Practice Test 1

Question 1

Which practice is responsible for moving components to live environments?
A. Change enablement
B. Release management
C. IT asset management
D. Deployment management

Answer 1

A. Incorrect. “The purpose of the change enablement practice is to maximize the
number of successful service and product changes by ensuring that risks have been
properly assessed, authorizing changes to proceed, and managing the change
schedule”. Ref 5.2.4
B. Incorrect. “The purpose of the release management practice is to make new and
changed services and features available for use.” Ref 5.2.9
C. Incorrect. “The purpose of the IT asset management practice is to plan and
manage the full lifecycle of all IT assets”. Ref 5.2.6
D. Correct. “The purpose of the deployment management practice is to move new or
changed hardware, software, documentation, processes, or any other component to
live environments.” Ref 5.3.1

Question 2

Which practice includes the classification and ownership of queries and requests from users?
A. Service desk
B. Incident management
C. Change enablement
D. Service level management

Answer 2

A. Correct. “Service desks provide a clear path for users to report issues, queries,
and requests, and have them acknowledged, classified, owned, and actioned”. Ref
5.2.14
B. Incorrect. The ‘incident management’ practice deals only with incidents, not
queries and requests. “The purpose of the incident management practice is to
minimize the negative impact of incidents by restoring normal service operation as
quickly as possible”. Ref 5.2.5
C. Incorrect. The ‘change enablement’ practice deals only with change requests, not
other queries and requests. “The purpose of the change enablement practice is to
maximize the number of successful service and product changes by ensuring that
risks have been properly assessed, authorizing changes to proceed, and managing
the change schedule”. Ref 5.2.4
D. Incorrect. The ‘service level management’ practice ensures service targets are
met. It does not manage queries and requests from users. “The purpose of the
service level management practice is to set clear business-based targets for service
performance, so that the delivery of a service can be properly assessed, monitored,
and managed against these targets”. Ref 5.2.15

Question 3

Which service management dimension is focused on activities and how these are coordinated?
A. Organizations and people
B. Information and technology
C. Partners and suppliers
D. Value streams and processes

Answer 3

A. Incorrect. The ‘organizations and people’ dimension describes “roles and
responsibilities, formal organizational structures, culture, and required staffing and
competencies.” Ref 3.1
B. Incorrect. The ‘information and technology’ dimension includes “the information
and knowledge necessary for the management of services, as well as the
technologies required” and “the information created, managed, and used in the
course of service provision and consumption, and the technologies that support and
enable that service.” Ref 3.2
C. Incorrect. “The partners and suppliers dimension encompasses an organization’s
relationships with other organizations that are involved in the design, development,
deployment, delivery, support and/or continual improvement of services. It also
incorporates contracts and other agreements between the organization and its
partners or suppliers”. Ref 3.3
D. Correct. The ‘value streams and processes’ dimension “focuses on what
activities the organization undertakes and how they are organized, as well as how
the organization ensures that it is enabling value creation for all stakeholders
efficiently and effectively.” Ref 3.4

Question 4

Identify the missing word(s) in the following sentence.
A service is a means of enabling value co-creation by facilitating [?] that customers want to
achieve.
A. the warranty
B. outcomes
C. the utility
D. outputs

Answer 4

A. Incorrect. Warranty is “assurance that a product or service will meet agreed
requirements.” Warranty of a service is necessary, but not sufficient to enable value
co-creation. Ref 2.5.4
B. Correct. A service is “a means of enabling value co-creation by facilitating
outcomes that customers want to achieve, without the customer having to manage
specific costs and risks”. Ref 2.3.1
C. Incorrect. Utility is “the functionality offered by a product or service”. Utility of a
service is necessary, but not sufficient to enable value co-creation. Ref 2.5.4
D. Incorrect. An output is “a tangible or intangible deliverable of an activity.” The
output of a service is necessary, but not sufficient to enable value co-creation. Ref
2.5.1

Question 4

Which practice identifies metrics that reflect the customer’s experience of a service?
A. Continual improvement
B. Service desk
C. Service level management
D. Problem management

Answer 4

A. Incorrect. “The purpose of the continual improvement practice is to align the
organization’s practices and services with changing business needs through the
ongoing improvement of products, services, and practices, or any element involved
in the management of products and services.” Ref 5.1.2
B. Incorrect. “The purpose of the service desk practice is to capture demand for
incident resolution and service requests. It should also be the entry point and single
point of contact for the service provider with all of its users.” Ref 5.2.14
C. Correct. “Service level management identifies metrics and measures that are a
truthful reflection of the customer’s actual experience and level of satisfaction with
the whole service,” and “Engagement is needed to understand and confirm the
actual ongoing needs and requirements of customers, not simply what is interpreted
by the service provider or has been agreed several years before.” Ref 5.2.15.1
D. Incorrect. “The purpose of the problem management practice is to reduce the
likelihood and impact of incidents by identifying actual and potential causes of
incidents, and managing workarounds and known errors”. Ref 5.2.8

Question 4

) How does categorization of incidents assist the ‘incident management’ practice?
A. It helps direct the incident to the correct support area
B. It determines the priority assigned to the incident
C. It ensures that incidents are resolved in timescales agreed with the customer
D. It determines how the service provider is perceived

