Practice Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What’s a true statement about the assembly language?

Each assembly language can run on any platform

Assembly languages are not programming languages

Assembly code is not human-readable

Only specialists use assembly code

A

An assembly language is any low-level programming language in which there is a very strong correspondence between the program’s statements and the architecture’s machine code instructions. Assembly code is very difficult to follow and is only really used by specialists trying to solve a very particular problem with an application.

The assembly language represents machine code in human-readable text.

Assembly languages are the first generation of programming languages. They rate at slightly higher level than machine code.

An assembly language is typically specific to a particular hardware architecture. Different assembly languages can run on different platforms.

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2
Q

What is an advantage of using a CLI (Command Line Interface) instead of GUI (Graphical User Interface)?

More people use CLI, so there is more help available

Non-technical users can learn how to use CLI faster than GUI

With CLI, it is easier to multitask when working on different things at once

CLI takes up less system resources to run

A

Running CLI takes a lot less of the computer’s system resources than a GUI, which needs to load things like icons, fonts, and additional drivers for components such as video and a mouse.

CLI requires a lot of knowledge and memorization to operate and navigate around it, making the learning curve a lot steeper than visually intuitive GUI.

Being more user friendly than a command line, especially for new or novice users, a GUI is used by more users.

Command line environments are capable of multitasking, but they do not offer the same ease and ability to view multiple things on one screen. GUI users have windows that enable users to view and control multiple programs and folders at once.

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3
Q

Which device is likely to use ARM(Advanced RISK Machine) CPU?

IBM PC
Laptop
Tablet
iMac

A

Chipsets for mobile phones/smartphones and tablets are often based on the ARM microarchitecture. RISC stands for Reduced Instruction Set Computing. RISC microarchitectures use simple instructions processed very quickly, which is not sufficient for larger devices.

Most laptops today are powered by an Intel CPU, though there are several models that use AMD processors. Intel’s flagship CPU series is Core, whose earliest models (Core Solo and Core Duo) were laptop-only chips.

IBM PCs require “IBM compatible” CPUs, which are defined by having compatibility with the basic x86 instruction set.

iMac is the Intel-based family of Macintosh desktop computers designed, manufactured, and sold by Apple Inc., and use Intel’s i-series CPUs.

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4
Q

What is the end result of the iterative process of establishing and testing a theory while troubleshooting?

Identify the person resposible for creating the problem

Establish a root cause for the problem

Resolve the problem

Ensure that the problem is never repeated

A

The end result of the iterative process of establishing and testing a theory (establish a theory, test it, if it doesn’t work, establish another theory) is to establish a root cause for the problem.

The iterative process of establishing and testing a theory is the combination of Steps 3 and 4 of CompTIA’s troubleshooting model. Resolving the problem is part of Step 6: implement the solution or escalate as necessary.

Ensuring that the problem is never repeated is part of Step 7: verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventive measures.

Many technical problems are not caused by a specific person, but by events and circumstances, such as power or equipment failure, hardware or software malfunction, etc.`

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5
Q

What type of language has working with datasets as its primary purpose?

Querry
Compiled
Markup
Assembly

A

Code written in a query language, such as SQL (Structured Query Language), is designed to retrieve specific records from a dataset.

An assembly language is any low-level programming language, designed to perform many functions.

A markup language is a means of making data in a document accessible to a program, via a series of nested tags that describe the structure and/or meaning of the tag contents. A markup document represents a dataset, and the program that reads it is the one that works with it.

Compiled languages can perform any programming task, including working with datasets, usually via a markup document or embedded queries. That is a small part of their designed functionality.

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6
Q

Radio Frequency ID (RFID) is a means of tagging and tracking objects using specially-encoded tags. What is a peer-to-peer version of RFID?

NFC
NID
NAS
NIC

A

Near Field Communications (NFC) is a peer-to-peer version of RFID; that is, an NFC device can work as both tag and reader to exchange information with other NFC devices.

Network Interface Card (NIC) provides the Ethernet port in the computer to connect it to a network.

A Network Attached Storage (NAS) appliance is one or more hard drives housed in an enclosure with basic server firmware, usually running some form of Linux.

Network Interface Device (NID) is a device that serves as the demarcation point between the carrier’s local loop and the customer’s on-premises wiring.

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7
Q

The information layer of data analytics requires software to perform which function?

Data correlation
Data collection
Data storage
Meaningful reporting

A

-Data Correlation-Data analytics (relationship of data to information) can be thought of in terms of data, information, and insights layers. The information layer requires software to perform data correlation, which means analyzing the whole data set and finding connections and links between data points.

The data layer is the raw values collected by the system, with the help of data capture and collection functions.

As well as collecting the data, it must be stored and secured, which is where data storage comes in.

To inform human decision making at the insights layer, the information identified by the analytics system must be presented in ways that humans can analyze and interpret. This is done through meaningful reporting.

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8
Q

An employee makes unauthorized copies of customer Social Security numbers, saves them in an unencrypted spreadsheet, and transfers them to the employee’s personal email account. The employee then opens new credit card accounts with this information and uses the cards to buy personal items. Which of the following did NOT occur?

Identify checks
Identity theft
Mishandling personally identifiable information (PII)
Identity fraud

A

Rigorous identity checks when setting up a new account can help mitigate masquerading, which involves subverting the account creation process.

The rise in consciousness of identity theft as a serious crime is growing. Identity theft is using Personally Identifiable Information (PII) to impersonate an individual.

Staff should be trained to identify PII and to handle personal or sensitive data appropriately, and process Personally Identifiable Information (PII) more sensitively and securely.

Identity fraud can either mean compromising someone’s computer account or masquerading as that person. Strong authentication makes this type of attack much more difficult to perform.

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9
Q

Why are USB (Universal Serial Bus) thumb drives non-volatile?

They are easy to connect to the computer

They retain data without power

They can be inserted and removed while the computer is powered on

They are very small and light

A

Volatile means that data is only retained in the memory chips while there is a power source, and non-volatile means that it retains data without power. USB thumb drive is a removable flash memory device, and removable flash memory devices do not need power to retain information.

Inserting and removing a device without turning off the computer is not a condition of non-volatility.

The degree of difficulty of connecting to the computer is not a condition of non-volatility.

The size and weight of a device is not related to volatility.

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10
Q

Convert the binary number 1000000 into decimal notation.

64
40
32
128

A

A quick way to calculate a binary number which consists of a 1 with the rest being 0’s is to count the number of 0’s, and then calculate 2 to the power of that number. In this case, there are six 0’s, and 2 to the power of 6 = 64.

If the task was to convert 1000000 into hexadecimal notation, the answer would be 40.

If this example had one less 0, i.e., 100000, then the answer would be 32.

If this example had one more 0, i.e., 10000000, then the answer would be 128.

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11
Q

What kind of computer firmware provides support for mouse operation at boot?

UEFI
BIOS
DOS
CMOS

A

Newer motherboards use UEFI (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface), a firmware which provides support for 64-bit CPU operation at boot, as well as a full GUI and mouse operation at boot.

BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) is firmware which provides industry standard program code to get the essential components of the PC running. It does not provide support for mouse operation at boot.

CMOS (Complementary Metal-Oxide Semiconductor) is a semiconductor chip inside computers that stores information, such as the system time and date, but is now obsolete.

DOS (Disk Operating System) is not firmware; it is an operating system that runs from a hard disk drive.

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12
Q

An attacker used hosts compromised with bot malware to launch a coordinated attack against a web service to overload it. Which of the following is the active attack threatening web service availability to your users?

Destruction
Impersonation
Denial of Service (DoS)
Replay

A

Denial of Service (DoS) is where an attacker targets the availability of a service. A DoS attack might tamper with a system or overload it. A Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) uses hosts compromised with bot malware to launch a coordinated attack against a web service.

To prevent physical destruction of devices, you can put your servers in a physically secure room and control access to that room.

Replay is an integrity concern where a host captures another host’s response to some server and replays that response in an effort to gain unauthorized access.

Impersonation is an integrity concern where a person will attempt to figure out a password or other credentials to gain access to a host.

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13
Q

What is the main purpose of NIC (Network Interface Card) expansion card?

To replace the outdated NIC on the motherboard

To serva as a faster alternative to the onboard NIC

To provide additional NICs to servers on a wired business network

To allow workstation comptuers to connect to the network

A

Network Interface Card (NIC) provides the Ethernet port in the computer. Servers with a NIC on the motherboard (onboard card) may have additional NICs supplied on expansion (or add-on) cards.

Almost all workstation computers come with a NIC on the motherboard, allowing for Ethernet connection to the network.

An outdated NIC on the motherboard is not a frequent occurrence.

Both onboard cards and expansion cards operate in the same manner using the same protocols and cable ports. NICs come in many different forms and speeds, but both types come in equal speeds.

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14
Q

What is an advantage of the float data type compared to the integer data type?

The float data type is not limited to whole numbers

The float data type is a more natural way of expressing numbers in computing systems

The float data type requries less processing time for arithmetic operations

The float data type consumes less storage.

A

The float data type can support decimal fractions, as opposed to integers which are whole numbers.

The float data type does not consume less storage than an integer. An integer data type consumes 1 to 8 bytes of computer storage, while a float consumes between 4 and 8 bytes of storage.

Floating-point operations are slower than integer operations of the same data size, requiring more processing time for arithmetic operations.

An integer exists inside the computer as a true binary value, while a floating-point number needs additional steps to be expressed in binary format for the computer to accurately store its value.

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15
Q

The accountant of a small company uses a database application to maintain the list of vendors, their services, and their invoices to the company. The application uses Microsoft Access for the database layer, with the front-end interface layer in Visual Basic, to work with the data and to generate custom reports. What is the application architecture of this system, which resides on the accountant’s desktop computer?

Three Tier
Two tier
One tier
N Tier

A

If the application front-end, processing logic, and the database engine are hosted on the same computer, the application architecture is described as one-tier or standalone. The accountant’s desktop computer hosts both back-end and front-end layers, making it a standalone application.

A two-tier client-server application separates the database engine, or backend/data layer, from the presentation and application layers. If this system used a remote server to host the data, then it would be a two-tier application.

In a three-tier application, the presentation and application layers are also split, making the entire system more complex.

An n-tier application architecture can be used to mean either a two-tier or three-tier application, or an application with more complex architecture, like having separate access control.

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16
Q

Why is data persistence an important consideration when using a database with an application?

Applications need a way to prevent the loss of information after they terminate

Applications need a way to communicate with a database

Applications need a way to view the data in a variety of formats

Applications need a way to limit users access to some of the data

A

When an application terminates, it loses the internal variables and other temporary data that it used during processing. A database represents a way for an application to store data persistently and securely.

Applications communicate with databases with the help of a database connection such as ODBC (Open Database Connectivity) or ADO (ActiveX Data Objects).

Applications limit users’ access to the data through security controls such as log-in screens. Databases limit users’ access to the data through tools such as ACL (Access Control Lists).

Applications view data in a variety of formats using queries and reports.

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17
Q

What is a key difference between copyright and a patent?

Patents are registered for a limited time only, but copyright protection is permanent.

Copyright protection happens automatically, but a patent must be applied for and registered.

Copyright is valid for a limited time only, but a patent is granted on a permanent basis

Patents are granted automatically, but a copyright must be applied for and registered

A

Copyright is automatic legal protection granted to certain types of work. There is no need to apply for copyright or display any copyright notice in order to be protected by it. The creation of the work ensures copyright protection automatically.

A patent must be applied for and registered because there is no automatic protection, as there is for copyright.

Patents are registered for a limited time only.

Copyright lasts for a number of years after the owner’s death. The exact length of time varies between 15 and 70 years depending on the nature of the work. After this time, provided the copyright has not been extended for some reason, the work becomes public domain and may be used freely.

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18
Q

What problem is Windows’ UAC (User Account Control) designed to solve?

Elevated privileges
Inadequate account authentication
Too many guest accounts
Too many administrative accounts

A

“Least privilege” means that users receive permissions required to perform tasks and no more. Early versions of Windows led to the problem of “elevated privileges”, where all users were given administrative privileges, as otherwise it was difficult to perform typical administrative tasks. UAC was created to solve this problem.

The “Guest” account, used in Windows 7 and 8.1, is a standard, local user account, with very limited permissions. There is typically one such account, but having many of them is not a problem.

UAC enables users to perform common tasks as non-administrators and as administrators without having to switch users. The number of administrative accounts is not relevant to this feature.

Inadequate account authentication is not part of UAC functionality.

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19
Q

An essential part of troubleshooting is to establish a plan of action to eliminate the root cause without destabilizing some other part of the system. What needs to be in the plan of action?

Details outlining every occurrence of the problem.
Recommendations for a workaround
Steps required to implement the solution
Cost analysis of resolving the problem vs. ignoring it

A

A plan of action should contain the detailed steps and resources required to implement the solution.

In most situations, it is not necessary to provide details outlining every occurrence of the problem, as part of the troubleshooting process. If such details are required, they are not part of the plan of action.

There are typically three solutions to any problem: repair, replace, or ignore. The decision as to whether or not repairing or replacing is cost-effective does not necessarily involve a cost analysis, but a simple judgement call.

If the solution to the problem is to ignore it, then it may help to have recommendations for a workaround.

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20
Q

Which of the following uses MHz (Megahertz) to measure their speed?

Modern computer processors
Bluetooth
Wireless technologies
Older PC bus interfaces

A

MHz stands for Megahertz, which is 1 million (1,000,000) cycles per second. Older PC bus interfaces work at this slower signaling speed.

Modern computer processors work at much faster speeds of at least 1 GHz (Gigahertz) which is 1 billion (1,000,000,000) cycles per second. The first 1 GHz processors for consumer computers were released in the year 2000.

Wi-Fi (wireless networking) most commonly uses the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz radio frequencies to provide wireless high-speed Internet and network connections.

To communicate between devices, Bluetooth sends signals over a 2.4 GHz radio frequency.

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21
Q

For enterprise networks with very large amounts of data to backup, which is best to implement?

Tape drives
Use of personally owned devices
Cloud storage only
Peer-to-peer (P2P) network

A

Enterprise networks with large amounts of data to backup may use more specialized media, such as tape drives.

An online Peer-to-Peer (P2P) network is one where, instead of a central server, each client contributes resources to the network. Most companies discourage use of P2P file sharing software on corporate networks.

Portable devices (e.g., smartphones, USB sticks, and media players) pose a threat to data security; they facilitate file copying. Some companies try to prevent staff from bringing such devices.

It is a good idea to use a combination of backup storage methods for on-site and off-site backups. You could back up often to locally attached storage or network-attached storage (NAS) and then copy backups to a cloud storage off-site.

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22
Q

What is available in software installer packages to select specific feature sets or modules within the software package?

Add-ons and plugins
Additional features
Advanced installation
Advanced Options

A

Most software installer packages offer a choice between a default installation and a custom (or advanced options) installation. A custom installation allows the user to choose specific settings, such as where to install the software and what icons or startup/autorun options to configure, as well as the selection of specific feature sets or modules within the software package.

Advanced installation can refer to an installation using advanced options, although it is not a widely used term.

Additional features may be part of the advanced options during software installation.

Add-ons and plugins are software components that add a specific feature to an existing computer program. They may be part of the advanced options during installation.

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23
Q

Which is a true statement about a GPU (Graphics Processing Unit)?

GPU uses analog signals

GPU works with the CPU to handle complex high-resolution images

GPU must be on its own graphics card

Computers used primarily for gaming require a GPU in place of a CPU

A

The GPU is a dedicated processor for display functions. It works with the CPU to handle complex high-resolution images.

Every computer needs a CPU. While the GPU can perform some functions that the CPU cannot, the GPU does not replace the CPU.

CPUs are located on the motherboard in a special mount. GPUs may be part of the CPU or come on a plug-in expansion card.

Early GPUs generated analog signals for Cathode Ray Tube (CRT) monitors but plugged into the motherboard and communicated with the CPU using digital signals.

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24
Q

CompTIA’s troubleshooting model includes having to establish a theory of probable cause. What is one of the components of this step?

Question the internet
Question users
Question the obvious
Question the theory of probable cause

A

Step 3 in CompTIA’s troubleshooting model is to establish a theory of probable cause. Its three components are: question the obvious, consider multiple approaches, and divide and conquer.

Step 1 in CompTIA’s troubleshooting model is to identify the problem. One of the six components of this step is to question users.

Step 2 in CompTIA’s troubleshooting model is to research knowledge base/Internet, if applicable.

Step 4 in CompTIA’s troubleshooting model is to test the theory to determine cause. Steps 3 and 4 form an iterative process of establishing and testing a theory until something works.

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25
Q

Which statement holds true about a desktop/workstation when comparing it to a server?

Server components cost less than those of a desktop
Servers use the same type of components as a desktop
Desktop components are more powerful
Desktop components are more reliable

A

In this context, a server is a powerful computer that supports a number of users simultaneously in a computer network. Most servers use the same type of components as a desktop.

The server components are more powerful and more reliable, and consequently more expensive.

If a desktop PC (Personal Computer) stops working, a single user may be unable to do their job; if a server computer stops working, tens or even hundreds of users may not be able to do their jobs, which means that servers need to be very reliable.

This higher level of reliability is achieved by specifying high quality (and more expensive) components and also by using extra copies of components for redundancy.

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26
Q

Which of the following declarations represents a 2-dimensional array?

declare Animal (2) as String
declare Animal(9,9) as string
declare ANimal (1) as string
declare Animal(2,2,2) as string

A

The Animal(9,9) array is a 2-dimensional array, with up to 10 elements in each dimension (elements in the array are counted from zero). The elements are similar to rows and columns, with the first dimension serving as the row, and the second dimension serving as columns for each row. The Animal(9,9) array can have up to 100 total elements, in 10 rows by 10 columns.

The Animal(1) array is a 1-dimensional array with up to 2 elements.

The Animal(2) array is a 1-dimensional array with up to 3 elements.

The Animal(2,2,2) array is a 3-dimensional array with up to 3 elements in each dimension.

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27
Q

Convert the hexadecimal number 16 into decimal notation.

22
10
16
F

A

To calculate the decimal value of a number in hexadecimal notation, multiply each digit with its corresponding power of 16 from right to left. The calculation for 16 is: 6 * 1 + 1 * 16 = 22.

10 would be the correct answer if the question was to convert 16 in decimal into hexadecimal. Hexadecimal numbers are the same as decimal for 0 to 9, and A to F is decimal 10 to 15.

Hexadecimal and decimal numbers are the same for 0 to 9, not all the way to 16. 16 in hexadecimal converts to 22 in decimal.

F is not part of decimal notation. It is part of hexadecimal notation and converts to 15 in decimal notation.

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28
Q

A web application contains a form, which users fill out. What is the most likely use for this form?

To create a database
To create a flat file for each user
To import data from a flat file into a database
To manually input data into a database

A

The manual data input process typically involves a form. The forms can be generic as part of the database administration software, or custom in a desktop or web application.

Importing data from a flat file is typically not done through a form in a web application. It’s usually done though database administration tools, or a series of scripts.

A form in a web application is not the right tool to create a database. It’s usually done though database administration tools, or a script.

A web application can create files for its users, usually with information about the browsing session. Data that the user fills out on the form is typically for input into a database.

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29
Q

Which of the following poses a higher risk to ensuring business continuity?

Syncing data between servers
A converged network
Service and data replication
Real-time synchronization

A

A network carrying both voice and data is said to be converged. There is also a greater vulnerability to Denial of Service (DoS) (without redundancy the network is a single point of failure for both voice and data traffic) and eavesdropping on voice communications.

To increase site redundancy, you must consider implementing service and data replication between multiple data centers.

To increase site redundancy, you can synchronize data between servers and potentially between sites.

To increase site redundancy, you can implement replication which might be real-time or bundled into batches for periodic synchronization.

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30
Q

What is the maximum transfer rate for the Firewire standard which uses 6-pin “alpha” connectors and cabling?

1 Gbps
400 Mbps
600 Mbps
800 Mbps

A

Firewire was based on IEEE 1394, which is an interface standard for a serial bus for high-speed communications and isochronous real-time data transfer. Firewire was used on some Apple Mac computers; it was a competitor to USB (Universal Serial Bus) but never received mainstream support amongst PC vendors. The Firewire 400 standard uses 6-pin “alpha” connectors and cabling, with the maximum transfer rate of 400 Mbps (Megabits per second).

There is no Firewire standard with a maximum transfer rate of 600 Mbps.

The Firewire 800 standard uses 9-pin (“beta”) connectors and cabling, and supports transfer rates up to 800 Mbps.

There is no Firewire standard which supports transfer rates up to 1 Gbps (Gigabits per second).

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31
Q

Which of the following computer components does an “all-in-one” workstation contain within the monitor case?

Mouse
Microphone
Keyboard
Scanner

A

The terms workstation, PC (Personal Computer), and desktop computer are often used interchangeably, so this refers to an “all-in-one” desktop unit or PC. All-in-one means that the computer components (except the keyboard and mouse) are contained within the monitor case. These components typically include the processor, system memory, disk storage, and audio/visual equipment, such as a camera, speakers, and a microphone.

A keyboard is not contained inside the monitor case of an “all-in-one”.

A mouse is not contained inside the monitor case of an “all-in-one”.

A scanner is part of an “all-in-one” PSC (Printer-Scanner-Copier) or MFP (Multifunction Printer) but not a workstation/PC.

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32
Q

What is the main cause of memory leaks?

Operating system upgrades
Damaged memory chips
Programming errors
Outdated software

A

Memory leaks refer to Windows memory loss, caused by a program or an app. This occurs when an application does not release memory when it’s done with it, eventually causing a system slowdown.

If the software that is outdated and no longer supported has proper memory management in the code, then it would not cause more leaks than current but badly written programs.

Damaged memory chips cause problems, but memory leaks refer specifically to memory losses due to software programs incorrectly managing memory allocation.

Upgrading the operating system can be a cause of memory leaks, with an increase in memory usage by the new drivers. Operating system upgrades are done less frequently than everyday use of programs that cause leaks.

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33
Q

A file contains information about the company’s customers. The information includes Name, Address, Phone, and Email for each customer. What’s the best way to convert this file into a database?

Create a table called customers, with fields called name, address, phone, and email
Create a table called Customers, with records called Name, Address, Phone, and Email.
Create a database called Customers, with tables called Name, Address, Phone, and Email.
Create a database called Customers, with fields called Name, Address, Phone, and Email.

A

A database consists of tables of information, organized into columns and rows. Each row represents a separate record in the database, and each column represents a single field within a record. Name, Address, Phone, and Email are fields for each customer, and the collection of these fields is a table.

Name, Address, Phone, and Email do not need to be individual tables. They are all part of a record for each customer.

Name, Address, Phone, and Email are not records, they are fields, or columns in the table. A record is one set of information about a customer.

Fields make up a table, and tables make up a database.

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34
Q

What type of software is Google Drive?

Collaboration software
Productivity software
Business software
Networking software

A

Google Drive is a cloud-based document storage and sharing service used for collaboration among users. The workspace server hosts the document and contains the accounts and permissions of the users allowed to access it.

The Google Drive client software provides the user with the tools to view and edit the document within the workspace using Google Docs or using a productivity software suite such as Microsoft Office (via the Drive plug-in).

Businesses use Google Drive for document storage and sharing, but it is not considered to be specialized business software.

Networking software is for administrators to deploy, manage, and monitor a network, not sharing documents.

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35
Q

What does 5 GB (GigaBytes) memory mean in the context of the Microsoft Windows operating system?

5000000 KB
5120 MB
5000 MB
5210 MB

A

In the Microsoft Windows operating system, file sizes and memory capacity use binary measurements. 5 GB equals to 5 * 1024 MB = 5120 MB (MegaBytes).

Storage capacity is typically quoted in decimal measurements. If this was a hard disk with a capacity of 5 GB, it would equal 5000 MB. But in the Microsoft Windows operating system, the calculation for each GB of memory is 1024 MB.

5210 MB = 5.088 GB, not 5 GB.

If this was a hard disk with a capacity of 5 GB, it would equal 5,000,000 KB (KiloBytes). But in the Microsoft Windows operating system, the calculation for each GB of memory is 1024 * 1024 = 1,048,576 KB; 5 GB = 5,242,880 KB.

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36
Q

Which of the following SQL (Structured Query Language) commands is NOT a DML (Data Manipulation Language) command?

Select
Delete
Insert
Drop

A

DML commands refer to SQL commands that access or modify the contents of the database. The DROP command deletes (drops) a table or the entire database, and is a DDL (Data Definition Language) command, which modifies the structure of the database.

DML commands include DELETE, which deletes records from a table, and therefore modifies the contents of the database.

DML commands include INSERT, which adds a new row into a table, and therefore modifies the contents of the database.

DML commands include SELECT, which is the first building block of a query to retrieve data from a database.

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37
Q

When a general language performs scripting, what does it call on as part of the code?

Markup instructions
Machine code
Query statements
system commands

A

Most languages can call (or “wrap”) system commands as part of the code and can therefore also be used for scripting.

Machine code is the instructions converted to strings of ones and zeros for the CPU (Central Processing Unit) to process. Machine code calls can be used to optimize certain parts of a program, but not for scripting.

Query statements are requests to a database, for the purpose of retrieving data which the program needs for additional processing. Embedded query statements are not used for scripting.

Markup instructions can be used to format the output of a program, not for scripting.

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38
Q

Which of the following exposes a user to a Man-in-the-Middle (MitM) attack?

Encryption
A cryptographic hash
Cipher text
Plain text

A

Plain text is also known as clear text and is an unencrypted message. To secure transmissions from eavesdropping, sniffing and MitM attacks, data should be encrypted.

Cipher text is an encrypted document or message that can travel across a public network, such as the Internet, and remain private.

With encryption, even if an eavesdropper could intercept and examine the data packets, the content would be unreadable.

Cryptographic hashing is a type of encryption that can be used to prove that a message has not been tampered with and for secure storage of data where the original meaning does not have to be recovered (e.g., passwords).

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39
Q

If one part of the network fails, what should the networking team do to keep the rest of the network operational?

Be convincing or establish trust
Focus on the integrity of the data
Implement solutions to prevent masquerading
Implement network cabling to allow for multiple paths between servers

A

Network cabling should be designed to allow for multiple paths between the various servers, so that during a failure of one part of the network, the rest remains operational (redundant connections).

Identity fraud can either mean compromising someone’s computer account or masquerading as that person. Strong authentication makes this type of attack much more difficult to perform.

Being convincing or establishing trust usually depends on the attacker obtaining privileged information about the organization.

Integrity means that the data being stored and transferred has not been altered without authorization. In a network outage, availability to the data is the top concern.

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40
Q

A Bluetooth device is set up by “pairing” or “bonding” the device with the computer. To do this, the devices need to be put into what mode?

Public
Wireless
Work
Discoverable

A

A Bluetooth device can establish a connection with another device if the devices are put into discoverable mode. This enables Bluetooth devices to search, connect, and transfer data (i.e., “pair” or “bond”) with each other.

Bluetooth is often described as “Bluetooth wireless technology,” giving the impression that wireless is a mode of a Bluetooth device. However, wireless typically refers to wireless networking, better known as Wi-Fi, which provides high-speed access to the internet, while Bluetooth is primarily used to connect devices without using cables.

Work mode is an option on a smartphone, for business users who want to keep their work-related apps and features separate from personal ones.

Public mode is a setting for network connections.

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41
Q

What is NOT one of the features of an application virtualization software such as Citrix XenApp, which installs on a network server instead of individual workstations?

The data files are easier to back up
The data can be made more secure
Users can use the application without a network connection
The application can be used on multiple operating systems without being developed as a cross-platofrm application

A

Application virtualization software is installed and executed on a network server. Client workstations access the application using a remote terminal or viewer, with a local network connection to the server.

Locating the application and its data files on a server is easier to secure. Security is implemented in one location, the server, instead of each workstation running a locally installed application.

Having the all of the application’s data files on one server is easier to back up, than having local installations and corresponding sets of data files.

Application virtualization software allows applications to run in environments that do not suit the native application, meaning that they can run from different operating systems without being developed as a cross-platform application.

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42
Q

Which of the following measures their data transfer capacity in Mbps (megabits per second)?

Data center telecommunications links
Latest PC Bus standards
Wireless networks
Older computer peripheral interfaces

A

Wireless networks and residential Internet links, as well as many internal computer interfaces, typically have their data transfer capacity measured in Mbps or Mb/s (Megabits per second).

Older computer peripheral interfaces run slower than their more modern counterparts. They have their data transfer capacity measured in Kbps or Kb/s (Kilobits per second).

The latest PC bus standards can support higher data transfer capacity measured in Gbps or Gb/s (Gigabits per second).

Major telecommunications links between data centers, cities, and countries have the highest data transfer capacity measured in Tbps or Tb/s (Terabits per second).

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43
Q

Convert the decimal number 35 into binary notation.

1000001
100011
100101
11111

A

Binary numbers can be calculated from right to left, with each position being worth twice the previous one. 100011 is 1 * 1 + 1 * 2 + 0 * 4 + 0 * 8 + 0 * 16 + 1 * 32 = 35.

11111 is 1 * 1 + 1 * 2 + 1 * 4 + 1 * 8 + 1 * 16 = 31. Alternately, it can be calculated as 100000 - 1, or 32 - 1 = 31.

100101 is 1 * 1 + 0 * 2 + 1 * 4 + 0 * 8 + 0 * 16 + 1 * 32 = 37.

1000001 is 1 * 1 + 0 * 2 + 0 * 4 + 0 * 8 + 0 * 16 + 0 * 32 + 1 * 64 = 65.

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44
Q

What should a user do before installing a driver from a third-party website?

Search the web for references of the driver’s legitimacy and reputation
Install patches or updates for the application to fix any coding problems
Ensure the site is downloaded over an HTTP connections
Ensure the driver software uses a digitally self-signed certificate

A

When installing new software applications or drivers, it is important to obtain the setup files from a legitimate source. Search for references to the site on the web and in forums to find out if anyone has posted warnings about it.

When using a website to install software, ensure that the software is being downloaded over a secure HTTPS connection.

Ideally, driver software should also be digitally signed by the vendor, and the vendor’s certificate should be trusted by your computer.

A patch or update is a file containing replacement system or application files and can fix coding problems in the original file. This should be installed after installing the driver.

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45
Q

Which of the following authentication factors is an example of something you have?

A password
A software token
A geographic location
a fingerprint pattern

A

A software token is an example of an authentication factor of something you have and is generated by an application and stored on the user’s device as a cookie.

Many types of biometric information can be recorded, including fingerprint patterns, iris or retina recognition, or facial recognition. This is an authentication factor of “something you are”.

Location-based authentication measures some statistic about “where” you are (your presence in a specific geographic location). This is considered “somewhere you are” authentication.

The typical “something you know” technology is the logon or sign-in. A sign-in comprises a username and a password.

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46
Q

What does the term “hybrid laptop” mean?

Laptop that can be used like a phone
Laptop that can be used like a desktop
Laptop that can be used like a gaming console
Laptop that can be used like a tablet

A

Hybrid laptops can be used like a tablet or a traditional laptop. They need touchscreens to have tablet functionality. Some laptops are converted into tablets by flipping the screen. Others have a detachable keyboard, which functions as a cover for the screen.

Laptops can be used to make video calls, but it is not a replacement for the phone and not a hybrid laptop.

Laptops can be used like a desktop, and bigger models are often called “desktop replacements,” but they are not hybrid laptops.

For a laptop to be used like a gaming console, it needs to have a powerful CPU and graphics processor, as well as a gaming pad, but that does not make it a hybrid laptop.

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47
Q

A company has employees who write down passwords, which should be kept private, on sticky notes. Given this scenario, what should the IT security department implement to prevent this type of mishandling of confidential information?

Data monitoring
IT security training
Acceptable Use Policy
CCTV surveillance cameras installation

A

Users must keep their work passwords known only to themselves. This means not writing down the password. Employees should be trained to understand what information is confidential, and how to handle it correctly.

An Acceptable Use Policy, or Fair Use Policy, sets out what someone is allowed to use a particular service or resource for.

CCTV surveillance cameras can be used in the workplace for security assurance and to observe someone writing down a password, but not to prevent the password from being written on a sticky note.

Monitoring data means analyzing data communications to measure an employee’s productivity.

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48
Q

What are the properties of a file “Books/CoverPhoto.js”?

It’s an image file named “Books/CoverPhoto.js”.
It’s an executable file named “CoverPhoto.js” in folder “Books”.
It’s a document file named “Books/CoverPhoto.js”.
It’s an image file named “CoverPhoto.js” in folder “Books”.

A

An executable file contains program code, and can make changes to the computer system. Executable file extensions include “exe”, “bat”, “cmd”, and “js”. The slash symbol (/) is reserved for listing folders or directories in all operating systems, and the back-slash symbol () is also used for this on some systems.

