: The Declaration of the Rights of Man and of the Citizen D: The Magna Carta

Answer 43

C

Question 44

What was the major motivation for the German Reunification in the 19th Century? A: The threat against the Germans by the Russians and the French B: Prussian expansionism C: Rise of German nationalism D: The rising trend of centralization and consolidation in industrial nations

Answer 44

C

Question 45

What were the major catalysts for European industrialization? A: Expensive human capital and their relative disadvantage in global commerce B: European scientific ingenuity and liberal market forces C: Advancements of technical knowledge and the presence of capital D: Protestant ethics and the spirit of capitalism

Answer 45

A

Question 46

Which of the following best describes the reasons for the rise of racism in 19th century Europe? A: Rise of nationalism and xenophobia along with religious fanaticism B: The impoverishment of the working classes and social disturbances C: The rise of European colonialism and the development of the theory of Social Darwinism D: The high number of slaves in the Americas and their secondary migration to Europe

Answer 46

C

Question 47

What was the underlying reason for the start of World War One? A: The competition between German and France B: The assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand of Serbia C: The colonial competition between the European powers D: The German-Austrian treaty against France and Britain

Answer 47

C

Question 48

How did WWI accelerate the fall of the Russian empire? A: The losses of the German empire led to a spread of democratic ideals, leading to the fall of all empires B: The war crippled the industrial economy and, combined with losses at the front, inspired a revolution from the working class C: The capture of the czar by the Central Powers ended the Romanov dynasty and instigated an interim government D: The treaty that ended Russia's involvement in WWI led to the civil war between the czar and those who wished to continue fighting

Answer 48

B

Question 49

Which of the following events best marks the turning point in World War II? A: The Rape of Nanking by the Japanese B: Operation Barbarossa by the Nazis C: The D-Day invasion by the Allies D: The signing of the Rome-Berlin Axis

Answer 49

D

Question 50

What is the term used to denote the socio-political thought prevalent in the countries who gained their independence from European colonial powers? A: Anti-Imperialism B: Extremism C: Post-Structuralism D: Post-Colonialism

Answer 50

D

Question 51

"The Cold War was wildly expensive and consumed the entire globe." Which of the following statements most closely expresses the meaning of this quote? A: Nuclear research devoured all countries' economies and resulted in a holocaust that we have yet to recover from B: The competition between the superpowers for supremacy depleted their resources, claimed many casualties, and left no continent militarily or politically untouched C: The Cold War was the Third World War because it cost more in lives and economic dedication than World War I and II put together D: The Cold War directly involved every nation in the world

Answer 51

B

Question 52

Which one best characterizes the achievements of the Cold War? A: Triumph of Capitalism B: Freedom of Soviet Bloc countries C: Technological competition and achievements D: Competition in sports and other social control methods

Answer 52

C

Question 53

"The keystone is the concept of the State, of its essence, its functions, and its aims. The State is absolute, individuals and groups relative." This passage captures the central idea of which political theory? A: Liberalism B: Conservatism C: Multilateralism D: Fascism

Answer 53

D

Question 54

What was the intellectual basis of the establishment of the three branches of the government? A: Montesquieu's the Spirit of the Laws B: John Locke's the Two Treatises of Government C: The Magna Carta D: Rousseau's Social Contract

Answer 54

A

Question 55

Which of the following is the bets definition of the Moderate political stance? A: Generally reform-minded aspires to a constitutional based government B: Desires revolutionary change that places governmental power in the hands of the formerly oppressed C: Argues for universal suffrage D: Posits that order and hierarchy are the foremost priorities of government

Answer 55

A

Question 56

Which one is an example of the application of the principle of Checks and Balances? A: The power of the president to grant pardons B: The power of the Supreme Court to overrule legal decisions C: The power of Congress to impeach the president D: The role of the vice-president as the Chair of the Senate

Answer 56

C

Question 57

Which of the following is the primary function of Cabinet members? A: To play devil's advocate to the President's administration B: To lobby for special interest groups C: To advise the President on the subject matter of each respective office D: To influence and control the campaigns of presidential candidates

Answer 57

C

Question 58

Which of the following is not a required step in the legislative process? A: Committee Review B: Passage in the House of Representatives C: Introduction by a member of Congress D: Signature of the President into law

Answer 58

D

Question 59

The primary role of the Supreme Court is: A: To evaluate all legislation B: To interpret the meaning, relevancy, application, and/or Constitutionality of a law in question C: To hear all appellate cases from federal courts D: To try criminals who violate federal law

Answer 59

B

Question 60

Based on the 11th Amendment to the Constitution, the Supreme Court does not have the authority to: A: Overrule decisions made by a federal judge B: Overrule decisions made by a state supreme court C: Hear any suits brought against a state D: Prosecute those service in public offices

Answer 60

C

Question 61

Based on the Constitution, which one of the following is true regarding the relationship between states and the federal government? A: The laws of the state take precedence over federal laws, except the Constitution B: States have the authority to reject federal laws C: States have the freedom to choose whatever form of government they like D: The federal government is the supreme authority in matters of legal importance

Answer 61

A

Question 62

Which of the following is not a role or responsibility of the federal government? A: To protect the states against foreign invasion B: To conduct and regulate intrastate trade C: To act as a broker between the states on disputed issues D: To regulate income from taxation and trade

Answer 62

B

Question 63

How does the United States government preserve the freedom and rights of the people? A: It guarantees personal liberties of freedom of speech, religion, and due process of law in the Bill of Rights B: It guarantees that no one branch of government has absolute power C: It guarantees personal liberties of freedom of speech, religion, and due process of law in the Magna Carta D: It taxes all classes of people equally

Answer 63

A

Question 64

How does American government protect against the "tyranny of the majority"? A: Strong presence of minor/third parties in national elections B: Strengthening minority rights through Constitutional Amendments and federal laws C: Diversity in Congress and the Supreme Court D: Universal suffrage

Answer 64

B

Question 65

"The decades long decrease in US voter turnout came shortly after the US became a welfare state, a government increasingly socialist in domestic policy." Which of the following statements best disputes this claim? A: In a recent presidential election, voters making $150, 000 a year turned out to vote 30 percentage points more than voters making $15,000 a year B: The older citizens are, the more likely they are to vote C: Foreign nations with the most extensive social programs tend to have the highest voter turnouts D: Although voter turnout among the ages of 18-25 is low, it is not declining

Answer 65

C

Question 66

The United States president is elected by: A: An electoral college chosen based on the total vote of each state B: An electoral college chosen based on the vote of the majority of districts in each state C: An electoral college chosen based on different criteria in each state D: By the direct vote of the people, only formally appointed by the electoral college

Answer 66

C

Question 67

What is the functional basis for the existence of political parties in the United States? A: To organize fundraising and election campaigns for political candidates B: To provide a platform for expressing political ideals by the individuals C: To organize political ideas and influence the government's function D: To provide an institution for political consensus in the country

Answer 67

C

Question 68

Compared to economic special interest groups, what is the primary goal of non-economic interest groups? A: Contribute to political campaigns in order to influence government policy B: Provide specialize information to government officials C: Protect or win private goods for the benefit of their members D: Advocate collective goods for universal benefit

Answer 68

D

Question 69

Which of the following best describes the relationship between politicians and the media in America? A: By law, all media coverage must be balanced and unbiased when covering political issues; while politicians may not pander to media during their own election campaigns B: Politicians and candidates may use the media to advance their agendas, while the media may use bias in order to increase sales and viewership C: Politicians are expected to act like "gentlemen" and rise above the media ploys to pit them against each other D: Recent evolution of news through social media has made the interdependent relationship between politicians and the media obsolete

Answer 69

B

Question 70

What important process was established by the Supreme Court case Marbury vs. Madison in 1803? A: Habeas Corpus B: The Fifth Amendment C: The Judicial Review D: The Appeal Process

Answer 70

C

Question 71

How does the republican system avoid the need for formation of coalitions for guaranteeing an effective government? A: By independent election of the chief executive B: By allowing candidates for president to chose their own vice-presidents C: By using a two party system D: By employing lobbies

Answer 71

A

Question 72

What is the major difference between the parliamentary and republican systems of representative government? A: In the parliamentary system, there is only one legislative chamber B: The republican system has the principle of Checks and Balances C: In the parliamentary system, the executive is selected by the legislative branch D: In the republican system, the final legislative decision lies with an 'upper' (e.g. Senate) legislative chamber

Answer 72

C

Question 73

Which of the following demonstrates a difference between democracy in Ancient Athens and modern day America? A: All citizens enjoy suffrage B: Only citizens may hold office C: Representatives make major national decisions while many community decisions are held by plebiscite D: Only citizens 18 years and older may vote

Answer 73

C

Question 74

"The US can more than support itself with essentials such as food and fuel, and can secure everything else through trade. Domestic protection and investment therefore, outweigh the need for foreign intervention." Which of the following statements is an accurate claim about interventionism that disputes this statement? A: The international community is becoming increasingly less violent, which is entirely a results of increase political and economic integration and cooperation through international organizations B: While national protection is important, the integrity of US political ideals requires intervention in the interest of Human Rights C: Trade, and therefore the political and social well-being of trade partners, is vital to Americans' present standard of living; and that means trade routes and trade partners also require American protection D: Global issues like terrorism and economic depression require the US to work with the international community, so that it can create joint agreements to tackle these problems at the source, wherever that may be

Answer 74

C

Question 75

"There are no universal principles by which all states may guide their actions. States must always be aware of the actions of other states and use a pragmatic approach to resolve problems." This statement reflects which theory of international relations? A: Realism B: Social Liberalism C: Classical Liberalism D: Regime Theory

Answer 75

A

Question 76

Which of the following international events is an example of international Multilateralism? A: The 1997 creation and implementation of the Chemical Weapons Treaty B: The partition of Czechoslovakia in the Czech Republic and Slovakia C: US occupation of Japan after WWII D: The Islamic Revolution in Iran in 1978

Answer 76

A

Question 77

Which of the following is not a goal or responsibility of the United Nations: A: Promote and protect human rights and fundamental freedoms B: Provide emergency loans to indebted countries C: Enforce peace agreements and discourage resumption of hostiles between nations D: Encourage international economic cooperation

Answer 77

B

Question 78

Which article of the Constitution prohibits the administration of a religious test for the political candidates? A: Article one B: Article six C: The First Amendment D: The Fifth Amendment

Answer 78

B

Question 79

A map showing population and language use would be classified as which of the following? A: A topographical map B: A secondary source C: A primary source D: Autobiographical in nature

Answer 79

B

Question 80

Which of the following map projections is best used for a close up on a specific region? A: Small scale B: Compromise projection C: Equal area projection D: Conformal Large Scale

Answer 80

D

Question 81

Which of the following groups is most likely to have a mental map that covers a small geographic scale? A: The wealthy B: Those with post-graduate education C: The working class D: Americans

Answer 81

C

Question 82

Mountains are most likely to form along which type of plate boundary? A: Transform B: Convergent C: Divergent D: Mid-continental

Answer 82

B

Question 83

The maximum, sustained level of use of an environment that is possible without incurring significant environmental deterioration is called ________? A: Saturation point B: Resource critical mass C: Carrying capacity D: Natural breaking point

Answer 83

C

Question 84

Which of the following benefits of recycling would least relate to an area's physical geography?