Answer 4

A. Correct. “More complex incidents will usually be escalated to a support team for
resolution. Typically, the routing is based on the incident category, which should
help to identify the correct team.” Ref 5.2.5
B. Incorrect. The category is concerned with the type of incident whereas priority is
determined by business impact. “Incidents are prioritized based on agreed
classification to ensure that incidents with the highest business impact are resolved
first.” Ref 5.2.5
C. Incorrect. “Every incident should be logged and managed to ensure that it is
resolved in a time that meets the expectations of the customer and user.”
Categorization by itself will not ensure this. Ref 5.2.5
D. Incorrect. Customer and user satisfaction determines how the service provider is
perceived. “Incident management can have an enormous impact on customer and
user satisfaction, and on how customers and users perceive the service provider.”
Ref 5.2.5

Question 5

Which is a recommendation of the ‘continual improvement’ practice?
A. There should at least be a small team dedicated to leading ‘continual improvement’ efforts
B. All improvements should be managed as multi-phase projects
C. ‘Continual improvement’ should be isolated from other practices
D. External suppliers should be excluded from improvement initiatives

Answer 5

A. Correct. “Although everyone should contribute in some way, there should at least
be a small team dedicated full-time to leading continual improvement efforts and
advocating the practice across the organization.” Ref 5.1.2
B. Incorrect. “Different types of improvements may call for different improvement
methods. For example, some improvements may be best organized into a multiphase project, while others may be more appropriate as a single quick effort.” Ref
5.1.2
C. Incorrect. “The continual improvement practice is integral to the development and
maintenance of every other practice.” Ref 5.1.2
D. Incorrect. “When third-party suppliers form part of the service landscape, they
should also be part of the improvement effort.” Ref 5.1.2

Question 5

What is the PRIMARY use of a change schedule?
A. To support ‘incident management’ and improvement planning
B. To manage emergency changes
C. To plan changes and help avoid conflicts
D. To manage standard changes

Answer 5

A. Incorrect. While it can be used after deploying a change, this is not the main use
of the change schedule. “The change schedule is used to help plan changes, assist
in communication, avoid conflicts, and assign resources. It can also be used after
changes have been deployed to provide information needed for incident
management, problem management, and improvement planning.” Ref 5.2.4
B. Incorrect. “Emergency changes: These are changes that must be implemented
as soon as possible; for example, to resolve an incident or implement a security
patch. Emergency changes are not typically included in a change schedule, and the
process for assessment and authorization is expedited to ensure they can be
implemented quickly.” Ref 5.2.4
C. Correct. “The change schedule is used to help plan changes, assist in
communication, avoid conflicts, and assign resources.” Ref 5.2.4
D. Incorrect. Standard changes are already pre-authorized and do not need to be
included on a change schedule. “These are low-risk, pre-authorized changes that
are well understood and fully documented, and can be implemented without needing
additional authorization.” Ref 5.2.4

Question 5

Which practice provides a single point of contact for users?
A. Incident management
B. Change enablement
C. Service desk
D. Service request management

Answer 5

A. Incorrect. “The purpose of the incident management practice is to minimize the
negative impact of incidents by restoring normal service operation as quickly as
possible.” The ‘incident management’ practice does not provide a single point of
contact for service users. Ref 5.2.5
B. Incorrect. “The purpose of the change enablement practice is to maximize the
number of successful service and product changes by ensuring that risks have been
properly assessed, authorizing changes to proceed, and managing the change
schedule.” The ‘change enablement’ practice does not provide a single point of
contact for service users. Ref 5.2.4
C. Correct. “The purpose of the service desk practice is to capture demand for
incident resolution and service requests. It should also be the entry point and single
point of contact for the service provider with all of its users.” Ref 5.2.14
D. Incorrect. “The purpose of the service request management practice is to support
the agreed quality of a service by handling all pre-defined, user-initiated service
requests in an effective and user-friendly manner.” The ‘service request
management’ practice does not provide a single point of contact for service users.
Ref 5.2.16

Question 5

Which role submits service requests?
A. The user, or their authorized representative
B. The customer, or their authorized representative
C. The sponsor, or their authorized representative
D. The supplier, or their authorized representative

Answer 5

A. Correct. “The purpose of the service request management practice is to support
the agreed quality of a service by handling all pre-defined, user-initiated service
requests…” and a service request is defined as “a request from a user or a user’s
authorized representative that initiates a service action”. Ref 5.2.16
B. Incorrect. A customer is “the role that defines the requirements for a service and
takes responsibility for the outcomes of service consumption”. A customer could
also be a user, and in that role they may submit a service request. Ref 2.2.2
C. Incorrect. A sponsor is “the role that authorizes budget for service consumption.”
A sponsor could also be a user, and in that role they may submit a service request.
Ref 2.2.2
D. Incorrect. “The partners and suppliers dimension encompasses an organization’s
relationships with other organizations that are involved in the design, development,
deployment, delivery, support, and/or continual improvement of services.”. This
does not include consumption of services, and “The purpose of the service request
management practice is to support the agreed quality of a service by
handling all pre-defined, user-initiated service requests.” Ref 3.3, 5.2.16