Image file extensions include “jpg” and “jpeg”, but not “js” which stands for JavaScript code, a script file that runs within an interpreter.

File names cannot contain the reserved symbol “/”, so the entire name is not the file name. “Books” is the folder, and “CoverPhoto.js” is the file.

Document file formats are used by word processing software, with extensions such as “txt”, “rtf”, “doc”, and “docx”.

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49
Q

If a worm propagates over a network, which of the following is the first action to take, to prevent further infection?

Enable on-access scanning
Disconnect the network link
Use nativirus software to try to remove the infection
Escalate the problem to a support professional

A

Malware such as worms propagate over networks. Therefore, one of the first actions should be to disconnect the network link.

If a file is infected with a virus, the antivirus software should detect it and take the appropriate action. You can use antivirus software to try to remove the infection.

After you have determined you cannot clean a file or if the antivirus software does not detect it, and allows the virus to infect the computer, then you should get help by escalating the problem to a support professional.

With on-access scanning, when a file is accessed, the antivirus software scans the file and blocks access if it detects anything suspicious. If a worm propagates, on-access scanning has failed.

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50
Q

A systems administrator is installing a new wireless access point (AP). During installation, the administrator should make sure to complete which of the following?

Enable all services on the wireless AP
Change the SSID to something that helps identify the administrator
Change the default password
Store a hardcopy of a complex password of at least 12 characters

A

You must always change the default password (typically “default,” “password,” or “admin”) for any new device to prevent unauthorized access to it.

It is best practice not to enable services you do not need, especially on a multifunction device such as a wireless access point.

You must choose a strong password that cannot be cracked by password-guessing software. Use a long, memorable phrase of at least 12 characters. However, to maintain confidentiality, you should never write down a password.

It is a good idea to change the SSID from the default to something unique to your network. Remember that the SSID is easily visible to other wireless devices, so do not use one that identifies you personally or your address.

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51
Q

Which of the following types of collaboration software is least sensitive to latency?

Document sharing
Video conferencing
Instant messaging
Screen sharing

A

Latency is the delay in seconds that a packet of data takes to travel over a network. Tasks which need to be real-time are more sensitive to latency, where slight delays impact the ability to perform the task. Such delays do not greatly impact the sharing of documents, which are often done passively and not in real-time.

Screen sharing is when a remote user views the host’s desktop, often used for software demonstrations and product support, and need to be in real-time.

Instant messaging software allows users to communicate in real-time, through text as well as voice and video calls.

Video conferencing software allows users to configure virtual meeting rooms, and need to be in real-time.

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52
Q

Why is scalability an important consideration when choosing to use a database instead of a flat file?

Nonscalable systems increase their costs at the same rate as the number of users that they support.
Nonscalable systems have strict limits for the amount of data they can support.
Nonscalable systems can only exchange data with other nonscalable systems.
Nonscalable systems have strict limits for the number of users they can support

A

Scalability means being able to expand usage without increasing costs at the same rate. For example, in a nonscalable system, doubling the number of users would also double the costs of the system.

Nonscalable systems do not have limits for the number of users they can support, other than trying to not incur the high costs of having many users.

Nonscalable systems do not have limits for the amount of data they can support. Some systems have more efficient processes to work with large amounts of data than other systems, but even if inefficiently, they can still support it.

Data exchange can happen between different types of systems.

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53
Q

A user needs to uninstall a driver on a computer running Windows OS (Operating System). Which page or window does NOT contain the relevant options to accomplish this?

Device manager
Driver manager
Command Prompt
Programs and Features

A

There is no page or window called “Driver Manager”. Drivers are installed for specific devices, and can be managed from the Device Manager page.

A good way to uninstall a driver is by uninstalling the software package used to install the driver in the first place, on the Programs and Features page from Control Panel.

A user can locate the device and uninstall it on the Device Manager page. Uninstalling the device usually comes with the option to uninstall the related drivers as well.

A user can delete drivers using command-line syntax from the Command Prompt window.

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54
Q

Which of the following is least likely to pose a substantial risks to an organization, such as a system intrusion?

Employees using permitted software and services as outlined in the handbook
Emplopyeees file sharing on P2P networks
Employees using personally owned devies in the workplace
Employees using social networking

A

An employee’s handbook should set out the terms under which use of web browser/email/social networking/P2P software is permitted for personal use.

Many employees expect relatively unrestricted access to Internet facilities for personal use. However, employees’ use of social networking poses substantial risks to the organization.

Many employees expect relatively unrestricted access to Internet facilities for personal use. However, employees’ use of P2P networks for file sharing poses substantial risks to the organization.

Portable devices, such as smartphones, USB sticks, media players, and so on, pose a considerable threat to data security as they facilitate file copying.

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55
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of IoT (Internet of Things) home automation?

Sprinkler system
Door lock
HVAC
Insulin pump

A

IoT-enabled medical devices include portable devices such as cardiac monitors/defibrillators and insulin pumps, which allow doctors and nurses to adjust dosages and monitor a patient remotely. While these devices may be located at a patient’s home, they are not part of the home controlled by IoT home automation.

The ability to control HVAC (Heating, Ventilation, and Air Conditioning) systems from an app installed on a smartphone is functionality provided by IoT thermostats, part of IoT home automation.

The ability to control alarms, locks, lighting, and entry systems is functionality provided by IoT home automation security systems.

The ability to control devices such as outdoor sprinkler systems is functionality provided by IoT home automation lawn/gardening management systems.

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56
Q

What’s a true statement about variables?

A variable can have any data type that the programming language supports
A program has to delcare all variables before using them
Each procedure must assign an initial value, when declaring variables
A variable contains a vlue that must change during the execution of the program

A

A variable is used in a program to access a program element. Its value can be a text string, a number, or any other data type if the programming language supports it.

It’s good practice to declare all variables in a program before using them, but not all programming languages require it. It is often possible to use undeclared variables, although this can make code harder to read and more prone to errors.

A variable contains a value that can change during the execution of the program, but it can also remain unchanged.

Variables can have initial value assignments, but it is not mandatory.

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57
Q

Which of the following will NOT help a network administrator avoid service unavailability due to one or more disks failing?

redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID)
Network redundancy
Fault tolerance
Contingency plan

A

Network redundancy provides fault tolerance to the connections to the network, if a network adapter fails, but will not avoid unavailable service if one or more disks fail.

Combining hard disks into an array of disks can help to avoid service unavailability due to one or more disks failing. A Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) offers a variety of fault tolerant solutions.

To help protect against losing access to a computer system when a component fails, you must implement fault tolerance. Fault tolerant systems are those that contain additional components to help avoid single points of failure.

Vulnerabilities in critical workflows and resources can be mitigated by creating contingency plans and resources that allow the system to be resilient to failures and unexpected outages.

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58
Q

What is the best reason to use a flat file instead of a database?

To support a wide variety of data
For more efficient processing of large amounts of information
To exchange information between systems
To divide the date update tasks among many users

A

A flat file is a good way of exporting and importing information between systems. It’s easier to work with flat files than try to ensure compatibility between different databases or data formats.

Databases support a wider variety of data formats than text files or spreadsheets do.

In a file-based storage model, when one user opens the file, it’s locked to other users. They may be able to view the file but not change it. A database system supports concurrent users without locking the whole database.

A single file-based data storage solution does not offer high enough speed for the volumes of transactions (adding and updating records) on enterprise-level systems.

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59
Q

What is a proper example of a string definition?

‘It’s going to be a great day.’
“It is polite to say "Thank you"”
“The sales person said to the customer: “Have a nice day!” and smiled.”
“We're so happy to see you!

A

When single or double quotes can be used to delimit a string, the quotes are not part of the string itself. To use a quote character within a string, an escape character () is used. Embedding "Thank you" into the rest of the string is the proper way of defining it.

The quoted portion needs to have an escape character () preceding each quote character: "Have a nice day!", for the string to be processed correctly.

The apostrophe (single quote) needs to have an escape character () preceding it: ‘It's going to be a great day.’

The delimiter needs to be consistent: if it starts with a double quote, it needs to end with a double quote.

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60
Q

A company operates in 2 offices. Both offices are located in the same town, with about 100 employees in each building. What type of network does it need to connect all of its employees, LAN (Local Area Network), or WAN (Wide Area Network)?

LAN, because the company owns the equipment and cabling required to set it up
WAN< because there are multiple locations
LAN, because the offices are local to each other
WAN, because LAN is unable to accommodate more than a few computers

A

LAN is a network in a single location. WAN is a network in different geographic locations but with shared links. A company with employees in more than one location needs to use a WAN.

LAN is not limited to just a few computers; it can accommodate enterprise networks with hundreds of servers and thousands of workstations.

Regardless of how close the offices are to each other, they are not in the same location, so WAN needs to be used.

Even if the company already owns the equipment and cabling required to set up a LAN, it needs a WAN to connect all of the employees across multiple locations.

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61
Q

What is a true statement about permissions in a database which uses SQL (Structured Query Language)?

Only the owner of a database object can grant permission over that object to other users.
The owner of a database object has complete control over that object.
An account with permission to access records in a table can access all columns in the table.
The account that creates a database object is the permanent owner of that object.

A

When an account creates an object, it becomes the owner of that object, with complete control over it. The account has permission over the object as long as it remains the owner of the object.

The owner of a database object can be changed using the ALTER AUTHORIZATION statement.

The owner of a database object, as well as the owner of the database itself, can grant permission over that object to other users.

SQL supports a secure access control system where specific user accounts receive rights over different objects in the database, including at the column level. An account can have permission to access only specific list of columns in a table, instead of the entire table.

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62
Q

A program is a sequence of what?

Atrributes
Flow charts
Instructions
Functions

A

A program is a sequence of instructions which the computer performs. The sequence can consist of just one instruction, such as the popular example “print ‘Hello World’”, or thousands, even millions of instructions in a single program.

Functions are elements of programs, and can be something that the programmer creates, or internal system functions. But a program is not a sequence of functions.

A graphical flow chart helps to visualize the program sequence and understand the processes. It’s a tool that programmers use, not a component of a program.

An attribute is a term of OOP (Object-Oriented Programming) to define objects.

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63
Q

What should a user do to protect sensitive information from malware, when working on a public workstation?

Set up a firewall
Disable cookies
Clear the browser cache
Enable pop-up blockers

A

Using a public workstation carries a risk of malware, which can capture sensitive information. A good practice is to clear the browser cache before shutting down or logging off, and not to allow passwords to be cached.

Disabling first-party cookies is likely to leave a website unusable. Public workstations usually have layers of protection against intrusive settings changes. The options for deleting stored cookies are usually in the same place as clearing the cache, so can be done at the same time.

A pop-up blocker can protect the computer from adware, but not malware.

Public workstations typically do not allow users to make system changes, such as setting up a firewall.

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64
Q

A user runs Microsoft Edge on a Windows 10 desktop. For more secure browsing, the user tries to disable scripting, but cannot deactivate it. What should the user do?

Continue browsing with enabled scripting
Refraing from using microsoft edge
Switch to a differnet operating system
Install a scipt blocker add-on

A

Script blocker add-ons prevent unauthorized websites from running JavaScript, and provide control over which websites are allowed to run scripts. Browsers that do not allow the user to disable scripts can have add-ons.

If Microsoft Edge is the user’s preferred browser, then using a different browser is not as desirable as installing a script blocker add-on, and continuing to use the preferred browser.

If there was a good reason for the user to decide to disable scripting, then keeping it enabled is not the ideal solution.

Switching to a different operating system is a complicated process that takes a lot of time to do, while installing a script blocker add-on can take less than a minute.

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65
Q

Why would a programmer create a function instead of a procedure?

Procedures do not exist in some programming languages.
The function needs to include a nested loop, which does not work in a procedure.
The process which calls the function needs to receive back a return value.
Functions compile more efficiently.

A

The key difference between a procedure and a function is that a function can return a value to whatever called it, whereas a procedure cannot.

Nested loops work the same way in both functions and procedures.

There are many factors which affect code efficiency, including ways to program function calls. But using a function over a procedure for this reason is not a consideration.

Functions and procedures exist in all programming languages. Some languages make very little distinction between the two, and consider functions to be procedures which return a value.

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66
Q

An attacker successfully connects to an open wireless access point, and proceeds to monitor and capture the plain text traffic on the network. Which of the following integrity concerns does this describe?

A replay attack
A man in the middle attack
A denial of service attack
An impersonation attack

A

A Man-in-the-Middle (MitM) attack is where a host sits between two communicating nodes, and transparently monitors, captures, and relays all communications between them.

A replay attack is where a host captures another host’s response to some server and replays that response in an effort to gain unauthorized access.

An impersonation attack is where a person will attempt to figure out a password to gain access to a host, then hijacks the authorizations to the account and masquerades as that user.

A Denial of Service (DoS) attack is where an attacker targets the availability of a service. A DoS attack might tamper with a system or try to overload it in some way.

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67
Q

A programmer’s task is to analyze a colleague’s pseudocode and make it better. What will the programmer try to do?

Make it more compact and efficient
Make it human readable
Make it compile across all platforms
Make it run faster

A

“Better” code is a matter of some judgement, but it is desirable for a program to be as compact and efficient as possible. The fewer lines of code that can be used to perform the necessary instructions, the easier the code will be to maintain and update.

The pseudocode stage is a very early stage of the process, often before the selection of the programming languages. Compiling happens at a much later stage, for programs which use a compiled language.

Pseudocode is already human-readable.

Faster execution time is part of program optimization, which happens at a much later stage of the programming process.

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68
Q

Which of the following best describes containers and identifiers?

A container is a set of constants
An identifier is a type of container
Identifiers have attributes, properties, and methods
A container is a type of identifier

A

A container is a term for a special type of identifier that can reference multiple values (or elements). One example of a container construct is a simple array.

An identifier is a way to access a program element, such as a stored value, class, method, or interface. An identifier can be a variable, a constant, or a container.

A container is a set of values, not limited to constants.

Objects have attributes, properties, and methods. An identifier can reference an object, or other types of elements which do not have attributes, properties, or methods.

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69
Q

A relational database has a table, Customers, which contains information about the company’s customers. The information includes First Name, Last Name, Address, Phone, and Email for each customer. What’s the best way to keep track of customers’ purchases in this database?

Create 2 new tables: Products and Purchases
Create a new table, Purchases, with fields “Customer”, “Date”, “Description” and “Amount”.
Extend the Customers table with new fields “PurchaseDate”, “PurchaseDescription” and “PurchaseAmount”.
Create a new table, Purchases, with fields “PurchaseDate”, “PurchaseDescription” and “PurchaseAmount”.

A

A proper relational database design has as little redundancy as possible in the data. In this example, customers can make multiple purchases, and multiple customers can purchase the same type of product. This relationship calls for a 3-table design: a list of customers, a list of products, and a cross-reference of which customers purchased which products.

A 2-table design, with a list of customers and a list of each of their purchases, means there is a duplication of product information.

A Purchases table, without a foreign key field to connect with the Customers table, is not a good relational model.

Adding new fields to the Customers table with information about a purchase creates redundancy when a Customer makes multiple purchases.

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70
Q

A laptop built a year ago is likely to have which CPU (Central Processing Unit)?

16-bit
64-bit
32-bit
128-bit

A

Most modern workstations and laptops use 64-bit CPUs.

Some budget laptop models might come with a 32-bit chip, though this is increasingly unusual.

16-bit CPUs were used several decades ago and were replaced by 32-bit CPUs. The first 32-bit CPU was introduced in 1985.

There are currently no mainstream general-purpose processors built to operate on 128-bit technology. Most modern CPUs feature Single-Instruction Multiple-Data (SIMD) instruction sets where 128-bit vector registers are used to store several smaller numbers, such as four 32-bit floating-point numbers. In other words, 128-bit processing is emulated with 32-bit or 64-bit architecture.

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71
Q

What type of access control and technology helps ensure non-repudiation, and tracks what users are doing on the network?

Authorization access
Lease privilege
Implicit deny
Accounting; logs

A

Accounting is usually provided for by logging events. This allows the accounting system to track what users are doing within the system and enforce non-repudiation.

Least privilege means that a user should be granted rights necessary to perform their job and no more.

As part of least privilege, access controls are usually founded on the principle of implicit deny. This means that unless there is a rule specifying that access should be granted (explicit authorization), any request for access is denied.

Access control or authorization models determine how users receive rights.

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72
Q

A new scanner is purchased for the office, and the technician is using a disk with driver software instead of Plug-and-Play. What is the most likely reason?

The computer is running Windows 7, which does not have Plug-and-Play.
Plug-and-Play installation did not work for this scanner model.
The scanner is wireless and therefore does not qualify for Plug-and-Play.
The technician does not have enough expertise to use Plug-and-Play.

A

Windows devices are now all Plug-and-Play (PnP). This means that when a new device is connected Windows identifies it and tries to install a device driver. When Plug-and-Play does not work, driver software may need to be installed manually before the device can be recognized.

Plug-and-Play is an automatic process and does not require any expertise to run.

Wireless devices need to be connected to the computer by adding them to the network or with a USB cable. Once the computer recognizes the device, Plug-and-Play starts automatically.

The earliest version of Windows that attempted PnP (not very successfully) is Windows 95. Windows 2000/XP provided highly improved PnP capability, and all subsequent versions, including Windows 7, have fully functional PnP.

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73
Q

A wireless network in a small home office generated poor signal quality. The signal improved when an old cordless phone stopped working. What problem did the cordless phone cause when it was active?

Bluetooth signal overlap
Attenuation
Interference
Modulation

A

Wireless radio frequency interference can be caused by many different things, including fluorescent lighting, microwave ovens, cordless phones, and heavy machinery.

Attenuation is the loss of strength of the wireless signal, and is determined by the distance between the wireless client and access point.

Modulation is the process of converting data into radio waves; it is what wireless networks use to send data.

Bluetooth uses the 2.4 GHz frequency range but a different modulation technique, so interference is not common. Even if the cordless phone was used with a Bluetooth-enabled headset, it is unlikely that the signal overlapped with the wireless network.

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74
Q

A website visitor realizes that an important notification is not showing because the browser has a pop-up blocker. What’s the best thing to do?

Use a different browser
Avoid visiting this website
Disable the pop-up blocker
Add an exception for this website

A

Most browsers have a list of exceptions, called Trusted Sites, of websites and individual web pages which are allowed to display pop-ups. Adding a trusted site is done through Settings or Options or Preferences, depending on the browser.

Disabling the pop-up blocker will have all websites with pop-ups displaying them, which can be very distracting, and interferes with a good browsing experience.

Using a different browser, one with the pop-up blocker disabled, for websites with important notifications as pop-ups, is time-consuming, and adds an unnecessary layer of complexity to web browsing.

If the problem is that an important notification is blocked, that means that the user needs to visit this website for a reason, otherwise the notification is unimportant.

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75
Q

Which of the following is the most likely example of cross-platform software?

Applciation that runs from the Chrome browser on a dell pc and safari browser on an iMac
Application that runs on a dell pc and a samsung smartphone
Application that runs on a dell pc and a samsung laptop
Application that runs on a samasung tablet and a motorola smartphone

A

A Dell PC (Personal Computer) and a Samsung smartphone do not have the same type of OS (Operating System) installed (unless they both have the Linux OS, which is unlikely). In most cases, the PC runs a version of Windows, and the smartphone has a version of Android OS. Applications that run on both of them are cross-platform.

A Dell PC and a Samsung laptop are likely to have the Windows OS. Single-platform software can work on both, even with different versions of Windows.

A Samsung tablet and a Motorola smartphone are likely to have Android OS. An app designed for just the Android OS is not cross-platform.

Web-only applications are single-platform, regardless of which browsers they support.

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76
Q

Which of the following helps to authenticate the user requesting a password reset over the telephone?

An IP address
Biometric recognition
A hardware token
Personally Identifiable Information (PII)

A

PII is often used for password reset authentication to confirm identity over the telephone.

Password-type credentials are generally seen as not providing adequate security for high-risk applications. One solution is to provide each user with a unique hardware token to prove their identity.

“Something you are” authentication means employing some sort of biometric recognition system. Many types of biometric information can be recorded, including fingerprint patterns, iris or retina recognition, or facial recognition.

An IP address can be used to refer to a logical network segment or it could be linked to a geographic location using geoip.

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77
Q

An office computer needs a new keyboard and mouse. Before ordering them, the assistant should check which ports are available, to decide which style to purchase. Which port is NOT part of the consideration?

PS/2
Bluetooth
USB
HDMI

A

HDMI (High Definition Multimedia Interface) is the most widely used graphic device interface. HDMI can be used to connect the computer to an output device, such as a monitor, but not to input devices, such as keyboard or mouse.

Historically, mice and keyboards used the PS/2 interface, which had a round connector with pins. A keyboard PS/2 port is colored purple to differentiate it from the otherwise identical mouse connector, which is color-coded green.

Modern mice and keyboards use USB (Universal Serial Bus) ports to connect to a computer. The connection can be wired or wireless via a USB dongle.

Modern mice and keyboards use Bluetooth ports for wireless connections to a computer.

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78
Q

What type of software is project management software?

Networking software
Productivity software
Collaboration software
Business software

A

Project management involves breaking a project into a number of tasks and assigning responsibilities, resources, and timescales to ensure the completion of those tasks. Specialized business software such as Microsoft Project assists with this process by visualizing task timelines and dependencies, and recording information about task properties and progress.

Productivity software refers to applications that help users complete typical office tasks. Project management is a more complex task with many functions, and requires specialized business software.

Collaboration software means that multiple users can work together on the same file or project. Working on a project is very different from managing a project, and requires different type of software.

Networking software is for administrators to deploy, manage, and monitor a network.

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79
Q

Which of the following ways best defeats social engineering?

By establishing enough trust with end-users so they will reveal secure information
Allowing access to network resources by using innocuous data
Training end-users how to identify and report suspicious activity on the network or workstation
Making sure employees directly observe other users type passwords

A

Social engineering is best defeated by training users to recognize and respond to social engineering attacks. Users should understand what constitutes secure information and know in what circumstances, if any, it should be revealed to other people.

Shoulder surfing is a social engineering attack that involves stealing a password or PIN, or other secure information, by watching the user type it.

Being convincing or establishing trust is a social engineering trick that usually depends on the attacker obtaining privileged information about the organization.

Often, malicious people can start to gain access to your network resources through the use of seemingly innocuous data.

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80
Q

Which of the following SQL (Structured Query Language) commands can run with just one parameter?

Create table
Create view
Create database
Create index

A

The CREATE DATABASE command requires just one parameter: the name of the database. Other parameters which configure the new database are optional.

The CREATE TABLE command requires the name of the table, as well as at least one column name and its specifications.

The CREATE INDEX command requires the name of the index, the table that will have the index, and which column(s) are in the index.

The CREATE VIEW command requires the name of the view, and the contents of the view, such as a query from a table with some criteria.

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81
Q

Which of the following will NOT help prevent the attachment of portable personally owned devices, such as smartphones and Universal Serial Buses (USBs)?

Endpoint security
Network access control
Data loss prevention solutions
Requiring a fob

A

The most widely implemented way to authenticate a user, based on something they have, is the smart card or Universal Serial Bus (USB) fob, which contains a chip with authentication data, such as a digital certificate.

Network access control is one way of preventing the attachment of portable devices, such as smartphones and USB sticks to corporate networks.

Endpoint security is one way of preventing the attachment of portable devices, such as smartphones and USB sticks to corporate networks.

Data loss prevention solutions are one way of preventing the attachment of portable devices, such as smartphones and USB sticks to corporate networks.

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82
Q

Who can view the contents of a text file located in the public profile?

Administrator has full access to all files in all folders
Only users who are granted permission to view the file can access it
The owner of the file can always access that file
Any user has access to files in the public profile

A

Users need to have the “read” permission on a file to view its contents.

If the owner of the file set the permissions to deny access for all users, then nobody can view the contents of the file, not even its owner or the administrator. An administrator can take ownership of the file and change the permissions.

If the permissions are set to restrict the owner from being able to read the file, then the owner cannot view the contents. The owner can change the permissions to be able to view the contents of the file.

Users have access to the public profile, but can only view the contents of files with “read” permissions granted to their accounts.

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83
Q

Which of the following is the best example of variety of data in a database?

A table with a tinyint, integer, float, and decimal fields
A table with a string, number, and date fields
A string field with data in multiple languages
A number field with values from -999,999,999,999 to 999,999,999,999

A

Databases support a wider variety of data formats than text files or spreadsheets do. String, number, and date fields offer a wide range of storage and computing formats, as well as processing capabilities.

Tinyint, integer, float, and decimal fields represent numerical data fields. They differ in how they store the data, but not enough in their computing operations.

Variety of data refers to multiple data formats, not languages. A string field has certain operations available to it, such as combining it with another string field, and the multi-language content of the field makes no difference to that.

Variety of data does not refer to a wide range of values in one data format.

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84
Q

What do the instructions in this pseudocode do?
declare Animal(9) as String
For i = 0 to 9
If i > 5 Then
Animal(i) = “dog”
Else
Animal(i) = “cat”
End If
Next

Set the first 6 elements of the array Animal to “dog”, and the rest to “cat”.
Set the first 5 elements of the array Animal to “dog”, and the rest to “cat”.
Set the first 5 elements of the array Animal to “cat”, and the rest to “dog”.
Set the first 6 elements of the array Animal to “cat”, and the rest to “dog”.

A

This pseudocode loops 10 times. It branches to set the array Animal to “dog” only when i is more than 5, which happens with values 6 through 9. For the first 6 values (0 through 5), it branches to set the array to “cat”.

If the condition was “i >= 5”, then it would set the first 5 elements of the array to “cat”, and the rest to “dog”.

If the condition was “i < 5”, then it would set the first 5 elements of the array to “dog”, and the rest to “cat”.

If the condition was “i >= 5”, then it would set the first 6 elements of the array to “dog”, and the rest to “cat”.

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85
Q

Which of these practices is unsecure as your security becomes dependent on other organizations’ security measures?

Reusing across sites
Writing down password
Shortening password expiration
Using passphrase with special characters

A

Resuing the same password on different organizations’ sites is unsecure, as your security becomes dependent on the security of these other (unknown) organizations.

Passwords should be changed periodically. Many systems can automatically enforce password expiration, meaning users have to choose a new password.

Using a long phrase, perhaps with one or two symbols and numbers mixed into it, can offer a good balance between complexity and memorability.

To maintain confidentiality, users should neither write down passwords nor share them with others. Users must keep their work passwords known only to themselves. Employees should be trained to understand what information is confidential and how to handle it correctly.

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86
Q

What type of process is the Windows Task Scheduler?

Cron job
Application
Service
Batch file

A

A service is a Windows process that runs in the background, without a window or user interaction. Task Scheduler is a service which sets up computers to run automated tasks.

An application is a program with which users interact on the desktop. Task Scheduler runs in the background, whether or not a user scheduled anything manually via its console, as many of Windows’ processes come with predefined task schedules.

A batch file is a plain-text script file, with a series of commands which are executed by the command-line interpreter. Windows built-in administration tools such as the Task Scheduler are not batch files.

The software utility cron is a time-based job scheduler in Unix and Linux computer operating systems.

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87
Q

A website visitor realizes that an important notification is not showing because the browser has a pop-up blocker. What’s the best thing to do?

Add an exception for this website
Avoid visiting this website
Use a different browser
Disable the pop-up blocker

A

Most browsers have a list of exceptions, called Trusted Sites, of websites and individual web pages which are allowed to display pop-ups. Adding a trusted site is done through Settings or Options or Preferences, depending on the browser.

Disabling the pop-up blocker will have all websites with pop-ups displaying them, which can be very distracting, and interferes with a good browsing experience.

Using a different browser, one with the pop-up blocker disabled, for websites with important notifications as pop-ups, is time-consuming, and adds an unnecessary layer of complexity to web browsing.

If the problem is that an important notification is blocked, that means that the user needs to visit this website for a reason, otherwise the notification is unimportant.

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88
Q

What is the easiest way to install a standard mouse, and configure it to use basic settings?

Get the disk with a spaced driver
Download online driver from the manufacturer
Use Control Panel/Settings
Use the Mouse app on the smartphone

A

A standard mouse does not need a special driver for installing. Basic settings can be configured using the Mouse applet in Control Panel/Settings.

To access and configure extra buttons on some mice, the manufacturer’s driver is needed. The driver is on a disk included with the mouse.

In the absence of a disk with the driver, it can usually be found online on the manufacturer’s website, and downloaded for installation. The driver is needed to access and configure extra buttons on some mice, not to install the mouse and configure basic settings.

There are apps on the smartphone which enable the smartphone to operate as a mouse, but they are not used for installing and configuring a standard mouse.

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89
Q

What does a PC (personal computer) need more of to open more programs simultaneously and work on large files more efficiently?

HDD
CPU
SDD
RAM

A

RAM (Random Access Memory) is the main storage area for programs and data when the computer is running. Having more RAM allows the PC to open more programs simultaneously and work on large files more efficiently.

RAM only works while the power is on, so when the computer is turned off, programs and data are stored on an HDD (Hard Disk Drive), a mass storage drive based on magnetic disk technology. The size of HDD does not affect efficiency of working on programs and files.

SSD (Solid State Drive) is similar to HDD, which uses a type of transistor-based memory called flash memory, so is much faster than HDD.

CPU (Central Processing Unit) is the device that runs software programs.

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90
Q

An Employee object includes the following fields: Name, Address, Phone, Age, DateOfBirth, Salary. Which of the following is NOT a good example of a method in this object?

CalculateSalesTax, which multiplies two numbers (input as variables) and returns the result to the calling program
EstimateRaise, which calculates a percentage (input as a variable) of the Salary field
UpdateAge, which subtracts DateOfBirth from today’s date and updates the Age field with that value
PrintAddressLabel, which displays the values of the Name and Address fields

A

CalculateSalesTax works with information which is not in the Employee object, so it needs to be an independent function in the program, and not a method of the Employee object.

EstimateRaise uses the Salary field of the Employee object to make a calculation which the calling program needs for its purposes. This is a good example of a method of the Employee object.

UpdateAge updates a field in the Employee object, which is the proper use for a method.

PrintAddressLabel works with multiple fields in the Employee object, and is a good example of a method.

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91
Q

What is an advantage of a relational database over a key/value pair database?

Relational databases use less memory to store the data
Relational databases support more data types
Relational databases have a less complex design structure
Relational databases have query languages to retrieve data

A

Key/value pair databases usually do not have query languages to retrieve data. They only provide some simple operations such as get, put, and delete, so any data querying (retrieving) takes place manually at the application level.

Key/value pair data does not need to have a formal structure, which means that its data model is less complex than a relational database.

Key/value pair databases do not use placeholders to store optional values, which most relational databases do. This means that key/value pair databases often use far less memory to store the same amount of data.

Key-value databases do not have any restrictions for data types. Relational databases support a wide range of data types, but not an unlimited amount.

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92
Q

A student is replacing an old computer with a new one, with the help of an external hard drive to transfer the contents of the old computer. The external hard drive arrives with an enclosure. What is the purpose of the enclosure?

The enclosure converts the external hard drive into terminal
The enclosure protects the fragile drive from water damage
The enclosure converts a 2.5” portable drive into the 3.5” desktop standard
The enclosure provides ports to connect the drive to the computer

A

The external hard drive is shipped in a special enclosure, which provides some combination of USB, Firewire, eSATA, and/or Thunderbolt ports to connect the drive to the computer.

An external hard drive can be used as an internal drive, but the special enclosure that comes with it is not used for that purpose.

External units may be designed for desk use (3.5” drives) or to be portable (2.5” drives). 3.5” drives require a separate power supply, so most external drives now use the 2.5” form factor. The enclosure that comes with the drive is not used to convert one into the other.

There are special waterproof enclosures available to protect the external drive from water damage, but most do not.

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93
Q

What is the correct SQL (Structured Query Language) command to read information from a table?

RETRIVE
SELECT
VIEW
EXTRACT

A

The SELECT command is the first building block of a query to retrieve data from a database. SQL clauses such as FROM, WHERE, and ORDER BY are other building blocks of a query statement.

Even though specifications for queries frequently use the term “retrieve”, it is not part of the SQL syntax.

EXTRACT is a SQL function which extracts a part from a given date, e.g. SELECT EXTRACT(MONTH FROM “2020-01-01”). This function is not available in all SQL versions.

A VIEW is a virtual table based on the result set of an SQL statement.

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94
Q

When does this pseudocode execute the print command?
If i == 0 XOR i != 0 Then
print “Yes”
End If

When i is not equal to 0
Always
Never
When i is equal to 0

A

XOR (Exclusive OR) evaluates if either condition is true but not both. In this example, i is always either equal to, or not equal to, 0, at different times, so the branch sequence always executes.

If the operator was AND, then the statement would always be false, because “i is equal to 0” and “i is not equal to 0” cannot be true at the same time, and the branch sequence would never execute.