Answer 84

C

Question 85

How are biomass and fossil fuels related? A: Fossil fuels are consumed, biomass is created. B: Over time biomass becomes fossil fuels. C: Fossil fuels over time will become biomass. D: Biomass undergoes fusion to become fossil fuel.

Answer 85

B

Question 86

Which of the following statements best explains why trade and shipping are historically more dominant industries in the Northeast than they are in the South? A: Settlers who populated New England were predominantly of the college educated merchant class while settlers in the South were predominantly aristocrats and indentured servants, precursors of plantation owners and slaves B: The natural abundance of timber in the Northeast lent itself to the building of ships for trade, while the natural abundance of tobacco and cotton in the South lent itself to growing cash crops C: The abundance of natural harbors and fast moving rivers in the Northeast lent itself to the ease of creating canals and ports for trade, while the longer warm climate in the South lent itself to commercial agriculture D: The frequency of tropical storms in the South are devastating to shipping while the relatively calm currents along the Northeast coast are favorable to shipping

Answer 86

C

Question 87

Which of the following best describes the benefits, to farmers, of genetically modified organisms: A: Allow farmers to charge more for their crops B: Allow farmers to reduce chemical spraying, use less harmful chemicals, or increase output C: Prevent chemical run-off into water supply due to the elimination of tilling to control weeds D: Increase the cost of seeds and thus the profits for farmers

Answer 87

B

Question 88

What is considered the primary reason the U.S. built the Panama Canal in 1907? A: To open up South American tourism B: To allow military ships to travel between oceans C: To create a faster way to ship goods from the Atlantic to the Pacific Ocean D: To establish a U.S. presence in Central America

Answer 88

C

Question 89

In what way has the modern creation of nation-states and boundaries affected the working of international commerce? A: It has allowed for more government control of trade and exchange B: It has made it necessary to draw international treaties and has made it harder to trade across borders C: It has allowed nation-states to protect their economies and gain income through tariffs D: It has made international commerce possible and has facilitated it

Answer 89

C

Question 90

Which of the following is usually true of demand and supply curves? A: Market demand curves slope downward and to the right, as do supply curves B: Market demand curves slope downward and to the right and supply curves slope upward from left to right C: Market demand curves slope upward to the left and supply curves slope downward to the right D: Market demand curves slope upward and to the right, as do supply curves

Answer 90

B

Question 91

A macroeconomist would focus on all of the following except: A: growth of GDP B: impact of unemployment C: monetary policy D: a firm's policy

Answer 91

D

Question 92

What is an opportunity cost? A: A choice between two equally desirable items B: The time expended to make a choice C: The most desirable alternative given up D: A good exchanged for another

Answer 92

C

Question 93

Marginal product is: A: The increase in costs from adding one more worker B: The increase in revenue from adding one more worker C: The total product divided by the total number of workers employed D: The increase in output from adding one more worker

Answer 93

D

Question 94

Which cost curve declines continuously with increasing output? A: None, they all rise B: Average fixed cost C: Average variable cost D: Marginal cost

Answer 94

B

Question 95

In a perfectly competitive scenario, a firm's marginal revenue: A: is greater than the market price of its product B: is less than the market price of its product C: is equal to the market price of its product D: increases as output grows

Answer 95

C

Question 96

A business is trying to increase its revenues. If the elasticity of demand for one of its product is .5, it should: A: leave the price as is B: consider raising the price C: consider lowering the price D: indeterminable, based on the information given

Answer 96

B

Question 97

When the demand for an item affects the demand for the workers who make the item, this is referred to as: A: predictive demand B: associated demand C: derived demand D: incidental demand

Answer 97

C

Question 98

Establishing a legal framework through which a market economy can operate efficiently is a function of: A: the private sector B: citizens C: government D: the courts

Answer 98

C

Question 99

Which two market structures are characterized as having many buyers and sellers? A: Monopoly and oligopoly B: Perfect competition and monopolistic competitive C: Perfect competition and oligopoly D: Monopoly and monopolistic competitive correct

Answer 99

B

Question 100

Demand-side inflation is best described as: A: increased in price while supply remains the same B: increases in price while supply falls C: decreases in price while supply remains the same D: decreases in price while supply falls

Answer 100

A

Question 101

What is one of the most important sources of growth in a modern economy? A: Instituting a democratic form of government B: Discovering the presence of significant natural resources C: Increasing the amount of capital per worker D: Increasing population

Answer 101

C

Question 102

The U.S. money supply, M1, includes all of the following except: A: currency B: money market funds C: checking accounts D: coins

Answer 102

B

Question 103

Which part of the U.S. government determines monetary policies? A: The president, through the Office of Management and Budget B: The chairman of the Senate Committee on Banking, Housing, and Urban Affairs C: The Secretary of the Treasury D: The Fed's Federal Open Market Committee

Answer 103

D

Question 104

Which of the following would not be considered an automatic stabilizer? A: A tax cut B: Social Security payment C: Unemployment check D: Income taxes

Answer 104

A

Question 105

If the U.S. can produce a cell phone using two resource units and and China can produce the same phone using one resource unit, one can conclude that: A: China has a comparative advantage in manufacturing cell phones B: China has an absolute advantage in manufacturing cell phones C: Neither country has an absolute nor comparative advantage D: The U.S. has a comparative advantage in manufacturing cell phones

Answer 105

B

Question 106

If a country's currency increases in value, what is the likely effect on its exports? A: Exports would decrease B: Exports would increase C: Exports would not change D: Exports would increase briefly

Answer 106

A

Question 107

Why is a trade agreement which includes a "most favored nation" clause important to countries with which the U.S. trades? A: It gives them immediate membership in the WTO B: It gives them special rights unavailable to other countries C: It provides a set of goals for them to reach before they receive any trade benefits D: It gives them the same tariff reductions that the U.S. negotiates with other nations

Answer 107

D

Question 108

Which of the following is NOT a developmental disorder? A: Major Depressive Disorder B: Attention Deficit Hyperactive Disorder C: Autism Spectrum Disorder D: Oppositional Defiant Disorder

Answer 108

A

Question 109

The understanding that objects continue to exist even if they are outside one's field of perception is known as _______? A: Transitive inference B: Object permanence C: Conservation D: Causal reasoning

Answer 109

B

Question 110

"If a student associates negative emotional experiences with school then this can obviously have bad results, such as creating a school phobia. For example, if a student is bullied at school they may learnt to associate school with fear." The statement above can be most closely associated with which psychological theories? A: Jean Piaget B: B.F. Skinner C: Franz Boas D: Ivan Pavlov

Answer 110

D

Question 111

A teacher asks four children why you should not hit others and records their answers as follows: Child 1: "Because you get in trouble and can't go to recess" Child 2: "Because it is important for everyone to follow the classroom behavior rules" Child 3: "Because I wouldn't want someone to hit me" Child 4: "Because the teacher says hitting others can cause injuries and isn't nice" According to Kohlberg's stages of moral development, which child's answer represents the most advanced stage of moral development? A: Child 1 B: Child 2 C: Child 3 D: Child 4

Answer 111

C

Question 112

According to Piaget's stages of cognitive development, which of the following first begins to occur during the Concrete Operational stage? A: egocentrism B: metacognition C: accomodation D: animism

Answer 112

B

Question 113

A young boy is given a series of instructions when first assembling a complex toy made of building blocks, and then later reassembles the toy without assistance. This could be best described as an example of ______. A: a child using accommodation to modify his schema B: habituation based on similar repeated stimuli C: success in a task through scaffolding D: group learning

Answer 113

C

Question 114

A child with a secure attachment to her caregiver usually develops a sense of ______. A: constant need for the caregiver's presence B: autonomy C: clinginess D: entitlement

Answer 114

B

Question 115

A child sings into a hairbrush. This could be considered an example of ______. A: rule-based pay B: symbolic play C: transference D: emotional withdrawal

Answer 115

B

Question 116

Positive role models are considered to be important during a child's early development because _______. A: children depend on modeling to develop various aspects of their personality B: they can take the place of peer relationships C: they prevent self-efficacy D: children require these relationships in order to develop language skills

Answer 116

A

Question 117

The English language using many words from other languages, the popularity of sushi in the United States, and Buddhism spreading from India to China during the Han dynasty are all examples of: A: Socialization B: Cultural Relativism C: Cultural Diffusion D: Culture Lag

Answer 117

C

Question 118

Despite making his own observations to the contrary, a student matches his answer to the teacher's question according to the enthusiastic suggestions of his team members in a classroom game. This is an example of which of the following? A: group polarization B: scapegoating C: conformity D: social loafing

Answer 118

C

Question 119

Which of the following would not be considered a sociocultural factor influencing individual development? A: family B: race C: cultural perspective D: poverty

Answer 119

D

Question 120

"The comparative study of the multitude of ways people make sense of the world around them, as well as the relationships between people and groups." This definition best fits which branch of Anthropology? A: Biocultural B: Archaeological C: Linguistic D: Sociocultural

Answer 120

D

Question 121

Which statement is consistent with the theory of unilinear cultural evolutionism? A: Culture develops based on the essential process needs of society B: Culture develops based on one predominant gender's priorities, which evolve over time C: Culture develops from basic similarities common to all human beings D: Culture develops in a uniform and progressive manner

Answer 121

D

Question 122

Friction between English settlers and Native Americans is called what?

Answer 122

Bacon's Rebellion

Question 123

Goal that was clearly expressed was a limit on the power of the national government. This document, the nation's first constitution, was adopted by the second continental congress in 1781 during the revolution. The document was limited because states held most of the power, and congress lacked the power to tax, regulate trade, or control coinage

Answer 123

Articles of Confederation

Question 124

This colony was distinctive because it had a popularly elected legislature

Answer 124

British Colony of Virginia

Question 125

One of the regions of the South that had the strongest pro-Union sentiments at the outbreak of the Civil War.

Answer 125

The Appalachian Plateau

Question 126

Primarily intended on paying for the military defense of the colonies. Parliament required that all revenue stamps be affixed to all colonial printed matter

Answer 126

Stamp Act

Question 127

An ethnic group that gained the most political power as a result of the American Revolution

Answer 127

White men of middle income

Question 128

This group was opposed to the ratification of the Constitution because it lacked a bill of rights. These opponents of the Constitution saw it as a limitation on individual and states' rights; their demands led to the addition of the Bill of Rights to the document

Answer 128

Anti-Federalists

Question 129

Was a prominent American abolitionist, journalist, and social reformer. Best known as the editor of the radical abolitionist newspaper, The Liberator, and as one of the founders of the American Anti-Slavery Society, he promoted "immediate emancipation" of slaves in the United States

Answer 129

William Lloyd Garrison

Question 130

Was an American abolitionist, who advocated and practiced armed insurrection as a means to end all slavery. He led the Pottawatomie Massacre in 1856 in Bleeding Kansas and made his name in the unsuccessful raid at Harpers Ferry in 1859.