Question 6

Which is a potential benefit of using an IT service management tool to support the ‘incident
management’ practice?
A. It may ensure that the cause of incidents is identified within agreed times
B. It may provide automated matching of incidents to problems or known errors
C. It may ensure that supplier contracts are aligned with the needs of the service provider
D. It may provide automated resolution and closure of complex incidents

Answer 6

A. Incorrect. “Target resolution times are agreed, documented, and communicated
to ensure that expectations are realistic.” A good IT service management tool may
help the organization to meet these times, but the tool cannot ensure that this
happens. Furthermore, identifying the causes of incidents is
a ‘problem management’ activity Ref 5.2.5
B. Correct. “Modern IT service management tools can provide automated matching
of incidents to other incidents, problems or known errors”. Ref 5.2.5
C. Incorrect. ‘Incident management’ requires supplier contracts to be correctly
aligned, but ensuring that the contracts are aligned is a purpose of the ‘supplier
management’ practice. Ref 5.1.13
D. Incorrect. “The most complex incidents, and all major incidents, often require a
temporary team to work together to identify the resolution”. “Investigation of more
complicated incidents often requires knowledge and expertise, rather than
procedural steps.” Ref 5.2.5

Question 6

Which guiding principle recommends that the four dimensions of service management are
considered?
A. Think and work holistically
B. Progress iteratively with feedback
C. Focus on value
D. Keep it simple and practical

Answer 6

A. Correct. The ‘think and work holistically’ guiding principle advises that all aspects
of an organization are considered when providing value in the form of services. This
includes all four dimensions of service management (organizations and people;
information and technology; partners and suppliers; value streams and processes).
“Services are delivered to internal and external service consumers through the
coordination and integration of the four dimensions of service management.” Ref
4.3.5
B. Incorrect. The ‘progress iteratively with feedback’ guiding principle is concerned
with breaking initiatives into manageable sections that can be executed more easily.
It is not primarily concerned with addressing the four dimensions of service
management. Ref 4.3.3
C. Incorrect. The ‘focus on value’ guiding principle ensures that everything that the
organization does links back to providing value to service consumers. It is not
primarily concerned with addressing the four dimensions of service management.
Ref 4.3.1
D. Incorrect. The ‘keep it simple and practical’ guiding principle focuses on keeping
things simple by reducing complexity and eliminating unnecessary activities and
steps. It is not primarily concerned with addressing the four dimensions of service
management. Ref 4.3.6

Question 7

Which would be supported by the ‘service request management’ practice?
A. A request to authorize a change that could have an effect on a service
B. A request from a user for something which is a normal part of service delivery
C. A request to restore service after a service interruption
D. A request to investigate the cause of multiple related incidents

Answer 7

A. Incorrect. This would be supported by the ‘change enablement’ practice. A
change is “the addition, modification, or removal of anything that could have a direct
or indirect effect on services.” Normal changes “need to be scheduled, assessed,
and authorized”. Ref 5.2.4
B. Correct. A service request is “a request from a user or a user’s authorized
representative that initiates a service action which has been agreed as a normal part
of service delivery.” Ref 5.2.16
C. Incorrect. This would be supported by the ‘incident management’ practice. An
incident is “an unplanned interruption to a service or reduction in the quality of a
service.” Ref 5.2.5
D. Incorrect. This would be supported by the ‘problem management’ practice. A
problem is “a cause, or potential cause, of one or more incidents”. Ref 5.2.8

Question 7

Which practice is the responsibility of everyone in the organization?
A. Service level management
B. Change enablement
C. Problem management
D. Continual improvement

Answer 7

A. Incorrect. The ‘service level management’ practice is not the responsibility of
everyone in the organization. A number of roles are required but there is no fixed
structure. It is recommended that there is an independent and non-aligned role
where possible. Ref 5.2.15
B. Incorrect. The ‘change enablement’ practice is not the responsibility of everyone
in the organization. Many roles can be assigned to change enablement such as
change authority. It also requires input from people with specialist knowledge. Ref
5.2.4
C. Incorrect. The ‘problem management’ practice is not the responsibility of
everyone in the organization. Most problem management activity relies on the
knowledge and experience of staff. Ref 5.2.8
D. Correct. “continual improvement is everyone’s responsibility” and “The
commitment to and practice of continual improvement must be embedded into every
fibre of the organization”. Ref 5.1.2

Question 7

Identify the missing word in the following sentence.
The purpose of the ‘information security management’ practice is to [?] the organization’s
information.
A. store
B. provide
C. audit
D. protect

Answer 7

A. Incorrect. “The purpose of the information security management practice is to
protect the information needed by the organization to conduct its business. This
includes understanding and managing risks to the confidentiality, integrity, and
availability of information, as well as other aspects of information security such as
authentication (ensuring someone is who they claim to be) and non-repudiation
(ensuring that someone can’t deny that they took an action).” Ref 5.1.3
B. Incorrect. “The purpose of the information security management practice is to
protect the information needed by the organization to conduct its business. This
includes understanding and managing risks to the confidentiality, integrity and
availability of information, as well as other aspects of information security such as
authentication (ensuring someone is who they claim to be) and non-repudiation
(ensuring that someone can’t deny that they took an action).” Ref 5.1.3
C. Incorrect. “The purpose of the information security management practice is to
protect the information needed by the organization to conduct its business. This
includes understanding and managing risks to the confidentiality, integrity and
availability of information, as well as other aspects of information security such as
authentication (ensuring someone is who they claim to be) and non-repudiation
(ensuring that someone can’t deny that they took an action).” Ref 5.1.3
D. Correct. “The purpose of the information security management practice is to
protect the information needed by the organization to conduct its business. This
includes understanding and managing risks to the confidentiality, integrity and
availability of information, as well as other aspects of information security such as
authentication (ensuring someone is who they claim to be) and non-repudiation
(ensuring that someone can’t deny that they took an action).” Ref 5.1.3