If this example had only the first condition, then the branch sequence would execute when i is equal to 0.

If this example had only the second condition, then the branch sequence would execute when i is not equal to 0.

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95
Q

Which 802.11 wireless standard can use both 2.4 GHz (Gigahertz) and 5 GHz frequency bands?

802.11a
802.11ac
802.11g
802.11n

A

The 802.11n standard, available since 2009, can use either 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz frequency band and supports data rates of up to 600 Mbps (Megabits per second).

The 802.11g standard, available since 2003, uses the 2.4 GHz frequency band and supports data rates of up to 54 Mbps.

802.11a is the original standard, available since 1999. It uses the 5 GHz frequency band and supports data rates of up to 54 Mbps. 802.11a was not as widely adopted as the other standards.

802.11ac is the latest standard, available since 2013. It is widely supported, and delivers up to 1.7 Gbps throughput, but only in the 5 GHz range.

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96
Q

Why is it important to write data to a storage device, such as a hard disk?

Data stored in system memory is only preserved while the computer is powered on
Data is available for processing only when it’s on a storage device
Data on a storage device uses less space than when it’s in system memory
Data stored in system memory cannot be shown to the user

A

Writing data to storage devices, such as hard disks or optical discs, is an important step for preserving data for later use, because data stored in most types of system memory is only preserved while the computer is powered on.

Data can be processed by the CPU when it’s on a storage device or in system memory.

Data can be shown or played to the user when it’s on a storage device or in system memory.

The space used by data is determined by the content of the data, and not its location.

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97
Q

Which numbers does this pseudocode display?
declare i as Number = 10
Do While i > 0
If i < 7 Then
i = i - 1
End If
print i
i = i - 1
Loop

10, 9, 8, 7, 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
9, 7, 5, 3, 1
10, 9, 8, 7, 5, 3, 1
9, 8, 7, 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1, 0

A

-10,9,8,7,5,3,1-This pseudocode loops backwards from 10, decreasing the value of i inside the loop. Until i is less than 7, it decreases by 1, after that it decreases by 1 twice per loop (once inside the branch, and once outside the branch).

If the pseudocode did not include the branch, then every number from 10 to 1 would be printed.

If the pseudocode did not include the branch, and the print command followed the command to decrease i, then every number from 9 to 0 would be printed.

If the branch condition was always true (for example, “if i <= 10”) then only the odd numbers from 9 to 1 would be printed.

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98
Q

The systems administrator just found out that a user has been using the same password for the last two years. Which of the following password best practices should the systems administrator enforce?

Maintain confidentiality
History/Expiration
Memorability
Reuse across sites

A

Many systems can automatically enforce password expiration, meaning users have to choose a new password. Such a system may keep a history of previously used passwords to prevent users from reusing passwords.

A typical user might be faced with having to remember many logons for different services at work and on the Internet and resort to reusing the same password for each, which is unsecure.

Maintaining confidentiality means that a user should not write down a password or share it with other users.

Artificial complexity makes a password hard to remember, meaning users write them down or have to reset them often. Using a long passphrase, with symbols and numbers mixed, can offer a good balance between complexity and memorability.

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99
Q

What does this pseudocode do?
declare i as Number = 0
Do While i <= 100
i = i + 1
print i
i = i - 1
Loop

Displays numbers from 1 to 100
Produces an infinite loop
Displays number “1” 100 times
Displays numbers from 0 to 99 times

A

In this pseudocode, the variable i never changes. First it increases by 1, and then decreases by 1, so the condition to end the loop is never met. The program never stops displaying number “1”, and is stuck in an infinite loop until the system crashes or the user interrupts it.

If the pseudocode did not include “i = i - 1”, then it would display numbers from 1 to 100.

If the pseudocode did not include “i = i - 1” and the print statement was first inside the loop, then it would display numbers from 1 to 100.

The pseudocode displays number “1” an infinite number of times.

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100
Q

A web application needs to make changes to the contents of a table in a database, in response to a user’s input. What method contains the command to do that?

DCL (data control language)
DML (data manipulation language)
XML (eXtensible Markup language)
DDL (Data definition language)

A

DML (Data Manipulation Language) commands refer to SQL (Structured Query Language) commands that access or modify the contents of the database. DML commands include UPDATE, which changes the value of one or more table columns, for a specified set of rows.

DDL (Data Definition Language) commands refer to SQL commands that add to or modify the structure of the database.

DCL (Data Control Language) mainly deals with the rights, permissions, and other controls of the database system, with commands such as GRANT and REVOKE.

XML (eXtensible Markup Language) is a markup language that defines a set of rules for encoding documents in a format that is both human-readable and machine-readable.

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101
Q

What is the term for the processing speed of 1 billion cycles per second?

Bps
GHz
MHz
GBps

A

GHz stands for Gigahertz, which is 1000 million or 1 billion (1,000,000,000) cycles per second, when measuring a computer’s internal clock and the speed at which its processors work.

MHz stands for Megahertz, which is 1 million (1,000,000) cycles per second, when measuring a computer’s internal clock and the speed at which its processors work.

Bps stands for Bytes per second when measuring the rate at which data is transferred between components in the computer or between computers over a network.

GBps stands for Gigabytes per second (1,000,000,000 bytes per second) when measuring the rate at which data is transferred between components in the computer or between computers over a network.

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102
Q

What is true about firewalls?

A firewall provides a way to restrict access to a computer or network
A firewall needs to block all outside access to a computer, creating a barrier of protection around it
Firewalls are physical devices that have to be connected to the computer for protection against threats
Computers connected to the internet need to have several host firewalls running for complete protection

A

A firewall restricts access to a computer or network to a defined list of hosts and applications, by blocking or allowing specific IP (Internet Protocol) addresses and port numbers.

A firewall can be set up to block all outside access to a computer, but its purpose is to offer protection while allowing the computer to be connected to the Internet, which means that some hosts and/or applications need to be on the “approved” list.

One type of firewall is a hardware firewall, which is a dedicated appliance with the firewall installed as firmware. Other types of firewalls are software applications.

More than one host firewall running at the same time can conflict with each other.

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103
Q

Which of the following does NOT follow accepted MAC (Media Access Control) address format?

0123456789ff
a1-b2-c3-d4-e5-f6
192:168:0.10/100
1111.2222.3333

A

The MAC address, also called a hardware address, is a 48-bit value expressed in hexadecimal notation. There are several accepted formats to display the numbers in equal-sized groups, and separators include colons, hyphens, and periods. There is no accepted format with slashes or groups of unequal lengths.

The MAC address is often displayed as six groups of two hexadecimal digits with colon or hyphen separators.

MAC addresses can be displayed with no separators at all, as one 12-digit hex number.

MAC addresses can be displayed as three groups of four hex digits with period separators.

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104
Q

How is business software different from productivity software?

Business software is for a particular process, and productivity software is for general office functions.
Business software is for a particular process, and productivity software is for general office functions.
Business software is for a particular process, and productivity software is for general office functions.
Business software is for managers and executives, and productivity software is for general office staff.

A

Productivity software covers general office functions and tasks, while business software is designed to assist with a particular business process or consumer demand.

Both business and productivity software are used by managers, executives, and general office staff. An executive may use presentation software to show projections to the shareholders, while the office employees use specialized database software to generate daily reports.

Both business and productivity software are used by business owners and their employees. Specialized accounting software is used by employees in the payroll department and by small business owners to generate invoices.

Business software is designed to assist with a particular business process or consumer demand, which can fall into any category of a business, including increasing productivity.

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105
Q

What is the second step in CompTIA’s troubleshooting model?

Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem
Research knowledge base/internet, if applicable
Establish a theory of probable cause
Identify symptoms

A

It is important to know all 8 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting model in their proper order. Step 2 in CompTIA’s troubleshooting model is to research knowledge base/Internet, if applicable.

Step 1 in CompTIA’s troubleshooting model is to identify the problem. One of the six components of this step is to identify symptoms, which might not be necessary if the problem can be easily duplicated.

Step 3 in CompTIA’s troubleshooting model is to establish a theory of probable cause.

Step 5 in CompTIA’s troubleshooting model is to establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects.

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106
Q

Which file system allows a file with the name “Encyclopedia:Volume 1.txt”?

Ext4
FAT32
HFS+
NTFS

A

File systems have a number of reserved characters which cannot be used in a file name. Ext4 (4th extended file system), used by Linux distributions, only reserves the slash (/), which means that all other characters are acceptable in a file name. No system allows the slash character in their file names, as it’s used to indicate folders or subdirectories.

HFS+ (extended Hierarchical File System), used by Apple Mac computers, does not allow colons (:) in addition to the slash.

NTFS (New Technology File System) has 9 reserved characters, including the colon.

FAT32 (File Allocation Table, 32-bit version) has 16 reserved characters, including the colon.

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107
Q

Which of the following encrypts data at rest?

File-level encryption
Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS)
Secure Sockets Layer(SSL)/Transport Layer Security (TLS)
A transport encryption protocol

A

With data at rest, it is usually possible to encrypt the data using techniques such as whole disk encryption, mobile device encryption, database encryption, and file- or folder-level encryption.

With data in transit (or data in motion) data can be transmitted over a network such as communicating with a web page via HTTPS.

With data in transit (or data in motion) data can be protected by Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)/Transport Layer Security (TLS).

With data in transit (or data in motion) data can be protected by a transport encryption protocol.

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108
Q

What is the difference between the address length of IPv4 (Internet Protocol version 4) and IPv6 (Internet Protocol version 6)?

IPv4 addresses are 32 bits, and IPv6 addresses are 64 bits.
IPv4 addresses are 32 bits, and IPv6 addresses are 64 bits.
IPv4 addresses are 4 bits, and IPv6 addresses are 6 bits.
IPv4 addresses are 32 bits, and IPv6 addresses are 128 bits.

A

An IP (Internet Protocol) address is the location of any device that connects to the internet. IPv4 addresses are 32-bit numbers presented in 4 8-bit sequences, each sequence between 0 and 255. IPv6 addresses are 128-bit numbers, represented as 8 groups of 4 hexadecimal digits, each group representing 16 bits.

IPv4 addresses are 32 bits, and so was the next version, IPv5, which was created but never became an official protocol. IPv6 did not double the bits to 64.

The “4” and “6” in IPv4 and IPv6 stand for “version”, not the number of bits.

IPv4 addresses are presented in 4 groups, and IPv6 addresses are presented in 8 groups, but the total bit count is not 4 and 8.

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109
Q

How does an object store its attributes?

As a vector
As private variables
As public variables
As comments

A

Attributes are values and data types that define the object. The object stores the attributes as fields or private variables.

Other programs cannot access or change the attributes of an object directly, the way that they can with public variables.

Most programming languages support container types called vectors that can grow or shrink in size as elements are added or removed. Vectors are specialized types with their own rules and limitations, and objects do not use them to store their attributes.

Programmers use comments in code to assist with maintaining it, not for attributes of objects.

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110
Q

A computer program contains a boolean variable. What are the stored values of this variable?

0,1
FALSE, TRUE
“F”,”I”
“false”,”true”

A

Boolean data types are stored as a special numeric data type, which take up one bit. The only possible values are 0 and 1.

User-friendly constants such as FALSE and TRUE must be defined in the program prior to using them for working with boolean variables. These constants are typically defined as 0 and 1 respectively, which is how they are stored in the system.

Definitions such as “false” or “true” are of string data type, using several bytes of storage instead of one bit that boolean data types use.

Definitions such as “F” or “T” are of char data type, using one byte of storage instead of one bit that boolean data types use.

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111
Q

Why do companies pay for a software license subscription plan instead of a less expensive one-time purchase?

One-time purchases do not include full-feature upgrades
One-time purchases are for only one computer installation
One-time purchases do not include customer support
One-time purchases provide a limited-time use of the software

A

With a one-time purchase of a software license, subsequent upgrades normally involve a new license fee. One-time license holders typically receive incremental upgrades and security fixes, but not full-feature upgrades. With subscription-based licensing, organizations pay a per-user monthly fee to get access to the software, with full-feature upgrades as part of the subscription.

The one-time purchase of a software license grants perpetual use of the software to the buyer, but without full-feature upgrades, so after a period of time, the software becomes outdated.

One-time purchases of licenses can be for group use, with installations on a specified number of devices or user seats.

The one-time purchase of a software license includes full customer support.

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112
Q

In a SQL (Structured Query Language) command, what does the WHERE clause determine in the result set?

The number of tables
the number of columns
The number of rows
The number of fields

A

With the WHERE clause, an SQL command (such as SELECT, UPDATE, or DELETE) extracts only those records, or rows, that fulfill a condition.

The WHERE clause does not affect the number of columns. SELECT and UPDATE commands list the columns which the SQL statement processes, for the rows that fulfill the condition in the WHERE clause.

Fields are the same as columns, and the WHERE clause does not affect them.

The WHERE clause can include tables in the condition. For example, if the SQL statement involves more than one table, then the WHERE clause contains the logic to connect them. But the result set is only the records, or rows, that fulfill the condition in the WHERE clause.

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113
Q

Data encryption, firewalls, and backups are examples of what?

Data breach
Security controls
Intellectual property
Data capture

A

Security controls are designed to prevent, deter, detect, and/or recover from attempts to view or modify data without authorization. Typical examples of security controls include backups, access control, data encryption, and firewalls.

Data breach is when private data is exposed publicly without authorization. Preventing data breach is one of the reasons for having security controls in place.

Data capture refers to collection of data points from many different sources as part of data analytics.

Intellectual property refers to information assets, such as patents, which need to be protected from theft.

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114
Q

A user wants the easiest and most secure way to prevent websites from discovering the IP (Internet Protocol) address of the computer. What should the user do?

Switch to incognito mode
Go into private browsing mode
Use a virtual private network
Use an SSL proxy

A

For fully “anonymous” browsing, the user needs to use a VPN (Virtual Private Network) which is a software service that encrypts the data sent to and from the internet and routes it through a VPN server in another location, so that websites see the server’s IP address. Most VPN’s do not require extra configuration.

Proxies hide the device’s IP address from websites, but an SSL proxy typically lacks the encryption and other security features offered by VPNs. Proxies also usually require extra configuration.

In private mode, the browser doesn’t store cookies or temporary files, but the browser does send some information to the website, such as the computer’s IP address.

Incognito mode is the same as private browsing mode.

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115
Q

What’s a true statement about markup languages?

Markup languages are not programming languages
Markup languages are not human-readable
Markup languages are only used to program web pages
Markup languages can only be used on one platform

A

A markup language is not a programming language but a means of making data in a document accessible to a program. A markup language, such as HTML (HyperText Markup Language) or XML (eXtensible Markup Language), defines a series of nested tags that describe the structure and/or meaning of the tag contents.

Human-readable data is encoded as text, and machine-readable data (machine code) is the binary representation. Markup language documents contain text data.

Markup language documents are used by programming languages on different platforms.

Web pages can display HTML files, but in general, markup language documents present data to programs for processing. These programs include web pages and applications, as well as locally installed applications on other platforms.

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116
Q

What is the difference between WPA (Wi-Fi Protected Access) and WPA2 wireless encryption standards?

WPA2 uses Rivest Cipher
WPA2 uses Advanced Encryption Standard
WPA2 uses Temporal key integrity protocol
WPA2 uses captive portals

A

The main difference between WPA and WPA2 is the use of the AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) cipher for encryption. AES is much stronger than the ciphers used by the other standards, WPA and WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy).

WEP is an older standard which uses the weak RC4 (Rivest Cipher), and should only be used for encryption if there is an issue of compatibility with legacy devices and software.

WPA uses the same weak RC4 cipher as WEP but adds a mechanism called TKIP (Temporal Key Integrity Protocol) to make it stronger.

A captive portal is a secondary authentication mechanism managed via a browser, when open authentication is required, such as on a public access point.

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117
Q

The person reporting a problem is likely to be the main source of information about it. However, if this is insufficient to successfully troubleshoot, what is a good next step to take?

Use a product knowledge base
Escalate the problem
View log files
Suggest workarounds

A

If the information provided about the problem is insufficient to successfully troubleshoot, the next step is to consider other sources, such as viewing system, application, or network log files, or monitoring other support requests to identify similar problems.

Once sufficient information is gathered, then it may be necessary to use a product Knowledge Base or a web/Internet search tool to research the symptoms.

If none of the available resources are sufficient to diagnose or resolve the problem, it may be necessary to escalate it.

If one troubleshooting method does not yield results, it may be time to suggest workarounds which can provide a way for the user to continue to work with the system while the problem is being resolved.

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118
Q

Which backup storage type best helps mitigate against critical data loss in the risk of fire or theft?

Locally attached storage
Cloud-based storage backup
Test restore
System backup

A

Offsite/cloud-based is backing up data over the Internet to cloud-based storage. Keeping offsite copies of data is very important in mitigating against the risk of fire or theft.

Locally attached storage uses hard disks or flash drives attached to a local PC or server. Hard disks or flash drives can be stolen or destroyed.

A system backup is an operating system (OS) backup that makes a copy of the OS and installed applications so that a workstation or server can be recovered without having to manually reinstall software and reconfigure settings.

A test restore is important when using new backup software, to test old backup media, to check a new job, and to carry out random spot checks.

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119
Q

What uses the same physical interface as MiniDP (mini DisplayPort format)

Mini HDMI
THunderbolt
DisplayPort
Micro HDMI

A

The Thunderbolt interface is primarily used on Apple workstations and laptops. Thunderbolt can be used as a display interface and as a general peripheral interface. In its first two versions, Thunderbolt uses the same physical interface as MiniDP. Thunderbolt ports are distinguished from MiniDP by a lightning bolt icon.

DisplayPort uses a 20-pin connector. The Mini DisplayPort (MiniDP or mDP) is a miniaturized version of DisplayPort developed by Apple.

HDMI uses a proprietary 19-pin connector, as does its miniaturized version, Mini HDMI, frequently used on portable devices, such as camcorders.

Micro HDMI, an even smaller connector than Mini HDMI, also has 19 pins.

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120
Q

When using web search engines, why should privacy considerations affect a user’s decisions?

A user’s web searches prevent companies from using targeted advertisements.
A user’s web history skews sales and marketing trends amongst consumers
A user’s private data can appear in web searches.
A user’s web searches can reveal very valuable information.

A

Privacy considerations should affect your choice of Internet Service Provider (ISP) and web search engines. Your browsing and search history reveal an enormous amount of very valuable personal information.

If you make something public accidentally, it can be very difficult to stop people from continuing to publish it elsewhere. Public data can be archived and continue to appear in web searches.

Information about individual consumers gleaned from web search and social media histories allows for personalized advertising.

Large data sets, such as web searches and social media histories, can be used to identify trends, and develop products and services to meet changing demands and interests.

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121
Q

Which protocol supports interactive mechanisms GET and POST?

SMTP
IMAP
HTTP
POP3

A

HTTP (HyperText Transfer Protocol) is used for rendering web pages, and features forms mechanisms GET and POST which allow a user to submit data from the client (user’s device) to the server (where the website is being processed).

POP3 (Post Office Protocol v3) is used for retrieving email messages to the user’s mail client software (such as Microsoft Outlook). With POP3, the messages are usually deleted from the server when they are downloaded.

IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) is used for retrieving email messages to the user’s mail client software, allowing the client to manage the mailbox on the server.

SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is used to deliver email messages to the email server of the recipient.

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122
Q

If a password is short and non-complex, what type of attack can it be vulnerable to?

Malware
Man-in-the-middle (MitM)
Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS)
Brute Force

A

If a password is short (under seven characters) and non-complex (using only letters for instance), a password might be cracked in minutes via brute force.

Denial of Service (DoS) is where an attacker targets the availability of a service. A DoS attack might tamper with a system or overload it. A Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) uses hosts compromised with bot malware to launch a coordinated attack against a web service.

It is possible to capture cleartext password packets in transit via a Man-in-the-Middle (MitM) attack.

Malware is malicious software threats and tools designed to vandalize or compromise computer systems.

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123
Q

The direct database access method is the best method to run which SQL (Structured Query Language) command?

Update
Grant
Select
Insert

A

Direct access provides tools for database administrators to run SQL commands. They can run commands, which interact with the data or perform database administration tasks. The GRANT command assigns permissions on database objects to users, so the database access methods for non-administrative users should not run it.

Applications with utility or programmatic access use the UPDATE command to make changes to specific records, without risk to the rest of the database.

Applications with utility or programmatic access use the INSERT command to add new information into the database.

All database access methods use the SELECT command to retrieve data for processing, as well as to run queries/reports.

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124
Q

What is the fastest downlink speed that the typical cable Internet service providers offer to their customers?

100 Mbps
24 Mbps
1.2 Gbps
52 Mbps

A

Most cable service providers offer downlink Internet connection speeds of up to about 100 Mbps in their premium packages.

Cable based on the DOCSIS (Data Over Cable Service Interface Specification) version 3.0 supports downlink speeds of up to about 1.2 Gbps, but cable service providers do not normally offer that to their customers.

Residential DSL services support downlink speeds of up to 24 Mbps.

VDSL (Very High Bit Rate DSL), which is implemented by fiber optic services as part of the FTTC (Fiber to the Curb) solution, supports downlink speeds of up to 52 Mbps.

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125
Q

A senior manager of a regional office branch needs a payroll report of all staff, to calculate next year’s budget. Which program is NOT useful for that?

Database software
Project management software
Spreadsheet software
Accounting software

A

Project management software assists with the process of breaking a project into a number of tasks and assigning responsibilities, resources, and timescales to ensure the completion of those tasks. It is not designed for generating payroll reports.

Accounting software is the best way to generate payroll reports. Accounting programs contain ready-made reports which calculate and display payroll data in the most frequently used formats. Reports can also be easily customized to fit most business needs.

Database programmers can use database software to create custom reports from the data stored in the database.

Payroll data can be stored in a spreadsheet, or imported from a database or accounting software into a spreadsheet, and displayed in report format.

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126
Q

Why would a locally installed application store data files in a user folder and not the application folder?

To separate the data layer from the application layer

To be able to uninstall the application without deleting the data files

For faster backups of the data files

To prevent users from modifying application folders

A

Data files manipulated by the application can be stored on the local disk, usually in a user folder rather than the application folder. Ordinary users should not be able to modify application folders, for security reasons.

Data and application layers are terms used in database application architecture models, to describe the way that the application interacts with the database. Data files used by the application are not in this category.

If the data files are part of the database uninstall process, they get deleted regardless of their location.

Data files can be backed up regardless of their location, with no impact on the speed of the process.

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127
Q

What is the difference between a password and a passphrase?

A passphrase is shorter than a password, but easier to remember
A passphrase is shorter than a password, but more difficult to remember
A passphrase is longer than a password, and easier to remember
A passphrase is longer than a password, but more difficult to remember

A

A passphrase is a longer password comprising several words. This has the advantages of being more secure and easier to remember.

A passphrase is a longer password comprising several words. While a passphrase is easier to remember than a password, a passphrase is longer than a password.

A passphrase is a longer password comprising several words. While a passphrase is longer than a password, it is easier to remember than a password.

A passphrase is a longer password comprising several words. A passphrase is longer than a password, and easier to remember.

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128
Q

What is an example of using a locally installed application without network access?

Using Microsoft Outlook to check email
Using Apple iTunes to listen to a podcast
Using the Intuit Quicken banking application to pay bills
Using Microsoft Word to write a letter to

A

A locally installed application does not need network access to run, but the network has to be present if the application makes use of network features. Using Microsoft Word to write a letter does not require network connection.

Checking email requires an Internet connection. If done from an application like Outlook, it needs network connection to download messages from the email server.

Quicken is a personal finance management tool. It does many tasks locally, like budget reports, but it needs Internet connection to send a banking institution the instructions for paying bills.

iTunes is a media library and player. It can play locally stored music files, but needs to be connected to the Internet to play or download a podcast.

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129
Q

A complex software application collects requests from general users for certain sets of data through a form, connects to a Microsoft SQL (Structured Query Language) Server database with ODBC (Open Database Connectivity), submits the criteria for the data query, receives the results, and displays them to the users as a report on the screen. Which combination of database access methods best describes this process?

Direct access and query builder
Manual access and utility access
User interface and programmatic access
Programmatic access and report builder

A

-User Interface and programmatic access-A GUI (Graphical User Interface) is how software applications allow users access to databases. Programmatic access is when the application interacts with the database through SQL commands. This is the typical combination of database-driven software applications.

Direct access provides tools for database administrators to run SQL commands, while non-technical users can interact closely with the database with the help of query builders.

Like direct access, manual access is for database administrators, and utility access is when an application uses a database in the background without users being aware of its presence.

Report builders have their own basic GUI and utility access to retrieve the data. Complex applications typically use their own custom programming functions for the GUI and programmatic access.

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130
Q

Which document contains the information about how the software vendor will use any data that the software gathers and processes?

Software installation best practices
Software agreement
Software usage best practices
Software instructions

A

An important aspect of a software agreement is how the software vendor will use, store, and retain any data that the software gathers and processes.

Software instructions are the accompanying documentation of software programs, with instructions for using the program. They also include any special installation instructions or known issues.

Software installation best practices advise the users to read the accompanying documentation to verify software and hardware compatibility with the user’s system, as well as ensuring the presence of a valid agreement or license to install and use the product.

Software usage best practices is not a specific document or part of standard operating procedure. Software instructions usually include recommendations for best practices when using the specific software.

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131
Q

A manager requests to see the information on all of the company’s customers, listed by geographical regions, with the totals of purchases made by each customer. What is the best tool to produce this list?

Query
Report
Input form
Flat file

A

A report is a means of formatting and summarizing the records returned by a query. Reports are the best tools for presenting complex or large amount of data in customizable ways.

A query allows the user to specify criteria and choose which fields to display in the results, which is more useful than seeing all of the data in the table. However, a query might return a large number of rows and be just as difficult to read as a table.

A flat file does not present data in an organized format or provide calculations of total amounts.

An input form is a means of getting data into a database, or to specify criteria to run a report.

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132
Q

What should a company that’s trying to promote its goods and services have on its name and/or logo to protect it from imitators?

Firewall
Patent
Copyright
Trademark

A

If a company wants to promote its goods, it will normally trademark its name and/or logo. A trademark must be distinctive within the industry in which the company is selling goods and services.

Copyright is legal protection granted to certain types of work that is typically in the domain of publishing, such as books, films, plays, computer software, games, and artwork.

A patent is legal protection for some kind of invention.

A firewall is used in network security to control how hosts and network applications are accessible to one another. It is used for protecting data, not a company name.

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133
Q

A company has 100 employees, who work in 2 shifts. Half of the employees work during standard business hours, and the other half work at night. All 100 employees have their own desktop computers with an installation of a proprietary software program, which they use on a daily basis. What type of software license makes the most sense for this company?

Group Use
Single Use
Site license
Concurrent license

A

A concurrent license means that a set maximum number of users use the software at one time. Companies with users who use the software at different times can get a concurrent license, which costs less than other licenses for the same number of installations.

A site license means that the company can install the software on an agreed number of computers. A site license for 100 computers likely costs more than a concurrent license for 50 users.

Group use has the same provisions as a site license.

A single use license means that only one computer can use the software. 100 single use licenses cost more than a concurrent license for 50 users or a site license for 100 computers.

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134
Q

How many different values can original, non-extended ASCII (American Standard Code for Information Interchange) express?

128
10
256
26

A

ASCII was designed in 1963 using seven bits, which was a significant cost saving over using eight bits. Seven bits of binary can express 128 different values (0 through 127).

Modern systems use eight bits instead of seven, giving rise to extended ASCII which can express 256 values, but the original non-extended ASCII can only express 128 values.

While the English language has 26 letters, ASCII contains much more, including 2 sets of the English alphabet (uppercase and lowercase), 10 digits (0 to 9), and special characters.

Decimal notation contains 10 values (0 to 9), which is included in ASCII, as are letters (uppercase and lowercase) and special characters.

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135
Q

An office building is using a Wi-Fi access point. The computer used to configure the access point’s device options is located on the other side of the building. What does a technician need to make it work?

Move the access point closer to the computer
A longer cable to connect the computer to the access point
Move the computer closer to the access point
IP address of the web configuration page

A

Some devices are not connected to the computer via a peripheral port but accessed over a network. The device vendor provides an IP (Internet Protocol) address to open a web configuration page in a browser, where the device options can be set.

It is possible to have a cable that runs through an entire building, installed in ways that keep it from being a safety hazard. With wireless networking, it is no longer necessary to have such elaborate, and often costly, ways of connecting devices.

Moving the computer closer to the access point is not always feasible.

Moving the access point closer to the computer is not necessary. Considerations for access point placement are different from those for computer placement.

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136
Q

If the password policy for a company requires a user to authenticate with a smart card certification as well as with a PIN, what is this type of authentication?

A software token
Single-factor authentication
Single sign-on (SSO)
Multifactor

A

Multifactor authentication is strong and combines the use of authentication schemes that work on the basis of something you know, something you have, or something you are.

Single Sign-On (SSO) means that a user only has to authenticate to a system once to gain access to its resources. The disadvantage is that compromising the account also compromises multiple services.

Single-factor authentication systems can easily be compromised: a password could be written down or shared, a smart card lost or stolen, and a biometric system could be subject to high error rates.

A software token is an example of an authentication factor of something you have and is generated by an application and stored on the user’s device as a cookie.

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137
Q

An older digital camera without wireless networking support is malfunctioning, so the photos need to be backed up to the computer. Which port on the computer can the camera owner use?

HDMI
Black 3.5mm jack
USB
Pink 3.5mm jack

A

A digital camera stores images on a flash memory-based card. There are a number of ways to transfer the images stored on the card from the camera to the computer, including connecting the camera to a USB port, which mounts the camera storage as a Windows drive and the pictures can be copied or moved using Explorer.

HDMI (High Definition Multimedia Interface) is for graphic displays such as a monitor. Even though digital cameras have screens, in this case they are used for data input, not output.

3.5mm jacks are used to connect audio. The pink jack is for the microphone (audio input).

The black 3.5mm jack is for rear speakers in a surround sound system (audio out).

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138
Q

What’s a true statement about compiled programming languages?

Compiled programming languages are not as efficient at runtime as interpreted languages.
Compiled programming languages are not human-readable.
Compiled programming languages have to transform the code to an executable binary.
Compiled programming languages only work on one platform.

A

The code in a compiled programming language needs to transform to an executable binary before it can run. This is the process of compiling, which converts the source code into machine code. The CPU (Central Processing Unit) can only process machine code.

A compiled program can run on multiple platforms, as long as the source code recompiles for each platform.

Compiled programs generally run quickly, compared to interpreted code.

Human-readable data is encoded as text, and machine-readable data (machine code) is the binary representation. The source code of compiled programming languages is human-readable, and the compiled executable binary is machine-readable.

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139
Q

A workstation experiences slowdowns while running Microsoft Word. The program does not respond to attempts to close it, therefore the user executes the Task Manager utility to quit the program. What does this fall under?

Process management
device management
Disk management
Service management

A

The application code executes programs in memory as a process, which is the main unit governing a program and managing the memory resources allocated to it by the OS (Operating System). Killing the program, or ending the task, can be done in the Task Manager utility under the Processes tab.

Disk management refers to operations such as formatting drives and partitioning disks, which allow a single disk to be divided into multiple drives.

Device management is for adapters and peripheral components, not application programs.

A service is a Windows process that does not require any sort of user interaction and thus runs in the background (without a window). Microsoft Word is not a service.

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140
Q

A home office with 3 networks uses devices, which include 2 desktops, 4 laptops, 5 smartphones, 3 tablets, and a wireless printer. What device switches the communications between the wired and wireless networks in this office?

Router
Access point
Switch
Modem

A

An access point creates a Wi-Fi wireless network between computers and mobile devices equipped with suitable adapters, and also switches communications between the wired and wireless networks.

A switch connects four or eight computers together in an Ethernet LAN (Local Area Network) using RJ-45 network ports and twisted-pair cabling.

A modem connects the wired and wireless network clients to the Internet via a WAN (Wide Area Network) link, by transmitting frames across the WAN link.

A router connects the wired and wireless network clients to the Internet via a WAN link, by forwarding packets between the local network and the Internet.

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141
Q

What is the advantage of using DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) over fiber optic in a SOHO (Small Office Home Office)?

DSL supports faster uplink speeds
DSL cables perform better over long distances
DSL supports faster downlink speeds
DSL is more easily available to individual homes

A

DSL works over an ordinary telephone line, providing the line is of sufficient quality. Providing a fiber cable all the way to customer premises requires substantial investment by the telecom providers and is not widely available.

Residential DSL services support uplink speeds of up to 1.4 Mbps. Fiber optic services use VDSL (Very High Bit Rate DSL) which supports an uplink of up to 16 Mbps.

Residential DSL services support downlink speeds of up to 24 Mbps. VDSL supports a downlink of up to 52 Mbps.