Answer 130

John Brown

Question 131

American abolitionist, women's suffragist, editor, orator, author, statesman, minister, and reformer. Escaping from slavery, he made strong contributions to the abolitionist movement and achieved a public career that led to his being called "The Sage of Anacostia" and "The Lion of Anacostia". Is one of the most prominent African American figures in US history.

Answer 131

Frederick Douglass

Question 132

Refers to the era of rapid economic and population growth in the US during the post-Civil War and post-Reconstruction era of the late 19th century (1865-1901). Is most famous for the creation of a modern industrial economy. Characterized by robber barons, panics, and political corruption.

Answer 132

The Gilded Age

Question 133

Increased scale of cotton production during the 1830s and 1840s in the United States

Answer 133

Migration to the trans-Mississippi southwest

Question 134

Was a movement in western Europe and the Americas to end the slave trade and set slaves free. The slave system aroused little protest until the 18th century

Answer 134

Abolitionism

Question 135

Was an American abolitionist, attorney, educator, and political activist. Together with his older brothers (Gideon and Charles), he became active in the Abolitionist movement. He helped runaway slaves to escape to the north along the Ohio part of the Underground Railroad. In 1858, he and Charles partnered in leading the Ohio Anti-Slavery Society

Answer 135

John Mercer Langston

Question 136

Favors the interests of certain established inhabitants of an area or nation as compared to claims of newcomers or immigrants. Typically means opposition to immigration or efforts to lower the political or legal status of specific ethnic or cultural groups because the groups are considered hostile or alien to the natural culture, and it is assumed that they cannot be assimilated.

Answer 136

Nativism

Question 137

Is a foreign policy which combines a non-interventionist military policy and a political policy of economic nationalism (protectionism). In other words, it asserts both of the following: Non-interventionism and Protectionism

Answer 137

Isolationism

Question 138

The idea that: "Political rulers should avoid entangling alliances with other nations and avoid all wars not related to direct territorial self-defense"

Answer 138

Non-interventionism

Question 139

The idea that: "There should be legal barriers to control trade and cultural exchange with people in other states"

Answer 139

Protectionism

Question 140

Is a social movement against the use of alcoholic beverage. Its movements may criticize excessive alcohol use, promote complete abstinence, or pressure the government to enact anti-alcohol legislation.

Answer 140

Temperance movement

Question 141

Was an American military officer, statesman, and leader of the Confederacy during the American Civil War, serving as the president of the Confederate States of America for its entire history, 1861 to 1865

Answer 141

Jefferson Davis

Question 142

This book chronicles the experiences of Native Americans in the United States, focusing on examples of injustice

Answer 142

"A Century of Dishonor" by Helen Hunt Jackson

Question 143

The story takes place in 1757, during the French and Indian War (the Seven Years' War), when France and Great Britain battled for control of the North American colonies. During this war, the French called on allied Native American tribes to fight with the more numerous British colonists

Answer 143

"The Last of the Mohicans" by James Fennimore Cooper

Question 144

Leader of the Mingo Indians. Ware leader how urged his people not to attack whites settling in Ohio Country. May 3rd, 1774, a group of Virginia settlers murdered one doze of his people, including his mother and sister. He then demanded the Mingos and the Shawnee tribes take revenge. He wrote a famous speech and sent it to the English, refusing to negotiate peace.

Answer 144

Logan's Lament

Question 145

Is an anti-slavery novel by American author Harriet Beecher Stowe which inspired people in the North to join antislavery campaigns.

Answer 145

Uncle Tom's Cabin

Question 146

Was sparked by the factor of a continuing dispute over the southern boundary of Texas

Answer 146

Mexican American War

Question 147

This president's platform encouraged decreasing taxes and government regulation

Answer 147

Ronald Reagan

Question 148

Dominant agricultural model in the post-Civil War South. Is a system of agriculture in which a landowner allows a tenant to use the land in return for a share of the crop produced on the land (e.g., 50% of the crop)

Answer 148

Sharecropping

Question 149

A historian would be interested in: A. The manner in which scientific knowledge is advanced B. The effects of the French Revolution on world colonial policy C. The viewpoint of persons who have written previous "history" D. All of the above

Answer 149

D. All of the above Historians are interested in broad developments through history (A), as well as how individual events affected the time in which they happened (B). Knowing the viewpoint of earlier historians can also help explain the common thinking among historical cultures and groups (C), so all of these answers are correct (D)

Question 150

The Native Americans of the Eastern Woodlands lived on: A. Buffalo and crops such as corn, beans, and sunflowers B. Chiefly farming of squash, beans, and corn C. A variety of game (deer, bear, moose) and crops (squash, pumpkins, corn) D. Wolves, foxes, polar bears, walruses, and fish

Answer 150

C. A variety of game (deer, bear, moose) and crops (squash, pumpkins, corn) (A) Buffalo live in the plains habitat found in Western and Midwestern North America. (B) & (C) While the Native Americans did farm the "Three Sisters" of corn, squash and beans, the woods of the East also meant that a variety of game (deer, bear, moose) were widely available for them to hunt. (D) However, wolves, foxes, walruses, polar bears, and fish are only found together within the Arctic Circle, not the eastern woodlands.

Question 151

Apartments built out of cliff faces; shared government by adult citizens; absence of aggression toward other groups. These factors characterize the Native American group known as: A. Pueblo B. Comanche C. Seminole D. Sioux

Answer 151

A. Pueblo (B) The Comanches were a nomadic Native American group which emerged around 1700 AD in the North American Plains and were decidedly aggressive towards their neighbors. (C) The Seminoles are a Native American group which originally emerged in Florida in the mid-18th century and was made up of refugees from other Native tribes and escaped slaves. (D) The Sioux were a Native American people who originally lived in the Dakotas, Nebraska, and Minnesota and clashed extensively with white settlers.

Question 152

Bartholomeu Dias, in seeking a route around the tip of Africa, was forced to turn back. Nevertheless, the cape he discovered near the southern tip of Africa became known as: A. Cape Horn B. Cabo Bojador C. Cape of Good Hope D. Cape Hatteras

Answer 152

C. Cape of Good Hope (A) Cape Horn was discovered by Sir Francis Drake as he sailed around the globe in 1578, and it is located at the southern tip of Chile. (B) Cajo Bojador on the Western coast of northern Africa was first successfully navigated by a European, Portuguese Gil Eanes, in 1434. (D) Cape Hatteras is located on theU.S. Atlantic coast at North Carolina

Question 153

Columbus first reached Western Hemisphere lands in what is now: A. Florida B. Bermuda C. Puerto Rico D. Bahamas

Answer 153

D. Bahamas Christopher Columbus (1451-1506) would visit the Bahamas in 1492 and Puerto Rico in 1493, but he would never land on either Bermuda or Florida.

Question 154

The Middle Colonies of the Americas were: A. Maryland, Virginia, North Carolina B. New York, New Jersey, Pennsylvania, Delaware C. Rhode Island, Connecticut, New York, New Jersey D. Vermont and New Hampshire

Answer 154

B. New York, New Jersey,Pennsylvania, Delaware (A) Maryland, Virginia and North Carolina were southern colonies, (C & part of D) Rhode Island, Connecticut and New Hampshire were New England colonies, and (part of D) Vermont was not one of the 13 original colonies.

Question 155

France decided in 1777 to help the American colonies in their war against Britain. This decision was based on: A. The naval victory of John Paul Jones over the British ship "Serapes" B. The survival of the terrible winter at Valley Forge C. The success of colonial guerilla fighters in the South D. The defeat of the British at Saratoga

Answer 155

D. The defeat of the British at Saratoga The defeat of the British at Saratoga was the overwhelming factor in the FrancoAmerican alliance of 1777 that helped the American colonies defeat the British. Some historians believe that without the Franco-American alliance, the American colonies would not have been able to defeat the British, and America would have remained a British colony

Question 156

The only colony not founded and settled for religious, political, or business reasons was: A. Delaware B. Virginia C. Georgia D. New York

Answer 156

C. Georgia The Swedish and the Dutch established Delaware and New York as Middle Colonies. They were established with the intention of growth by economic prosperity from farming across the countryside. The English, with the intention of generating a strong farming economy settled Virginia, a Southern colony. Georgia was the only one of these colonies not settled for religious, political or business reasons as it was started as a place for debtors from English prisons.

Question 157

Which one of the following is not a reason why Europeans came to the New World? A. To find resources in order to increase wealth B. To establish trade C. To increase a ruler's power and importance D. To spread Christianity

Answer 157

B. To establish trade The Europeans came to the New World for a number of reasons; often they came to find new natural resources to extract for manufacturing. The Portuguese, Spanish and English were sent over to increase the monarch's power and spread influences such as religion (Christianity) and culture. Therefore, the only reason given that Europeans did not come to the New World was to establish trade.

Question 158

The first shots in what was to become the American Revolution were fired in: A. Florida B. Massachusetts C. New York D. Virginia

Answer 158

B. Massachusetts (A) Florida, while at the time a British possession, was not directly involved in the Revolutionary War. (B) The American Revolution began with the battles of Lexington and Concord in 1775. (C) There would be no fighting in New York until 1776 and none in Virginia until 1781.

Question 159

A major quarrel between colonial Americans and the British concerned a series of British Acts of Parliament dealing with: A. Taxes B. Slavery C. Native Americans D. Shipbuilding

Answer 159

A. Taxes Acts of Parliament imposing taxes on the colonists always provoked resentment. Because the colonies had no direct representation in Parliament, they felt it unjust that that body should impose taxes on them with so little knowledge of their very different situation in America and no real concern for the consequences of such taxes. (B) While slavery continued to exist in the colonies long after it had been completely abolished in Britain, it never was a source of serious debate between Britain and the colonies. By the time Britain outlawed slavery in its colonies in 1833, the American Revolution had already taken place and the United States was free of British control. (C) There was no series of British Acts of Parliament passed concerning Native Americans. (D) Colonial shipbuilding was an industry which received little interference from the British.

Question 160

After ratification of the new Constitution, the most urgent of the many problems facing the new federal government was that of: A. Maintaining a strong army and navy B. Establishing a strong foreign policy C. Raising money to pay salaries and war debts D. Setting up courts, passing federal laws, and providing for law enforcement officers

Answer 160

C. Raising money to pay salaries and war debts Maintaining strong military forces, establishment of a strong foreign policy, and setting up a justice system were important problems facing the United States under the newly ratified Constitution. However, the most important and pressing issue was how to raise money to pay salaries and war debts from the Revolutionary War. Alexander Hamilton (1755-1804) then Secretary of the Treasury proposed increased tariffs and taxes on products such as liquor. This money would be used to pay off war debts and to pay for internal programs. Hamilton also proposed the idea of a National Bank.

Question 161

Which concept is not embodied as a right in the First Amendment to the U.S. Constitution? A. Peaceful assembly B. Unreasonable search and seizure C. Freedom of speech D. Petition for redress of grievances

Answer 161

B. Unreasonable search and seizure The first amendment to the Constitution reads, "Congress shall make no law respecting [...] abridging the (C) freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people (A) peaceably to assemble, and to (D) petition the government for a redress of grievances." The protection against (B) unreasonable search and seizure is a constitutional right found in the fourth amendment, not the first.