Question 7

Which guiding principle recommends collecting data before deciding what can be re-used?
A. Focus on value
B. Start where you are
C. Keep it simple and practical
D. Progress iteratively with feedback

Answer 7

A. Incorrect. The ‘focus on value’ guiding principle states that “All activities
conducted by the organization should link back, directly or indirectly, to value for
itself, its customers, and other stakeholders.” Ref 4.3.1
B. Correct. The ‘start where you are’ guiding principle recommends that “Services
and methods already in place should be measured and/or observed directly to
properly understand their current state and what can be reused from them… Getting
data from the source helps to avoid assumptions which, if proven to be unfounded,
can be disastrous to timelines, budgets and the quality of results.” Ref 4.3.2
C. Incorrect. The ‘keep it simple and practical’ guiding principle states that an
organization should “Always use the minimum number of steps needed to
accomplish an objective.” Ref 4.3.6
D. Incorrect. The ‘progress iteratively with feedback principle states that “By
organizing work into smaller, manageable sections that can be executed and
completed in a timely manner, the focus on each effort will be sharper and easier to
maintain.” Ref 4.3.3

Question 7

Which is NOT usually included as part of incident management?
A. Scripts for collecting initial information about incidents
B. Formalized procedures for logging incidents
C. Detailed procedures for the diagnosis of incidents
D. The use of specialized knowledge for complicated incidents

Answer 7

A. Incorrect. “There may be scripts for collecting information from users during initial
contact”. Ref 5.2.5
B. Incorrect. “There should be a formal process for logging and managing incidents.”
Ref 5.2.5
C. Correct. “This process does NOT usually include detailed procedures for how to
diagnose, investigate, and resolve incidents.” Ref 5.2.5
D. Incorrect. “Investigation of more complicated incidents often requires knowledge
and expertise, rather than procedural steps.” Ref 5.2.5

Question 7

Which describes the nature of the guiding principles?
A. Guiding principles can guide an organization in all circumstances
B. Each guiding principle mandates specific actions and decisions
C. An organization will select and adopt only one of the seven guiding principles
D. Guiding principles describe the processes that all organizations must adopt

Answer 7

A. Correct. A guiding principle is defined as a recommendation that can guide an
organization in all circumstances and will guide organizations when adopting service
management. They are not described as prescriptive or mandatory. Ref 4.3
B. Incorrect. The guiding principles will be reviewed and adopted by organizations.
The guiding principles guide organizations to make decisions and adopt actions.
They do not mandate specific actions and decisions. Ref 4.3.8
C. Incorrect. Organizations will use the principles relevant to them and are not
mandated to use a given number. Ref 4.3
D. Incorrect. The guiding principles guide organizations to make decisions and
adopt actions. They are not mandatory. Ref 4.3

Question 8

Which statement about a change authority is CORRECT?
A. A single change authority should be assigned to authorize all types of change and change
models
B. A change authority should be assigned for each type of change and change model
C. Normal changes are pre-authorized and do not need a change authority
D. Emergency changes can be implemented without authorization from a change authority

Answer 8

A. Incorrect. “It is essential that the correct change authority is assigned to each
type of change to ensure that change enablement is both efficient and effective.” For
normal changes, “change models based on the type of change determine the roles
for assessment and authorization”. A single change authority is inadequate. Ref
5.2.4
B. Correct. “It is essential that the correct change authority is assigned to each type
of change to ensure that change enablement is both efficient and effective.” For
normal changes, “change models based on the type of change determine the roles
for assessment and authorization”. Ref 5.2.4
C. Incorrect. Normal changes are “changes that need to be scheduled, assessed,
and authorized following a process.” Thus, all normal changes will be authorized by
a change authority. Standard changes can be pre-authorized: “These are low-risk,
pre-authorized changes that are well understood and fully documented, and can be
implemented without needing additional authorization”. Ref 5.2.4
D. Incorrect. “Emergency changes are not typically included in a change schedule,
and the process for assessment and authorization is expedited to ensure they can
be implemented quickly.” Therefore, all emergency changes will be authorized by a
change authority. Ref 5.2.4

Question 9

Which practice has the purpose of making new and changed services and features available for
use?
A. Change enablement
B. Service request management
C. Release management
D. Deployment management

Answer 9

A. Incorrect. “The purpose of the change enablement practice is to maximize the
number of successful service and product changes by ensuring that risks have been
properly assessed, authorizing changes to proceed, and managing the change
schedule.” Ref 5.2.4
B. Incorrect. “The purpose of the service request management practice is to support
the agreed quality of a service by handling all pre-defined, user-initiated service
requests in an effective and user-friendly manner”. Ref 5.2.16
C. Correct. “The purpose of the release management practice is to make new and
changed services and features available for use”. Ref 5.2.9
D. Incorrect. “The purpose of the deployment management practice is to move new
or changed hardware, software, documentation, processes, or any other component
to live environments.” Ref 5.3.1