Fiber optic cables perform much better than DSL over long distances and are not affected by noise in the way that affects electrical signals over copper cable.

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142
Q

What are the four functions which represent most of the ways that data moves through a computer system?

Input, output, processing, storage
Addition, subtraction, division, multiplication
Automation, replication, optimization, recovery
Typing, editing, copyrighting, printing,

A

Computers operate through these four functions: input (the intake of information into the system), output (the presentation of information to the user), processing (the manipulation of information into a new form), and storage (the preservation of information for later use).

Typing, editing, copying, and printing are functions related to documents, which is a small part of what computer systems are used for.

Addition, subtraction, division, and multiplication are arithmetic functions. Computer systems have much greater capabilities beyond these basic operations.

Automation, replication, optimization, and recovery are functions of data management, not the entire functionality of a computer system.

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143
Q

A guest at a friend’s home needs to use the friend’s computer for a few hours to browse the Internet and send out some emails. The browser has many extensions and plug-ins which slow down page loading. What should the guest do with the add-ons?

Uninstall
Block
Disable
Remove

A

The guest is borrowing the computer, so the action needs to be unintrusive. Disabling the add-ons is something that can be reversed quickly, by enabling them once the guest is done using the computer.

Removing the add-ons means that the guest should add them back later, in case the friend who owns the computer needs them. The guest needs to remember these add-ons, because removing them clears them out of the browser’s settings. Disabling them leaves them in the system, and enabling them again is very easy.

Removing the add-ons means uninstalling them, which is not the best course of action.

Some browsers have settings to block the installation of new add-ons. It will not affect already installed add-ons.

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144
Q

What storage technology do SSDs (Solid State Drives) use?

Magnetic tape
Flash memory
Optical drive
Spinning disk

A

SSDs (Solid State Drives) are designed to replicate or supplement the function of the hard drive. Solid state storage uses a type of non-volatile memory technology called flash memory.

HDD (Hard Disk Drives) host data that is encoded magnetically on specially coated glass or plastic platters accessed by drive heads. The platters are spun at very high speeds, giving rise to the term “spinning disk” drive.

A tape drive is a data storage device that reads and writes data on a magnetic tape. Magnetic tape data storage is typically used for offline, archival data storage.

Disc-based storage formats for consumer multimedia (music and video) are called “optical” drives because a laser is used to read data from the discs.

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145
Q

When a user has multiple passwords for different services, which of the following can help prevent the user from having to remember all of these passwords or from using the same password for each service?

The IT department resetting passwords
Reusing passwords across multiple sites
A short password history
Password managers

A

Various hardware and software password managers or “fillers” can store passwords for multiple accounts. Users only have to remember one “master” password and prevent the use of the same password for different services.

Reusing a password for different services prevents the user from having to remember different passwords but it is unsecure; your security becomes dependent on the security of other (unknown) organizations.

A system may keep a history of previously used passwords and prevent the user from choosing the same one again but not from writing down the passwords.

If a note containing a password is lost, the IT department should be informed to reset the password quickly. This will not stop users from writing down passwords.

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146
Q

In addition to making a copy of an entire database, a program can invoke the SQL (Structured Query Language) BACKUP command to work at which level?

Record
Field
Application
Table

A

Most database management systems provide stored procedures that invoke the BACKUP and RESTORE commands at a database or table level.

The BACKUP command does not work at the field level. If some fields need to have a backup without the entire table, the administrator can make another version of the table with just those fields, and use the BACKUP command on the new table.

The BACKUP command does not work at the record level. If some records need to have a backup without the entire table, the administrator can make another version of the table with just those records, and use the BACKUP command on the new table.

Applications are collections of programming code, and not part of a database.

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147
Q

When does this pseudocode execute the print command?
If i == 0 AND i != 0 Then
print “Yes”
End If

When i is not equal to 0
Never
When i is equal to 0
Always

A

With the AND operator, both conditions must be true at the same time. In this example, the first condition of “i is equal to 0”, and the second condition of “i is not equal to 0”, cannot be true at the same time, so the branch sequence never executes.

If the operator was OR, then the whole statement would be true at all times, since i is always either equal to, or not equal to, 0.

If this example had only the first condition, then the branch sequence would execute when i is equal to 0.

If this example had only the second condition, then the branch sequence would execute when i is not equal to 0.

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148
Q

A web browser is an example of productivity software. What type of software is an email client?

Productivity software
Collaboration software
Open source software
Business software

A

With collaboration software, multiple users can work together on the same file or project. Email software allows users to compose, send, and receive messages from others, and is considered to be collaboration software.

Productivity software refers to applications that help users complete typical office tasks. A web browser can be used for information and research, and is considered to be productivity software.

Specialized business software is designed to assist with a particular business process or consumer demand, not general office functions and tasks covered by productivity software.

Open source software makes the program code used to design it available to the public. There are open source email clients, as well as those with proprietary code.

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149
Q

A home network needs its second printer set as the default printer. The computer runs Windows 10 version 1809. Which page contains the relevant options to complete the setup?

Settings/Devices
Device drivers
Device manager
Devices and printers

A

In Windows 10 version 1803 and newer, the location for the basic user-configurable settings for peripheral devices is the Devices page within the Settings app.

In Windows 7, Windows 8, and early versions of Windows 10, Devices and Printers is the location for the basic user-configurable settings for peripheral devices attached to the computer.

Device Manager is the page used to perform functions such as updating device drivers or uninstalling devices, not setting a device to be the default.

Device Drivers is not a page in Windows. Drivers are accessed from the Device Manager page.

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150
Q

What type of programming language has the fastest execution time?

Markup
Scripting
Scripted
Compiled

A

Compiling converts the source code into machine code, which is strings of ones and zeros for the CPU to process. This conversion takes place prior to the execution of the program, resulting in fast execution time compared to interpreted code.

Scripting languages are interpreted languages, which means that the programs run within the context of an interpreter. The interpreter’s process adds to the overhead of running the program, resulting in slower execution time than compiled programs.

Scripted languages are interpreted languages, and they have the same execution process as scripting languages.

A markup language is not a programming language but a means of making data in a document accessible to a program.

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151
Q

What is the bandwidth available to the memory controller, in MBps (megabytes per second), if the SDRAM (Synchronous Dynamic Random Access Memory) bus is running at 100 MHz (megahertz)?

1600
6400
800
100

A

SDRAM has a 64-bit data bus, meaning that in each clock cycle, 64 bits of information can be delivered to the CPU. If the bus is running at 100 MHz, the bandwidth available to the memory controller is 100*64 or 6400 megabits per second. To calculate the bandwidth in MBps, this number is divided by 8 and equals 800 MBps.

The calculation is 6400 Mbps (megabits per second), which needs to be divided by 8 to determine MBps (megabytes per second).

100 MHz is the speed at which the bus is running, not the available bandwidth in MBps.

1600 would be the correct answer if the question was about DDR SDRAM (Double Data Rate Synchronous Dynamic Random Access Memory).

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152
Q

Convert the decimal number 35 into binary notation.

100011
100101
1000001
11111

A

Binary numbers can be calculated from right to left, with each position being worth twice the previous one. 100011 is 1 * 1 + 1 * 2 + 0 * 4 + 0 * 8 + 0 * 16 + 1 * 32 = 35.

11111 is 1 * 1 + 1 * 2 + 1 * 4 + 1 * 8 + 1 * 16 = 31. Alternately, it can be calculated as 100000 - 1, or 32 - 1 = 31.

100101 is 1 * 1 + 0 * 2 + 1 * 4 + 0 * 8 + 0 * 16 + 1 * 32 = 37.

1000001 is 1 * 1 + 0 * 2 + 0 * 4 + 0 * 8 + 0 * 16 + 0 * 32 + 1 * 64 = 65.

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153
Q

Which feature of IoT (Internet of Things) for motor vehicles uses a component of IoT home automation?

Black box
Parking assist
Sat-nav
In-vehicle entertainment

A

IoT for motor vehicles include embedded systems for in-vehicle entertainment, which share major elements with IoT home automation’s streaming media. Their function is to play content stored on a storage device through smart speakers and screens.

Embedded in-vehicle sat-nav (Satellite Navigation) uses GPS (Global Positioning Systems) to identify the vehicle’s precise location. There is no need for this in IoT home automation.

Some vehicles are now fitted with a “black box”, which is an event data recorder that can log the car’s telemetry (acceleration, braking, and position). There is no need for this in IoT home automation.

There are now sophisticated systems to control the vehicle on behalf of the driver, including automatic collision detection and avoidance, and parking assist.

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154
Q

What does bps measure?

Throughput rate
Processing speed
Display resolution
HDD performance

A

When data is transferred between components in the computer or between computers over a network, the throughput rate that a connection can sustain is measured in bits per second (bps).

The speed at which a computer’s processors work (processing speed) is measured in units of time called Hertz (Hz). 1 Hz represents one cycle per second.

The display resolution of a computer monitor or display device is measured in pixels.

Hard Disk Drive (HDD) performance is partially determined by the speed at which the disks can spin, measured in revolutions per minute (RPM).

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155
Q

Which of the following encrypts data in motion?

Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)/Transport Layer Security (TLS)
Folder-level encryption
Whole disk encryption
Database encryption

A

With data in transit (or data in motion), data can be protected by a transport encryption protocol, such as Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)/Transport Layer Security (TLS).

With data at rest in persistent storage media, it is usually possible to encrypt data using techniques such as whole disk encryption.

With data at rest in persistent storage media, it is usually possible to encrypt data using techniques such as database encryption.

With data at rest in persistent storage media, it is usually possible to encrypt data using techniques such as file- or folder-level encryption.

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156
Q

If a system goes down, which of these will NOT help recover from data loss due to a natural disaster?

Restoring the date from file backups
Implementing a Redundant Array of Independent Risks (RAID)
Replication between data centers
Syncing the data

A

Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) is not a substitute for backups. A disaster, such as a fire, that destroys the whole array will result in total data loss without a backup.

To guard against data loss from a natural disaster, you must consider implementing service and data replication between multiple data centers.

If a system goes down, if a component or system is not available, redundancy means that the service can failover to the backup either seamlessly or with minimum interruption. Data can either be restored from backup or by switching over to another system, to which data has been replicated.

To guard against data loss from a natural disaster, data should be synchronized between servers and between sites.

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157
Q

Which of the following helps protect against dangerous unsolicited email file attachment threats?

Using anti-malware
Disabling unused features
Locking the computer with a physical lock
Removing unwanted/unnecessary software

A

Performing regular system updates and using anti-malware software will protect against many malicious file attachment threats. Unsolicited file attachments should be confirmed with the sender first.

Any features, services, or network protocols that are not used should be disabled to reduce the attack surface of a network device or OS for applications that are already installed on the device.

New computers ship with a large amount of pre-installed software, often referred to as bloatware. These applications should be removed if they are not going to be used.

Most device exploits depend on the attacker having physical access to the unit. However, some vulnerabilities, such as unsolicited email file attachments, can be exploited over a network link.

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158
Q

Why do laptops use a heat spreader instead of heatsinks in their cooling system?

Heatsinks are bulky object with a lot of height
Heatsinks are too expensive and reserved for high-end systems
Heatsinks require a lot of extra electricity to run
Heatsinks are filled with liquid and not conducive to laptop mobility

A

Heatsinks are bulky objects with a lot of height, and cannot be used in computers with thin cases. Computers with thin cases, such as laptops, use a heat spreader, which is less bulky than other cooling systems.

Heatsinks are not more expensive than heat spreaders, and are used in many types of computers, including budget models.

A heatsink is a passive cooling device. Passive cooling means that it does not require extra energy (electricity) to work.

A heatsink is a block of metal with fins, and not a liquid-based cooling system.

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159
Q

What is a true statement about interpreters and interpreted programming languages?

Interpreted programming languages can run on any platform
An interpreter converts machine code into a human readable format
Interpreted programming languages only run on one platform
An interpreter converts the program into machine code at runtime

A

With interpreted languages, the program does not need to compile prior to running. It runs within the context of an interpreter, which is a computer program that directly executes instructions written in an interpreted programming language. Interpreter code is usually in a lower-level language than the programs that they interpret, for better performance.

The tools which convert machine code into a human-readable format are called disassemblers or decompilers, not interpreters.

Interpreted programming languages can run on platforms for which there is an interpreter.

Interpreted programming languages can run on a variety of platforms, as long as there is a corresponding interpreter.

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160
Q

A user’s Windows 8 laptop has the latest version of the Safari browser. The user tries to use a web application and receives a message that the browser does not support all features. What is the best course of action?

Upgrade to the Windows 10 operating system to see if it works there.
Wait until the next version of Safari comes out, in the hope that it will be fully supported.
Find a different web application that performs the same functions.
Install the browser which is fully supported by the application.

A

While the mainstream browsers are more standards-based than they used to be, compatibility problems can still arise. Computers may need to have more than one browser installed, in case a web application is not fully supported by the preferred browser.

Finding another web application that performs the same functions is not always possible, nor is it necessary. Running the preferred web application from a different browser that’s fully supported is much simpler.

Waiting until the next version of the preferred browser comes out can take months, and there is no guarantee of added compatibility with web applications.

Upgrading to the Windows 10 operating system takes extra work, include a learning curve for new features, and requires re-installation of many programs.

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161
Q

Which term refers to technologies that help ensure data is available in the event of hardware failure?

Data exfiltration
Access control system
Fault tolerance
Data capture

A

Temporary loss of access to data can lead to high costs for an organization, such as a banking institution not having access to financial transactions. Technologies that enable them to ensure their data is available in the event of one or several failures of hardware or software components within their infrastructure are referred to as fault tolerance.

Data capture refers to collection of data points from many different sources as part of data analytics.

Access control system is a way to control access to stored data, using methods such as user or group-based permission assignments and usage restrictions (read-only vs. edit).

Data exfiltration is when an attacker removes data from a network without authorization.

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162
Q

Which notation is a more efficient method to express large numbers?

Octal
Decimal
Hexadecimal
Binary

A

With hexadecimal notation system, 16 numbers can be expressed using a single digit from 0 to F, resulting in fewer digits for large numbers.

Binary notation system uses 2 values: 0 and 1, which works well with computers to represent the off/on states of transistors but uses many digits to represent large numbers.

Octal notation system uses digits from 0 to 7. Octal was widely used in legacy computing platforms but is not as efficient for expressing large numbers as hexadecimal notation.

Decimal notation system, the most commonly used numbering system, uses a single digit from 0 to 9. It is not as efficient for expressing large numbers as hexadecimal notation.

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163
Q

A Customer object has a field called EmailAddress. Other programs need to have frequent access to this field. What is the best way to set up this field?

As an array of variables across all programs
As its own object
As a property of the customer object
As an attribute of the customer object

A

Object properties represent a way of accessing a field publicly, instead of the overhead of using methods. Properties allow external code to ask the object to show or change the value of one of its fields.

Object attributes are private variables which other programs
cannot access directly. An object needs to have a method which allows another part of the program to access a field, adding extra overhead to the process.

Setting up the EmailAddress field as its own object adds unnecessary overhead and duplication of information. It is much easier to set it up as a property of the Customer object.

An array of variables is an inefficient way to store data, compared to objects.

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164
Q

An access point is set up in a small home office. What is the best setting for the SSID (Service Set ID)?

Something unique to the network but without personal information
Something that cannot be cracked by password-guessing software
The address where the access point is located
The default name set up by the vendor of the device

A

SSID is the name for the WLAN (Wireless Local Area Network). It is what devices will connect to, so it should be unique to the network, to avoid confusion with nearby networks, but not contain sensitive or personal information.

It is a good idea to change the SSID from its default setting, usually the device vendor’s name, to something related to the network.

SSID is visible to other wireless devices, so it is not advisable to set it to anything that identifies someone personally, or to the physical address of the device.

SSID is not the password used to configure the device or connect to the network, so there is no need to make it secure like a password.

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165
Q

What does this pseudocode declare?
declare MinutesPerHour as Number = 60

A variable
A primary key
A constant
An array

A

A constant is a specific identifier that contains a value that does not change within the program. In this example, the value of MinutesPerHour is always 60 and will not change.

A variable contains a value that can change during the execution of the program. There is no reason to ever change the MinutesPerHour identifier after its declaration.

An array is a type of identifier that can reference multiple values; it’s a set of elements. MinutesPerHour is a single identifier.

A primary key is an element of a database, not a pseudocode identifier.

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166
Q

An attacker captures password packets to figure out a user’s password to gain access to a host on a corporate network, and masquerades as that user. Which of the following is a threat to integrity that describes this attack?

Wiretapping
Snooping
Social Engineering
Impersonation

A

Impersonation is an attack where a person will attempt to figure out a password or other credentials to gain access to a host. An obvious way to perform an impersonation attack is to capture password packets in transit and work out which bit is the password.

Snooping is a confidentiality concern and is any attempt to get access to information on a host or storage device (data at rest) that you are not authorized to view.

Eavesdropping/wiretapping/sniffing is a confidentiality concern and is essentially snooping on data or telephone conversations as they pass over the network.

Social engineering is a confidentiality concern and refers to getting users to reveal confidential and personally identifiable information.

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167
Q

What is an example of an output device?

Digital camera
Loudspeaker
Keyboard
Optical disk

A

In a computer system, data is shown or played to the user through an output device, such as a monitor, printer, or loudspeaker system.

User input is when the computer receives data entered by the user through peripheral devices, such as mice, keyboards, scanners, digital cameras, and microphones.

Video input devices, such as digital cameras or camcorders, webcams, image or fingerprint scanners, and barcode readers, are used to digitize images or video into the computer.

Optical disc is a storage device, to which data may be written for future use.

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168
Q

What is the basic unit of computer data?

Byte
KB
Bit
MB

A

The basic unit of computer data is the binary digit or bit, which can represent two values (zero or one). Computer memory and file sizes in Windows are measured in multiples of bits.

A byte is a collection of eight bits, which can store a single ASCII character, such as letters, numbers, and symbols.

KB stands for KiloByte, which is 1000 bytes in the context of storage capacity. Small files are often measured in KB.

MB stands for MegaByte which is 1,000,000 bytes or 1000 KB in the context of storage capacity. Many files are measured in MB.

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169
Q

Which of the following represents the largest amount of storage capacity?

5PB
3000000 GB
25000000000 MB
10000 TB

A

Storage capacity is typically calculated using decimal measurements (base 10), so 10,000 TB (TeraBytes) equals 10 PB or 10,000,000 GB or 10,000,000,000 MB. It is larger than the other choices in this list.

3,000,000 GB (GigaBytes) equals 3 PB or 3,000 TB or 3,000,000,000 MB. It is not as large as 10,000 TB.

2,500,000,000 MB (MegaBytes) equals 2.5 PB or 2,500 TB or 2,500,000 GB. It is the smallest amount in this list.

5 PB (PetaBytes) equals 5,000 TB or 5,000,000 GB or 5,000,000,000 MB. It is not as large as 10,000 TB. It is

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170
Q

A table contains information about the company’s customers. The information includes First Name, Last Name, Address, Phone, and Email for each customer. What does this table need, to make sure that the Email field contains the symbols “@” and “.”?

A primary key
A foreign key
A constraint
Data persistence

A

Constraints restrict the data which goes into a table, by placing conditions on a given field. A constraint can make sure that a field conforms to the format of a valid email address.

A primary key is a type of constraint, in the way that it ensures the uniqueness of the field within the table. It is not the type of constraint that restricts the format of the Email field.

A foreign key is the field in a table which references a primary key in another table.

Data persistence refers to storing data when the application that uses the data terminates.

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171
Q

What is NOT one of the features of an application virtualization software such as Citrix XenApp, which installs on a network server instead of individual workstations?

The data can be made more secure
The application can be used on multiple operating systems without being developed as a cross platform application
The data files are easier to back up
Users can use the application without a network connection

A

-Users can use the application without a network connection-Application virtualization software is installed and executed on a network server. Client workstations access the application using a remote terminal or viewer, with a local network connection to the server.

Locating the application and its data files on a server is easier to secure. Security is implemented in one location, the server, instead of each workstation running a locally installed application.

Having the all of the application’s data files on one server is easier to back up, than having local installations and corresponding sets of data files.

Application virtualization software allows applications to run in environments that do not suit the native application, meaning that they can run from different operating systems without being developed as a cross-platform application.

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172
Q

Which of the following will NOT help a network administrator avoid service unavailability due to one or more disks failing?

Network Redundancy
Redundant array of independent disks (RAID)
Contingency plan
Fault tolerance

A

Network redundancy provides fault tolerance to the connections to the network, if a network adapter fails, but will not avoid unavailable service if one or more disks fail.

Combining hard disks into an array of disks can help to avoid service unavailability due to one or more disks failing. A Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) offers a variety of fault tolerant solutions.

To help protect against losing access to a computer system when a component fails, you must implement fault tolerance. Fault tolerant systems are those that contain additional components to help avoid single points of failure.

Vulnerabilities in critical workflows and resources can be mitigated by creating contingency plans and resources that allow the system to be resilient to failures and unexpected outages.

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173
Q

How can a user belong to a group account and inherit security permissions in a workgroup?

Using additional group accounts associated with a domain
Adding the user’s account as a guest account
Through privileges allocated to the groups
By directly assigning the user to security policies

A

A user can belong to one or more group accounts and inherit security permissions through privileges allocated to the groups.

User accounts can be assigned directly to security policies, but if there are a large number of users, this can be difficult to manage.

In a Windows workgroup, the only group accounts are Computer Administrators and Standard Users. The use of additional group accounts is associated more with domain networks.

The guest account is disabled by default but should not generally be used. If the guest account is enabled, anyone can use the computer without needing to enter a password.

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174
Q

Which type of data uses whole disk encryption?

Data at rest
Data transmitted over a network
An email
A web page via Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS)

A

Data at rest means that the data is in some sort of persistent storage media. In this state, it is usually possible to encrypt the data using techniques such as whole disk encryption.

HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) web pages are considered data in transit which is protected by a transport encryption protocol.

Data transmitted over a network is considered data in transit (or data in motion), such as communicating with a web page via HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure), and is protected by a transport encryption protocol.

Sending an email is considered data in transit (or data in motion) and is transmitted over a network, which is protected by a transport encryption protocol.

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175
Q

A user needs to back up a 6 GB (GigaByte) video file from a Windows desktop to a new 64 GB flash drive. An error message warns that the file cannot copy over to the flash drive, due to file size limitations. What does the user need to do?

Reformat the flash drive into HFS
Reformat the flash drive into NTFS
Reformat the flash drive into FAT32
Increase the size of the flash drive’s partition

A

FAT32 (File Allocation Table, 32-bit version) is used for formatting removable drives and disks, by default, as it provides the best compatibility between different types of computers and devices. FAT32 allows for maximum file size of 4 GB, so the drive needs to be reformatted into NTFS (New Technology File System) which allows file sizes of up to 16 ExaBytes.

The flash drive is already formatted as FAT32 by default.

HFS (Hierarchical File System) is used for Apple Mac computers, so a flash drive using this format does not work with Windows systems.

FAT32 allows a maximum partition size of 32 GB, but each file can only be 4 GB, so increasing the size of partitions will not help.

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176
Q

Why is it important to protect computer data?

Computer data is not intended to be shared
Computer data is difficult to collect
Computer data is an asset
Computer data is confidential

A

For individuals or organizations, computer data can be considered an asset, which is something of commercial value, and therefore needs to be protected.

Computer data may or may not be confidential, depending on its contents or circumstances. Regardless of whether a specific set of data is confidential or not, it is likely of value to its owner.

The degree of difficulty to collect a specific set of data can range widely and does not necessarily correlate to its value.

Much of computer data is intended to be shared, at the discretion of its owner. The owner of the data needs to be the one who decides when, how, and at what cost (if any) to share the data.

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177
Q

A package-delivery service is working with address information, which contains a house number and a street name. What is the best data type to use for the house number?

Integer
Float
String
Char

A

Whether the house number is part of the address field together with the street name, or its own field, it’s best to use the string data type. Besides being able to easily link the house number with the street name, house numbers can contain non-numeric characters such as “123 A” or “5555 1/2”.

Even if the house number contains only digits, there will need to be conversions into string for much of the processing.

For non-integer examples of house numbers such as “5555 1/2”, storing it as “5555.5” would make no sense, so the float data type is not appropriate.

Most house numbers contain more than one digit, so storing them as a char data type does not work.

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178
Q

A user installs a software application for free, and it displays a 30-day countdown until the user must register it and receive additional features. What type of license is this?

Subscription model
Open source
Shareware
Freeware

A

Shareware is software that is free of charge for a limited period, usually for the purpose of evaluation. After this period, the user must register it to continue using it, usually for a fee. Often there are extra features and support available after registration.

With subscription-based licensing, organizations pay a per-user monthly fee to get access to the software. In this model, regular upgrades are part of the subscription.

Freeware is software that is available for free, without time limits. There are usually restrictions for its use, such as no redistribution or resale.

Open source is software that makes the program code available, so that other programmers can investigate the program and make it more stable and useful.

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179
Q

What’s the difference between scripted and scripting languages?

Scripting languages are for configuring an operating system
Scripting languiages have to transform the code to an executable binary
Scripting languages have to transform the code to an executable binary
Scripting languages only run on one platform

A

Scripted languages are general purpose interpreted programming languages such as JavaScript or Perl. Scripting languages support the automation and configuration of a particular operating system, i.e., the Windows Command Prompt, Windows PowerShell, or Linux Bash.

Both scripted and scripting languages are interpreted languages, which means that the program does not need to compile prior to running.

Scripted and scripting languages run within the context of an interpreter, a computer program that directly executes instructions written in an interpreted programming language.

Scripted and scripting languages can run on platforms for which there is an interpreter, with each scripting language geared toward a particular operating system.

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180
Q

What is the last step in CompTIA’s troubleshooting model?

Verify full system functionality
Implement preventive measures
Document lessons learned, actions, and outcomes
Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem

A

All the way through the troubleshooting steps, it is important that information about the problem, tests performed, and attempted resolutions are recorded. That way, when a problem is resolved, a complete record exists documenting the symptoms, possible causes investigated, and the ultimate resolution. The last of the 8 steps in CompTIA’s troubleshooting model is to document findings/lessons learned, actions, and outcomes.

Step 7 in CompTIA’s troubleshooting model is to verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventive measures.

Part of step 7 in CompTIA’s troubleshooting model is to implement preventive measures.

Step 5 in CompTIA’s troubleshooting model is to establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects.

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181
Q

A database administrator needs to extend a table with another column. What method contains the command to do that?

DDL (data definition language)
XML (eXtensible Markup Language)
DCL (Data Control Language)
DML (Data manipulation language)

A

DDL (Data Definition Language) commands refer to SQL (Structured Query Language) commands that add to or modify the structure of the database. DDL commands include ALTER TABLE, to add columns to a table.

DML (Data Manipulation Language) commands refer to SQL commands that access or modify the contents of the database.

DCL (Data Control Language) mainly deals with the rights, permissions, and other controls of the database system, with commands such as GRANT and REVOKE.

XML (eXtensible Markup Language) is a markup language that defines a set of rules for encoding documents in a format that is both human-readable and machine-readable.

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182
Q

What is a downside to digital products?

Digital products have high distribution costs
Digital products are of low quality
Digital products are limited to software and computer games
Digital products are easy to copy and steal

A

The downside to digital products is that they are quite easy to copy and steal. Various copy protection systems have been invented to try to enforce “pay-per-use” for digital products.

A digital product is one that is sold or distributed as binary computer data. Examples of digital products include software, computer games, ebooks, music tracks, streaming video, video downloads, and so on.

Digital products typically have low manufacturing and distribution costs.

With the huge strides in modern technology and lowered costs of high-capacity computer systems, the quality of many digital products has become extremely high, e.g., a home-theater system with streaming movies.

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183
Q

A user installs VirtualBox on a Linux OS (Operating System). Which class of hypervisor is it?

Type 1, becuase the Linux OS is installed directly on the computer
Type 1, because VirtualBox manages the virtual machine environment
Type 2, because VirtualBox is a software application within a host operating system
Type 2, because Linux provides the resources for the virtual environment

A

A type II hypervisor runs as a software application within a host operating system. VirtualBox is a third-party virtualization software which can be installed on host systems including Linux.

For both type I and II hypervisors, the physical machine (or host) provides the resources, such as CPU and memory, for the virtual environment.

Both type I and II hypervisors manage the virtual machine environment and facilitate interaction with the host hardware and network.

The Linux OS is installed directly on the computer, but it serves as the host to the type II hypervisor which is the VirtualBox software.

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184
Q

What is the difference between DropBox and OneDrive?

OneDrive is a cloud based storage solution
Dropbox can be operated with a smartphone app
Dropbosx i built into the Windows os
Onedrive is built into the windows OS

A

OneDrive is a cloud storage client that is built into the Windows 10 OS (Operating System), and can be accessed via File Explorer. There is also OneDrive for Business, for users to store, sync, and share work files in the cloud.

Both OneDrive and DropBox are cloud-based storage solutions.

DropBox is not built into the Windows OS; it is an online file hosting service that offers cloud storage, file synchronization, personal cloud, and client software.

Both OneDrive and DropBox can be operated with an app for the smartphone or tablet.

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185
Q

What type of language is the most difficult to follow?

Compiled
Markup
QUery
Assembly

A

An assembly language is any low-level programming language in which there is a very strong correspondence between the program’s statements and the architecture’s machine code instructions. Assembly code is very difficult to follow and is only really used by specialists trying to solve a very particular problem with an application.

A markup language consists primarily of nested tags, which have very few rules, so they can be very programmer-friendly and easy to follow.

Compiled programming languages range from low-level to high-level, but even the lowest level is easier to follow than assembly languages.

Query languages represent a more structured form of the English language, and are very easy to follow.

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186
Q

A company has an unwritten rule that visitors must always be escorted, but not every employee abides by it. Which of the following would make employees become more aware of the importance of this responsibility, and help enforce this as a company best practice?

Write a company policy and procedure for escorting visitors
Train staff to identify Personally Identifiable Information (PII)
Install data monitoring solutions
Implement an Aceptable Use policy

A

If there is a company policy saying that visitors to the workplace must be escorted at all times, the organization needs to create written policies and procedures to help staff understand and fulfill their responsibilities and follow best practices.

While the rise in consciousness of identity theft as a serious crime and growing threat is important, it deals with the handling of personal or sensitive data appropriately.

An Acceptable Use Policy, or Fair Use Policy, sets out what someone is allowed to use a particular service or resource for.

Monitoring data means analyzing data communications to measure an employee’s productivity.

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187
Q

A systems engineer wants to control access to critical data. Which of the following describes a security concern regarding storing and transferring data without authorization?

Integrity
Social Engineering
Availability
Confidentiality

A

Integrity means that the data being stored and transferred has not been altered without authorization. Threats to integrity include Man-in-the-Middle (MitM), replay, and impersonation attacks.

Confidentiality means that information is only revealed to authorized people. This can be compromised in snooping, eavesdropping/wiretapping, and social engineering/dumpster diving attacks.

Availability means keeping a service running so that authorized users can access and process data whenever necessary. Availability is often threatened by accidents and oversights as well as active attacks.

Social engineering refers to means of getting users to reveal confidential information or obtaining unauthorized physical access to a resource.

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188
Q

What does a database dump contain?

A hard disk with an exact copy of the database
A formatted report of the contents of all tables
SQL statements which can recreate all tables
A flat file with full contents of all tables

A

A database dump is a copy of the database or table schema along with the records in the form of SQL (Structured Query Language) statements, which another database can use to create the tables and import the information.

Flat files with full contents of all tables are backups, not dumps. Dumps contain SQL statements to recreate the schema and data.

Formatted reports of table contents are not very useful for backup and restore purposes.

A hard disk with an exact copy of the database is a full backup, not a dump.

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189
Q

Which wireless Internet service does a computer use when it connects by tethering?

Wi-fi
Radio frequency
Satellite
Cellular radio

A

Tethering is when a cell phone, which uses cellular radio service, shares its Internet connection with a computer that has no other means of Internet access.

A computer that needs to connect to the Internet by tethering to a cell phone has no other means of Internet access, such as wi-fi.

Radio Frequency is a means of provisioning a wireless local network using Wi-Fi standard equipment. While this isn’t a means of Internet service provision in itself, it is a means for a client to connect to a wireless router offering Internet access.

A computer that needs to connect to the Internet by tethering to a cell phone has no other means of Internet access, such as a satellite link.`

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190
Q

What’s a true statement about query languages?

Querry languages code does not need to be compiled
Query language code is not human readable
Query language code is the most complex code
Query languages can only be used on one platform

A

Code written in a query language, such as SQL (Structured Query Language), is designed to retrieve specific records from a dataset. The code does not need to be compiled.

Query languages can be used on many platforms. Query languages typically work together with other programming languages, which process the data retrieved by the queries.