Question 162

The "Trail of Tears" relates to: A. The removal of the Cherokees from their native lands to Oklahoma Territory B. The revolt and subsequent migration of the Massachusetts Pilgrims under pressure from the Iroquois C. The journey of the Nez Perce under Chief Joseph before their capture by the U.S. Army D. The 1973 standoff between federal marshals and Native Americans at Wounded Knee, S.D.

Answer 162

A. The removal of the Cherokees from their native lands to Oklahoma Territory (1838-39) (B) There never was a revolt and migration of the Massachusetts Pilgrims under pressure from the Iroquois. (C) The 1877 journey of the Nez Perce under Chief Joseph was a strategically impressive attempt to retreat from an oncoming US Army into Canada. (D) The 1973 Wounded Knee incident was the occupation of the town of Wounded Knee, South Dakota, by the American Indian Movement to call attention to issues of Native American civil rights

Question 163

It can be reasonably stated that the change in the United States from primarily an agricultural country into an industrial power was due to all of the following except: A. Tariffs on foreign imports B. Millions of hardworking immigrants C. An increase in technological developments D. The change from steam to electricity for powering industrial machinery

Answer 163

A. Tariffs on foreign imports The change in the United States from primarily an agricultural country into an industrial power was a combination of millions of hard-working immigrants, an increase in technological developments, and the change from steam to electricity for powering industrial machinery. The only reason given that really had little effect was the tariffs on foreign imports.

Question 164

The U.S. Constitution, adopted in 1789, provided for: A. Direct election of the president by all citizens B. Direct election of the president by citizens meeting a standard of wealth C. Indirect election of the president by electors D. Indirect election of the president by the U.S. Senate

Answer 164

C. Indirect election of the president by electors The United States Constitution has always arranged for the indirect election of the president by electors. The question, by mentioning the original date of adoption, might mislead someone to choose B. While standards of citizenship have been changed by amendment, the president has never been directly elected, nor does the Senate have anything to do with presidential elections. The House of Representatives, not the Senate, settles cases where neither candidates wins in the Electoral College.

Question 165

Which of the following sets of inventors is correctly matched with the area in which they primarily worked? A. Thomas Edison and George Westinghouse: transportation B. Cyrus McCormick and George Washington Carver: household appliances C. Alexander Graham Bell and Samuel F. B. Morse: communications D. Isaac Singer and John Gorrie: agriculture

Answer 165

C. Alexander Graham Bell and Samuel F. B. Morse: communications Bell, inventor of the telephone, and Morse, inventor of the telegraph and Morse code, were both working in the area of communications. While Westinghouse did invent various technologies crucial to the railroads and thus transportation, Edison did not; both are strongly linked to electrical inventions. McCormick and Carver specialized in agricultural inventions, while Singer, an inventor of the sewing machine, and Gorrie, the inventor of air conditioning and refrigeration, were best known for their household appliances.

Question 166

The area of the United States was effectively doubled through purchase of the Louisiana Territory under which president? A. John Adams B. Thomas Jefferson C. James Madison D. James Monroe

Answer 166

B. Thomas Jefferson (B) The Louisiana Purchase, an acquisition of territory from France in 1803, occurred under Thomas Jefferson. (A) John Adams (1735-1826) was president from 1797-1801, before the purchase, and (C) James Madison, (1751-1836) after the Purchase (1809-1817). (D) James Monroe (1758-1831) was actually a signatory on the Purchase but did not become president until 1817.

Question 167

Which one of the following was not a reason why the United States went to war with Great Britain in 1812? A. Resentment by Spain over the sale, exploration, and settlement of the Louisiana Territory B. The westward movement of farmers because of the need for more land C. Canadian fur traders were agitating the northwestern Indians to fight American expansion D. Britain continued to seize American ships on the high seas and force American seamen to serve aboard British ships

Answer 167

A. Resentment by Spain over the sale, exploration, and settlement of the Louisiana Territory The United States went to war with Great Britain in 1812 for a number of reasons including the expansion of settlers westward and the need for more land, the agitation of Indians by Canadian fur traders in eastern Canada, and the continued seizures of American ships by the British on the high seas. Therefore, the only statement given that was not a reason for the War of 1812 was the resentment by Spain over the sale, exploration and settlement of the Louisiana Territory. In fact, the Spanish continually held more hostility towards the British than towards the United States. The War of 1812 is often considered to be the second American war for independence.

Question 168

The first territorial governor of Florida after Florida's purchase by the United States was: A. Napoleon Bonaparte B. Robert Duval C. Andrew Jackson D. Davy Crockett

Answer 168

C. Andrew Jackson Napoleon Bonaparte (A) was the Emperor of France and never ruled Florida. Robert Duvall (B) is an American actor and not a politician. Davy Crockett (D) was a frontiersman who died at the Alamo, in Texas.

Question 169

The Compromise of 1850 came about as a result of which state's entry into the Union? A. Texas B. Missouri C. California D. Kansas

Answer 169

C. California Texas (A) entered the Union in 1845. Missouri (B) was the subject of the Missouri Compromise of 1824, which would be the first such compromise between slave and free states. California (C) entered the union after the Compromise of 1850 was drafted to avoid the issue of secession by the slave states. Kansas (D) became a violent battleground between pro-slavery and anti-slavery forces when it was organized as a territory in 1854, before achieving statehood in 1861 as a free state.

Question 170

What was a major source of contention between American settlers in Texas and the Mexican government in the 1830s and 1840s? A. The Americans wished to retain slavery which had been outlawed in Mexico B. The Americans had agreed to learn Spanish and become Roman Catholic, but failed to do so C. The Americans retained ties to the United States, and Santa Anna feared the power of the U.S. D. All of the above were contentious issues between American settlers and the Mexican government

Answer 170

D: All of the above were contentious issues between American settlers and the Mexican government. The American settlers simply were not willing to assimilate into Mexican society but maintained their prior commitments to slave holding, the English language, Protestantism, and the United States government.

Question 171

Which of the following is most descriptive of the conflict between the U.S. government and the Seminoles between 1818 and 1858? A. There was constant armed conflict between the Seminoles and the U.S. during these years B. Historians discern three separate phases of hostilities (1818, 1835-42,1855-58) known collectively as the Seminole Wars C. On May 7, 1858, the Seminoles admitted defeat, signed a peace treaty with the U.S., and left for Oklahoma, except for fifty-one individuals D. The former Seminole chief Osceola helped the U.S. defeat the Seminoles and effect their removal to Oklahoma

Answer 171

B. Historians discern three separate phases of hostilities (1818, 1835-42, 1855- 58) known collectively as the Seminole Wars (A) Intermittent conflicts between the U.S. government and the Seminole Native Americans can be classified into (B) three separate phases of hostilities.

Question 172

Slavery arose in the southern colonies partly as a perceived economical way to: A. Increase the owner's wealth through human beings used as a source of exchange B. Cultivate large plantations of cotton, tobacco, rice, indigo, and other crops C. Provide Africans with humanitarian aid, such as health care, Christianity, and literacy D. Keep ships' holds full of cargo

Answer 172

B. Cultivate large plantations of cotton, tobacco, rice, indigo and other crops

Question 173

Of the following, which contributed most to penetration of western areas by colonial Americans? A. Development of large ships capable of sailing upstream in rivers such as the Hudson, Susquehanna, and Delaware B. The invention of the steamboat C. Improved relations with Native Americans who invited colonial Americans to travel west to settle D. Improved roads, mail service, and communications

Answer 173

D. Improved roads, mail service and communications

Question 174

Which of the following groups were slave states? A. Delaware, Maryland, Missouri B. California, Texas, Florida C. Kansas, Missouri, Kentucky D. Virginia, West Virginia, Indiana

Answer 174

A. Delaware, Maryland, Missouri

Question 175

A consequence of the Gold Rush that led Americans to California in 1848 and 1849 was that: A. California spent the minimum amount of time as a territory and was admitted as a slave state B. California was denied admission on its first application since most Americans felt that the settlers were too "uncivilized" to deserve statehood C. California was purchased from Mexico for the express purpose of gaining immediate statehood D. California did not go through the normal territorial stage, but applied directly for statehood as a free state

Answer 175

D. California did not go through the normal territorial stage, but applied directly for statehood as a free state California, suddenly undergoing a massive increase in population and wealth and desiring orderly government, found it had little recourse but to claim status as a free state and appeal directly for statehood. Congress had moved too slowly on the question of making California United States Territory. California was never a territory, but only a military district. California was not denied admission to the Union but was an essential part of the Compromise of 1850. Immediate statehood was definitely not an express policy of the U.S. in acquiring California, but the Gold Rush changed attitudes quickly.

Question 176

Which American Secretary of War later became President of the Confederate States? A. Henry Clay B. William Seward C. Franklin Pierce D. Jefferson Davis

Answer 176

D. Jefferson Davis

Question 177

Who was the first commander for the North in the Civil War? A. Gen. Ulysses S. Grant B. Gen. Robert E. Lee C. Gen. Irwin McDowell D. Gen. George Meade

Answer 177

C. General Irwin McDowell

Question 178

Abraham Lincoln won reelection in 1864 chiefly through: A. His overwhelming force of personality and appeal to all segments of the electorate B. His reputation as the Great Emancipator C. The fact that people felt sorry for him because of his difficulties D. His shrewd political manipulation, clever use of patronage jobs, and wide-appeal selection of cabinet members

Answer 178

D. His shrewd political manipulation, clever use of patronage jobs, and wide-appeal selection of cabinet members

Question 179

How many states reentered the Union before 1868? A. 0 states B. 1 state C. 2 states D. 3 states

Answer 179

B. 1 state

Question 180

The Radical Republicans who pushed the harsh Reconstruction measures through Congress after Lincoln's death lost public and moderate Republican support when they went too far: A. In their efforts to impeach the President B. By dividing ten southern states into military-controlled districts C. By making the ten southern states give freed African Americans the right to vote D. Sending carpetbaggers into the South to build up support for Congressional legislation

Answer 180

A. In their efforts to impeach the President

Question 181

In the 1920s, the United States almost completely stopped all immigration. One of the reasons was: A. Plentiful cheap, unskilled labor was no longer needed by industrialists B. War debts from World War I made it difficult to render financial assistance C. European nations were reluctant to allow people to leave since there was a need to rebuild populations and economic stability D. The United States did not become a member of the League of Nations

Answer 181

A. Plentiful cheap, unskilled labor was no longer needed by industrialists

Question 182

The Interstate Commerce Commission (ICC) was established in reaction to abuses and corruption in what industry? A. Textile B. Railroad C. Steel D. Banking

Answer 182

B. Railroad

Question 183

The Teapot Dome scandal related to: A. The improper taxing of tea surpluses in Boston B. The improper awarding of building contracts in Washington, DC C. The improper sale of policy decisions by various Harding administration officials D. The improper sale of oil reserves in Wyoming