Question 10

Which value chain activity ensures people understand the organization’s vision?
A. Improve
B. Plan
C. Deliver and support
D. Obtain/build

Answer 10

A. Incorrect. The purpose of the ‘improve’ value chain activity is “to ensure continual
improvement of products, services, and practices across all value chain activities
and the four dimensions of service management.” Ref 4.5.2
B. Correct. The purpose of the ‘plan’ value chain activity is “to ensure a shared
understanding of the vision, current status, and improvement direction for all four
dimensions and all products and services across the organization.” Ref 4.5.1
C. Incorrect. The purpose of the ‘deliver and support’ value chain activity is “to
ensure that services are delivered and supported according to agreed specifications
and stakeholders’ expectations.” Ref 4.5.6
D. Incorrect. The purpose of the ‘obtain/build’ value chain activity is “to ensure that
service components are available when and where they are needed, and meet
agreed specifications.” Ref 4.5.5

Question 11

Which statement about the value chain activities is CORRECT?
A. Every practice belongs to a specific value chain activity
B. A specific combination of value chain activities and practices forms a service relationship
C. Service value chain activities form a single workflow that enables value creation
D. Each value chain activity contributes to the value chain by transforming specific inputs into
outputs

Answer 11

A. Incorrect. “Value chain activities use different combinations of ITIL practices”. No
practice belongs to a single value chain activity. Ref 4.5
B. Incorrect. Service value streams are “specific combinations of activities and
practices, and each one is designed for a particular scenario” and “Service
relationships include service provision, service consumption, and service
relationship management.” Ref 4.5, 2.4.1
C. Incorrect. Service value streams are “specific combinations of activities and
practices, and each one is designed for a particular scenario.” There can be multiple
service value streams within one service value chain. Ref 4.5
D. Correct. “These activities represent the steps an organization takes in the
creation of value. Each activity transforms inputs into outputs. These inputs can be
demand from outside the value chain or outputs of other activities. All the activities
are interconnected, with each activity receiving and providing triggers for further
action.” Ref 4.5

Question 12

What is the purpose of the ‘supplier management’ practice?
A. To ensure that the organization‘s suppliers and their performance are managed appropriately
to support the seamless provision of quality products and services
B. To align the organization’s practices and services with changing business needs through the
ongoing identification and improvement of services
C. To ensure that the organization’s suppliers and their performance are managed appropriately
at strategic and tactical levels through coordinated marketing, selling, and delivery activities
D. To ensure that accurate and reliable information about the configuration of suppliers’ services
is available when and where it is needed

Answer 12

A. Correct. “The purpose of the supplier management practice is to ensure that the
organization’s suppliers and their performance are managed appropriately to
support the seamless provision of quality products and services”. Ref 5.1.13
B. Incorrect. “The purpose of the continual improvement practice is to align the
organization’s practices and services with changing business needs through the
ongoing improvement of products, services, and practices, or any element involved
in the management of products and services.” This is not the purpose of the
‘supplier management’ practice. An organization is unlikely to change its practices to
suit a supplier’s needs. Ref 5.1.2
C. Incorrect. “The purpose of the relationship management practice is to establish
and nurture the links between the organization and its stakeholders at strategic and
tactical levels”. This is not the purpose of the ‘supplier management’ practice. Ref
5.1.9
D. Incorrect. “The purpose of the service configuration management practice is to
ensure that accurate and reliable information about the configuration of services,
and the CIs that support them, is available when and where it is needed”. This is not
the purpose of the ‘supplier management’ practice. Ref 5.2.11

Question 13

Which is a purpose of the ‘service desk’ practice?
A. To reduce the likelihood and impact of incidents by identifying actual and potential causes of
incidents
B. To maximize the number of successful IT changes by ensuring risks are properly assessed
C. To capture demand for incident resolution and service requests
D. To set clear business-based targets for service performance

Answer 13

A. Incorrect. “The purpose of the problem management practice is to reduce the
likelihood and impact of incidents by identifying actual and potential causes of
incidents, and managing workarounds and known errors.” Ref 5.2.8
B. Incorrect. “The purpose of the change enablement practice is to maximize the
number of successful service and product changes by ensuring that risks have been
properly assessed, authorizing changes to proceed, and managing the change
schedule.” Ref 5.2.4
C. Correct. “The purpose of the service desk practice is to capture demand for
incident resolution and service requests. It should also be the entry point and single
point of contact for the service provider with all of its users.” Ref 5.2.14
D. Incorrect. “The purpose of the service level management practice is to set clear
business-based targets for service performance, so that the delivery of a service
can be properly assessed, monitored, and managed against these targets.” Ref
5.2.15

Question 13

What are the two types of cost that a service consumer should evaluate?
A. The price of the service, and the cost of creating the service
B. The costs removed by the service, and the costs imposed by the service
C. The cost of provisioning the service, and the cost of improving the service
D. The cost of software, and the cost of hardware