The basic structure of query languages has a smaller set of commands than most programming languages. There are advanced components and extended vocabularies in some query languages, but the basic set of commands is sufficient for most operations.

Human-readable data is encoded as text, and machine-readable data (machine code) is the binary representation. Query languages represent a more structured form of the English language.

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191
Q

Which of the following types of authentication, if compromised, could potentially impact multiple services?

Multifactor authentication
Single sign-on
Two factor authentication
Single factor authenticatioon

A

Single Sign-On (SSO) means that a user only has to authenticate to a system once to gain access to all its resources. The disadvantage is that compromising the account also compromises multiple services.

Single-factor authentication systems can quite easily be compromised: a password could be written down or shared, a smart card could be lost or stolen, and a biometric system could be subject to high error rates.

An authentication product is considered “strong” if it combines the use of more than one authentication data type. This is called multifactor authentication.

Two-factor authentication combines something like a smart card or biometric mechanism with “something you know,” such as a password or PIN.

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192
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about critical data when configuring file backups?

Replication allows critical data backup, which protects from accidental deletion of a record
Critical data might include Personally Identifiable Information (PII)
Critical data can store within a settings file located within a database
Critical data does not always store in files within a user or shared folder

A

Replication doesn’t protect you from errors such as accidentally deleting a record. If the error is accepted as a valid transaction, it will be propagated amongst all the replicas at the next scheduled replication interval.

When configuring backups, you need to understand that not all critical data may be stored in files within a user folder or shared folder.

When configuring backups, critical data could be stored in a settings file outside of the normal data areas or be located within a database or message store.

When configuring backups, you have to consider that critical data might include confidential, proprietary, and/or personal information.

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193
Q

How is binary notation expressed?

A single digit in a range from 0 to 1 is used. This number represents an on or off state. Each column is worth two times the column to its right. This is also known as base 2.
Each single digit is assigned ten values ranging from 0-9 whereby each column is ten times more than the digit to its right. This is also known as base 10.
Each single digit is assigned one of 16 different possible values ranging from 0–F. Letter designators are assigned to 10-15 (a-f respectively).
Text or graphics are used to add emphasis to your code.

A

When converting to binary you must understand that each column can have one of only two values: 0 or 1. Just as with decimal format, you add from right to left. The first column is the far right one; each column has a value two times that of the column to the right. So, as you look at each column, the values go 8 | 4 | 2 | 1. For example, the binary value for 10 is 1010.

Base 10, or decimal notation, assigns each single digit one of ten different possible values.

When you assign each digit one of 16 different possible values, you are using hexadecimal notation.

The use of graphics to add emphasis to your code is called secondary notation.

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194
Q

Convert the decimal number 10 into binary notation.

1010
111
1234
1

A

When converting to binary, you must understand that each column can only have two values, 0 and 1. Just as with decimal format, you add from right to left. The first column is the far right one, and each column has a value two times the value of the column to the right. So, as you look at each column, the values go 8 | 4 | 2 | 1. The binary value for 10 is 1010.

1111 is 15 if you notice every column has a 1, which means 1 + 2 + 4 + 8 = 15.

1234 is not written in binary.

1 is actually 1 in binary.

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195
Q

What is the most common character set used for coding to represent text in computers?

American Standard Code for Information Interchange (ASCII)
Unicode
Xerox Character Code
Devanagari

A

ASCII code represents text in computers, telecommunications equipment, and other devices. Most modern character-encoding schemes are based on ASCII, although they support many additional characters.

Unicode is the standard maintained by the Unicode Consortium, and as of June 2018 the most recent version is Unicode 11.0.

Xerox Character Code Standard (XCCS) is a historical 16-bit character encoding that was created by Xerox in 1980 for the exchange of information between elements of the Xerox Network Systems Architecture.

Devanagari is a South Asian writing system used by many languages, including Hindi, Konkani, Marathi, Nepali, Sanskrit, Sherpa, and Sindhi. It is not a coding language.

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196
Q

How do computers differentiate binary data and map it to letters, numbers, and symbols?

A character set maps letters, numbers, and symbols to binary values
The computer can’t differentiate binary data
Letters, numbers, and symbols can be read by a computer without any translation
A computer uses a dictation program to translate letters and symbols into understandable binary code

A

A character set is a collection of characters that might be used by multiple languages. A character set translates letters, numbers, and symbols into binary values that the computer can understand, much like the service an interpreter provides for a foreign dignitary.

Computers are able to differentiate binary data through character sets.

Letters, numbers, and symbols can’t be read by a computer without a character set in place for translation.

A computer can use dictation programs as input devices for the handicapped but not for translating letters, numbers, or symbols into binary values.

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197
Q

What are the two common ways of presenting character set data?

ASCII and Unicode are the most common character sets used to present data
There is no need to provide a standardized character set when programming a computer
UCS-2 and UTF-8 are the most common character sets used to present data
Xerox Character Code and the Western Standard Character Set are the most common character sets used to present data

A

American Standard Code for Information Interchange (ASCII) and Unicode are the most common character sets used to present data when programming computers.

Computers need character sets to translate letters, numbers, and symbols into binary values. Character sets are necessary when programming computers.

UCS-2 and UTF-8 are both legacy character sets and are no longer in use.

The Xerox Character Code is a legacy character set from the 1980s. It is no longer widely used. The Western Standard Character Set never existed—it is a fabricated standard.

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198
Q

What is the decimal number 75 in hexadecimal notation?

4B
0100 1011
7x10e1 + 5x10e0
0x5c

A

4B is how you would write 75 in hexadecimal notation. Hexadecimal notation is often indicated using 0x to precede the hexadecimal digits, so you may also see this written as 0x4b. For hexadecimal, you only need 16 and 1 (75 divided by 16 is 4 remainder of 11, which is represented as “B” in hexadecimal).

0100 1011 is how you would write 75 in binary notation.

7x10e1 + 5x10e0 is how you would write 75 in decimal notation.

5C is how you would write 92 in hexadecimal notation, not 75. (92 divided by 16 = 5 with a remainder of 12, which is represented as “C” in hexadecimal.)

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199
Q

Websites tend to use what Unicode standard?

UTF-8
UCS-2
Xerox Character Code
UTF-16

A

UTF-8 is used by over 91 percent of websites throughout the world.

UCS-2 is obsolete because it is limited to the basic multilingual plane (BMP). Many Unicode characters are beyond the reach of UCS-2. It is the precursor to UTF-16 and is not used for websites.

The Xerox Character Code is also obsolete and is not used for websites.

UTF-16 is used internally by systems such as Windows and Java and by JavaScript, and often for plain text and for word-processing data files on Windows. It is rarely used for files on Unix/Linux or macOS. It never gained popularity on the web, where UTF-8 is dominant.

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200
Q

What type of notation is used in common math?

Decimal Notation
Binary Notation
Hexadecimal Notation
Secondary Notation

A

The numbers 0-9 represent decimal notation. It is the basic math notation that we typically use, where every digit has the possibility to represent ten numbers or ten times the number to its right.

On and off representation is characteristic of binary notation where there are only two digits represented. Binary notation allows the computer to determine whether something is on or off because an “on” is represented with a “1” and an “off” is represented with a “0.”

Hexadecimal notation gives you the ability to assign more than ten values to a column (up to 15), with alpha characters (a-f) used for 10-15. Hexadecimal notation allows you to represent large numbers.

Secondary notation, like italic and bold characters, is used in programming to bring attention to the code to make it easier to detect important information.

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201
Q

Which notation system presents the largest numbers using the fewest digits?

Hexadecimal
Decimal
Binary
Kilobyte

A

The notational system that presents the largest numbers using the fewest digits is hexadecimal. With hexadecimal notation, each digit can store 16 bits of information. Because of this efficiency, hexadecimal is ideal for handling large values. Hexadecimal is also referred to as base 16.

In a decimal system, a single digit stores four bits of information. Decimal is also referred to as base 10.

In binary notation, a single digit stores only one bit of information. Binary is also referred to as base 2.

A kilobyte is a unit of measure and not a notational system.

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202
Q

When should you use hexadecimal notation?

To express large numbers
When you want to represent an on or off state
When you want to represent numbers between 0 and 9
When you want to add emphasis to your code

A

Hexadecimal notation gives you the ability to assign more than ten values to a column (up to 15), with alpha characters (a-f) used for 10-15. Hexadecimal notation allows you to represent large numbers.

On and off representation is characteristic of binary notation where there are only two digits represented. Binary notation allows the computer to determine whether something is on or off because an “on” is represented with a “1” and an “off” is represented with a “0.”

The numbers 0-9 represent decimal notation. It is the basic math notation that use, where every digit has the possibility to represent ten numbers or ten times the number to its right.

Secondary notation, like italic and bold characters, is used in programming to bring attention to the code to make it easier to detect important information.

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203
Q

How is decimal notation expressed?
Each single digit is assigned one of ten values ranging from 0-9 whereby each column is ten times more than the digit to its right. This is also known as base 10.
A single digit in a range from 0 to 1 is used; these digits represent on and off states. Each column is worth two times the column to its right. This is also known as base 2.
Each single digit is assigned one of 16 different possible values ranging from 0–F. Letter designators are assigned to 10-15 (a-f respectively).
Using text or graphics to add emphasis to your code is an example of decimal notation.

A

The numbers 0-9 represent decimal notation. It is the basic math notation that we use, where every digit has the possibility to represent ten numbers or ten times the number to its right.

On and off representation is characteristic of binary notation where there are only two digits represented. Binary notation allows the computer to determine whether something is on or off because an “on” is represented with a “1” and an “off” is represented with a “0.”

Hexadecimal notation gives you the ability to assign more than ten values to a column (16 total values where 0 is the first value up to 15). Alpha characters (a-f) are used for 10-15. Hexadecimal notation allows you to represent large numbers.

Secondary notation, like italic and bold characters, is used in programming to bring attention to the code to make it easier to detect important information.

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204
Q

Which of the following is the correct syntax of using an escape character to include a quote character in a string definition?

“John said \’Hello World\’ then left again.”
“John said ‘\Hello World’\ then left again.”
“John said \Hello World\ then left again.”
“John said “Hello World” then left again.”

A

When single or double quotes are used to delimit a string, then quotes are not part of the string itself. To represent a quote character within a string, you must use an escape character. In this example, the backslash () is used as an escape character preceding the single quotation (‘).

The escape character must precede the quote character. The inner portion ‘\Hello World’\ is incorrect because the escape characters follow the quotes.

Double backslash (\) inserts a literal backslash into the string, which is not what this string requires.

Without escape characters, the statement “John said “Hello World” then left again.” is interpreted as two strings: “John said ” and “then left again.”

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205
Q

How much storage space is consumed by the Boolean data type?

A single bit
Between 1 and 8 bytes
Between 4 and 8 bytes
A single byte

A

Boolean values are a special numeric data type which indicate that something is either TRUE or FALSE, represented with a binary 1 or 0, and consume only a single bit of storage space.

The data type that consumes between 1 and 8 bytes of storage is an integer. The wide range is due to variances in system architectures (32-bit vs 64-bit) and the integer itself (short vs long).

The data type the consumes between 4 and 8 bytes of storage is the floating point number. The range is due to the differences in the floating point number (standard float vs a double).

The data type that consumes a single byte of storage is the character.

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206
Q

How much storage space is consumed by the integer data type?

Between 1 and 8 bytes
A single bit
Between 4 and 8 bytes
A single byte

A

An integer is a whole number with a range of storage formats (short or long, signed or unsigned). It consumes between 1 and 8 bytes of storage, depending on the format, as well as the system architecture (32-bit or 64-bit).

The data type that consumes a single bit of storage is a Boolean value.

The data type the consumes between 4 and 8 bytes of storage is the floating point number. The range is due to differences in the floating point number (standard float vs a double).

The data type that consumes a single byte of storage is the character.

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207
Q

Which of the following data types can NOT store the number 3?

Boolean
Integer
Float
Char

A

A Boolean is a special numeric data type that indicates something is either TRUE or FALSE. Boolean values are stored using a single bit with 1 representing true and 0 representing false. Of the data types listed, a Boolean value is the only one that cannot contain the number 3.

An integer is the ideal data type to store the number 3. When stored as an integer, mathematical operations can be performed on the number.

A floating point number can also store the number 3; however, it will likely include the decimal point resulting in 3.0.

A character, or char, can also store the number 3. A char can store a single letter of the alphabet, number, or symbol; however, numbers stored as a char cannot have mathematical operations performed on it.

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208
Q

What limitation is placed on a number when it is entered as a character data type?

You cannot perform mathematical operations on it
It cannot enumerate information while coding
There are no limitations on a number entered as a character data type
A number cannot be entered as a character data tyoe

A

Data types specify the type of information (such as number, string, picture, date) that can be stored in a column or a variable. Numbers can be used as a character data type, but when you write code and set a number as a character value other than a numeric one then that number cannot be used to compute mathematical operations.

The ability to set numbers as a character data type allows flexibility and the ability to enumerate your information while coding.

There are many limitations on character data types.

A number can be entered as a character data type.

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209
Q

How is the amount of storage that can be used by a string limited?

There is no limitation to the amount of storage used by a string
A string is limited to two storage units
Strings require defined storage limitations
A string doesn’t take up any storage

A

There are no storage limitations for a string. However, best practice policies can be put in place to standardize how a string is written and how much space it takes up.

It would be impractical to limit a string to only two storage units.

Strings don’t require defined storage limitations. As stated before, best practice policies can define limitations for standardization purposes.

Every data type takes up storage, whether it is a number, string, picture, or date. Even if the item contained only one bit of information, that bit would require storage space.

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210
Q

How much storage space is consumed by the floating point number data type?

Between 4 and 8 bytes
A single bit
Between 1 and 8 bytes
A single byte

A

A floating point number represents decimal fractions, such as 4.0, 26.4, or 5.62. This data type consumes between 4 and 8 bytes of storage, due to differences in the represented precision, i.e., a standard float is a single precision (32 bit) floating point data type, and a double is a double precision (64 bit) floating point data type.

The data type that consumes a single bit of storage is a Boolean value.

The data type that consumes between 1 and 8 bytes of storage is an integer. The wide range is due to variances in system architectures (32-bit vs 64-bit) and the integer itself (short vs long).

The data type that consumes a single byte of storage is the character.

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211
Q

What fundamental data type is used to support decimal fractions such as 4.1, 26.4, and 5.62?

Floating point numbers or just “float”
Whole numbers that are in base 10
Boolean numbers that indicate whether something is true or false
Irrational numbers

A

Floating point numbers or “floats” contain decimal points. In general, floating point numbers are represented approximately to a fixed number of significant digits and scaled using an exponent in some fixed base; the base for the scaling is normally 2, 10, or 16.

Whole numbers are used for integer notation, as in standard math.

Boolean numbers are characteristic of binary notation. This is especially important for computers because Boolean numbers can represent on or off states.

Irrational numbers cannot be used for floating point numbers.

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212
Q

How are integers represented?

Whole numbers that are in base 10, such as 5,21, or 65536
Boolean numbers that indicate whether something is TRUE or FALSE
Floating point numbers with decimal points and fractions
Irrational numbers that cannot be written as a simple fraction

A

Integers are represented using whole numbers, as in standard mathematical notation. For example, the numbers 5, 21, and 65536 are integers.

Boolean numbers are characteristic of binary notation, but they do not represent integers.

Floating point numbers contain decimal points and fractions, but do not represent integers.

Integers cannot be irrational numbers.

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213
Q

How much storage space is consumed by the character data type?

A single byte
A single bit of storage
Between 1 and 8 bytes
Between 4 and 8 bytes

A

A character data type is a single textual character that consumes one byte of storage space. It can store a letter of the alphabet, a symbol, or a number, i.e., b, B, 7, $, or 1.

The data type that consumes a single bit of storage is a Boolean value.

The data type that consumes between 1 and 8 bytes of storage is an integer. The range is due to variances in system architectures (32-bit vs 64-bit) and the integer itself (short vs long).

The data type the consumes between 4 and 8 bytes of storage is the floating point number. The range is due to differences in the floating point number (standard float vs a double).

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214
Q

What special numeric data type indicates that something is either TRUE or FALSE?

Boolean values
Irrational numbers
Whole numbers
Floating point numbers

A

Boolean numbers are characteristic of binary notation where a choice of either on or off (0 or 1) needs to be made. This is especiall1y important for computers because Boolean numbers can represent on or off states.

Irrational numbers are not used in binary notation. This is especially important for computers because Boolean numbers can represent on or off states.

Whole numbers are used for integer notation, as in standard math. Whole numbers, with the exception of 0 and 1, are not used in binary notation.

Floating point numbers contain a decimal point. In general, floating point numbers are represented approximately to a fixed number of significant digits (the significand) and scaled using an exponent in some fixed base; the base for the scaling is normally 2, 10, or 16.

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215
Q

The value “CompTIA” is a representation of which data type?

String
Boolean
Character
Integer

A

The value “CompTIA” is a representation of the string data type. A string is a collection of text characters.

Booleans are special numeric data types that indicate a value is either TRUE or FALSE using either a 1 or a 0. In this example, “CompTIA” is composed of several characters forming a string, not a TRUE or FALSE value.

Characters (or chars) are single textual values that are one alphabet, symbol or numerical character in length. The value “CompTIA” is a string composed of seven character values.

Integers are only numerical. The value “CompTIA” is not numerical and is therefore not an integer.

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216
Q

Why is it important to understand the different data types that a computer program can use?

The data type determines what sort of operations can be performed
A computer program can only process only one data type
Computer programs process language just as we do. There is no need to convert into a data type that computers understand
A computer can process specific data without a program

A

Data types are required to convert our language into one that a computer can understand, and they determine what sort of operations can be performed.

Computers can process more than one data type; they are not limited.

Computers do not process language as we do. Our language has to be converted into a data type that computers understand.

A program is necessary for the computer to process specific data.

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217
Q

How does a computer receive data entered by a user?

Through the use of peripheral devices, such as mice and keyboards
Through the use of the internet
Through interfaces such as a printer or computer screen
Through data written directly to memory

A

A computer receives data from a user via input, which is defined as the way a human interfaces with a computer through a peripheral device such as a keyboard, mouse, camera, or other such device.

The Internet is not a way for a user to input data, but rather an application that a computer runs.

Printers and computer screens are typically output devices, not input devices.

Users do not tend to write data to memory directly. The user requires input devices, which then enable processing through the CPU, therefore creating output.

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218
Q

How does a user receive information from a computer?

Data is shown or displayed to the user through an output device
information is interfaced using the keyboard
The data is transferred via the internet
The data is stored on a hard drive or flash drive

A

A user receives information from a computer via output, which is how a computer displays the information that it has processed. This is usually displayed through a peripheral device that produces an image or sound, such as a monitor, printer, or speaker.

Interfacing with a keyboard is an example of input, not output.

The Internet is an application, and still requires the use of an output to send the information to a user.

A hard drive or flash drive does store data, but this data is not transferred to the user without the use of an output.

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219
Q

Why do computers save or write data to a storage device?

Data running on system memory is only preserved while the computer is powered up.
A given instruction or piece of data is stored in memory to keep track of it.
Due to recent technological advances, a computer no longer needs to use memory to save data.
A CPU needs a cache to save memory.

A

Memory is also known as primary storage, primary memory, main storage, internal storage, main memory, or Random Access Memory (RAM); these terms are used interchangeably by computer experts. Memory is the part of the computer that holds data and instructions for processing regardless of whether the computer is on or off.

Keeping track of where a given instruction or piece of data is stored is a part of the address register. Registers are not a part of memory; rather they are special additional storage locations that offer the advantage of speed. Registers work under the direction of the control unit to accept, hold, and transfer instructions or data and perform arithmetic or logical comparisons at high speed.

A computer must write to memory to save data; otherwise, it would be lost when the power is turned off.

Caches enable the CPU to work on simple or common activities quickly, but they still need other memory functions.

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220
Q

How is computer data defined?

Information shared in an IT system using nothing more complicated that the binary digits 1 and 0
Information presented as unprocessed facts and figures without any added interpretation or analysis
Information transferred between people either through speaking or writing, using words in a structured and convectional way
Information that references something else in design or origin

A

Computer data is information processed or stored by a computer using nothing more complicated than the binary digits 1 and 0. This information may be in the form of text documents, images, audio clips, software programs, or other types of data. Computer data may be processed by the computer’s CPU and is stored in files and folders on the computer’s hard disk.

Information presented as unprocessed facts and figures without any added interpretation or analysis is considered raw data.

Information transferred between people either through speaking or writing, using words in a structured and conventional way, is language.

Information that references something else in design or origin is referential data.

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221
Q

What three elements are required for a computer to perform useful tasks?

Hardware, software, and the computer user
Keyboard, printer, and software
The computer programmer, the user, and the technician
Hardware, monitor, computer user

A

The task model requires that you have three things: hardware to do the work, software to tell the hardware what to do, and the computer user to interface with the computer.

The task model does require software and hardware (such as keyboards and printers), but a computer user is also needed.

Programmers tend to write the software and technicians tend to fix both hardware and software. They are not part of the task model.

The task model does require a computer user and hardware (including a monitor), but software is also needed.

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222
Q

What are peripheral devices?

The parts of a computer system that are not contained within the case
All of the parts of the computer that are contained within the case
The parts of the computer that reside on the motherboard
The parts of the computer that reside within the monitor

A

A peripheral device is generally defined as any auxiliary device, such as a computer mouse or keyboard, that connects to and works with the computer in some way. Other examples of peripherals are image scanners, tape drives, microphones, loudspeakers, webcams, and digital cameras.

The parts within the case are usually considered the integrated circuits of the computer.

The motherboard, CPU, graphics card, and other integrated circuits within the case are not peripherals.

The monitor itself is a peripheral device, but not the parts within it, and this is not the only type of peripheral device that exists.

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223
Q

What is the difference between hardware and software?

Software refers to a collection of data or computer instructions that tell the computer how to work. Hardware is the set of physical components that make up the system and perform the work.
Hardware is the term used to refer to the computer instructions that tell the computer how to work. Software is the equipment that performs the work.
There isn’t really a difference between software and hardware; they are interchangeable terms.
In simple terms, software does all the work and hardware acts as the brain.

A

Software refers to a collection of data or computer instructions that tell the computer how to work. The physical hardware (the computer) actually performs the work. Computer hardware and software require each other, and neither can be realistically used on its own.

Software tells the computer how to work and hardware is the equipment that performs the work. For example, the computer monitor you are using to read this text and the mouse you are using to navigate this web page are both considered computer hardware. The operating system that your computer is running on is considered software.

There is a clear difference between hardware and software.

In simple terms, software acts as the brain and hardware does all the work.

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224
Q

When a computer writes data to memory and manipulates that data, the computer is said to be doing what?

The computer is using the CPU to act on intructions from the operating system and application software
The computer is sending output to a monitor or printer
A computer cannot write data to memory
The CPU is operating independently from the user without input or instructions from the operating system or application software

A

The computer does its primary work in a part of the machine we cannot see, a control center that converts data input to information output. The central processing unit (CPU), is a highly complex, extensive set of electronic circuitries that executes stored program instructions from the operating system and application software. All computers, large and small, must have a central processing unit.

Output is the process whereby a computer displays the information that it processed.

A computer writes data to memory because it would otherwise be temporary.

A computer depends on input from a user to process information for an output.

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225
Q

What is the most common use for peripheral devices in a computer?

To enter information as input or deliver to the user as output
To generate the graphics that show up on the monitor
To process the input information and prepare it for output
To store information within the computer case, to be used later

A

A peripheral device is any auxiliary device that connects to and works with the computer in some way. Most common uses are for entering information as input (i.e. a keyboard or a mouse) and delivering it to the user as output (i.e. monitors, printers, or speakers).

The computer components that generate the graphics are integrated graphics processors on the motherboard or graphics cards. Add-on graphics cards can be considered to be peripheral devices, as they are not essential to the function of a computer, but they are not as commonly added to a computer as a keyboard is.

Processing the input information and preparing it for output is the function of the CPU and other devices within the integrated circuits, which are all essential components and not peripheral devices.

There are peripheral storage devices, such as thumb drives and external hard drives, but storage that is contained within the computer case is part of the computer essentials and not a peripheral device.

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226
Q

What systems use a Central Processing Unit (CPU) and memory?

All types of computers
Servers only
Desktops only
Laptops only

A

A Central Processing Unit (CPU) and memory are used by all types of computers, including servers, desktops, and laptops. The CPU retrieves each instruction or data file from memory and processes it. Afterward, the CPU writes the results back to memory and directs other components to perform actions.

Servers are computers that use a CPU and system memory, as are desktops and laptops.

Desktops are computers that use a CPU and system memory, as are servers and laptops.

Laptops are computers that use a CPU and system memory, as are servers and desktops.

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227
Q

What do you call an action through which someone uses, makes, sells, or imports your invention without your permission?

Patent infringement
An intellectual property crime
Copyright infringement
A technocrime

A

Patent infringement occurs when someone uses, makes, sells, or imports your patented invention without your permission.

An intellectual property crime is one in which you can prove that an idea was originally yours even though you may not have placed a copyright or patent on it.

Copyright infringement happens when somebody reproduces your copyrighted property or distributes unauthorized copies of works either online or by manufacturing and distributing infringing CDs or DVDs.

Technocrime is the term used by law enforcement agencies to denote criminal activity that uses (computer) technology not as a tool to commit a crime, but as the subject of the crime itself.

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228
Q

Which of these is NOT an example of security controls?

Audits and inventories
Access controls
Backups
High availability

A

Audits and inventories are important activities for measuring accountability within your organization, but they are not specific security controls.

Access controls are security controls that limit the use of a computing device to an authorized person, such as its owner. Access control on workstation operating systems is usually enforced by the restrictions of user accounts.

Backups are security controls that ensure business integrity and continuity in the event of a data loss. Having a backup enables you to restore your data when needed.

High availability is a preventive security control that ensures users always have access to their data. When a system is regularly non-functioning, information availability is affected, significantly impacting users.

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229
Q

Which of these is NOT a positive trait of a digital product in regard to the value assigned to information and data?

Digital sales through peer-to-peer transactions make it easier to sell information without the oversight of an institutional set of rules.
A digital product is one that is sold or distributed as binary computer data.
Digital products typically have low manufacturing and distribution costs.
The ability to sell information via hosting has increased the availability and accessibility of information even though infrastructure costs can be high.

A

Uncontrolled peer-to-peer transactions make it easier to sell information without the oversight of an institutional set of rules. This is how the online black market was created with the development of underground economies like Silk Road.

One of the key traits of data in terms of value in information stems from that fact that a digital product is one that is sold or distributed as binary computer data.

Due to technical advancements, digital products typically have low manufacturing and distribution costs.

The ability to sell information via hosting has increased the availability and accessibility of information even though infrastructure costs can be high.

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230
Q

Which of the following is a disadvantage of a semi-structured data warehouse for storing information?

The traditional relational data model has a popular and ready-made query language, SQL.
A programmer can serialize objects via a lightweight library.
Support for nested or hierarchical data often simplifies data models representing complex relationships between entities.
Support for lists of objects simplifies data models by avoiding the messy translations of lists into a relational data model.

A

The traditional way of storing data in a relational database actually creates a disadvantage for semi-structured data models. The popularity and ease with which the ready-made query language is written keeps people from migrating to new systems.

Programmers who place objects from their application into a database do not need to worry about object-relational impedance mismatch, but can often serialize objects via a lightweight library.

Support for nested or hierarchical data often simplifies data models representing complex relationships between entities.

Support for lists of objects simplifies data models by avoiding messy the translations of lists into a relational data model.

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231
Q

How do you protect an idea or invention without actually creating an example of it?

You can patent it
You can copyright it
You can trademark it
You can send a copy to yourself

A

A patent allows you to protect an idea or invention without even having to create it.

A copyright is an automatic legal protection granted to certain types of work, but before a copyright can be applied the work must have been created and a sample has to be shown.

A trademark is a protection applied to a name and/or logo so that a company can promote its goods without someone else taking their name and/or logo.

The practice of sending a copy of your own work to yourself is sometimes called a “poor man’s copyright.” It does not guarantee protection.

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232
Q

When does data become information?

When it is applied to some purpose and adds timely value for the recipient
When it is presented as unprocessed facts and figures without any added interpretation or analysis
It does not matter when data is applied and turned into information.
Data does not have to be readily available to be useful.

A

Data becomes information when it is applied to some purpose and adds value for the recipient. For example, a set of raw sales figures is data. For the sales manager tasked with deciding the future focus of a sales drive, the raw data needs to be processed into a sales report. It is the sales report that provides information.

Data that is presented unprocessed, without any added interpretation or analysis, is considered “raw data.”

Data that arrives after you have made your decision is of no value.

Data must be readily available for processing into information.

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233
Q

What is a copyright used for?

It is a legal protection granted to certain types of work that gives its holder the right to control the use of the work, including rights of publication, distribution, or sale.
It is the protection of a name or logo that a company can use to promote its goods.
It protects an idea or invention without the need to put it into practice or create it.
It protects an idea when you send a copy of your own work to yourself.

A

A copyright is an automatic legal protection granted to certain types of work, indicating that the copyright holder owns the right to control the use of the work, including rights of publication, distribution, or sale.

A trademark is a protection applied to a name and/or logo so that a company can promote its goods without someone else taking their name and/or logo.

A patent allows you to protect an idea or invention without even having to create it.

The practice of sending a copy of your own work to yourself is sometimes called a “poor man’s copyright.” There is no provision in copyright law regarding any such type of protection, and it is not a substitute for registration.

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234
Q

What is data correlation?

The process of analyzing the whole data set and finding connections and links between data points

The process of capturing and collecting data and information

The presentation of information in a meaningful output

The raw data itself

A

Data correlation is the analysis of the whole data set to find connections and links between data points. The ability of software to perform data correlation without much human intervention is greatly boosted by the development of Artificial Intelligence (AI) and machine learning systems.

Data capture and the collection of information is done prior to data correlation.

The presentation of information in a meaningful output is the outcome of data correlation.

The raw data is the data collected during the data capture phase.

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235
Q

In Information Technology (IT) terminology, what is ROSI and how do you calculate it?

Return on Security Investment; to calculate ROSI, you perform risk assessments to work out how much the loss of data would cost your organization and how likely it is that data loss might occur when an attacker removes data from your network without authorization.

Return on Spending Index; to calculate ROSI, divide your revenue by spending to find the return.

Reporting of Safety Information; to calculate ROSI, you must compare your company’s safety performance against a national or stage average to come up with the incident rate.

Radio signaling protocol; ROSI is the calculated use of abbreviation or slang over radio communications.

A

In IT terminology, ROSI refers to Return on Security Investment. To determine ROSI, we simply subtract what we expect to lose in a year (ALE) from the annual cost of intrusion. T is the cost of the intrusion detection tool. E is the dollar savings gained by stopping any number of intrusions through the introduction of an intrusion detection tool. R is the cost per year to recover from any number of intrusions. (R - E) + T = ALE and R - (ALE) = ROSI.

ROSI does also stand for Return on Spending Index, but this is a marketing tool and not an IT term.

ROSI does also stand for Report of Safety Information, but this is an OSHA safety report and not an IT term.

ROSI is a signal protocol for radio communication, but this is not an IT term.

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236
Q

Which of the following statements about the protection of data is true?

Data can be considered an asset and as such it has commercial value.

Data cannot be protected because it has no material substance.

Nobody can take data or information without you knowing.

If you run a small business, you are not vulnerable to hackers because they go after big corporations.

A

For organizations, and even for individuals, computer data can be considered an asset. An asset is something of commercial value. Therefore, it is important that you take the steps necessary to protect this asset.

Regardless of whether or not data has a material substance, it still has value and it certainly isn’t free (unless released as free for use).

Without protection, anybody can take data without your knowledge. You may want to invest in private clouds. They are a bit more expensive, but they tend to have more stringent safety measures and fewer points of entry for hackers.

To assume that hackers only go after big corporations is a fallacy. The truth is that over 70% of cyberattacks are made against businesses that employ fewer than 100 people.

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237
Q

What is a data breach?

When your network exposes private data publicly, whether or not the data is actively stolen

When your anti-virus software blocks a hacker from accessing your data

When the technician accesses your computer with remote desktop software

When your network is attacked by a denial of service attack and all of your cloud information is inaccessible

A

A data breach is an incident that involves the unauthorized or illegal viewing, access, or retrieval of data by an individual, application, or service. It is designed to steal and/or publish data to an unsecured or illegal location.

If your anti-virus software picks up an attack and informs you that it was blocked, then you are relatively safe from a data breach.

If a technician accesses your computer using remote desktop software to assist you, they are not committing a data breach.

If your network is attacked by a denial of service attack and you are unable to access your cloud data, then it is an issue of availability and not necessarily a data breach.

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238
Q

What is used to protect a name or logo?

A trademark protects a unique element such as a company name or logo.