Answer 183

D. The improper sale of oil reserves in Wyoming

Question 184

Which of the following was NOT a factor in the United States' entry into World War I? A. The closeness of the presidential election of 1916 B. The German threat to sink all allied ships, including merchant ships C. The desire to preserve democracy as practiced in Britain and France as compared to the totalitarianism of Germany D. The sinking of the Lusitania and the Sussex

Answer 184

A. The closeness of the presidential election of 1916

Question 185

What 1924 Act of Congress severely restricted immigration in the United States? A. Taft-Hartley Act B. Smoot-Hawley Act C. Tordney-McCumber Act D. Johnson-Reed Act

Answer 185

D. Johnson-Reed Act

Question 186

Of all the major causes of both World War I and II, the most significant one is considered to be: A. Extreme nationalism B. Military buildup and aggression C. Political unrest D. Agreements and alliances

Answer 186

A. Extreme nationalism

Question 187

Which of the following contributed to the severity of the Great Depression in California? A. An influx of Chinese immigrants B. The Dust Bowl drove people out of the cities C. An influx of Mexican immigrants D. An influx of "Okies"

Answer 187

D. An influx of "Okies"

Question 188

In the first aggression of World War II outside the Orient, identify the aggressor nation and the nation which was invaded: A. Germany; Sudetenland B. Italy; Abyssinia C. Germany; Poland D. Italy; Yugoslavia

Answer 188

B. Italy; Abyssinia

Question 189

In issuing an ultimatum for Soviet ships not to enter Cuban waters in October 1962, President John F. Kennedy, as part of his decision, used the provisions of the: A. Monroe Doctrine B. Declaration of the Rights of Man C. Geneva Convention D. Truman Doctrine

Answer 189

A. Monroe Doctrine

Question 190

President Truman suspended Gen. Douglas MacArthur from command of Allied forces in Korea because of: A. MacArthur's inability to make any progress against North Koreans B. MacArthur's criticism of Truman claiming that the president would not allow him to pursue aggressive tactics against communists C. The harsh treatment MacArthur exhibited toward the Japanese after World War II D. The ability of the U.S. Navy to continue the conflict without the presence of MacArthur

Answer 190

B. MacArthur's criticism of Truman, claiming that the president would not allow him to pursue aggressive tactics against communists

Question 191

Which of the following most closely characterizes the Supreme Court's decision in Brown v. Board of Education? A. Chief Justice Warren had to cast the deciding vote in a sharply divided the Supreme Court B. The decision was rendered along sectional lines with northerners voting for integration and southerners voting for continued segregation C. The decision was 7-2 with dissenting justices not even preparing a written dissent D. Chief Justice Warren was able to persuade the Supreme Court to render a unanimous decision

Answer 191

D. Chief Justice Warren was able to persuade the Court to render a unanimous decision

Question 192

The native metaphysical outlook of Japan, usually characterized as a religion, is: A. Tao B. Shinto C. Hindu D. Sunni

Answer 192

B. Shinto

Question 193

Indo-European languages are native languages to each of the following EXCEPT: A. Germany B. India C. Italy D. Finland

Answer 193

D. Finland

Question 194

Which of the following developments is most closely associated with the Neolithic Age? A. Human use of fire B. First use of stone chipping instruments C. Domestication of plants D. Development of metallurgical alloys

Answer 194

C. Domestication of plants

Question 195

The end to hunting, gathering, and fishing of prehistoric people was due to: A. Domestication of animals B. Building crude huts and houses C. Development of agriculture D. Organized government in villages

Answer 195

C. Development of agriculture

Question 196

The principle of zero in mathematics is the discovery of the ancient civilization found in: A. Egypt B. Persia C. India D. Babylon

Answer 196

C. India

Question 197

The Tigris-Euphrates Valley was the site of which two primary ancient civilizations? A. Babylonian and Assyrian B. Sumerian and Egyptian C. Hyksos and Hurrian D. Persian and Phoenician

Answer 197

A. Babylonian and Assyrian

Question 198

The first ancient civilization to introduce and practice monotheism was the: A. Sumerians B. Minoans C. Phoenicians D. Hebrews

Answer 198

D. Hebrews

Question 199

Which one of the following is not an important legacy of the Byzantine Empire? A. It protected Western Europe from various attacks from the East by such groups as the Persians, Ottoman Turks, and Barbarians B. It played a part in preserving the literature, philosophy, and language of ancient Greece C. Its military organization was the foundation for modern armies D. It kept the legal traditions of Roman government, collecting and organizing many ancient Roman laws

Answer 199

C. Its military organization was the foundation for modern armies

Question 200

For the historian studying ancient Egypt, which of the following would be least useful? A. The record of an ancient Greek historian on Greek-Egyptian interaction B. Letters from an Egyptian ruler to his/her regional governors C. Inscriptions of the Fourteenth Egyptian Dynasty D. Letters from a nineteenth-century Egyptologist to his wife

Answer 200

D. Letters from a nineteenth-century Egyptologist to his wife

Question 201

The____________were fought between the Roman Empire and Carthage. A. Civil Wars B. Punic Wars C. Caesarian Wars D. Persian Wars

Answer 201

B. Punic Wars

Question 202

Which one of the following did not contribute to the early medieval European civilization? A. The heritage from the classical cultures B. The Christian religion C. The influence of the German Barbarians D. The spread of ideas through trade and commerce

Answer 202

D. The spread of ideas through trade and commerce

Question 203

Of the legacies of the Roman Empire listed below, the most influential, effective, and lasting is: A. The language of Latin B. Roman law, justice, and political system C. Engineering and building D. The writings of its poets and historians

Answer 203

B. Roman law, justice, and political system

Question 204

What Holy Roman Emperor was forced to do public penance because of his conflict with Pope Gregory VII over lay investiture of the clergy? A. Charlemagne B. Henry IV C. Charles V D. Henry VIII

Answer 204

B. Henry IV

Question 205

Monophysitism (the belief that Jesus was completely divine with no admixture of humanity) was declared a heresy by _____? A. Council of Nicaea B. Diet of Worms C. Council of Trent D. Council of Chalcedon

Answer 205

D. Council of Chalcedon

Question 206

Which of the following areas would NOT be a primary area of hog production? A. Midland England B. The Mekong delta of Vietnam C. Central Syria D. Northeast Iowa

Answer 206

C. Central Syria

Question 207

Which of the following is NOT one of the Pillars of Faith of Islam? A. Alms-giving (zakah) B. Pilgrimage (hajj) C. Membership in a school of law (al-madhahib) D. Fasting (sawm)

Answer 207

C. Membership in a school of law (al-madhahib)

Question 208

Chinese civilization is generally credited with the original development of which of the following sets of technologies: A. Movable type and mass production of goods B. Wool processing and domestication of the horse C. Paper and gunpowder manufacture D. Leather processing and modern timekeeping

Answer 208

C. Paper and gunpowder manufacture

Question 209

Colonial expansion by Western European powers in the 18th and 19th centuries was due primarily to: A. Building and opening the Suez Canal B. The Industrial Revolution C. Marked improvements in transportation D. Complete independence of all the Americas and loss of European domination and influence

Answer 209

B. The Industrial Revolution

Question 210

The ideas and innovations of the period of the Renaissance were spread throughout Europe mainly because of: A. Extensive exploration B. Craft workers and their guilds C. The invention of the printing press D. Increased travel and trade

Answer 210

C. The invention of the printing press

Question 211

Luther issued strong objection to all but which of the following practices of the fifteenth-century Roman Catholic Church? A. The sacrament of Baptism B. Absolution of sins through the intermediation of a priest and through ceremony C. The sale of indulgences, whereby the buyer may purchase purgation of sins D. Imposed church control over the individual conscience

Answer 211

A. The sacrament of Baptism

Question 212

The results of the Renaissance, Enlightenment, and Commercial and Industrial Revolutions were more unfortunate for the people of: A. Asia B. Latin America C. Africa D. Middle East

Answer 212

C. Africa

Question 213

Great Britain became the center of technological and industrial development during the nineteenth century chiefly on the basis of: A. Central location relative to the population centers of Europe B. Colonial conquests and military victories over European powers C. Reliance on exterior sources of financing D. Resources of coal and production of steel

Answer 213

D. Resources of coal and production of steel

Question 214

The years 1793-94 in France, characterized by numerous trials and executions of supposed enemies of the Revolutionary Convention, were known as the: A. Reign of Terror B. Dark Ages C. French Inquisition D. Glorious Revolution

Answer 214

A. Reign of Terror

Question 215

In 1990, Alberto Fujimori was the first Asian to be elected president of: A. Canada B. Mexico C. South Africa D. Peru

Answer 215

D. Peru

Question 216

Which of the following most closely characterizes the geopolitical events of the USSR in 1991-92: A. The USSR established greater military and economic control over the fifteen Soviet republics B. The Baltic States (Estonia, Latvia, and Lithuania) declared independence, while the remainder of the USSR remained intact. C. Fourteen of fifteen Soviet republics declared some degree of autonomy; the USSR was officially dissolved; and the Supreme Soviet rescinded the Soviet Treaty of 1922 D. All fifteen Soviet republics simultaneously declared immediate and full independence from the USSR with no provisions for a transitional form of government

Answer 216

C. Fourteen of fifteen Soviet republics declared some degree of autonomy; the USSR was officially dissolved; and the Supreme Soviet rescinded the Soviet Treaty of 1922

Question 217

A political scientist might use all of the following except: A. An investigation of government documents B. A geological time-line C. Voting patterns D. Polling data

Answer 217

B. A geological time-line

Question 218

The early ancient civilizations developed systems of government: A. To provide for defense against attack B. To regulate trade C. To regulate and direct the economic activities of the people as they worked together in groups D. To decide on the boundaries of the different fields during planting seasons

Answer 218

C. To regulate and direct the economic activities of the people as they worked together in groups

Question 219

Political science is primarily concerned with _____________. A. Elections B. Economic Systems C. Boundaries D. Public Policy

Answer 219

D. Public Policy

Question 220

A political philosophy favoring or supporting rapid social changes in order to correct social and economic inequalities is called: A. Nationalism B. Liberalism C. Conservatism D. Federalism

Answer 220

B. Liberalism

Question 221

Consider the following passage from the Mayflower Compact: "...covenant, & combine ourselves together into a Civil body politick;" This demonstrates what theory of social organization? A. Darwinian B. Naturalistic C. Nonconsensual D. Constitutional

Answer 221

D. Constitutional

Question 222

In the United States, if a person is accused of a crime and cannot afford a lawyer: A. The person cannot be tried B. A court will appoint a lawyer, but the person must pay the lawyer back when able to do so C. The person must be tried without legal representation D. A court will appoint a lawyer for the person free of charge

Answer 222

D. A court will appoint a lawyer for the person free of charge

Question 223

Which of the following are usually considered responsibilities of citizenship under the American system of government? A. Serving in public office, voluntary government service, military duty B. Paying taxes, jury duty, upholding the Constitution C. Maintaining a job, giving to charity, turning in fugitives D. Quartering of soldiers, bearing arms, government service