Answer 13

A. Incorrect. The price of the service is only part of the costs imposed on the
consumer. The cost of creating the service is a concern of the service provider, not
the service consumer. The service consumer should also evaluate the costs
removed from the consumer. Ref 2.5.2
B. Correct. From the service consumer’s perspective, there are two types of costs
involved in service relationships:
1. Costs removed from the service consumer by the service (a part of the value
proposition). This may include costs of staff, technology, and other resources which
are not needed by the consumer.
2. Costs imposed on the consumer by the service (the costs of service
consumption). The total cost of consuming a service includes the price charged by
the service provider (if any), plus other costs such as staff training, costs of network
utilization, procurement, etc. Ref 2.5.2
C. Incorrect. The cost of provisioning the service, and the cost of improving the
service are concerns of the service provider, not the service consumer. The service
consumer should evaluate the costs removed from the consumer and the costs
imposed on the consumer. Ref 2.5.2
D. Incorrect. The two types of cost that a service consumer should evaluate are
costs removed from the consumer and costs imposed on consumers. The cost of
hardware and software may be included in either of these, but will only be part of
that cost. Ref 2.5.2

Question 14

How should an organization adopt continual improvement methods?
A. Use a new method for each improvement the organization handles
B. Select a few key methods for the types of improvement that the organization handles
C. Build the capability to use as many improvement methods as possible
D. Select a single method for all improvements that the organization handles

Answer 14

A. Incorrect. The guidance describes how there are many methods that can be used
for improvement initiatives and warns against using too many. It further states that
“Different types of improvement may call for different improvement methods”.
Therefore, using a new method each time is inappropriate. Ref 5.1.2
B. Correct. The guidance describes how there are many methods that can be used
for improvement initiatives and warns against using too many. The guidance states
“It is a good idea to select a few key methods that are appropriate to the types of
improvement the organization typically handles and to cultivate those methods”. Ref
5.1.2
C. Incorrect. The guidance describes how there are many methods that can used for
improvement initiatives and warns against using too many. Ref 5.1.2
D. Incorrect. The guidance describes how there are many methods that can be used
for improvement initiatives and warns against using too many. It further states that
“Different types of improvements may call for different improvement methods”.
Therefore, selecting a single method is inappropriate. Ref 5.1.2

Question 15

Which ITIL concept describes governance?
A. The seven guiding principles
B. The four dimensions of service management
C. The service value chain
D. The service value system

Answer 15

A. Incorrect. The seven guiding principles are ‘focus on value’, ‘start where you are’,
‘progress iteratively with feedback’, ‘collaborate and promote visibility’, ‘think and
work holistically’, ‘keep it simple and practical’ and ‘optimize and automate’. Ref 4.3
B. Incorrect. The four dimensions of service management are ‘organizations and
people’, ‘information and technology’, ‘partners and suppliers’, and ‘value streams
and processes’. Ref 3.1-3.4
C. Incorrect. The activities of the service value chain are ‘plan’, ‘improve’, ‘engage’,
‘design and transition’, ‘obtain/build’, and ‘deliver and support’. Ref 4.5
D. Correct. The components of the service value system are ‘guiding principles’,
‘governance’, ‘service value chain’, ‘practices’, and ‘continual improvement’. Ref 4.1

Question 16

Which is a recommendation of the ‘service desk’ practice?
A. Service desks should avoid the use of automation
B. Service desks should be highly technical
C. Service desks should understand the wider organization
D. Service desks should be a physical team in a single fixed location

Answer 16

A. Incorrect. “With increased automation, AI, robotic process automation (RPA), and
chatbots, service desks are moving to provide more self-service logging and
resolution directly via online portals and mobile applications.” Ref 5.2.14
B. Incorrect. “The service desk may not need to be highly technical, although some
are.” Ref 5.2.14
C. Correct. “Another key aspect of a good service desk is its practical understanding
of the wider organization, the business processes, and the users.” Ref 5.2.14
D. Incorrect. “In some cases, the service desk is a tangible team, working in a single
location… In other cases, a virtual service desk allows agents to work from multiple
locations, geographically dispersed.” Ref 5.2.14

Question 17

Which guiding principle recommends organizing work into smaller, manageable sections that can
be executed and completed in a timely manner?
A. Focus on value
B. Start where you are
C. Progress iteratively with feedback
D. Collaborate and promote visibility

Answer 17

A. Incorrect. The ‘Focus on value’ guiding principle helps to ensure that you
consider all aspects of value for the service consumer, as well as the service
provider and other stakeholders. It does not specifically describe organizing work
into smaller, manageable sections that can be executed and completed in a timely
manner. Ref 4.3.1
B. Incorrect. The ‘Start where you are’ guiding principle helps to avoid waste and
leverage existing services, processes, people, tools, etc. It does not specifically
describe organizing work into smaller, manageable sections that can be executed
and completed in a timely manner. Ref 4.3.2
C. Correct. The description of the ‘progress iteratively with feedback’ guiding
principle says “by organizing work into smaller, manageable sections that can be
executed and completed in a timely manner, the focus on each effort will be sharper
and easier to maintain.” Ref 4.3.3
D. Incorrect. The ‘collaborate and promote visibility’ guiding principle helps to
involve the right people and provide better decision-making and greater likelihood of
success. It does not specifically describe organizing work into smaller, manageable
sections that can be executed and completed in a timely manner. Ref 4.3.4