A copyright of the name and logo will allow you to maintain the right to control and use them.

A patent will protect a name or logo.

Sending a copy of your own name or logo to yourself will protect it.

A

A trademark protects a name and/or logo so that a company can promote its goods without someone else taking their name or logo.

A copyright gives its owner the rights of publication, distribution, or sale, but is not used to protect names and/or logos.

A patent allows you to protect an idea or invention without even having to create it.

The practice of sending a copy of your own work to yourself is sometimes called a “poor man’s copyright.” There is no provision in copyright law regarding any such type of protection, and it is not a substitute for registration.

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239
Q

What is the first step needed to begin a data-driven business decision?

Set-up of a data capture and collection system
Correlation of data
Meaningful reporting
Business decisions should not be data driven

A

There are three systems associated with the data-driven business decision: data collection, data correlation, and meaningful reporting. It all starts with data collection. This is the step in which you collect all the data before analysis is done (often referred to as raw data).

While data correlation is a part of the data-driven business decision process, it does not necessarily have to be set up at the beginning. In fact, you cannot begin correlating data until you have that data.

Meaningful and understandable reporting is the necessary endpoint of the process.

Every business decision should be data driven.

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240
Q

What activities must one perform to make data-driven business decisions?

Capture data, correlate the data, and convert it into meaningful reports

Capture data and share with the interested parties

Know what you are doing, where you are going, and how you are going to get there.

Transfer authority to the computer, allow it to analyze your problem, and trust that it will do the right thing

A

To make data-driven business decisions you must capture data, correlate it, and convert that data into meaningful reports.

Data without correlation or meaningful reporting remains “raw data” and cannot be used to make a data-driven business decision.

While it may sound like a good marketing phrase, data-driven business decisions do not require you to know “what you are doing, where you are going, and how you are going to get there.”

The authority to make the decision ultimately lies with the person making the decision, often the CEO. A data-driven business decision provides a meaningful report that allows the CEO to make an informed decision.

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241
Q

What is a data exfiltration?

A security breach that occurs when an individual’s or organization’s data is illegally copied with or without their knowledge

A security breach in which a hacker has attached malicious code to a program and attacked your computer, eliminating your data

A security breach in which a hacker makes software that looks legitimate but can take control of your computer

A security breach in which a hacker hides a damaging image or file inside an image, causing damage to your computer

A

Data exfiltration occurs when an intentional data breach has been conducted and information is illegally copied out of your organization without your approval.

Malicious code usually comes in the form of a virus and is an infiltration rather than an exfiltration.

When a hacker uses software that looks legitimate but it takes over your computer, it is called a Trojan Horse or Trojan Virus. This is a type of virus, though it can result in an exfiltration of data without your knowledge.

Hiding something within an image with the intent of damaging a computer is a type of viral attack called steganography.

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242
Q

How is intellectual property protected?

Intellectual property can be protected through trademarks, copyrights, and patents.

Only physical property can be protected by trademarks, copyrights, and patents.

Intellectual property needs to be registered with the manufacturer to be protected.

Intellectual property cannot be protected because it has no substance.

A

Intellectual property consists of items you have created that are unique and that provide you with an economic benefit. It includes inventions, designs, original works of authorship, and trade secrets. How you protect your intellectual property depends on what types of intellectual property you have. It can be protected through trademarks, copyrights, and patents.

Intellectual property doesn’t have to be physical property to be protected—an idea can be protected as well.

A warranty needs to be registered with the manufacturer, but this is related to items you purchase, not intellectual property.

Intellectual property may be protected even if it does not have substance.

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243
Q

What invention was created to try to enforce copyright protection on digital products?

Digital Rights Management (DRM) systems

There are currently no inventions that have been created to enforce this

The Digital Protection Enforcement (DPE) system

A privacy screen protector for mobile devices

A

Digital rights management (DRM) is a set of access control technologies for restricting the use of proprietary hardware and copyrighted works. “Pay-per-use” policies were meant to prevent intellectual property from being copied freely, just as physical locks are needed to prevent personal property from being stolen.

There are actually many different types of DRMs in place to enforce copyright protection for digital products, specifically music, movies, and video games.

Digital Protection Enforcement systems (DPE) are not actual access-control technologies.

Although a privacy screen protector may prevent wandering eyes from seeing intellectual property, it will not enforce copyright protections.

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244
Q

What is an example of a digital product?

A video download
A computer case
Documentation that supports computer software
A computer monitor

A

A digital product is one that is sold or distributed as binary computer data. Digital products typically have low manufacturing and distribution costs, though hosted products can have substantial infrastructure costs. Examples of digital products include software, computer games, eBooks, music tracks, streaming video, and video downloads.

A computer case is an example of physical hardware.

Software support documentation is used to assist you in loading, running, and troubleshooting a program. It is not considered a digital product.

A computer monitor is an example of an output peripheral device.

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245
Q

What is used in lieu of a copyright to protect a name or logo?

A trademark
A patent
A trade secret law
A business plan

A

A trademark allows a company to protect a distinctive name and/or logo so the company can promote its goods.

A patent allows you to protect an idea or invention without even having to create it.

A trade secret law does not protect a name or logo; it can, however protect any formula, pattern, device, or compilation of information that is used in one’s business and that gives one an opportunity to obtain an advantage over competitors who do not know or use it.

A business plan can help you develop your path toward success, but it does not protect your name or logo without a copyright.

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246
Q

Why is meaningful reporting an important factor of data-driven business decisions?

It allows a human to analyze and interpret the information
It ensures you collected all the raw data
It correlates and attempts to find a connection and link between data points
Data-driven business decisions dont require meaninful reprots

A

To inform human decision making at the insights layer, the information identified by the analytics system must be presented in ways that humans can analyze and interpret.

While it is important to collect all of the raw data and information prior to data correlation, the meaningful report is not intended to confirm this process.

Data correlation is the analysis of the whole data set to find connections and links between data points.

Data-driven business decisions need meaningful reports. They are the product of the whole process.

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247
Q

Which is NOT a reason cybersecurity is important?

The effectiveness of defense methods is decreasing
The number of threats is increasing
The severity of attacks is increasing
Risks will continue to be a concern in the future

A

Cybersecurity is important because the numbers of threats are rising, the severity of attacks is increasing, and the future outlook indicates that cybersecurity risk will continue to be a concern. The effectiveness of defense methods is not decreasing.

The number of cybersecurity attacks is increasing every year. From a total cost of $445 billion in 2014, the cost of cybercrimes reached $600 billion in 2017.

In addition to more attacks, the severity of attacks is also on the rise.

Risks will continue to be a concern in the future, and many companies recognize that cybersecurity is an area worthy of commitment and are taking preventative action against threats.

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248
Q

What do you call an action through which someone uses, makes, sells, or imports your invention without your permission?

Patent infringement
An intellectual property crime
Copyright infringement
A tenchocrime

A

Patent infringement occurs when someone uses, makes, sells, or imports your patented invention without your permission.

An intellectual property crime is one in which you can prove that an idea was originally yours even though you may not have placed a copyright or patent on it.

Copyright infringement happens when somebody reproduces your copyrighted property or distributes unauthorized copies of works either online or by manufacturing and distributing infringing CDs or DVDs.

Technocrime is the term used by law enforcement agencies to denote criminal activity that uses (computer) technology not as a tool to commit a crime, but as the subject of the crime itself.

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249
Q

Which of these is NOT an example of security controls?

Audits and inventories
Access controls
Backups
High availability

A

Audits and inventories are important activities for measuring accountability within your organization, but they are not specific security controls.

Access controls are security controls that limit the use of a computing device to an authorized person, such as its owner. Access control on workstation operating systems is usually enforced by the restrictions of user accounts.

Backups are security controls that ensure business integrity and continuity in the event of a data loss. Having a backup enables you to restore your data when needed.

High availability is a preventive security control that ensures users always have access to their data. When a system is regularly non-functioning, information availability is affected, significantly impacting users.

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250
Q

Which of these is NOT a positive trait of a digital product in regard to the value assigned to information and data?

Digital sales through peer-to-peer transactions make it easier to sell information without the oversight of an institutional set of rules.

A digital product is one that is sold or distributed as binary computer data.

Digital products typically have low manufacturing and distribution costs.

The ability to sell information via hosting has increased the availability and accessibility of information even though infrastructure costs can be high.

A

Uncontrolled peer-to-peer transactions make it easier to sell information without the oversight of an institutional set of rules. This is how the online black market was created with the development of underground economies like Silk Road.

One of the key traits of data in terms of value in information stems from that fact that a digital product is one that is sold or distributed as binary computer data.

Due to technical advancements, digital products typically have low manufacturing and distribution costs.

The ability to sell information via hosting has increased the availability and accessibility of information even though infrastructure costs can be high.

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251
Q

Which of the following is a disadvantage of a semi-structured data warehouse for storing information?

The traditional relational data model has a popular and ready-made query language, SQL.

A programmer can serialize objects via a lightweight library.

Support for nested or hierarchical data often simplifies data models representing complex relationships between entities.

Support for lists of objects simplifies data models by avoiding the messy translations of lists into a relational data model.

A

The traditional way of storing data in a relational database actually creates a disadvantage for semi-structured data models. The popularity and ease with which the ready-made query language is written keeps people from migrating to new systems.

Programmers who place objects from their application into a database do not need to worry about object-relational impedance mismatch, but can often serialize objects via a lightweight library.

Support for nested or hierarchical data often simplifies data models representing complex relationships between entities.

Support for lists of objects simplifies data models by avoiding messy the translations of lists into a relational data model.

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252
Q

How do you protect an idea or invention without actually creating an example of it?

You can patent it
You can copyright it
You can trademark it
You can send a copy to yourself

A

A patent allows you to protect an idea or invention without even having to create it.

A copyright is an automatic legal protection granted to certain types of work, but before a copyright can be applied the work must have been created and a sample has to be shown.

A trademark is a protection applied to a name and/or logo so that a company can promote its goods without someone else taking their name and/or logo.

The practice of sending a copy of your own work to yourself is sometimes called a “poor man’s copyright.” It does not guarantee protection.

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253
Q

When does data become information?

When it is applied to some purpose and adds timely value for the recipient
When it is presented as unprocessed facts and figures without any added interpretation or analysis
It does not matter when data is applied and turned into information
Data does not have to be readily available to be useful

A

Data becomes information when it is applied to some purpose and adds value for the recipient. For example, a set of raw sales figures is data. For the sales manager tasked with deciding the future focus of a sales drive, the raw data needs to be processed into a sales report. It is the sales report that provides information.

Data that is presented unprocessed, without any added interpretation or analysis, is considered “raw data.”

Data that arrives after you have made your decision is of no value.

Data must be readily available for processing into information.

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254
Q

What is a copyright used for?

It is a legal protection granted to certain types of work that gives its holder the right to control the use of the work, including rights of publication, distribution, or sale.

It is the protection of a name or logo that a company can use to promote its goods.

It protects an idea or invention without the need to put it into practice or create it.

It protects an idea when you send a copy of your own work to yourself.

A

A copyright is an automatic legal protection granted to certain types of work, indicating that the copyright holder owns the right to control the use of the work, including rights of publication, distribution, or sale.

A trademark is a protection applied to a name and/or logo so that a company can promote its goods without someone else taking their name and/or logo.

A patent allows you to protect an idea or invention without even having to create it.

The practice of sending a copy of your own work to yourself is sometimes called a “poor man’s copyright.” There is no provision in copyright law regarding any such type of protection, and it is not a substitute for registration.

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255
Q

What is data correlation?

The process of analyzing the whole data set and finding connections and links between data points
The process of capturing and collecting data and information
The presentation of information in a meaninful ouput
The raw data itself

A

Data correlation is the analysis of the whole data set to find connections and links between data points. The ability of software to perform data correlation without much human intervention is greatly boosted by the development of Artificial Intelligence (AI) and machine learning systems.

Data capture and the collection of information is done prior to data correlation.

The presentation of information in a meaningful output is the outcome of data correlation.

The raw data is the data collected during the data capture phase.

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256
Q

In Information Technology (IT) terminology, what is ROSI and how do you calculate it?

Return on Security Investment; to calculate ROSI, you perform risk assessments to work out how much the loss of data would cost your organization and how likely it is that data loss might occur when an attacker removes data from your network without authorization.

Return on Spending Index; to calculate ROSI, divide your revenue by spending to find the return.

Reporting of Safety Information; to calculate ROSI, you must compare your company’s safety performance against a national or stage average to come up with the incident rate.

Radio signaling protocol; ROSI is the calculated use of abbreviation or slang over radio communications.

A

In IT terminology, ROSI refers to Return on Security Investment. To determine ROSI, we simply subtract what we expect to lose in a year (ALE) from the annual cost of intrusion. T is the cost of the intrusion detection tool. E is the dollar savings gained by stopping any number of intrusions through the introduction of an intrusion detection tool. R is the cost per year to recover from any number of intrusions. (R - E) + T = ALE and R - (ALE) = ROSI.

ROSI does also stand for Return on Spending Index, but this is a marketing tool and not an IT term.

ROSI does also stand for Report of Safety Information, but this is an OSHA safety report and not an IT term.

ROSI is a signal protocol for radio communication, but this is not an IT term.

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257
Q

Which of the following statements about the protection of data is true?

Data can be considered an asset and as such it has commercial value.

Data cannot be protected because it has no material substance.

Nobody can take data or information without you knowing.

If you run a small business, you are not vulnerable to hackers because they go after big corporations.

A

For organizations, and even for individuals, computer data can be considered an asset. An asset is something of commercial value. Therefore, it is important that you take the steps necessary to protect this asset.

Regardless of whether or not data has a material substance, it still has value and it certainly isn’t free (unless released as free for use).

Without protection, anybody can take data without your knowledge. You may want to invest in private clouds. They are a bit more expensive, but they tend to have more stringent safety measures and fewer points of entry for hackers.

To assume that hackers only go after big corporations is a fallacy. The truth is that over 70% of cyberattacks are made against businesses that employ fewer than 100 people.

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258
Q

What is a data breach?

When your network exposes private data publicly, whether or not the data is actively stolen

When your anti-virus software blocks a hacker from accessing your data

When the technician accesses your computer with remote desktop software

When your network is attacked by a denial of service attack and all of your cloud information is inaccessible

A

A data breach is an incident that involves the unauthorized or illegal viewing, access, or retrieval of data by an individual, application, or service. It is designed to steal and/or publish data to an unsecured or illegal location.

If your anti-virus software picks up an attack and informs you that it was blocked, then you are relatively safe from a data breach.

If a technician accesses your computer using remote desktop software to assist you, they are not committing a data breach.

If your network is attacked by a denial of service attack and you are unable to access your cloud data, then it is an issue of availability and not necessarily a data breach.

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259
Q

What is used to protect a name or logo?

A trademark protects a unique element such as a company name or logo.

A copyright of the name and logo will allow you to maintain the right to control and use them.

A patent will protect a name or logo.

Sending a copy of your own name or logo to yourself will protect it.

A

A trademark protects a name and/or logo so that a company can promote its goods without someone else taking their name or logo.

A copyright gives its owner the rights of publication, distribution, or sale, but is not used to protect names and/or logos.

A patent allows you to protect an idea or invention without even having to create it.

The practice of sending a copy of your own work to yourself is sometimes called a “poor man’s copyright.” There is no provision in copyright law regarding any such type of protection, and it is not a substitute for registration.

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260
Q

What is the first step needed to begin a data-driven business decision?

Set-up of a data capture and collection system
Correlation of data
Meaningful reporting
Business decisions should not be data driven

A

There are three systems associated with the data-driven business decision: data collection, data correlation, and meaningful reporting. It all starts with data collection. This is the step in which you collect all the data before analysis is done (often referred to as raw data).

While data correlation is a part of the data-driven business decision process, it does not necessarily have to be set up at the beginning. In fact, you cannot begin correlating data until you have that data.

Meaningful and understandable reporting is the necessary endpoint of the process.

Every business decision should be data driven.

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261
Q

What activities must one perform to make data-driven business decisions?

Capture data, correlate the data, and convert it into meaningful reports

Capture data and share with the interested parties

Know what you are doing, where you are going, and how you are going to get there.

Transfer authority to the computer, allow it to analyze your problem, and trust that it will do the right thing

A

To make data-driven business decisions you must capture data, correlate it, and convert that data into meaningful reports.

Data without correlation or meaningful reporting remains “raw data” and cannot be used to make a data-driven business decision.

While it may sound like a good marketing phrase, data-driven business decisions do not require you to know “what you are doing, where you are going, and how you are going to get there.”

The authority to make the decision ultimately lies with the person making the decision, often the CEO. A data-driven business decision provides a meaningful report that allows the CEO to make an informed decision.

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262
Q

What is a data exfiltration?

A security breach that occurs when an individual’s or organization’s data is illegally copied with or without their knowledge

A security breach in which a hacker has attached malicious code to a program and attacked your computer, eliminating your data

A security breach in which a hacker makes software that looks legitimate but can take control of your computer

A security breach in which a hacker hides a damaging image or file inside an image, causing damage to your computer

A

Data exfiltration occurs when an intentional data breach has been conducted and information is illegally copied out of your organization without your approval.

Malicious code usually comes in the form of a virus and is an infiltration rather than an exfiltration.

When a hacker uses software that looks legitimate but it takes over your computer, it is called a Trojan Horse or Trojan Virus. This is a type of virus, though it can result in an exfiltration of data without your knowledge.

Hiding something within an image with the intent of damaging a computer is a type of viral attack called steganography.

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263
Q

How is intellectual property protected?

Intellectual property can be protected through trademarks, copyrights, and patents.

Only physical property can be protected by trademarks, copyrights, and patents.

Intellectual property needs to be registered with the manufacturer to be protected.

Intellectual property cannot be protected because it has no substance.

A

Intellectual property consists of items you have created that are unique and that provide you with an economic benefit. It includes inventions, designs, original works of authorship, and trade secrets. How you protect your intellectual property depends on what types of intellectual property you have. It can be protected through trademarks, copyrights, and patents.

Intellectual property doesn’t have to be physical property to be protected—an idea can be protected as well.

A warranty needs to be registered with the manufacturer, but this is related to items you purchase, not intellectual property.

Intellectual property may be protected even if it does not have substance.

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264
Q

What invention was created to try to enforce copyright protection on digital products?

Digital Rights Management (DRM) systems

There are currently no inventions that have been created to enforce this

The Digital Protection Enforcement (DPE) system

A privacy screen protector for mobile devices

A

Digital rights management (DRM) is a set of access control technologies for restricting the use of proprietary hardware and copyrighted works. “Pay-per-use” policies were meant to prevent intellectual property from being copied freely, just as physical locks are needed to prevent personal property from being stolen.

There are actually many different types of DRMs in place to enforce copyright protection for digital products, specifically music, movies, and video games.

Digital Protection Enforcement systems (DPE) are not actual access-control technologies.

Although a privacy screen protector may prevent wandering eyes from seeing intellectual property, it will not enforce copyright protections.

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265
Q

What is an example of a digital product?

A video download

A computer case

Documentation that supports computer software

A computer monitor

A

A digital product is one that is sold or distributed as binary computer data. Digital products typically have low manufacturing and distribution costs, though hosted products can have substantial infrastructure costs. Examples of digital products include software, computer games, eBooks, music tracks, streaming video, and video downloads.

A computer case is an example of physical hardware.

Software support documentation is used to assist you in loading, running, and troubleshooting a program. It is not considered a digital product.

A computer monitor is an example of an output peripheral device.

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266
Q

What is used in lieu of a copyright to protect a name or logo?

A trademark

A patent

A trade secret law

A business plan

A

A trademark allows a company to protect a distinctive name and/or logo so the company can promote its goods.

A patent allows you to protect an idea or invention without even having to create it.

A trade secret law does not protect a name or logo; it can, however protect any formula, pattern, device, or compilation of information that is used in one’s business and that gives one an opportunity to obtain an advantage over competitors who do not know or use it.

A business plan can help you develop your path toward success, but it does not protect your name or logo without a copyright.

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267
Q

Why is meaningful reporting an important factor of data-driven business decisions?

It allows a human to analyze and interpret the information.

It ensures you collected all the raw data.

It correlates and attempts to find a connection and link between data points.

Data-driven business decisions don’t require meaningful reports.

A

To inform human decision making at the insights layer, the information identified by the analytics system must be presented in ways that humans can analyze and interpret.

While it is important to collect all of the raw data and information prior to data correlation, the meaningful report is not intended to confirm this process.

Data correlation is the analysis of the whole data set to find connections and links between data points.

Data-driven business decisions need meaningful reports. They are the product of the whole process.

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268
Q

Which is NOT a reason cybersecurity is important?

The effectiveness of defense methods is decreasing.

The number of threats is increasing.

The severity of attacks is increasing.

Risks will continue to be a concern in the future.

A

Cybersecurity is important because the numbers of threats are rising, the severity of attacks is increasing, and the future outlook indicates that cybersecurity risk will continue to be a concern. The effectiveness of defense methods is not decreasing.

The number of cybersecurity attacks is increasing every year. From a total cost of $445 billion in 2014, the cost of cybercrimes reached $600 billion in 2017.

In addition to more attacks, the severity of attacks is also on the rise.

Risks will continue to be a concern in the future, and many companies recognize that cybersecurity is an area worthy of commitment and are taking preventative action against threats.

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269
Q

Small files are often measured in what unit?

Kilobyte (KB), or 1000 bytes

Kbps, or 1000 bits per second

A binary digit/bit, 0 or 1

A byte, which is eight bits

A

The Kilobyte (KB) is used to represent 1000 bytes and is used for small files and older computer files.

Kbps, or 1000 bits per second, is not a measurement of the size of a file but of the speed at which data is transferred between devices on the bus.

One bit takes one storage location in memory. It is the smallest unit of data storage.

A collection of eight bits is called a byte. It is used to store a single character. The capacity of the memory or the storage is expressed in terms of bytes.

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270
Q

Small files are often measured in what unit?

Kilobyte (KB), or 1000 bytes

Kbps, or 1000 bits per second

A binary digit/bit, 0 or 1

A byte, which is eight bits

A

The Kilobyte (KB) is used to represent 1000 bytes and is used for small files and older computer files.

Kbps, or 1000 bits per second, is not a measurement of the size of a file but of the speed at which data is transferred between devices on the bus.

One bit takes one storage location in memory. It is the smallest unit of data storage.

A collection of eight bits is called a byte. It is used to store a single character. The capacity of the memory or the storage is expressed in terms of bytes.

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271
Q

Older computer peripheral interfaces and slow network links are measured in what type of throughput unit?

Kbps, or 1000 bits per second

Gigabyte (GB), or 1000 x 1000 x 1000 bytes

Gbps, or 1,000,000,000 bits per second

Megabyte (MB), or 1000 x 1000 bytes

A

Slow network links and older legacy computers measure their throughput in Kbps.

The Gigabyte is not a throughput unit of measurement. It is commonly used to represent disk capacity.

Gbps is used as a measurement of throughput speed, but it is not used to refer to slow network links or older legacy computers. The latest PC bus standards and networks use Gbps as the standard for throughput speed.

A Megabyte is not a throughput rate. It is a unit of storage representing 1000 x 1000 bytes, and is commonly used to measure medium to large files.

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272
Q

What is the first multiple of a bit?

The byte, which represents eight bits

The binary digit or bit, which can represent two values (0 or 1)

The Kilobyte (KB), which is 1000 bytes

The Megabyte (MB), which is 1000 x 1000 bytes

A

A collection of eight bits is called a byte. It is used to store a single character. The capacity of memory or storage is expressed in terms of bytes.

A computer works with binary digits. These digits are in the form of 0s and 1s. A binary digit is called a bit. One bit takes one storage location in memory. It is the smallest unit of data storage and not a multiple at all.

The Kilobyte represents 1000 bytes, so it is not the smallest multiple.

The Megabyte represents 1000 x 1000 bytes, so it is not the smallest multiple either.

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273
Q

Modern Central Processing Units (CPUs) and bus types plus fiber optic network equipment work at what signal speed?

Gigahertz (GHz) or 1000 million cycles per second

Petabyte 1000 TB

Megabyte (MB) 1000 x 1000 bytes

Megahertz (MHz) or 1 million cycles per second

A

Gigahertz (GHz) or 1000 million cycles per second

Unselected
Petabyte 1000 TB

Unselected
Megabyte (MB) 1000 x 1000 bytes

Unselected
Megahertz (MHz) or 1 million cycles per second

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274
Q

Older bus interfaces and many types of network interfaces work at what signal speed?

MHz, or 1 million cycles per second

Kbps, or 1,000 bits per second

GB, or 1000 x 1000 x 1000 bytes

Gbps, or 1,000,000,000 bits per second

A

MHz, or 1 million cycles per second

Unselected
Kbps, or 1,000 bits per second

Unselected
GB, or 1000 x 1000 x 1000 bytes

Unselected
Gbps, or 1,000,000,000 bits per second

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275
Q

Newer hard disks and other large storage networks can be measured in what unit?

Terabyte, or 1000 GB

The bit, which represents two values (0 or 1)

Megahertz (MHz), or 1 million cycles per second

Mbps, or 1,000,000 bits per second

A

A Terabyte represents 1000 GB and it is the unit of measure for newer hard disks and other large storage networks.

A bit is a unit of measurement for capacity, but it is the smallest unit and can’t be used for large storage networks or newer hard drives.

Megahertz is not a unit of measurement for storage. It is a measurement of the frequency at which you transmit data or the speed at which the hard drive spins to process data.

Mbps does not represent disk capacity, but is a representation of speed.

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276
Q

What unit is used to measure large storage network and cloud systems?

Petabyte, or 1000 TB

Megabyte (MB), or 1000 x 1000 bytes

Megahertz (MHz), or 1 million cycles per second

Mbps, or 1,000,000 bits per second

A

The Petabyte is currently the largest storage capacity unit of measurement. It represents 1000 Terabytes and is used for large storage networks and cloud storage.

A Megabyte represents 1000 x 1000 bytes and is used to measure medium to large files.

Megahertz is not a unit of measurement for storage. It is a measurement of the frequency at which you transmit data or the speed at which the hard drive spins to process data.

Mbps is not a measurement of storage. It is commonly used for wireless networks and residential internet links as a measurement of throughput speed.

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277
Q

What is the basic unit of computer data?

The binary digit or bit, which can represent two values (0 or 1)

The byte is the first multiple of the bit and it represents eight bits.

The Gigabyte (GB), which is 1000 x 1000 x 1000 bytes

The Megabyte (MB) which is 1000 x 1000 bytes

A

A computer works with binary digits. These digits are in the form of 0s and 1s. A binary digit is called a bit. One bit takes one storage location in memory. It is the smallest unit of data storage.

A collection of eight bits is called a byte. It is used to store a single character. The capacity of the memory or storage is expressed in terms of bytes.

A Gigabyte is 1000 x 1000 x 1000 bytes and is therefore not the most basic unit of computer data.

A Megabyte is 1000 x 1000 bytes, and like a Gigabyte it is too big to be the most basic unit of computer data.

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278
Q

What throughput capacity is found in major telecommunications links between data centers, cities, and countries?

Tbps, or 1,000,000,000,000 bits per second

Kbps, or 1000 bits per second

Mbps, or 1,000,000 bits per second

Gbps, or 1,000,000,000 bits per second

A

Major telecommunications links between data centers, cities, and countries are measured in Tbps, or 1,000,000,000,000 bits per second.

Slow network links and older legacy computers measure their throughput in Kbps, or 1000 bits per second. This measurement is too small for major telecommunications links.

Wireless networks and residential internet links typically use Mbps, or 1,000,000 bps, as a throughput speed. This measurement is too small for major telecommunications links.

The latest PC bus standards and networks can support Gbps, or 1,000,000,000 bits per second as a throughput speed. This measurement is too small for major telecommunications links.

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279
Q

Medium to large files are measured in what unit?

The Megabyte (MB), which is 1000 x 1000 bytes

Megahertz (MHz), which is 1 million cycles per second

Mbps, which is 1,000,000 bits per second

Kbps, which is 1000 bits per second

A

Medium to large files are measured in Megabytes, or MB. One MB is one million bytes, or 1000 x 1000 bytes.

Megahertz, or MHz, is not a unit of measurement for file storage, but of the frequency at which data is transmitted, or the speed at which the hard drive spins to process data.

Mbps stands for megabits per second and is a way to measure the throughput or speed of a network, not file storage.

Kbps stands for kilobits per second and is a way to measure the throughput or speed of a network (typically for slower network links or older legacy computers), not file storage.

280
Q

What unit of measure is used to describe disk capacity?

The Gigabyte (GB), which is 1000 x 1000 x 1000 bytes

Gbps, which is 1,000,000,000 bits per second

Gigahertz (GHz), which is 1000 million cycles per second

Kbps, which is 1,000 bits per second

A

The Gigabyte is commonly used to represent disk capacity.

Gbps is used as a measurement of throughput speed. The latest PC bus standards and networks use Gbps as the standard for throughput speed.

Gigahertz (GHz) is not used as a unit of measurement for disk capacity. Gigahertz is a measurement of the frequency at which you transmit data and is commonly used to describe the speed of modern CPUs and bus types and the frequency at which fiber optic network equipment can transmit data.

Kbps does not represent disk capacity but is a representation of speed.

281
Q

Wireless networks and residential Internet links typically have what throughput speed?
Mbps, or 1,000,000 bits per second

The binary digit or bit, which can represent two values (0 or 1)

The Kilobyte (KB), or 1000 bytes

Megabyte (MB), or 1000 x 1000 bytes

A

Wireless networks and residential Internet links typically use Mbps, or 1,000,000,000 bps as a throughput speed.

One bit is the smallest unit of data storage and takes one storage location in memory. It is not a measure of throughput speed.

The Kilobyte is not a throughput unit of measure. It is a storage unit of measurement commonly used for small files and older computer files.

A Megabyte is not a throughput rate. It is a unit of storage representing 1000 x 1000 bytes, and is commonly used to measure medium to large files.

282
Q

The latest PC bus standards and networks can support what higher level of throughput speed?

Gbps, or 1,000,000,000 bits per second

Mbps, or 1,000,000 bits per second

MB, or 1000 x 1000 bytes

GHz, or 1000 million cycles per second

A

Gigabits per second (Gbps), or 1,000,000,000 bits per second, is the throughput speed that the latest PC bus standards and networks can support.

Wireless networks and residential internet links typically use Megabits per second (Mbps), or 1,000,000 bps, as a throughput speed. The latest PC bus standards and networks are faster.

A Megabyte (MB) is not a throughput rate. It is a unit of storage and represents 1000 x 1000 bytes commonly used to measure medium to large files.

Gigahertz (GHz) is not a throughput rate. It is a measurement of the frequency at which data is transmitted, or the speed at which the hard drive spins to process data.

283
Q

When data is transferred between components in the computer or between computers over a network, the throughput rate is measured in what unit?

Bits per second (bps)

Kilobytes (KB)

Megabytes (MB)

Megahertz (MHz)

A

The throughput rate that a particular connection can sustain is measured in bits per second (bps). This is the basic unit of measure that is used to measure data when it is transferred between components in the computer or between computers over a network.

The Kilobyte (KB) is not a throughput rate. It is a unit of storage representing 1000 bytes and is used for small files and older computer files.

A Megabyte (MB) is not a throughput rate. It is a unit of storage representing 1000 x 1000 bytes and is commonly used to measure medium to large files.

Megahertz (MHz) it is not a throughput rate. It is a measurement of the frequency at which you transmit data or the speed at which the hard drive spins to process data.

284
Q

You are advising a colleague about best practices when troubleshooting. You have suggested the following actions to help identify the problem: Gather information, duplicate the problem, question users, identify symptoms, and approach multiple problems individually.

If you are following the troubleshooting model, what other piece of advice should you give?

Determine if anything has changed.

Research the knowledge base.

Establish a theory of probable cause.

Test the theory to determine a cause.

A

The first step of the troubleshooting model is to identify the problem. This involves the actions mentioned in the scenario, but the action that is missing is to determine if anything has changed.

Researching the knowledge base is part of the second step of the troubleshooting model, which occurs after identifying the problem.

Establishing a theory of probable cause is the third step of the troubleshooting model, which occurs after conducting research.

Testing the theory is the fourth step of the troubleshooting model, which occurs after establishing a theory of probable cause.

285
Q

What command would you use if you wanted the computer to obtain an IP address from the network host?

ipconfig /renew

ipconfig /refresh

ipconfig /request

ipconfig /update

A

The ipconfig /renew command will re-establish a TCP/IP connection on all network adapters. This command is often used after the ipconfig /release command, which frees up the IP addresses on all adapters. This command requires that the client is configured to use DHCP.

Ipconfig /refresh is not a command, but a refresh can be done by typing ipconfig /release and ipconfig /renew.

Ipconfig /request is not a command for the same reason.