Answer 223

B. Paying taxes, jury duty, upholding the Constitution

Question 224

Why is the system of government in the United States referred to as a federal system? A. There are different levels of government B. There is one central authority in which all governmental power is vested C. The national government cannot operate except with the consent of the governed D. Elections are held at stated periodic times, rather than as called by the head of the government

Answer 224

A. There are different levels of government

Question 225

In the presidential election of 1888, Grover Cleveland lost to Benjamin Harrison, although Cleveland received more popular votes. How is this possible? A. The votes of certain states (New York, Indiana) were thrown out because of voting irregularities B. Harrison received more electoral votes that Cleveland C. None of the party candidates received a majority of votes, and the House of Representatives elected Harrison according to Constitutional procedures D. Because of accusations of election law violations, Cleveland withdrew his name and Harrison became president

Answer 225

B. Harrison received more electoral votes that Cleveland

Question 226

78. A person who receives more votes than anyone else in an election is said to have a ________ of the votes cast; a person who has over 50 percent of the votes in an election is said to have a __________ of the votes cast. A. Plurality; majority B. Majority; minority C. Plurality; minority D. Majority; plurality

Answer 226

A. Plurality; majority

Question 227

How are major party candidates chosen to run for president in the United States? A. Caucuses of major party officeholders meet to select a state's choice for the party, and the candidate selected by the most states becomes the nominee B. Potential presidential nominees seek pledges from each state party's chair and co-chair, and the candidate with the most pledges becomes the nominee C. Nationwide primaries are held by each party, to select delegates to a national nominating convention D. Each state party decides how to select delegates to a nominating convention; these selection processes may be caucuses, primaries, or any other method chosen by the state party

Answer 227

D. Each state party decides how to select delegates to a nominating convention; these selection processes may be caucuses, primaries, or any other method chosen by the state party

Question 228

Which of the following are NOT local governments in the United States? A. Cities B. Townships C. School boards D. All of these are forms of local government

Answer 228

D. All of these are forms of local government

Question 229

The major expenditures of state governments in the United States go toward: A. Parks, education, and highwaysB. Law enforcement, libraries, and highways C. Education, highways, and law enforcement D. Recreation, business regulation, and education

Answer 229

C. Education, highways, and law enforcement

Question 230

In the Constitutional system of checks and balances, one of the "checking" powers of the President is: A. Executive privilege B. Approval of judges nominated by the Senate C. Veto of Congressional legislation D. Approval of judged nominated by the House of Representatives

Answer 230

C. Veto of Congressional legislation

Question 231

A historian might compare the governmental systems of the Roman Empire and the twentieth century United States with regard to which of the following commonalties? A. Totalitarianism B. Technological development C. Constitutional similarities D. Federalism

Answer 231

D. Federalism

Question 232

How does the government of France differ from that of the United States? A. France is a direct democracy while the United States is a representative democracy B. France has a unitary form of national government while the United States has a federal form of government C. France is a representative democracy while the United States is a direct democracy D. France does not elect a president while the United States elects a president

Answer 232

B. France has a unitary form of national government while the United States has a federal form of government

Question 233

Capitalism and Communism are alike in that they are both: A. Organic systems B. Political systems C. Centrally-planned systems D. Economic systems

Answer 233

D. Economic systems

Question 234

Peace studies might include elements of all of the following disciplines except: A. Geography B. History C. Economics D. All of these might contribute to peace studies

Answer 234

D. All of these might contribute to peace studies

Question 235

A geographer wishes to study the effects of a flood on subsequent settlement patterns. Which might he or she find most useful? A. A film clip of the floodwaters B. An aerial photograph of the river's source C. Census data taken after the flood D. A soil map of the A and B horizons beneath the flood area

Answer 235

C. Census data taken after the flood

Question 236

If geography is the study of how human beings live in relationship to the earth on which they live, why do geographers include physical geography within the discipline? A. The physical environment serves as the location for the activities of human beings B. No other branch of the natural or social sciences studies the same topics C. The physical environment is more important than the activities carried out by human beings D. It is important to be able to subdue natural processes for the advancement of humankind

Answer 236

A. The physical environment serves as the location for the activities of human beings

Question 237

A coral island, or series of islands, which consists of a reef which surrounds a lagoon describes a(n): A. Needle B. Key C. Atoll D. Mauna

Answer 237

C. Atoll

Question 238

Which of the following is an island nation? A. Luxembourg B. Finland C. Monaco D. Nauru

Answer 238

D. Nauru

Question 239

The Mediterranean-type climate is characterized by: A. Hot, dry summers and mild, relatively wet winters B. Cool, relatively wet summers and cold winters C. Mild summers and winters, with moisture throughout the year D. Hot, wet summers and cool, dry winters

Answer 239

A. Hot, dry summers and mild, relatively wet winters

Question 240

The climate of Southern Florida is the ___________________ type. A. Humid subtropical B. Marine West Coast C. Humid continental D. Tropical wet-dry

Answer 240

A. Humid subtropical

Question 241

Which location may be found in Canada? A. 27 N 93 W B. 41 N 93 E C. 50 N 111 W D. 18 N 120 W

Answer 241

C. 50 N 111 W

Question 242

The highest point in North America is: A. Mt. St. Helens B. Denali or Mt. McKinley C. Mt. Everest D. Pikes Peak

Answer 242

B. Denali or Mt. McKinley

Question 243

A physical geographer would be concerned with which of the following groups of terms? A. Landform, biome, precipitation B. Scarcity, goods, services C. Nation, state, administrative subdivision D. Cause and effect, innovation, exploration

Answer 243

A. Landform, biome, precipitation

Question 244

The principle of "popular sovereignty", allowing people in any Territory to make their own decision concerning slavery was stated by: A. Henry Clay B. Daniel Webster C. John C. Calhoun D. Stephen A. Douglas

Answer 244

D. Stephen A. Douglas

Question 245

We can credit modern geography with which of the following? A. Building construction practices designed to withstand earthquakes B. Advances in computer cartography C. Better methods of linguistic analysis D. Making it easier to memorize countries and their capitals

Answer 245

B. Advances in computer cartography

Question 246

An economist might engage in which of the following activities? A. An observation of the historical effects of a nation's banking practices B. The application of a statistical test to a series of data C. Introduction of an experimental factor into a specified population to measure the effect of the factor D. An economist might engage in all of these

Answer 246

D. An economist might engage in all of these

Question 247

Economics is best described as: A. The study of how money is used in different societies B. The study of how different political systems produce goods and services C. The study of how human beings use limited resources to supply their necessities and wants D. The study of how human beings have developed trading practices through the years

Answer 247

C. The study of how human beings use limited resources to supply their necessities and wants

Question 248

An economist investigates the spending patterns of low-income individuals. Which of the following would yield the most pertinent information? A. Prime lending rates of neighborhood banks B. The federal discount rate C. City-wide wholesale distribution figures D. Census data and retail sales figures

Answer 248

D. Census data and retail sales figures

Question 249

As your income rises, you tend to spend more money on entertainment. This is an expression of the: A. Marginal propensity to consume B. Allocative efficiency C. Compensating differential D. Marginal propensity to save

Answer 249

A. Marginal propensity to consume

Question 250

. A student buys a candy bar at lunch. The decision to buy a second candy bar relates to the concept of: A. Equilibrium pricing B. Surplus C. Utility D. Substitutability

Answer 250

C. Utility

Question 251

. In a barter economy, which of the following would not be an economic factor? A. Time B. Goods C. Money D. Services

Answer 251

C. Money

Question 252

Of the following, the best example of an oligopoly in the US is: A. Automobile industry B. Electric power provision C. Telephone service D. Clothing manufacturer

Answer 252

A. Automobile industry

Question 253

An agreement in which a company allows a business to use its name and sell its products, usually for a fee, is called a: A. Sole proprietorship B. Partnership C. Corporation D. Franchise

Answer 253

D. Franchise

Question 254

What is a major difference between monopolistic competition and perfect competition? A. Perfect competition has many consumers and suppliers while monopolistic competition does not B. Perfect competition provides identical products while monopolistic competition provides similar, but not identical, products C. Entry to perfect competition is difficult while entry to monopolistic competition is relatively easy D. Monopolistic competition has many consumers and suppliers while perfect competition does not

Answer 254

B. Perfect competition provides identical products while monopolistic competition provides similar, but not identical, products

Question 255

If the price of Good G increases, what is likely to happen with regard to comparable Good H? A. The demand for Good G will stay the same B. The demand for Good G will increase C. The demand for Good H will increase D. The demand for Good H will decrease

Answer 255

C. The demand for Good H will increase

Question 256

The macro-economy consists of all but which of the following sectors? A. Consumer B. Business C. Foreign D. Private

Answer 256

D. Private

Question 257

A command economy is considered the opposite of an open economy. Therefore, in a command economy: A. The open market determines how much of a good is produced and distributed B. The government determines how much of a good is produced and distributed C. Individuals produce and consume a specified good as commanded by their needs D. The open market determines the demand for a good, and then the government produces and distributes the good

Answer 257

B. The government determines how much of a good is produced and distributed

Question 258

Which best describes the economic system of the United States? A. Most decisions are the result of open markets with little or no government modification or regulation B. Most decisions are made by the government but there is some input by open market forces C. Most decisions are made by open market factors with important regulatory functions and other market modifications the result of government activity D. There is joint decision making by government and private forces with final decisions resting with the government

Answer 258

C. Most decisions are made by open market factors with important regulatory functions and other market modifications the result of government activity

Question 259

The advancement of understanding in dealing with human beings has led to a number of interdisciplinary areas. Which of the following interdisciplinary studies would NOT be considered under the social sciences? A. Molecular biophysics B. Peace studies C. African-American studies D. Cartographic information systems

Answer 259

A. Molecular biophysics

Question 260

Which of the following is most reasonably studied under the social sciences? A. Political science B. Geometry C. Physics D. Grammar

Answer 260

A. Political science

Question 261

Which of the following is not generally considered a discipline within the social sciences? A. Geometry B. Anthropology C. Geography D. Sociology

Answer 261

A. Geometry

Question 262

Which of the following best describes current thinking on the major purpose of social science? A. Social science is designed primarily for students to acquire facts B. Social science should not be taught earlier than the middle school years C. A primary purpose of social sciences is the development of good citizens D. Social science should be taught as an elective

Answer 262

C. A primary purpose of social sciences is the development of good citizens

Question 263

A social scientist studies the behavior of four persons in a carpool. This is an example of: A. Developmental psychology B. Experimental psychology C. Social psychology D. Macroeconomics

Answer 263

C. Social psychology

Question 264

As a sociologist, you would be most likely to observe: A. The effects of an earthquake on farmland B. The behavior of rats in sensory-deprivation experiments C. The change over time in Babylonian obelisk styles D. The behavior of human beings in television focus groups

Answer 264

D. The behavior of human beings in television focus groups

Question 265

Margaret Mead may be credited with major advances in the study of: A. The marginal propensity to consume B. The thinking of the Anti-Federalists C. The anxiety levels of non-human primates D. Interpersonal relationships in non-technical societies