Question 18

What is a standard change?
A. A change that is well understood, fully documented and pre-authorized
B. A change that needs to be assessed, authorized, and scheduled by a change authority
C. A change that doesn’t need a risk assessment because it is required to resolve an incident
D. A change that is assessed, authorized, and scheduled as part of ‘continual improvement

Answer 18

A. Correct. “These are low-risk, pre-authorized changes that are well understood
and fully documented, and can be implemented without needing additional
authorization. They are often initiated as service requests, but may also be
operational changes. When the procedure for a standard change is created or
modified, there should be a full risk assessment and authorization as for any other
change. This risk assessment does not need to be repeated each time the standard
change is implemented; it only needs to be done if there is a modification to the way
it is carried out.” Ref 5.2.4
B. Incorrect. Normal changes are “changes that need to be scheduled, assessed,
and authorized.” Ref 5.2.4
C. Incorrect. An emergency change that is needed to resolve an incident should still
be assessed and authorized. “As far as possible, emergency changes should be
subject to the same testing, assessment, and authorization as normal changes”. Ref
5.2.4
D. Incorrect. This is a description of a normal change: “changes that need to be
scheduled, assessed, and authorized”. Ref 5.2.4

Question 19

What happens if a workaround becomes the permanent way of dealing with a problem that
cannot be resolved cost-effectively?
A. A change request is submitted to change enablement
B. Problem management restores the service as soon as possible
C. The problem remains in the known error status
D. The problem record is deleted

Answer 19

A. Incorrect. A change request is only raised if it is justified. “Error control also
includes identification of potential permanent solutions which may result in a change
request for implementation of a solution, but only if this can be justified in terms of
cost, risks, and benefits”. Ref 5.2.8
B. Incorrect. The ‘incident management’ practice restores service not the ‘problem
management’ practice. “The purpose of the incident management practice is to
minimize the negative impact of incidents by restoring normal service operation as
quickly as possible.”. Ref 5.2.5
C. Correct. “An effective incident workaround can become a permanent way of
dealing with some problems when resolving the problem is not viable or costeffective. In this case, the problem remains in the known error status, and the
documented workaround is applied should related incidents occur”. Ref 5.2.8
D. Incorrect. The problem record is not deleted. “Workarounds are documented in
problem records”. “.. the problem remains in the known error status, and the
documented workaround is applied should related incidents occur”. Ref 5.2.8

Question 20

What is the definition of change?
A. To add, modify or remove anything that could have a direct or indirect effect on services
B. To ensure that accurate and reliable information about the configuration of services is
available
C. To make new and changed services and features available for use
D. To move new or changed hardware, software, or any other component to live environments

Answer 20

have a direct or indirect effect on services”. Ref 5.2.4
B. Incorrect. “The purpose of the service configuration management practice is to
ensure that accurate and reliable information about the configuration of services,
and the CIs that support them, is available when and where it is needed.” Ref 5.2.11
C. Incorrect. “The purpose of the release management practice is to make new and
changed services and features available for use”. Ref 5.2.9
D. Incorrect. “The purpose of the deployment management practice is to move new
or changed hardware, software, documentation, processes, or any other component
to live environments.” Ref 5.3.1

Question 21

What is the definition of an event?
A. Any change of state that has significance for the management of a service or other
configuration item
B. Any component that needs to be managed in order to deliver an IT service
C. An unplanned interruption to a service or reduction in the quality of a service
D. Any financially valuable component that can contribute to the delivery of an IT product or
service

Answer 21

A. Correct. “An event can be defined as any change of state that has significance for
the management of a service or other configuration item (CI)”. Ref 5.2.7
B. Incorrect. The definition of a configuration item is “any component that needs to
be managed in order to deliver an IT service.” Ref 5.2.11
C. Incorrect. An incident is “An unplanned interruption to a service or reduction in
the quality of a service.” Ref 5.2.5
D. Incorrect. An IT asset is “Any financially valuable component that can contribute
to the delivery of an IT product or service.” Ref 5.2.11

Question 22

Which is NOT a key focus of the ‘information and technology’ dimension?
A. Security and compliance
B. Communication systems and knowledge bases
C. Workflow management and inventory systems
D. Roles and responsibilities

Answer 22

A. Incorrect. “The challenges of information management, such as those presented
by security and regulatory compliance requirements, are also a focus of [the
‘information and technology] dimension”. Ref 3.2
B. Incorrect. “The technologies that support service management include, but are
not limited to, workflow management systems, knowledge bases, inventory systems,
communication systems, and analytical tools”. Ref 3.2
C. Incorrect. “The technologies that support service management include, but are
not limited to, workflow management systems, knowledge bases, inventory systems,
communication systems, and analytical tools.” Ref 3.2
D. Correct. “The organizations and people dimension of a service covers roles and
responsibilities, formal organizational structures, culture, and required staffing and
competencies, all of which are related to the creation, delivery, and improvement of
a service.” Ref 3.1

Question 22

Which is a key consideration for the guiding principle ‘keep it simple and practical’?
A. Try to create a solution for every exception
B. Understand how each element contributes to value creation
C. Ignore the conflicting objectives of different stakeholders
D. Start with a complex solution, then simplify