Ipconfig /update is not a command, but if you would like to see everything about your active TCP/IP connection, you can type ipconfig/ all.

286
Q

If you purchase and install a third-party graphics card into your workstation, what should you do to ensure its proper operation?

Disable the onboard graphics card.

Disable your antivirus program.

Disable your BIOS password.

Install a firmware update on your system’s motherboard.

A

Disable your onboard graphics card to prevent any conflicts between the two. The exception to this rule is if you’re going to operate two separate monitors, one attached to a separate graphics card.

Your antivirus program does not influence the use of your onboard or third-party graphics card. It may be necessary to scan the storage media on which the driver is located.

Disabling your BIOS password would put your computer at risk and has nothing to do with the use of your new graphics card.

Installing a firmware update on your system’s motherboard may affect the onboard graphics card but you are trying to install a third-party graphics card.

287
Q

In which step of the troubleshooting process do you question the obvious?

The third step, in which you establish a theory of probable cause

The first step, in which you gather information about the problem

The eighth step, in which you document your findings, actions, and outcomes

The fifth step, in which you establish a plan of action to resolve the problem

A

The third step of the process, in which you establish a theory of probable cause, is the one in which you would question the obvious. Never let assumptions guide you down the wrong path.

In the first step you are still gathering information, so you shouldn’t try to establish a theory or probable cause yet.

Documenting your findings, actions, and outcomes is the last step of the process. It is meant to help you avoid the problem the next time. If you are still questioning the obvious, you have not fixed the problem.

Establishing a plan of action to resolve the problem happens prior to implementing the solution. However, you should be past the point of questioning the obvious at this stage.

288
Q

If there are errors during the Power-On Self-Test (POST), how does the computer tell you what the problem is?

It emits a sequence of beeps that act as a code for the type of problem.

An error message dialog box will be displayed after Windows has finished loading.

The computer will automatically run Windows in Safe Mode instead of the normal Windows mode.

The screen will display a sequence of colors that correspond to a specific problem code.

A

If there are errors during the Power-On Self-Test (POST), the system will alert you through a series of beeps. Different sequences of beeps indicate specific types of problem. For example, you might hear a single beep, then three beeps, then a single beep again. You would then look up the codes for the manufacturer of the BIOS to determine what problem a code of 1-3-1 indicates.

A Windows error message tells you what is wrong with the operating system, so it would not appear after Windows has finished loading.

If there were issues in the POST, the operating system may not have even started. Safe Mode is used as an alternate boot-up mode for Windows.

The screen displaying a color sequence is part of a monitor’s self-test.

289
Q

If technicians are attempting to replicate a problem reported by a user, what are they doing?

Trying to cause the issue to happen again so they can see it for themselves

Trying to diagnose the issue and determine an appropriate solution

Trying to find the root cause of the problem

Trying to implement countermeasures to prevent the problem from occurring again

A

When technicians replicate a problem, they are trying to recreate the issue to validate the claim made by the user and also see first-hand the results of the issue.

Replicating an issue does not involve trying to diagnose the issue and determine an appropriate solution.

Replicating an issue does not involve trying to figure out what the root cause is. It merely involves attempting to get the same problem to occur by repeating the steps that the user claims caused the problem.

Countermeasures are implemented after you determine what the root of the problem is.

290
Q

You cannot access the wireless network. In Device Manager, you see a small red X near the network adapter. What does this indicate?

The device has been disabled.

The device has been detected, but a driver is not installed.

There are no networks within range of the network adapter.

There is a resource conflict with the device.

A

Device Manager is a tool used to manage and configure system devices. If there is an issue with a specific component, it will be indicated with a small icon in the hardware list. If you see a red X next to a device, it means that the device has been disabled.

If you see a yellow question mark next to a device, it means that the device has been detected, but a driver is not installed. It may also mean that there is a resource conflict.

If you see a yellow exclamation mark, it means that there is a problem with the device that must be resolved, such as no networks being in range.

A resource conflict will not cause alerts to display in Device Manager for a wireless adapter.

291
Q

You notice that your monitor is flickering a lot. What is a likely explanation for this issue?

The refresh rate may be too low or too high.

The power management setting has been disabled.

There are several dead pixels on the display.

The video cable is unplugged.

A

A flickering monitor can be the result of several different problems. The first thing you should do is ensure that the cable is securely connected. If it is, the problem might be that the screen refresh rate is too high or too low. A typical refresh rate for a computer is 60-70 hertz (Hz). Flickering might also be the result of old or incorrect drivers being used. You can use the Device Manager tool to determine the manufacturer of the display adapter. At that point, you can go to the manufacturer’s site and download the most current display driver.

The power management setting would not cause the screen to flicker.

Dead pixels on the display would not flicker because they no longer work.

If the video cable is unplugged, then there is no connection to the computer which results in no output to the screen whatsoever.

292
Q

What command would you use if you wanted a computer to drop its current IP address?

ipconfig /release

ipconfig /all

ipconfig /cancel

ipconfig /drop

A

The ipconfig /release command will terminate any active TCP/IP connections on all network adapters and free up those IP addresses. You can optionally drop IP addresses for only a particular connection and not others by specifying the name of the connection in quotation marks after the command.

The ipconfig /all command will display all of the current TCP/IP network configuration values and can modify Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol DHCP and Domain Name System DNS settings. It will not free up IP addresses, however.

There is no such command as ipconfig/ cancel.

There is no such command as ipconfig/ drop.

293
Q

After performing the standard troubleshooting steps, your built-in Ethernet port still isn’t functioning. Which option should you check before escalating the problem?

The system BIOS

A skilled friend

The instruction manual

The manufacturer’s website

A

If your built-in Ethernet port doesn’t work after checking connections, drivers, hardware discovery, power, grounding, and other troubleshooting paths, you should check the BIOS settings under Integrated Peripherals to be sure that the device is enabled.

A skilled friend would be helpful as long as they have you check the BIOS settings under Integrated Peripherals.

The instruction manual doesn’t usually provide in-depth troubleshooting procedures.

The manufacturer’s website may be helpful but, much like the instruction manual, it usually doesn’t provide in-depth troubleshooting procedures. It would most likely have you check the BIOS settings first.

294
Q

Why should you consult your hardware manufacturer’s documentation prior to attempting a Do-It-Yourself fix?

You might void your warranty if you tinker with the hardware.

Manufacturers supply a list of required tools for working with their hardware systems.

For warnings, caveats, and guidelines for dismantling and repairing your system.

To avoid electrical shock or other injury.

A

You should read your manufacturer’s documentation prior to attempting to fix a problem yourself because you might void your warranty and be unable to return the item for replacement if there is evidence of tinkering.

The manufacturer’s documentation would certainly tell you what tools you would need to use to work on their hardware systems, but it is not the primary reason for reading the information.

Warnings, caveats, and guidelines for dismantling and repairing your system are usually meant for a trained technician.

The safety information will be provided in your manufacturer’s documentation, but they are not the primary reason for consulting the documentation.

295
Q

What are grinding noises coming from the system most likely a warning sign of?

The hard drive is physically damaged.

The cables on the drive are not connected correctly.

The data on the hard drive might be corrupted.

There are one or more bad data sectors on the drive.

A

If you can hear loud grinding sounds coming from the inside of the computer, this is most likely a sign of physical damage to the hard drive. Continuing to use the computer is risky, as the damage is likely to get worse with additional use. The safest thing to do would be to immediately backup the data, then shutdown the computer, and then replace the damaged drive. Note that solid state drives (SSDs) are not susceptible to this type of problem, since there are no moving parts.

The hard drive would fail to operate if it was not connected correctly.

If the data on the drive is corrupted, then you would not hear it.

You can run system checks to discover whether the drive is corrupted or has bad sectors on them. Bad data sectors will not cause a loud grinding noise.

296
Q

What should you do before you put a plan into action?

Consider the possible outcomes of the fix action.

Document findings/lessons learned, actions, and outcomes.

Ask the user what might have changed.

Collect more information about the problem.

A

Consider the possible outcomes of your fix action before you act on them. You need to make sure that you know how to deal with problems that you may create.

Documenting your findings, actions, and outcome is the last step of the process and performed after putting the plan into action. It creates a record of the event that will help you avoid the problem in the future and acts as a reference if the problem occurs again.

You should have asked the user what might have changed prior to developing your fix action.

Collecting more information about the problem may be helpful, but this should have been done before you developed the plan.

297
Q

How should you approach troubleshooting when there are multiple levels of work?

Consider multiple approaches, prioritize each level, and divide and conquer.

Ask an experienced user.

Ignore the hard things and fix what you know.

Try to fix everything at once.

A

You have to start somewhere. The best way to approach troubleshooting when there are multiple levels of problems is to consider multiple approaches, prioritize each level, and then divide and conquer.

Experienced users can be helpful in gathering information, but they generally don’t help with troubleshooting. If you really need assistance while troubleshooting, contact another technician or escalate to your boss.

You should never ignore a problem. If solving it is beyond your abilities, do some research or escalate the problem.

You cannot fix every problem at once. After gathering all the information you will need, it is best to identify a starting point (usually the last point at which you knew the system was functional) so that you can pinpoint the solution.

298
Q

If you plan on diagnosing a problem by searching technical forums or other Internet resources, what information should you provide if you are getting an error message?

The exact text of the error message.

If this error is preventing you from using the computer.

If you were able to complete this task before.

The types of changes have you noticed.

A

If you plan on diagnosing a problem by searching technical forums or other Internet resources, it helps if you know the exact text of the error message. This allows you to search word-by-word for more information on the error. There may be articles where other people have gotten the same error message. It is possible that a resolution exists for this error.

If you are unable to use the computer, you may not be able to see the error message and may not be able to diagnose the problem.

Just because you were able to complete a task before, doesn’t mean that there is a problem now because you can’t perform the task.

Knowing what changed is helpful in troubleshooting the problem; however, it will not aid in conducting an online search.

299
Q

Why is it important to ask a user questions when first hearing about a problem?

To help you classify the problem in terms o1f nature and scope

To make them feel better about their problem

To encourage the user to identify the root cause of the problem

Questions are actually not needed; you can and should work with the information you have.

A

When you first hear about a problem, you should ask the user questions to help you classify the problem in terms of nature and scope. This will also help you prioritize your work.

While you certainly do not want to offend a user, your purpose is not to make them feel better.

Gaining information will help you determine the cause of a problem, but you should not expect the user to identify it.

The user may have witnessed the actual event that caused the problem, so asking questions is important.

300
Q

You just connected a monitor to your VGA port, but the monitor is showing the same thing that is on your laptop screen. What do you need to do in order to have different applications open on each display?

You need to go to the Display options and select the option to extend the desktop across all displays.

You need to adjust the screen resolution of the connected monitor to be the same as that of the laptop display.

You need to go to the Display options and select the option to mirror the display across all connected devices.

You need to install a driver that allows the second monitor to show different applications than the laptop display.

A

When connecting an external monitor, the default display of the monitor is sometimes a copy of the laptop screen. This means that whatever you do on your laptop screen is reflected in the external monitor. This is helpful if you want to present something to others and want others to see the same thing that you do. When you want the monitors to function independently of each other, though, you need to change the Display options. Select the display option that allows you to extend your desktop across all displays. This will let you have certain folder or applications open on one screen, and different content on the other screen.

It is not necessarily a requirement that the second monitor be set to the same screen resolution of the laptop display. In the Display properties, you can specify the resolution and even the physical placement of each display device.

Mirroring the display will continue to display the same thing that is on the laptop screen.

This rarely requires special drivers for the external monitor, as the laptop display adapter should be capable of recognizing an external display when it is connected.

301
Q

What is the most important question to ask a user when trying to determine what a problem is, and why?

Ask “What has changed?” because the thing that has changed is usually responsible for the problem.

Ask “What did you do?” because when something goes wrong, the user is often responsible for the problem.

Ask “Why are you calling the help desk?” because you want to make sure you provide the right kind of help.

Ask “Have you tried turning the computer off and back on again?” because oftentimes this fixes the problem.

A

The most important question to ask the customer (or even yourself) is “What might have changed?” Sometimes the thing that changed is responsible for the problem.

Even if you suspect that the user has done something to cause the problem, placing the blame on them does not help solve the problem.

The user called the help desk because they are looking for help; that’s all you need to know about this.

Turning the computer off and back on again may fix the problem, but you won’t know what caused the problem, and there is a chance that it will return. Furthermore, rebooting the computer may cause more problems.

302
Q

During the troubleshooting process, what should you do if implement a solution but find that it didn’t solve the problem as anticipated?

Establish a new theory or escalate.

Give up.

Move on to documenting your findings, actions, and outcomes.

Accept the outcome and, if applicable, implement preventative measures.

A

If after implementation of your fix action you still have a problem, you need to establish a new theory or escalate.

You may be tempted to give up, but this is not advisable.

Documenting your findings and lessons learned, actions, and outcomes is the last step of the process, only to be done after a working solution is implemented. It creates a record of the event that will help you avoid the problem in the future and acts as a reference if the problem occurs again.

Accepting the outcome is not a good option, as ultimately full system functionality is what you are after. Once you fix the problem, you should then implement preventative measures if necessary.

303
Q

What is a symptom of a computer’s power supply beginning to fail?

Computer reboots randomly, usually on startup.

Applications freeze and display “Not responding”.

Computer automatically logs out and locks the screen.

Power supply fan makes a loud noise.

A

When a power supply begins to fail, it can cause the computer to randomly reboot because the voltage falls below the required amount to sustain the hardware and operating system.

Applications freezing and a lack of response from the display are symptoms of CPU, memory, overheating, or software problems.

Computers can be set to automatically log out and lock the screen for security purposes.

If your power supply fan makes a loud noise it would not necessarily indicate a failure. An object may be impeding the fan. You should still power off your computer and have the fan either cleaned or replaced.

304
Q

Once a theory is confirmed, meaning that you have found the root cause of a problem, what should you do next?

Determine the next steps to resolve the problem.

Consider the possible outcome of the solution.

Establish a new theory or escalate.

Put your plan into action.

A

Step 4 of CompTIA’s troubleshooting model is to test the theory to determine cause, and once the theory is confirmed, to determine the next steps to resolve the problem.

Step 5 of CompTIA’s troubleshooting model is to establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects. The potential effects refer to the possible outcomes of the proposed solution, meaning that a fix to the problem could cause new problems elsewhere. But first, you must determine the next steps to resolve the problem.

Step 4 of CompTIA’s troubleshooting model also includes that if the theory is not confirmed, to establish a new theory or escalate. But here, the premise is that the theory is confirmed.

Step 6 of CompTIA’s troubleshooting model is to implement the solution, which is putting your plan into action. This step can happen only after the preceding steps have been completed.

305
Q

What is a symptom of an overheating computer?

The computer locks up, freezes, or shuts down.

The BIOS displays an error on the screen.

The computer notifies the manufacturer.

The computer will not power on.

A

When a computer overheats, the symptoms are random lock-ups, application or operating system freezes, or complete shutdown. Also, visible smoke and a burning smell may indicate a temperature-related issue.

A BIOS error does not get generated by the computer when it overheats.

Computers do not normally notify the manufacturer. When an application fails, it may ask permission to send a crash report but this would not occur if a computer overheats.

The computer not powering on may be the result of a failed power supply. Plugging the computer into a surge protector can help prevent damage during a surge or low power condition.

306
Q

What would you need to do if you wanted a computer to always look for a bootable CD before looking to the local hard drive?

Set the BIOS boot sequence to check the optical drive before the hard disk drive.

Open the Computer Management tool and configure the boot sequence to the desired order.

Open the Device Manager and set the properties of the optical drive to be the first device in the boot order.

Place a bootable CD in the optical drive, shut the computer down, and then reboot it.

A

If you want a computer to always look for a bootable CD before looking to the local hard drive, you should set the BIOS boot sequence to check the optical drive before the hard disk drive.

You can configure the boot sequence at startup in the system BIOS, not with the Computer Management tool.

You can set the properties of the optical drive to be the first device in the boot order in the system BIOS, not in Device Manager.

Simply placing a bootable disc in the optical drive before starting the computer does not guarantee that the computer will boot from the disc.

307
Q

While you are performing troubleshooting, a program is not responding and will not close when the exit button is clicked. How can you end the frozen program without losing your other work?

Press Ctrl+Alt+Del, start the Task Manager, and end the task from the Applications tab.

Click the Minimize button and then click the Maximize button in the program window.

Press Alt+Tab to close the program and re-open the previous application.

Press and hold the power button until the display goes black, and then press the power button again.

A

It is not uncommon for a program to lock up and become unresponsive. If you see “(Not Responding)” in the title bar of the application, it is possible that the application has locked up. You can manually end the program by pressing Ctrl+Alt+Del and starting the Task Manager. From the Applications tab, select the unresponsive program and then click the End Task button.

If an application is locked up, clicking the Minimize or Maximize icon is unlikely to create a response.

Pressing Alt+Tab will switch between applications, but if the program is locked up switching to another application and then back to the frozen application will not solve the issue.

Holding down the power button will manually shut the computer down, and you will lose your other work.

308
Q

What is the last step of the troubleshooting process?

Document your findings, actions, and outcomes in a knowledge base.

Discuss the issue with your team so that other technicians are aware of it.

Follow up regularly with the user to make sure the problem hasn’t resurfaced.

Perform a system upgrade for the user so that the issue doesn’t happen again.

A

The last step in the troubleshooting process is documenting your findings, lessons learned, actions, and outcomes. This creates a record of the event that will assist in avoiding the problem in the future or acts as a reference if the problem occurs again.

Discussing the issue with your team is a good practice, but it doesn’t necessarily prevent future occurrences.

Following up with the user to make sure the problem is resolved comes before documentation of findings, actions, and outcomes.

System updates can prevent some problems, but they also can create more problems.

309
Q

After resolving a problem for a user, what can you do to help avoid similar problems in the future?

Document lessons learned and implement preventive measures.

Reboot the computer after implementation of the fix.

Implement the solution for other computers proactively.

Develop another theory.

A

After an issue is resolved, it is good practice to document the problem and resolution in a database or some other type of knowledge repository. Not only will this benefit you if another user has a similar problem in the future, but it will spare other technicians who have not yet encountered this type of problem from having to independently research a solution that is already known.

Once the fix is implemented, turning the machine on and off will not solve anything else, and it does not do anything to avoid future issues.

If other users are not yet experiencing the problem, implementing the fix will not do anything. The fix should be documented and implement only if and when problems arise again in the future.

Because the fix was successful, there is no need to develop another theory.

310
Q

If you are experiencing a problem caused by an outdated driver, where should you look to update it?

The Support section of the manufacturer’s website

The original CD-ROM that shipped with the device

The Windows Task Manager tool

The Windows Update section of the Microsoft website

A

When a newer version of a driver is released for a piece of hardware, the manufacturer of the hardware makes it available on its website. These drivers are typically found on a page titled Support, Downloads, or Drivers.

The original CD-ROM will have the original driver that was included with the hardware when it was shipped. This will not have any future driver updates on it.

The Windows Task Manager tool is a very useful performance-monitoring tool, but it would not be the best place to look for driver updates.

The Windows Update section of the Microsoft website provides the latest updates for a Windows operating system, but not updates for drivers.

311
Q

What is the first step in the CompTIA troubleshooting model?

Identify the problem by gathering information.

Establish a theory of probable cause.

Test the theory to determine the cause.

Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem.

A

When using the CompTIA troubleshooting model, the very first step is to identify the problem. Identifying the problem starts with gathering information about the problem.

The second step in the CompTIA troubleshooting model is to establish a theory of probable cause. This is where you would question the obvious.

The third step in the CompTIA troubleshooting model is to test the theory to determine the cause.

The fourth step in the CompTIA troubleshooting model is to establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution.

312
Q

What should you do when you suspect that there are multiple issues to troubleshoot?

Address each issue individually.

Try to fix everything at once.

Ignore the hard things and fix what you know.

Ask an experienced user.

A

While troubleshooting, the best way to approach a problem with multiple issues is to zero in on the problems and address each one individually.

You cannot fix every problem at once. After gathering all the information that you will need, it is best to identify a starting point (usually the last point at which you knew the system was functional) so that you can pinpoint a solution.

You should never ignore a problem. If it is beyond your abilities, do some research or escalate the problem.

Experienced users can be helpful in gathering information, but they generally don’t help with troubleshooting. If you really need assistance while troubleshooting, contact another technician or escalate to your boss.

313
Q

What command would you enter if you wanted to test the integrity of the E drive and repair any errors that are found?

chkdsk E: /f

chkdsk /fix E:

E: chkdsk /f

E: f/ chkdsk

A

The Check Disk utility is used to verify the logical integrity of a file system. You can check the integrity of a specific drive by specifying the letter of the drive: chkdsk E:. If you use the /f switch, the Check Disk utility will also repair any errors that are found: chkdsk E: /f There are additional options that you can specify if you want the utility to perform other functions. These can be found on the Microsoft Technet forums.

chkdsk /fix E: is in the wrong format to accomplish a local integrity check on the E drive.

E: chkdsk /f is not a command used to fix errors. The program executable must come first then the parameters.

E: f/ chkdsk will not repair errors either because the program executable name must come first.

314
Q

You press the power button on a computer, but it does not start. What is the first thing that you should do when diagnosing this problem?

Check physical connections and power sources.

Open Device Manager and look for error messages.

Unplug all USB devices.

Use the Help and Support Center and start investigating related issues.

A

The first thing that you should do when a computer does not power on after pressing the power button is to check physical connections and power sources. In some cases, a device is simply not plugged in, or it is connected to a power strip that has not been turned on yet. Check all cables as well to ensure that the issue is not simply the result of a loose connection. Once you have verified these basic things, then you can start to use software tools to diagnose the issue.

Opening the Device Manager will help you identify the problem, but it isn’t the first step.

Unplugging all USB devices is not the first step, and if you unplug them unsafely, you can do further damage.

Using the Help and Support Center to investigate related issues is a process performed later in the troubleshooting.

315
Q

When you start a troubleshooting discussion with a user, what should you have them do?

Give you the status of the computer, including any error messages or unusual conditions.

Reboot the computer by turning the computer off and back on again.

Back away from the computer so as not to make it worse.

Call someone else in to help.

A

When you first talk to a user about a problem, you need to have them describe the symptoms of the problem and give you the status of the computer, including any error messages or unusual conditions.

Turning the computer off and back on again may fix the problem, but you won’t know what caused the problem, and there is a chance it will return. Furthermore, rebooting the computer may cause more problems.

The user should definitely avoid using the computer if they have problems, but you need them to provide information about the computer. This requires that they continue to monitor the problem.

Calling someone else for help would escalate the problem. Whether escalation is warranted depends on the help desk standard operating procedures.

316
Q

Manufacturer websites are a great source for what types of resources?

Manuals, drivers, and knowledge bases

Beta hardware, beta software, and experimental drivers

Software development kits, remote control technical assistance, and tech forums

Troubleshooting guides, personalized customer service, and certification materials.

A

Manufacturers do not often deal directly with end users or customers. They do supply driver software, manuals for their products, and knowledge bases for troubleshooting and repairs.

Beta hardware, beta software, and experimental drivers should not be placed in your network unless you are specifically testing them. They are not meant for general use.

Software development kits, remote control technical assistance, and tech forums are good sources of information, but they are not provided by manufacturers.

Manufacturers are not required to provide troubleshooting guides, personalized customer service, or certification materials unless previously paid for through programs like enterprise agreements.

317
Q

Who created Mini DisplayPort?

Apple
VESA
Intel
IBM

A

Apple developed Mini-DisplayPort (MiniDP or mDP) for its equipment and licensed the technology to other vendors for a royalty fee.

VESA, the organization largely representing PC graphics adapter and display technology companies, created DisplayPort technology. It is a royalty-free standard intended to “complement” HDMI.

Intel developed the Thunderbolt (TB) interface for use on Apple workstations and laptops. It connects display devices (like DisplayPort) and peripheral devices (like USB).

IBM created many of the earlier computer standards and equipment but did not develop DisplayPort or Mini-DisplayPort.

318
Q

What type of USB connector would you plug into a host?

USB Type A
USB Type B Mini
USB Type C
USB Type B Micro

A

You would use USB Type A to connect to a host. The connector and port are both shaped like flat rectangles.

USB Type B Mini is used to connect to a device such as a printer. Both ends are square with a beveled top. There are small form factor versions.

USB Type C is a new reversible connector for devices. It is very small and flat.

USB Type B Micro is used to connect to smaller devices like smartphones and tablets and is much flatter than the Mini connector.

319
Q

Which statement about Firewire or USB is true?

Both ends of a Firewire cable are the same.

USB is based on the IEEE 1394 standard.

USB is based on the Small Computer System Interface protocol.

USB 1.1 has a maximum transfer rate faster than Firewire.

A

Both ends of a Firewire cable use the same design of a 6-pin connector, which slightly resembles the USB connector but has a beveled edge on one side. Some Apple Mac computers have Firewire ports, but these cables never received mainstream PC support.

Firewire uses the IEEE 1394 communication standard.

Firewire is based on the Small Computer Systems Interface communications protocol.

Firewire has a maximum transfer rate of 400 Mbps for Firewire 400, and the IEEE 1394b Firewire 800 has a maximum transfer rate of 800 Mbps and uses a 9-pin connector. The maximum transfer rate for USB 1.1 is 12 Mbps.

320
Q

Who created DisplayPort?

Video Electronics Standards Association (VESA)

Intel

Apple

Advanced Micro Devices (AMD)

A

DisplayPort was developed by VESA, the organization largely representing PC graphics adapter and display technology companies. It is a royalty-free standard intended to “complement” HDMI. It uses a 20-pin connector and allows connection with various types of devices.

Intel developed the Thunderbolt (TB) interface for use on Apple workstations and laptops. It connects display devices (like DisplayPort) and peripheral devices (like USB).

Apple developed Mini-DisplayPort (MiniDP or mDP) for its equipment and licensed the technology to other vendors.

AMD develops various types of computer chips.

321
Q

For which reason would you use a Bluetooth Class 1 device with a range of 100m?

As an industrial application

To connect to a wireless printer

To connect to a wireless keyboard

For an automobile hotspot

A

Personal Area Networks (PAN) use Bluetooth to share data. Bluetooth is a radio-based technology designed to work over close range, but a Bluetooth Class 1 device has a range of up to 100 meters (300 feet). For this reason, it would be used for industrial purposes only.

For a wireless printer, you would use a Bluetooth Class 2 device with a range of up to 10 meters (30 feet).

For a wireless keyboard, you would use a Bluetooth Class 3 device with a range of up to 1 meter (3 feet).

For an automobile hotspot, you would use a Bluetooth Class 2 device with a range of up to 10 meters (30 feet).

322
Q

What is the standard resolution of the Video Graphics Array (VGA)?

A resolution of 640x480 with 4-bit color

A resolution of 800x600 with 4-bit or 8-bit color

A resolution of 1024x768 with 16-bit or 32-bit color

A resolution of 1280x720 with 16-bit or 32-bit color

A

IBM created the Video Graphics Array (VGA) standard, which specifies a 640x480 resolution with 16 colors (4-bit) at 60 Hz and is long obsolete.

The Video Electronics Standards Association (VESA) created the Super VGA (SVGA) standard at 800x600 resolution with 4-bit (16) or 8-bit (256) color.

The XGA standard is an extension of SVGA at 1024x768 resolution with 16-bit (65K) and 32-bit (4 million K) color and higher refresh rates.

The High Definition (HD) standard specifies a resolution of 1280x720 to 1920x1080 (Full HD) with 16-bit or 32-bit color.

323
Q

You just bought a new smartphone that did not come with the necessary USB charging cable. In the instructions booklet, a picture of the charging cable depicts the device end of the cable as being flat on both sides and reversible. What type of cable do you need?

USB Type C

USB Type B

USB Type B Mini

USB Type B Micro

A

The Universal Serial Bus (USB) has become the standard means of connecting peripheral devices to a computer. USB Type C is a new reversible connector that can be inserted with either side facing up.

USB Type B has a square connector and port with a beveled top.

USB Type B Mini is smaller than other connectors. It was used by early digital cameras, but is no longer widely used.

USB Type B Micro is an updated connector for smaller devices, such as smartphones and tablets, but it is not reversible.

324
Q

You need to increase the system memory of your laptop and decide to research the types of memory available. Which would fit in your laptop?

SODIMM

BIOS

SSD

SATA

A

Small Outline DIMM (SODIMM) is a form of Synchronous Dynamic RAM (SDRAM) DRAM used in laptops. This memory stores each data bit as an electrical charge and needs refreshing by an electrical charge.

The BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) is one example of PC firmware located in a chip attached to the motherboard of the computer.

Solid State Drives (SSD) are designed to replicate or supplement the function of the hard drive. Solid state storage uses a type of non-volatile memory technology called flash memory.

SATA (Serial ATA) is a computer bus interface that connects to mass storage devices such as hard disk drives, optical drives, and solid-state drives.

325
Q

You need to back up just over 9 GB of data from your hard drive to an optical disc so you can store it offsite. You want to use just one disc to keep costs down, and you want to leave as little unused space on the disc as possible. What type of optical media should you use?

DVD-10 (Digital Video Disc)

CD-ROM (Compact Disc)

Blu-Ray (BD)

DVD-18 (Digital Video Disc)

A

The DVD-10 is Single-layer Double-sided with a maximum capacity of 9.4 GB of data and is the best choice to hold the data with little leftover free space.

The CD Read-Only Memory (CD-ROM) has a capacity of 700 MB and would not have enough space to hold the data on a single disc.

The Blu-ray Disc (BD) has a capacity of 25 GB per layer. This disc would leave too much free space on the disc.

The DVD-18 is Dual-layer Double-sided, and with a maximum capacity of 17.1 GB of data, there would be too much free space on the disc.

326
Q

What would you use a Near Field Communication connection for?

A contactless payment reader

A wireless router

A wireless keyboard

A monitor

A

Near Field Communications (NFC) is a very short-range radio link based on Radio Frequency ID (RFID) technology. It is mostly used in contactless payment readers.

A wireless router would use radio signals to transmit signals over the air to connect to a network.

Wireless keyboards, mice, printers, or headsets would use Bluetooth to create a Personal Area Network (PAN).

The High Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI) is the most widely used graphical device interface. It is ubiquitous on consumer electronics, such as televisions and Blu-Ray players, as well as on computer equipment.

327
Q

Which device is categorized as a Human Interface Device (HID)?

Mouse

Computer monitor

Network card

Printer

A

Human Interface Devices (HID) are peripherals that enable the user to enter data and select commands. Examples include keyboards and mice.

A monitor is the most common display device, not a data entry device.

A Network Interface Card (NIC) connects a computer to a wired network. Some computers have the card built into the motherboard and have a connection port soldered to the back of the board, but they are not HIDs.

A printer is a device that produces hard copy documents. Some printers have built-in functions such a scanning and faxing, but they are not HIDs.

328
Q

What type of connector would you use to connect a wired router to an Ethernet network?

RJ-45

RJ-11

PS/2

HDMI

A

An Ethernet network adapter used with twisted pair cable will have an RJ-45 port to connect the computer to the network, via another RJ-45 port in the network equipment.

The RJ-11 jack is the standard telephone jack in the United States. You would plug this into a telephone or fax line port on the back of a multifunction printer.

The PS/2 interface, which had a round connector with pins, is an older connector used to attach keyboards and mice to a computer.

The High Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI) is the most widely used graphical device interface. It is ubiquitous on consumer electronics, such as televisions and Blu-Ray players, as well as on computer equipment.

329
Q

What does the High Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI) not provide between equipment?

Power to the connected device

A video stream of data

An audio stream of data

Digital content protection

A

High Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI) does not provide power to a device. Interfaces such as USB or Thunderbolt provide power.

HDMI provides a video stream through the cable and is ubiquitous on consumer devices like televisions and Blu-Ray players.

HDMI provides an audio stream through the cable so connected devices do not need an additional cable or audio card.

HDMI provides content protection between devices so users cannot copy the data stream. This is usually between a video streaming device (like a Blu-Ray player) and a television or computer monitor.

330
Q

Which USB standard has a rate of 480 Mbps?

USB 2.0
USB 1.0
USB. 1.1
USB 3.0

A

USB 2.0, also known as USB Hi-Speed, has a nominal data rate of 480 Mbps. USB 2.0 uses the same connectors as USB 1.1, but a USB 1.1 device plugged into a USB 2.0 port will operate at the lower speed.

The data rate for USB 1.0 is 1.5 Mbps, but this standard was rarely used. The first released version was USB 1.1.

The data rate for USB 1.1 is 12 Mbps in full speed mode. This was the first widely-used version of the standard.

The USB 3.0 standard introduced a SuperSpeed mode. SuperSpeed improves the bus bandwidth tenfold (to 5 Gbps or 5000 Mbps) and makes the link full duplex.