Answer 265

D. Interpersonal relationships in non-technical societies

Question 266

"Participant observation" is a method of study most closely associated with and used in: A. Anthropology B. Archaeology C. Sociology D. Political science

Answer 266

A. Anthropology

Question 267

The study of the social behavior of minority groups would be in the area of: A. Anthropology B. Psychology C. Sociology D. Cultural Geography

Answer 267

C. Sociology

Question 268

A teacher and a group of students take a field trip to an Indian mound to examine artifacts. This activity most closely fits under which branch of the social sciences? A. Anthropology B. Sociology C. Psychology D. Political Science

Answer 268

A. Anthropology

Question 269

Which of the following demonstrates evidence of the interaction between physical and cultural anthropology? A. Tall Nilotic herdsmen are often expert warriors B. Until recent years, the diet of most Asian peoples caused them to be shorter in stature than most other peoples C. Native South American peoples adopted potato production after invasion by Europeans D. Polynesians exhibit different skin coloration than Melanesians

Answer 269

B. Until recent years, the diet of most Asian peoples caused them to be shorter in stature than most other peoples

Question 270

Psychology is a social science because: A. It focuses on the biological development of individuals B. It focuses on the behavior of individual persons and small groups of persons C. It bridges the gap between the natural and the social sciences D. It studies the behavioral habits of lower animals

Answer 270

B. It focuses on the behavior of individual persons and small groups of persons

Question 271

. A social scientist observes how individual persons react to the presence or absence of noise. This scientist is most likely a: A. Geographer B. Political Scientist C. Economist D. Psychologist

Answer 271

D. Psychologist

Question 272

Cognitive, developmental, and behavioral are three types of: A. Economist B. Political Scientist C. Psychologist D. Historian

Answer 272

C. Psychologist

Question 273

Of the following lists, which includes persons who have made major advances in the understanding of psychology? A. Herodotus, Thucydides, Ptolemy B. Adam Smith, Milton Friedman, John Kenneth Galbraith C. Edward Hall, E.L. Thorndike, B.F. Skinner D. Thomas Jefferson, Karl Marx, Henry Kissinger

Answer 273

C. Edward Hall, E.L. Thorndike, B.F. Skinner

Question 274

Fertile Crescent

Answer 274

The region stretching from the Persian Gulf through the land around the Tigris and Euphrates rivers (Mesopotamia), the Levant (east coast of the Mediterranean Sea), and parts of the Nile Valley; with the first populations dating back to 10,000 BCE, it is thought to be the birthplace of the key aspects of civilization.

Question 275

Code of Hammurabi

Answer 275

The sixth king of Babylonia developed a code of law around 1754 BC that contains punishments based on the now well-known expression "an eye for an eye, a tooth for a tooth"

Question 276

Punic Wars

Answer 276

A series of wars fought between Carthage and Rome between 264 BCE and 146 BCE.

Question 277

Laws of Manu

Answer 277

2684 verses that comprise the guiding principles of religious and legal duty in Hinduism

Question 278

Bubonic (Black) Plague

Answer 278

Bacterial infection with global effects that killed a third of Europeans in the 14th century; led to broader social change.

Question 279

The Torah

Answer 279

The central text of Judaism; describes the origin of the Israelites and of the world.

Question 280

Inquisition

Answer 280

A court established by the Roman Catholic Church tasked with eradicating heresies, including witchcraft and alchemy

Question 281

Umayyad Caliphate

Answer 281

A 5.8 million square mile empire marked by stability between Muslims and Christians and an intentional policy of Christian inclusion and assimilation.

Question 282

Treaty of Tordesillas

Answer 282

The 1494 treaty that allowed the Portuguese to claim the coast of Brazil.

Question 283

Concentration Camps

Answer 283

Forced labor and death camps where the Nazis imprisoned and killed Jews, Roma, Slavic people, homosexuals, disabled people, people of color, prisoners of war, communists, and others as part of the Holocaust.

Question 284

Glorious Revolution

Answer 284

The overthrow of Catholic James II by his daughter Mary II and her husband William of Orange; also called the Bloodless Revolution.

Question 285

White Man's Burden

Answer 285

A poem written by British novelist Rudyard Kipling in 1899; the poem was written to encourage the US to engage in a war with the Philippines, joining the nations of Western Europe in fulfilling (in their minds) their "burden" to "civilize" non-whites around the world.

Question 286

League of Nations

Answer 286

An international organization founded after WWI dedicated to the preservation of peace in the world based on Woodrow Wilson's 14 Points.

Question 287

Apartheid

Answer 287

Oppressive social system in South Africa that separated people by race in public places; led to structural inequalities and lowered standard of living for people of color; lasted for most of the 20th century.

Question 288

OPEC

Answer 288

An intergovernmental organization founded in 1960 composed of the 13 (originally 5) largest petroleum-exporting countries.

Question 289

Great Leap Forward

Answer 289

Mao Zedong's plan to modernize the Chinese economy, which was scheduled to last from 1958 to 1963 but ended with Mao's resignation in 1960.

Question 290

Perestroika

Answer 290

Literally meaning "restructuring," the movement led by Mikhail Gorbachev to liberalize the Soviet Union's command economy by introducing some market-life reforms.

Question 291

Augustus Caesar

Answer 291

Julius Caesar's nephew Octavian who gained control of Rome in 27 BCE and became the first Roman emperor.

Question 292

Franco-Prussian War

Answer 292

1870 conflict when Prussia began to assert its military power and took control of mineral-rich Alsace-Lorraine from France; outcome helped fuel Prussian industrial development.

Question 293

Reconquista

Answer 293

Christian raids of Islamic Spain (al-Andalus); expulsion of Islamic powers from Iberia; and unification of Christian kingdoms in Spain into one Christian kingdom

Question 294

Aztec Empire

Answer 294

The empire that stretched across the Valley of Mexico in the 15th and early 16th centuries.

Question 295

Iroquois Confederacy

Answer 295

Established at an unknown date (but before European contact) the Iroquois Confederacy, or League, was a union between 5 tribes: the Mohawk, Onandaga, Oneida, Cayuga, and Seneca

Question 296

Encomienda System

Answer 296

The Spanish system for asserting dominance over the Native population and organizing them into a productive work force for the Spanish crown.

Question 297

Halfway Covenant

Answer 297

A 1662 policy that allowed membership in the Puritan Church for children and grandchildren of members if they promised to live by the tenets of the church; however, they would not have voting rights in it.

Question 298

Proclamation of 1763

Answer 298

Issued by King George III in 1763; drew a line of demarcation along the Appalachian Mountains past which colonists were forbidden.

Question 299

Second Continental Congress

Answer 299

Meeting of colonial leaders in Philadelphia in 1775 when colonial leaders agreed on declaring independence and forming the United States of America.

Question 300

Tariff of Abominations

Answer 300

Passed in order to protect and promote the growth of northern industries; officially called the Tariff of 1828, it was known as the Tariff of Abominations by its Southern detractors.

Question 301

Kansas-Nebraska Act

Answer 301

The 1854 act that permitted the question of slavery to be decided by popular sovereignty in the Kansas Territory

Question 302

New Deal

Answer 302

Plan presented by FDR to rescue the US from the Great Depression; included emergency acts to save the banking system and long-term relief for the poor and unemployed.

Question 303

Radical Republicans

Answer 303

Advocated for equal rights for blacks during Reconstruction

Question 304

Transcontinental Railroad

Answer 304

Built between 1863 and 1869, the first transcontinental railroad connected the Pacific Coast to the Atlantic Coast for the first time.

Question 305

"Peace Without Victory"

Answer 305

On January 22, 1917, shortly before entering into WWI, President Woodrow Wilson made a speech to the US Senate calling for "peace without victory" in the European conflict.

Question 306

Bonus March

Answer 306

In 1932, 17000 WWI veterans and their families marched on the Capital and the White House to demand payment for the bonus certificates they received for their efforts during the war.

Question 307

Indian Removal Act

Answer 307

1830 law that forced Cherokee, Creek, Chickasaw, Choctaw, and others from their lands in the Southeast to Indian Territory (Oklahoma).

Question 308

Lend-Lease Act

Answer 308

The 1941 act that allowed Great Britain and its allies to receive food, oil, and borrow ships and other war equipment; in exchange, the US was leased army and naval bases in Allied territory

Question 309

Containment

Answer 309

The US policy towards the Soviet Union at the beginning of the Cold War that focused on preventing the USSR from increasing its sphere of influence.

Question 310

Warren Court

Answer 310

From 1953 to 1969, the Supreme Court was under the direction of Chief Justice Earl Warren; during this time the court had a liberal majority that actively used its judicial power to bring about significant legal and cultural changes.

Question 311

Silent Majority

Answer 311

Term coined by Richard Nixon in 1969 to refer to the majority of Americans who did not support the protest movements or counterculture of the 1960s.

Question 312

Samuel Adams

Answer 312

Radical colonial American rebel; leader of the Sons and Daughters of Liberty and Committees of Correspondence.

Question 313

Manifest Destiny

Answer 313

The concept that it was the mission and fate of the US to expand westward and settle the continent.

Question 314

Sovereignty

Answer 314

The rights of a group to be free of outside interference

Question 315

John Locke

Answer 315

An influential Enlightenment thinker best known for his concept of natural rights and his writings on the social contract.

Question 316

Libertarianism

Answer 316

A political ideology on the far right of the political spectrum that supports an extremely limited government, rejecting any kind of government social programs and any government intervention in the market.

Question 317

Articles of Confederation

Answer 317

The first governing document drawn up by the Second Continental Congress for the new nation in 1781.

Question 318

Separation of Powers

Answer 318

The foundational philosophy of the structure of the American government that requires the division of government powers among multiple branches (3), with each branch having the power to check the balance of the other branches.

Question 319

Supremacy Clause

Answer 319

Article 6, Clause 2 of the Constitution, which states that the Constitution is the "supreme law of the land."

Question 320

Impeachment

Answer 320

Formally accusing an official of wrongdoing.

Question 321

Pocket Veto

Answer 321

Occurs when there are less than 10 days in a Congressional session and the president does not sign a bill, causing it to die.

Question 322

Judicial Review

Answer 322

The power held by the Supreme Court to determine the constitutionality of laws passed by Congress.

Question 323

Equal Protection Clause

Answer 323

One of the clauses of the 14th Amendment to the Constitution originally created to ensure the equal treatment of blacks under the law

Question 324

Public Action Committee

Answer 324

Committees formed by interest groups with the express purpose of raising money in support of specific candidates.

Question 325

Direct Primary

Answer 325

A method of selecting candidates for each party in which individuals (who may or may not be registered members of the party, depending on the state) vote for their preferred candidate among the various politicians vying to be their party's candidate.

Question 326

Unitary Government

Answer 326

A government in which all power is vested in the central governments, rather than being distributed among or shared with regional governments.

Question 327

Multi-party System

Answer 327

A political system in which there are several different political parties vying for, and ultimately sharing, power.

Question 328

Realism

Answer 328

A theory of international relations articulated by Hans J. Morgenthau which posits that a state's primary interest is self-preservation, and this can only be achieved by maximizing power.