Answer 22

A. Incorrect. “Trying to provide a solution for every exception will often lead to overcomplication. When creating a process or a service, designers need to think about
exceptions, but they cannot cover them all. Instead, rules should be designed that
can be used to handle exceptions generally.” Ref 4.3.6
B. Correct. The ‘keep it simple and practical’ guiding principle states: “When
analyzing a practice, process, service, metric, or other improvement target, always
ask whether it contributes to value creation.” Ref 4.3.6.1
C. Incorrect. “When designing, managing, or operating practices, be mindful of
conflicting objectives … the organization should agree on a balance between its
competing objectives.” Ref 4.3.6.2
D. Incorrect. “It is better to start with an uncomplicated approach and then carefully
add controls, activities, or metrics when it is seen that they are truly needed.” Ref
4.3.6.1

Question 23

Which describes outcomes?
A. Tangible or intangible deliverables
B. Functionality offered by a product or service
C. Results desired by a stakeholder
D. Configuration of an organization’s resources

Answer 23

A. Incorrect. “A tangible or intangible deliverable of an activity” is the definition of an
output, not an outcome. Ref 2.5.1
B. Incorrect. “The functionality offered by a product or service to meet a particular
need” is the definition of utility, not an outcome. The utility of the service may
facilitate outcomes. Ref 2.5.4
C. Correct. An outcome is “a result for a stakeholder enabled by one or more
outputs”. The definition of a service describes how the value of a service enables
value co-creation by facilitating outcomes that customers want to achieve. Ref 2.5.1
D. Incorrect. A product is “a configuration of an organization’s resources designed to
offer value for a consumer.” Ref 2.3.1

Question 23

Which practices are typically involved in the implementation of a problem resolution?
1. Continual improvement
2. Service request management
3. Service level management
4. Change enablement
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 1 and 4

Answer 23

D. Correct.
(1) “Problem management activities can identify improvement opportunities in all
four dimensions of service management. Solutions can in some cases be treated as
improvement opportunities, so they are included in a continual improvement register
(CIR), and continual improvement techniques are used to prioritize and manage
them.”
(4) “Error control also includes identification of potential permanent solutions which
may result in a change request for implementation of a solution.” Ref 5.2.8
A, B C. Incorrect.
(2) “The purpose of the service request management practice is to support the
agreed quality of a service by handling all pre-defined, user-initiated service
requests in an effective and user-friendly manner.” Ref 5.2.16
(3) “The purpose of the service level management practice is to set clear businessbased targets for service levels, and to ensure that delivery of services is properly
assessed, monitored, and managed against these targets.” Ref 5.2.15

Question 24

What should be done first when applying the ‘focus on value’ guiding principle?
A. Identify the outcomes that the service facilitates
B. Identify all suppliers and partners involved in the service
C. Determine who the service consumer is in each situation
D. Determine the cost of providing the service

Answer 24

value. The outcomes should be based on this understanding, rather than
determining them. “The first step in focusing on value is knowing who is being
served. In each situation the service provider must, therefore, determine who the
service consumer is”. Ref 4.3.1.1
B. Incorrect. Suppliers and partners are possible stakeholders, but it is important to
identify the service consumer first. “The first step in focusing on value is knowing
who is being served. In each situation the service provider must, therefore,
determine who the service consumer is”. Ref 4.3.1.1
C. Correct. “The first step in focusing on value is knowing who is being served. In
each situation the service provider must, therefore, determine who the service
consumer is”. Ref 4.3.1.1
D. Incorrect. The cost of providing the service may have some impact on the value
from the perspective of the service provider. But “The first step in focusing on value
is knowing who is being served. In each situation the service provider must,
therefore, determine who the service consumer is”. Ref 4.3.1.1

Question 25

A service provider describes a package that includes a laptop with software, licenses, and
support. What is this package an example of?
A. Value
B. An outcome
C. Warranty
D. A service offering

Answer 25

A. Incorrect. The combination of things described in this option may help to create
value, but it is not an example of value. Value is “the perceived benefits, usefulness
and importance of something.” Ref 2.1
B. Incorrect. The combination of things described in this option may help to create
an outcome, but it is not an example of an outcome. Outcome is “a result for a
stakeholder enabled by one or more outputs.” Ref 2.5.1
C. Incorrect. Warranty is “assurance that a product or service will meet agreed
requirements.” New functionality may or may not affect warranty. Ref 2.5.4
D. Correct. Service providers define combinations of goods, access to resources
and service actions, to address the needs of different consumer groups. These
combinations are called service offerings. Ref 2.3.2

Question 26

What is the definition of warranty?
A. A tangible or intangible deliverable that is produced by carrying out an activity
B. The assurance that a product or service will meet agreed requirements
C. A possible event that could cause harm or loss, or make it more difficult to achieve objectives
D. The functionality offered by a product or service to meet a particular need

Answer 26

A. Incorrect. An output is “A tangible or intangible deliverable of an activity”. Ref
2.5.1
B. Correct. Warranty is “assurance that a product or service will meet agreed
requirements.” Ref 2.5.4
C. Incorrect. A risk is “a possible event that could cause harm or loss, or make it
more difficult to achieve objectives”. Ref 2.5.3
D. Incorrect. Utility is “the functionality offered by a product or service to meet a
particular need”. Ref 2.5.4