Question 329

Scarcity

Answer 329

The limited amount of available resources, regardless of the advances of human technology

Question 330

Production Possibility Frontier

Answer 330

An economic model of the trade-offs of varying levels of production in an economy of two products, assumes that economies are functioning at maximum efficiency, and that the only variables are the amounts produced of each product.

Question 331

Comparative Advantage

Answer 331

The comparison of the opportunity costs of production for two different producers.

Question 332

Equilibrium

Answer 332

The state of an economy when the quantity demanded equals the quantity supplied.

Question 333

Elasticity

Answer 333

The measure of sensitivity to change; common types of elasticity used in economics include price elasticity of demand and price elasticity of supply.

Question 334

Determinants of Supply

Answer 334

Factors that cause changes to the overall supply of a product, represented as a leftward or rightward shift in the supply curve on a graph.

Question 335

Substitution Effect

Answer 335

The choice by consumers to purchase cheaper products when prices rise.

Question 336

Public Goods

Answer 336

Products which can be consumed without reducing their availability to other consumers, and are equally available to all.

Question 337

Economies of Scale

Answer 337

The reduction in costs resulting from increasing production of a product, allowing the per unit cost to be spread out over an increasing number of units.

Question 338

Price Floor/Ceiling

Answer 338

A government mandated minimum (floor) or maximum (ceiling) price for a product.

Question 339

Progressive Taxes

Answer 339

A tax in which the tax rate individuals must pay increases as income increases.

Question 340

Circular Flow Model

Answer 340

An economic model that depicts how money moves in a given direction.

Question 341

Inflation

Answer 341

The percent increase in Consumer Price Index from year to year.

Question 342

Expansionary Fiscal Policy

Answer 342

Government action to expand the amount of money in the economy

Question 343

Supply

Answer 343

How much of a product the market can offer.

Question 344

Absolute Location

Answer 344

A location that is described by its position on Earth without referencing landmarks.

Question 345

Conformal Map

Answer 345

A map that maintains the accuracy of the shape of areas on the Earth while distorting size.

Question 346

Climate

Answer 346

The average weather for a location or region

Question 347

Culture Complex

Answer 347

The sum of a place or region's cultural traits (the various single aspects of its culture).

Question 348

Carrying Capacity

Answer 348

The number of people a place or region can support.

Question 349

Purchasing Power Parity

Answer 349

An exchange rate that determines equivalence between the spending powers of currency in different countries.

Question 350

Primate City

Answer 350

A city that has a disproportionate concentration of a state's resources

Question 351

Humid Subtropical Climate

Answer 351

A climate that exists in the middle latitudes on the southeastern coasts of continents.

Question 352

Contagious Diffusion

Answer 352

A pattern of the spread of culture in which the hearth, or the original location of the phenomenon, is surrounded by multiple places that adopt the phenomenon at the same time.

Question 353

Migration Stream

Answer 353

The spatial movement of a migration from its place of origin to the location of its destination

Question 354

Critical Period

Answer 354

A period of development in which certain skills are acquired.

Question 355

Accommodation

Answer 355

The process of adjusting schemata to incorporate new, contradictory information.

Question 356

Scaffold

Answer 356

A process used to help children acquire new skills by providing assistance or guided steps.

Question 357

Operant Conditioning

Answer 357

A process of learning in which consequences are associated with behaviors; B.F. Skinner coined the term after his famous experiment teaching an animal to press a lever to receive food.

Question 358

Semantic Network

Answer 358

A web of interconnected memories in the brain which aids in the retrieval of information.

Question 359

Memory Consolidation

Answer 359

The process by which neurons create connections across the brain to allow for more efficient access to memories.

Question 360

Superego

Answer 360

According to Sigmund Freud's psychoanalytic approach to personality theory, the part of the self that helps a person determine right from wrong.

Question 361

Determinism

Answer 361

The idea that personality is determined by past events.

Question 362

Nomothetic Theory

Answer 362

The category of personality theory that argues that a set number of traits can be used to describe all personalities

Question 363

Perceived Control

Answer 363

An individual's feeling of control over a stressor in their life.

Question 364

Functionalism

Answer 364

The category of social perspective based on the interconnectedness of modern society.

Question 365

Ethnocentrism

Answer 365

The belief that one's culture is superior to all other cultures.

Question 366

Looking Glass Self

Answer 366

The theory of socialization that states that people build their own self-images through the ways in which others perceive them; posited by CH Cooley.

Question 367

Secondary Socialization

Answer 367

The process of learning the appropriate behaviors, attitudes and values to have as a member of a sub-group within the larger society.

Question 368

Network

Answer 368

Is a relationship, based on shared interest or purpose, which grows between individuals or organizations.

Question 369

Exchange

Answer 369

The process of social interaction in which one individual or group gives something to another group or individual who then gives something else in return.

Question 370

Social Class

Answer 370

The way in which relative positions in society are arranged.

Question 371

Prestige

Answer 371

The general admiration of a person or a group of people based on the appearance of success or achievement.

Question 372

Vertical Mobility

Answer 372

A type of social mobility in which an individual moves from one social level to another.

Question 373

Discrimination

Answer 373

Action taken based on prejudices.

Question 374

Which of the following reform groups used journalism to draw public attention to social problems such as child labor and poor working conditions during the Progressive Era? A. Muckrakers B. Populists C. Trust-busters D. Prohibitionists

Answer 374

Muckrakers

Question 375

Which of the following was the goal of Lyndon B. Johnson's Great Society programs of the mid 1960s? A. To eliminate the federal debt by raising taxes on wealthy individuals B. To fight poverty and racial inequality C. To increase United States military involvement in Vietnam D. To achieve equality between men and women

Answer 375

To fight poverty and racial inequality The Great Society was a series of domestic social programs proposed by President Lyndon B. Johnson. The main goal of these programs was the elimination of poverty and racial injustice.

Question 376

In late 1989, President George H.W. Bush launched an invasion of which country in order to depose its president? - Panama. - The Dominican Republic. - Cuba. - Nicaragua.

Answer 376

Panama In December 1989 President Bush organized Operation "Just Cause", in which United States troops invaded Panama. The troops deposed General Manual Noriega, who was then put on trial and convicted in the United States for drug trafficking and related charges.

Question 377

Which of the following best describes a development in the Republican Party voting base since the 1960s? - Latino voters in the Southwest became the largest majority group among Republican Party supporters. - Wealthy voters began to abandon the Republican Party because of its support for higher taxes. - Many White voters who had previously supported the Democratic Party began to vote for Republican candidates. - The Republican Party's emphasis on gender equality gained the support of many women voters.

Answer 377

Many White voters who had previously supported the Democratic Party began to vote for Republican candidates. Starting in the 1960s, the Republican Party pursued a strategy of appealing to disaffected White Democratic voters. In 1980, these "Reagan Democrats" were crucial for the Republican victory in that year's elections.

Question 378

Jamestown was founded in 1607 for which of the following reasons? - To search for gold - To find a passage to Asia - To discover new plant and animal species - To trade with Native Americans

Answer 378

To search for gold

Question 379

The Olive Branch Petition, written at the Second Continental Congress in 1775, reflects a colonial desire to: - Declare immediate independence from Great Britain - Seek peace with Great Britain despite recent mounting tension - End the practice of mercantilism and promote industrialization - Expand agriculture beyond the Mississippi River

Answer 379

Seek peace with Great Britain despite recent mounting tension

Question 380

"Quartering large bodies of armed troops among us... protecting them, by a mock Trial, from punishment for any murders which they should commit on the Inhabitants of these States.... imposing taxes on us without our consent... transporting us beyond Seas to be tried for pretended offences." These grievances listed in the Declaration of Independence are a direct response to which of the following British actions? - The Intolerable Acts - The Stamp Act - The Proclamation of 1763 - The Boston Massacre

Answer 380

The Intolerable Acts The excerpt from the Declaration of Independence outlines the punitive laws passed by the British Parliament in 1774 that came to be known by colonists as the Intolerable Acts. These laws were meant to punish colonists for the Boston Tea Party.

Question 381

Which of the following economic activities was most common among early English settlers in Virginia? - Fur trading - Tobacco farming - Shipbuilding - Textile manufacturing

Answer 381

Tobacco farming

Question 382

Which of the following was a result of the rebellion against the Virginia colonial government in 1676 led by Nathaniel Bacon? - The planters in Virginia sought to use the labor of enslaved Africans instead of White indentured servants. - Colonists began a movement for independence that would culminate in the American Revolution. - The colonial government distributed 40 acres of farmland to every White resident. - The British government raised taxes on imported goods to pay for the troops stationed in Virginia.

Answer 382

The planters in Virginia sought to use the labor of enslaved Africans instead of White indentured servants. Bacon's Rebellion, consisting of farmers, indentured servants, and enslaved Africans, was sparked by what the rebels considered the lack of retaliation against Native American attacks on colonists, and the denial of colonial expansion further west. After the uprising was quelled by the government, planters began relying more heavily on enslaved Africans to defray tensions among White settlers and thereby increase the colony's stability.

Question 383

Which of the following constitutional precepts is contained in the Bill of Rights? - The right of all citizens to vote regardless of gender - The direct election of senators and representatives - The protection of individual privacy from government intrusion - The granting of citizenship to anyone born on United States soil

Answer 383

The protection of individual privacy from government intrusion. The Fourth Amendment to the United States Constitution protects citizens against unreasonable search and seizure and other arbitrary government interference.

Question 384

Which of the following is outlined in the United States Constitution as ratified in 1788? - How members of the House of Representatives are chosen - The role of the Supreme Court in judicial review - The composition of the presidential cabinet - The role of the political parties in choosing presidential candidates

Answer 384

How members of the House of Representatives are chosen

Question 385

Which of the following is true about both the electoral college and the House of Representatives? - They are directly elected by the citizens. - They can be impeached by the Senate. - They are described in the Bill of Rights to the Constitution. - They provide greater power to more populous states.

Answer 385

They provide greater power to more populous states. Delegates in the electoral college and Congressional representatives are apportioned according to population, though they serve different functions.

Question 386

Which TWO of the following were results of the 1783 Treaty of Paris between the United States and Great Britain? - The United States agreed to outlaw the Atlantic slave trade. - Great Britain agreed to pay the United States reparations. - Great Britain relinquished all claims to the United States. - The United States gained access to lands east of the Mississippi River.

Answer 386

Great Britain relinquished all claims to the United States AND The United States gained access to lands east of the Mississippi River

Question 387

"Three millions of people, armed in the holy cause of liberty, and in such a country as that which we possess, are invincible by any force which our enemy can send against us. Besides, sir, we shall not fight our battles alone. There is a just God who presides over the destinies of Nations, and who will raise up friends to fight our battles for us." The quote above demonstrates which of the following beliefs held by colonists? - The colonies were militarily superior to the British. - All American colonists supported the American Revolution. - Justice was on the side of the colonists' rebellion. - French support would be crucial to the colonists' victory

Answer 387

Justice was on the side of the colonists' rebellion.