331
Q

Which HDMI connector is also known as the Mini HDMI?

HDMI Type C
HDMI Type D
HDMI Standard 2.1
HDMI Type A

A

HDMI Type C is the compact version of HDMI connector, also called the Mini HDMI connector, which was introduced in HDMI 1.3. It’s used on portable devices, such as camcorders, and has the same number of pins as earlier versions, despite its smaller size.

HDMI Type D is an even smaller version, called the Micro HDMI connector, introduced in HDMI 1.4. This connector also uses the full 19 pins of earlier versions.

HDMI Standard 2.1 is the most recent update of the HDMI specification (at the time of this writing) and supports a range of higher video resolutions and refresh rates.

The HDMI Type A connector is the standard large size connector that uses a proprietary 19-pin connector.

332
Q

What type of connection would you use to connect short-range wireless devices such as a keyboard or a mouse to a computer?

Bluetooth
Wi-Fi
NFC
RFID

A

Bluetooth creates a so-called Personal Area Network (PAN) to share data with a PC, connect to a printer, use a wireless headset, or connect to a wireless mouse/keyboard.

Wireless (Wi-Fi) data connections use radio signals to transmit signals over the air. With Wi-Fi, a node usually connects to an access point at a range of up to about 30m.

Near Field Communications (NFC) is a very short-range radio link based on Radio Frequency ID (RFID). NFC works at up to 4cm at data rates of 106, 212, and 424 Kbps.

Radio Frequency ID (RFID) is the technology used in Near Field Communications (NFC) to create very short-range radio links. It is mostly used in contactless payment readers.

333
Q

What is the main purpose of the Thunderbolt interface?

It is used as a display interface and general peripheral interface.
It is used to connect older types of mice to a computer.
It connects computers to a wired network.
It connects computers to a wireless network.

A

Thunderbolt is a display interface (like DisplayPort) and a general peripheral interface (like USB or Firewire) developed by Intel and primarily used on Apple workstations and laptops.

Older mice use the PS2-type of connector to plug into a computer using a 9-pin connector.

Computers use a Network Interface Card (NIC) to connect an RJ-45 cable to a wired network. Some computers have the card built into the motherboard and have a connection port soldered to the back of the board.

Computers use various types of wireless cards and devices, some of them internal, to connect to a wireless network.

334
Q

What type of device would you connect using a Digital Visual Interface (DVI) port?

A form of flat-panel display equipment
A Cathode Ray Tube (CRT) monitor
An oscilloscope
A Blu-Ray player

A

Digital Visual Interface (DVI) is a high-quality digital interface designed for flat-panel display equipment. You would connect the DVI port to the corresponding port on the back of the monitor.

A Cathode Ray Tube (CRT) monitor is a very old style of monitor that uses a 9- or 15-pin VGA port.

An oscilloscope is a scientific device used to measure signal output. There are many ways to connect to this device, but a DVI is not used.

A Blu-Ray player would use a High Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI) or DisplayPort/Thunderbolt connection.

335
Q

Which peripheral device fills cells with color and uses transistors to vary intensity?

Monitor
Network Interface Card (NIC)
Keyboard
Mouse

A

Each picture element (pixel) in a color monitor comprises cells (or subpixels) with filters to generate the three primary colors (red, green, and blue) and transistors to vary the intensity of each cell.

A Network Interface Card (NIC) connects a computer to a wired network and does not work to display colors.

The keyboard is the longest serving type of input device. Historically, keyboards used the PS/2 interface, which had a round connector with pins. This device does not display colors.

A mouse is another form of an HID and does not work to display colors.

336
Q

After connecting a new monitor to your computer, you get a message saying the monitor is not set at the optimal resolution. Which Windows applet would you use to change the resolution?

Display
Settings
Device Manager
Personalization

A

To adjust screen resolution, you would open Settings, click System, and then select the Display tab. Here you would find the Resolution drop-down menu.

The Windows Settings tab has many different settings, but it does not have a menu to change the screen resolution.

The Devices tab is where you see a list of installed devices. You would go here to uninstall a device or update a device driver.

You can customize almost any aspect of how Windows is displayed using options in the Personalization applet, but you cannot change the monitor resolution here.

337
Q

What type of device uses Digital Light Processing (DLP)?

Digital projector
Monitor
Mouse
Printer

A

Digital Light Processing (DLP), developed by Texas Instruments, dominates the top end of the video projector market. Projectors create a large format display suitable for use in a presentation or at a meeting.

Liquid Crystal Display (LCD) screens (monitors), or flat screen displays, are used in portable computers. They have also replaced the old and bulky Cathode Ray Tube (CRT) units as the standard display type for desktops.

The mouse is the main type of input device for graphical software. It is an example of a class of input devices described as “pointing devices.”

A printer is a device that produces hard copy documents. While some printers do have scanners with a bright light, they do not use DLP technology.

338
Q

Into which device would you plug an RJ-11 connector?

A standard telephone
A Network Attached Storage (NAS) device
A wired headset
A wired keyboard

A

The RJ-11 jack is the standard telephone jack in the United States. You would plug this into a telephone or fax line port on the back of a multifunction printer.

A NAS device typically connects to the network through a RJ-45 network connection, commonly known as an Ethernet connector.

A wired headset would use a combination of USB and standard audio jack connections on either the front or the back of the computer.

A wired keyboard would use a USB and/or PS/2 type of connection on the computer.

339
Q

What type of device would use Radio Frequency (RF)?

A wireless router
A USB printer
A High Definition monitor
A thumb drive

A

Radio Frequency (RF) is a means of provisioning a wireless local network using Wi-Fi standards equipment. While this is not a means of Internet service provision in itself, it is a means for a client to connect to a wireless router offering Internet access.

A USB printer would use a USB cable to connect from the computer to the printer.

A High Definition monitor would use cables such as HDMI or DisplayPort to connect from the back of the computer to ports on the back or bottom of the monitor.

Thumb drives are a form of USB storage device that physically connects to the computer through a USB port.

340
Q

Which connector is a legacy analog video interface?

VGA
DVI
HDMI
DisplayPort

A

The 15-pin Video Graphics Array (VGA) port (HD15F/DE-15) is a legacy analog video interface for PC devices. Many graphics adapters and display screens continue to support it.

Digital Visual Interface (DVI) is a high-quality digital interface designed for flat-panel display equipment.

High Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI) is the most widely used graphical device interface. It is ubiquitous on consumer electronics, such as televisions and Blu-Ray players.

DisplayPort was developed by VESA, the organization largely representing PC graphics adapter and display technology companies. It is a royalty-free standard intended to “complement” HDMI.

341
Q

You are using a scanner to scan a Word document into your computer. What type of software would you use to convert the image into a computer-editable text document?

OCR
JPEG
GIF
WIA

A

You would use Optical Character Recognition (OCR) software to convert a text image into a computer-editable text document. Many scanners have this software bundled with the hardware, or it can come as a separate software package.

JPEG (Joint Photographic Experts Group) is a method of compression for digital images, particularly for those images produced by digital photography.

GIF (Graphics Interchange Format) is a bitmap image format originally used to exchange pictures in the early days of the Internet.

WIA (Windows Image Acquisition) is a type of scanning technology built into Windows. It replaced the older TWAIN communication protocol driver for scanners.

342
Q

You added a speaker add-in card to your desktop computer and want to connect the card to an amplifier. Which color collar would the port you need have?

Lime
Orange
Pink
Light blue

A

The port with the lime collar is the audio out, a low-level (1V) analog signal suitable for feeding into an amplifier. Connecting a low-level audio out signal directly to a pair of passive speakers (speakers without a built-in amplifier) will not work.

The port with the orange collar is the audio out signal for the subwoofer in a surround sound system and is not suitable for speakers.

The port with the pink collar is the microphone input for a mono analog input into the computer’s sound system. It will not work with speaker output.

The port with the light blue collar is audio in (or line in), a low-level (1V) stereo signal supplied by most tape decks, video players, tuners, and CD players.

343
Q

Your keyboard no longer works and is not fixable. You look in the closet and find an old dusty keyboard with a cable that ends in a 6-pin purple-colored connector. What type of connector have you found?

PS/2
USB
Bluetooth
VGA

A

Historically, keyboards used the PS/2 interface, which had a round connector with pins. A keyboard PS/2 port is colored purple to differentiate it from the otherwise identical mouse connector.

The Universal Serial Bus (USB) has become the modern standard means of connecting peripheral devices to a computer, but it would not have been used for an old keyboard.

Bluetooth is a radio-based technology designed to work only over close range to share data with a PC, connect to a printer, use a wireless headset, or connect to a wireless mouse/keyboard.

Video Graphics Array (VGA) is a video standard created by IBM that specifies a 640x480 resolution with 16 colors (4-bit) at 60 Hz and is long obsolete. It would be used for a monitor, not a keyboard.

344
Q

You have a new Apple workstation and you are looking for a port on the machine where you can plug in either a monitor or a peripheral. What type of port would you use?

Thunderbolt
USB
DisplayPort
HDMI

A

The Thunderbolt interface is primarily used on Apple workstations and laptops. Thunderbolt is both a display interface (like DisplayPort) and a general peripheral interface (like USB or Firewire).

The Universal Serial Bus (USB) has become the standard means of connecting peripheral devices to a computer. It is not a graphics interface.

DisplayPort is a royalty-free standard intended to “complement” HDMI. It uses a 20-pin connector and allows connection with various types of devices, but it is not used on Apple workstations.

The High Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI) is the most widely-used graphical device interface. It is ubiquitous on consumer electronics, such as televisions and Blu-Ray players, as well as on computer equipment. However, it is not used on Apple workstations.

345
Q

You are removing an old device from your computer and want to ensure all of the old drivers are gone. Where in Windows would you go to delete the drivers?

Go to the Device Manager folder, right-click the device, and select “Uninstall Device.”
Go the to the Device and Printers folder and delete the device.
Go to the Network Connections folder and delete the device.
Go to Settings and delete the device

A

To uninstall a driver, you can open Device Manager via the START+X menu, locate the device, then right-click and select “Uninstall.”

The Devices and Printers folder is where you configure the user-configurable settings on a printer in Windows. This is the best place to change the printer settings, not delete the device driver.

Network Connections is where you can get the status of the network, set up network adapters, and enable/disable network sharing options.

Settings is where you set Windows settings for System, Phone, Personalization, Apps, Accounts, and more. These are the settings for Windows itself.

346
Q

You have a new external hard drive. Which of these ports could be used to connect to the device?

Thunderbolt
RJ-45
RJ-11
RCA

A

The Thunderbolt (TB) interface was developed by Intel and can be used as a display interface (like DisplayPort) and as a general peripheral interface (like USB or Firewire).

RJ-45 is a commonly-used name for the 8P8C modular connector used in Ethernet and other data links on networks.

RJ-11 is a commonly-used interface for telephone connections for single-line service. This is the common household connector for regular telephones in a home.

The RCA jack is a connector with a distinctive collar or ring used for a variety of Audio/Visual (A/V) functions and equipment. It is named after its developer, the Radio Corporation of America.

347
Q

You added a Small Office Home Office (SOHO) access point to your home network. How would you access the management page for the device?

Type the device’s IP address into your web browser.
Push the WPS button on the device.
Type “0.0.0.0” into your web browser.
Type “255.255.255.255” into your web browser.

A

Look at the SOHO router’s setup guide to find out the router’s IP address. Open a web browser and type the router’s IP address into the address bar. This should open a management page where you can log on.

The WPS (Wi-Fi Protected Setup) is a way to connect devices “securely” into a wireless network using device-generated security keys.

The IP address “0.0.0.0” is not a valid IP address in home networks. Devices do not use this special address.

The IP address “255.255.255.255” is a special IP address known as the broadcast address. Devices do not use this special address. Devices do not use

348
Q

You need to move the pictures from your digital camera to your computer. Which type of connection would NOT allow you to do this?

Ethernet
USB
Wireless
Memory card transfer

A

Cameras do not have Ethernet ports. You would typically use an Ethernet connection between a computer and a network using an RJ-45 connection.

USB connections are common on digital cameras. Older cameras used USB Mini, while newer cameras commonly use USB Micro or even USB-C.

New cameras have a wireless NIC card built into the camera so you can directly download pictures to your home wireless network or to cloud storage.

Memory cards are common on cameras and provide copious onboard storage. You only have to transfer the card between the camera and the computer.

349
Q

You have recently upgraded from a USB mouse to a wireless mouse. Once you remove the old mouse, what do you need to install to connect the wireless mouse to the computer?

A wireless adapter
A NIC card
PS/2 adapter
USB card

A

A wireless device needs a way to communicate with the computer. Many new wireless devices have a small USB wireless adaptor that needs installing.

A NIC card allows for Ethernet network communication between the computer and a network.

The PS/2 connection was common on older styles of mice that connected to the computer using a cable. The USB style of connection replaced the PS/2.

While mice do use USB connectors, this would be a wired connection.

350
Q

Your new “Plug-and-Play” printer is not installing properly, even though Windows tried to find a driver using Windows Update. What else can you do to install the device?

Obtain a device driver from the manufacturer.
Return the device as defective.
Use some other device driver found on Windows.
Ignore the error message and try to use the device.

A

If no driver is available from Windows Update, you need to obtain one from the device vendor. The device may come with setup software, or you may be able to download a driver from the vendor’s website.

The device is not defective—it just needs the proper driver to run. Search online for the driver or look for an installation disk that came with the device.

It is may be possible to use drivers for a similar device; however, it may not work as expected.

You may be able to use the device, but normally not installing the device driver means it either will not work at all or only some of its functions may be available.

351
Q

You have multiple monitors connected to your computer. How would you configure the screens to give you more “real estate” available for viewing?

Use the “Extend these displays” setting.
Use the “Duplicate these displays” setting.
Use the “Second screen” setting.
Use the “PC screen” setting.

A

“Extend these displays” displays the desktop over both devices. This mode makes more screen “real estate” available and is useful for design, publishing, and programming work.

“Duplicate these displays” displays the same image on both devices. This mode is useful for delivering presentations.

The “Second screen” setting displays only on the second screen of the two monitors. If you had a laptop and an external monitor, this would turn off the laptop display.

The “PC screen” setting displays only on the computer screen of the two monitors. If you had a laptop and an external monitor, this would turn off the external monitor display.

352
Q

Your new device has a web-based configuration. What do you need to access the configuration page?

The Internet Protocol (IP) address
The Media Address Control (MAC) address
The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) address
The name of the manufacturer

A

The device vendor will normally provide a tool help you locate the IP address of the device on the network and then open a web configuration page in a browser.

Each network interface has a factory-assigned Media Access Control (MAC) address. You would not use this address to access the web configuration.

The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is the protocol that enables local address discovery to take place and uses the MAC address. You would not use this address to access the web configuration.

While the name of the manufacturer might help you find the IP address of the device online, it is not what you need to access the configuration page.

353
Q

You have a new printer to install on your Windows computer. Where would you go in Windows to configure user-configurable settings for the printer?

The Devices and Printers folder
Device Manager
Network Connections
Settings

A

The Devices and Printers folder is where you configure the user-configurable settings on a printer in Windows. This is the best place to change the printer settings.

Device Manager provides tools for verifying and configuring devices. You can update drivers, check device hardware properties, and enable/disable devices.

In Network Connections, you can find the status of the network, set up network adapters, and enable/disable network sharing options.

In Settings, you can set Windows settings for System, Phone, Personalization, Apps, Accounts and more. These are the settings for Windows itself.

354
Q

Which brand of Central Processing Unit (CPU) would be found in a laptop?

Core Duo
Atom
Opteron
Core 2

A

Core is Intel’s flagship desktop and mobile CPU series. The earliest models (Core Solo and Core Duo) were laptop-only chips.

Atom is Intel’s brand designating chips designed for low-power portable devices (smartphones and tablets) using (Advanced RISC Machine) microarchitecture.

Opteron is AMD’s long-standing version of Intel’s Xeon brand, aimed at the server/workstation market. These CPUs usually have multiprocessing capability and larger memory caches.

The Core 2 series introduced desktop versions plus 64-bit and multi-core support. The current range comes in Core i3, i5, and i7 brands with names like Nehalem, Sandy Bridge, Ivy Bridge, Haswell, Broadwell, and Skylake.

355
Q

What type of Central Processing Chip (CPU) would a modern high-end server use?

A 64-bit EM64T chip
An Atom chip
An IA-32 chip
A processing chip with 4GB of addressable memory

A

Intel refers to its 64-bit instruction set as the EM64T or Intel 64. High-end servers would use this chip for its speed and its ability to address 128 GB or more of memory.

Atom is Intel’s brand designating chips designed for low-power portable devices (smartphones and tablets) using (Advanced RISC Machine) microarchitecture.

An IA-32 chip is a type of 32-bit chip first developed by Intel in 1985. It is over 30 years old and can only address 4GB of memory.

Any chip that only addresses 4GB of memory is a 32-bit chip. High-end servers would use a 64-bit chip.

356
Q

Which is NOT carried by the expansion bus?

System memory data
Timing signal
Address information
Add-on component data

A

The system bus, also known as the Front Side Bus (FSB) or local bus, carries system memory data between the Central Processing Unit and system memory.

Since most components run at different speeds, the expansion bus carries the timing signal to synchronize different components with the system clock so they can communicate over the bus.

The expansion bus carries the address information of the expansion card; this is where the data from the expansion card resides in system memory.

The expansion bus carries the information transferred between components to the Central Processing Unit.

357
Q

What part of the Central Processing Unit (CPU) determines whether it is 32-bit or 64-bit?

The General Purpose (GP) register
The CPU data bus
The amount of Random Access Memory (RAM) in the computer
The size of the hard drive

A

While some CPUs have specialized units with larger data buses, the General Purpose (GP) register size makes a CPU 32-bit or 64-bit.

Some Pentium chips have a 64-bit data bus to feed data to the CPU faster. It is the GP register of the CPU that determines the chip bit size.

RAM size does not determine the bit size of the CPU but rather is limited by it. Any CPU can use less than the maximum amount of memory.

The operating system determines the usable size of the hard drive, not the CPU bit size.

358
Q

How are onboard and add-on Network Interface Cards (NIC) different?

Onboard cards and add-on cards operate in the same way.
Onboard cards are much faster than add-on cards.
Add-on cards are much faster than onboard cards.
Add-on cards use a different cable connector than onboard cards.

A

Both types of cards operate in the same manner using the same protocols and cable ports.

NIC cards come in many different forms and speeds, but both types come in equal speeds. The add-on cards can be upgraded by replacing the card.

NIC cards come in many different forms and speeds, but both types come in equal speeds. The onboard cards are usually not upgradable, as they are part of the motherboard.

The same type of NIC, whether onboard or add-in, uses the same type of connector. For example, an Ethernet NIC uses the RJ-45 connector.

359
Q

Which of these is a hard drive interface standard?

EIDE
DOCSIS
HMDI
FITC

A

Enhanced Integrated Drive Electronics (EIDE) was one of the early hard drive connection standards, although most modern computers use the Serial ATA (SATA) standard.

Data Over Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS) is a specification used in systems that provide the Internet across Cable Access TV lines.

The High Definition Multimedia Interface (HDMI) is the most widely used graphical device interface. It is ubiquitous on consumer electronics, such as televisions and Blu-Ray players, as well as computer equipment.

Fiber to the Curb (FTTC) means the provider installed a fiber network terminating at a cabinet somewhere in a nearby street. This is a physical implementation of network cabling, not a data specification.

360
Q

Which of these is NOT part of a motherboard?

A Solid State Drive (SSD)
A chipset of processors
Various upgrade sockets
A set of data buses

A

A Solid State Drive (SSD) uses a type of non-volatile memory technology called flash memory. Flash memory is non-volatile because it does not need a power source to retain information. It is a form of high-capacity data storage.

The chipset is a group of built-in processors that perform built-in functions that otherwise would require an adapter card.

Upgrade sockets are part of the motherboard. They allow for swapping out and upgrading various components (CPU, RAM, adapter cards, disk drives).

Buses are collections of wire built into the Printed Circuit Board (PCB) of the motherboard to connect the various chips and devices together.

361
Q

Which brand of Central Processing Unit (CPU) would be found in a 32-bit server?

Opteron
Phenom
Pentium
Turion

A

Opteron is AMD’s long-standing version of Intel’s Xeon brand, aimed at the server/workstation market. These CPUs usually have multiprocessing and larger memory caches.

Phenom replaced the Athlon as AMD’s premium CPU brand. AMD Fusion and FX brands replaced the latest of the Phenom II chips.

Pentium used to be Intel’s premium 32-bit CPU brand, and you may still find Pentium 4-based computers in use. The Pentium brand now represents “mid-range” CPU models based on the Core microarchitectures.

Turion is AMD’s brand for laptop processors and is the equivalent of Intel Core Solo and Core Duo laptop-only chips.

362
Q

After a computer starts up, when does the firmware or BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) run?

After the computer completes initial checking for hardware errors
After the Operating System (OS) loads
When a Network Interface Card (NIC) needs to communicate with the Central Processing Unit (CPU)
When the Central Processing Unit (CPU) needs to write data to a hard drive

A

The BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) is one example of PC firmware. It provides program code to get the essential components of the PC running after starting the PC and after hardware error checks.

BIOS loads before the Operating System, and only runs at the computer startup.

The Network Interface Card communicates using device drivers loaded by the Operating System over the motherboard data bus.

The Central Processing Unit uses internal data buses and device drivers to send data to the hard drive through cables connecting the motherboard and the drive.

363
Q

What type of central processor would you find in a tablet?

An Atom brand Central Processing Unit (CPU)
A Pentium brand Central Processing Unit (CPU)
A Xeon brand Central Processing Unit (CPU)
An AMD Fusion brand Central Processing Unit (CPU)

A

Atom is Intel’s brand designating chips designed for low-power portable devices (smartphones and tablets) using Advanced RISC Machine microarchitecture.

The Pentium used to be Intel’s premium 32-bit CPU brand, and you may still find Pentium 4-based computers in use. The Pentium brand now represents “mid-range” CPU models based on the Core microarchitectures. This is a Complex Instruction Set Computer (CISC) chip.

The Xeon brand is aimed at the server/workstation market. This is a Complex Instruction Set Computer (CISC) chip.

The AMD Fusion brand represents chips AMD calls Accelerated Processing Units (APU), which basically combine a CPU and GPU (Graphics Processing Unit). This is a Complex Instruction Set Computer (CISC) chip.

364
Q

What is used to connect chipsets and sockets using buses?

The motherboard
The NIC card
The audio card
The USB add-on card

A

The motherboard has some built-in processors (the chipset), sockets for upgradable components (CPU, RAM, adapter cards, disk drives), and wires (buses) to connect them together.

NIC cards connect the computer to the Ethernet network. Each card comes with processors and wires, but they usually lack sockets.

Audio cards process digital and analog audio for output to speakers and headsets. These cards have processors and wires, but they usually lack sockets.

USB add-on cards allow for more USB ports in a computer. They usually lack specific processors but do have wires (buses) to input data to the computer.

365
Q

What function does the Central Processing Unit (CPU) perform in a computer?

It retrieves each instruction or data file from memory and performs an action on it.
It receives data entered by users and relays it to the operating system.
It provides the principal volatile storage space for computer data and program instructions.
It checks the destination address on a packet and forwards it to the appropriate recipient.

A

The Central Processing Unit (CPU) is one of the basic internal computing components. It is responsible for retrieving each instruction or data file from memory and processing it. The CPU then writes the result back to memory and directs other components to perform actions.

The component that receives data entered by users and relays it to the operating system is an input peripheral.

The component that provides the principal volatile storage space for computer data and program instructions is the Random Access Memory (RAM).

A device that routes packets to the appropriate computer or server based on source and destination IP addresses is called a router.

366
Q

What function does the Central Processing Unit (CPU) perform in a computer?

It retrieves each instruction or data file from memory and performs an action on it.
It receives data entered by users and relays it to the operating system.
It provides the principal volatile storage space for computer data and program instructions.
It checks the destination address on a packet and forwards it to the appropriate recipient.

A

The Central Processing Unit (CPU) is one of the basic internal computing components. It is responsible for retrieving each instruction or data file from memory and processing it. The CPU then writes the result back to memory and directs other components to perform actions.

The component that receives data entered by users and relays it to the operating system is an input peripheral.

The component that provides the principal volatile storage space for computer data and program instructions is the Random Access Memory (RAM).

A device that routes packets to the appropriate computer or server based on source and destination IP addresses is called a router.

367
Q

Which is the most important processor on a motherboard?

Central Processing Unit (CPU)
Front Side Bus
Graphics Processing Unit
Input/Output ports

A

PCs contain a number of processors, but the most important is the Central Processing Unit (CPU). The CPU is the “brains” of a computer.

The bus between the CPU and memory is often referred to as the Front Side Bus (FSB). This allows the CPU to fetch instructions from system memory as it needs them.

The Graphics Processing Unit (GPU) performs display functions and is a dedicated processor that may be part of the CPU package. Alternatively, a more powerful GPU might be available on a plug-in expansion card.

The Input/Output (I/O) ports attach peripheral devices and cabling to the computer. While necessary, they are not the “brains” of the computer.

368
Q

What type of central processor would you find in a mobile phone?

An Advanced RISC Machine (ARM) Central Processing Unit (CPU)
An Athlon Central Processing Unit (CPU)
A Opteron Central Processing Unit (CPU)
A Celeron Central Processing Unit (CPU).

A

Chipsets for mobile phones/smartphones and tablets are often based on the ARM (Advanced RISC Machine) microarchitecture, such as the Apple A, Samsung Exynos, and nVIDIA Tegra derivatives.

Athlon was AMD’s long-standing premium consumer CPU for computers. Modern Athlons start with the Athlon 64 and its FX (top-end) and X2 (dual-core) variants. This is a Complex Instruction Set Computer (CISC) chip.

Opteron is AMD’s long-standing version of Intel’s Xeon brand, aimed at the high-end server and workstation market. This is a Complex Instruction Set Computer (CISC) chip.

Celeron is Intel’s budget brand of CPUs for laptops and desktops. This is a Complex Instruction Set Computer (CISC) chip.

369
Q

Where would you find the Front Side Bus (FSB) in a computer?

On the motherboard
On the NIC card
On the monitor
On the expansion card

A

The bus between the CPU and memory is often referred to as the Front Side Bus (FSB). This allows the CPU to fetch instructions from system memory as it needs them. The FSB is located on the motherboard.

A Network Interface Card (NIC) connects a computer to a wired network and does not have a FSB.

A monitor is the most common display device, and although it has computer electronics inside it does not have a FSB.

Expansion cards allow the addition of electronics to the computer such as extra USB ports, audio devices, and video display cards—none of which use the FSB.

370
Q

What type of Network Interface Card (NIC) uses the 802.11b protocol?

A wireless network (Wi-Fi) card
An Ethernet card
A Bluetooth Personal Area Network (PAN) card
A Near Field Communications (NFC) card

A

The 802.11b protocol is one of the many Wi-Fi wireless networking protocols. The 802.11 protocol suite is a common wireless networking specification.

Ethernet is the standard protocol for wired devices using the RJ-45 series of jacks.

Bluetooth is a radio-based technology, but it is designed to work only over a range of 1 to 10 meters (3 – 30 feet). It usually connects printers, wireless headsets, and other wireless peripherals.

Near Field Communications (NFC) is a very short-range radio link based on Radio Frequency ID (RFID). NFC sensors and functionality are appearing in smartphones for contactless payment readers.

371
Q

How is a Graphics Processing Unit (GPU) different from a Central Processing Unit (CPU)?

The GPU is a dedicated processor for display functions.
The CPU comes on a plug-in expansion card.
The GPU uses analog signals.
The GPU can replace the CPU in high-end computers.

A

The GPU is a dedicated processor for display functions. It works with the CPU to handle complex high-resolution images.

CPUs are located on the motherboard in a special mount. GPUs may be part of the CPU or come on a plug-in expansion card.

Early GPUs generated analog signals for Cathode Ray Tube (CRT) monitors but plugged into the motherboard and communicated with the CPU using digital signals.

Every computer needs a CPU. While the GPU can perform some functions that the CPU cannot, the GPU does not replace the CPU.

372
Q

Where would you place data for long-term storage?

Hard disk drive
Cache memory
Dynamic Random Access Memory (DRAM)
Read Only Memory (ROM)

A

Hard Disk Drives (HDD) are one of the most widely-used types of mass storage devices. A mass storage device provides non-volatile storage where data remains when the power is off.

Cache memory is a small-sized type of volatile computer memory that provides high-speed data access to a processor and stores frequently used computer programs, applications, and data.

DRAM stores each data bit as an electrical charge within a single bit cell. The electrical charge gradually dissipates, causing the memory cell to lose its information when the power is off.

ROM is where data resides on a chip so it cannot change. The computer power-on checks are in ROM memory so that the computer can boot every time.

373
Q

What is the main difference between a Solid State Drive (SSD) and a Hard Disk Drive (HDD)?
The SSD uses flash memory and the HDD uses platters.
The SSD size is usually much larger than a HDD.
The SSD uses platters and the HDD uses flash memory.
The SSD is much cheaper per megabyte than the HDD.

A

Solid state storage uses a type of non-volatile memory technology called flash memory. Data on an HDD is encoded magnetically on specially coated glass or plastic platters accessed by drive heads.

HDDs are available in a range of capacities, ranging from 100 GB up to 10 TB. It is unusual for SSDs to have capacities of more than 512 GB.

Solid state storage uses a type of non-volatile memory technology called flash memory. Data on an HDD is encoded magnetically on specially coated glass or plastic platters accessed by drive heads.

While mass manufacturing has seen SSD prices fall to very affordable levels, the cost per gigabyte of an SSD is still considerably higher than that of an HDD.

374
Q

What is the purpose of Random Access Memory (RAM)?

It stores programs and data when the computer is running.
It provides long-term storage for data.
It swaps data in and out of system memory.
It stores basic loading instructions for the computer.

A

RAM is a type of volatile memory. It is the main storage area for programs and data when the computer is running.

Hard drives and Solid State Drives (SSD) use non-volatile memory and keep large amounts of data for long-term storage.

When the computer cannot keep all of the programs and data in RAM, it uses a portion of disk space to create a place to swap data in and out of system memory. This is virtual memory.

The BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) provides program code to get the essential components of the PC running after you start the PC and after hardware error checks.

375
Q

Which of the following is a limitation of a 32-bit processor in a workstation?

It cannot use more than 4 GB of system memory.
It does not recognize external hard drives that exceed 1 TB of storage.
It does not support USB 2.0 or 3.0 devices.
It is incompatible with older versions of Windows.

A

A workstation with a 32-bit processor cannot support more than 4GB of memory, while a 64-bit processor can support 128GB or more of memory.

These processors are capable of storing data on large external hard drives, such as those that exceed 1 TB in size or even larger.

32-bit processors support various versions of Windows that support both USB 2.0 and USB 3.0 devices. The support is through the operating system, not the chip design.

These 32-bit processors do support older versions of Windows, with only the very latest software requiring 64-bit systems.

376
Q

What type of cooling system would be best in a high-performance overclocked computer system?

Active liquid cooling
Active heat sink
Passive heat sink
Passive liquid cooling

A

A liquid cooling system with fans and pumps is common in high-performance systems. The requirement for electricity for the pumps and fans makes this an active system.

A heat sink with an attached fan would an active system, but high-performance overclocked systems usually require better cooling than this combination.

A passive heat sink system is the type you might find in a laptop where a liquid is in a metal heat spreader on the CPU. This would not provide enough cooling to a high-performance computer.

Liquid cooling requires pumps to circulate the liquid inside the tubes. This setup requires electricity to run, so there is no such thing as passive liquid cooling.

377
Q

A register is found within what part of the computer?

The Central Processing Unit (CPU)
The NIC card
The Monitor
The USB card

A

A register is a temporary storage area available to the different units within the Central Processing Unit (CPU). It allows the CPU to hold data while it performs calculations.

Network Interface Cards (NIC) connect the computer to the Ethernet network but lack the sophisticated processors of the CPU.

Monitors are output devices. They have electronics but lack the large processing units of a Central Processing Unit.

USB add-on cards allow for more USB ports in a computer. They usually lack specific processors but do have wires (buses) to input data to the computer.

378
Q

Which type of laptop would NOT use a 64-bit Central Processing Unit (CPU)?

A budget laptop designed for a low price tag.
A laptop intended for gaming purposes.
A laptop with less than 4 GB of system memory.
A laptop that uses an AMD processor instead of Intel.

A

Most laptops now use 64-bit Central Processing Units (CPUs), though budget models might come with a 32-bit chip. Also, older laptops may still be in use that do not have 64-bit processors.

A laptop intended for gaming purposes will most likely use a 64-bit CPU to maximize processing power/potential.

A laptop that has less than 4 GB of system memory can be either 32-bit or 64-bit. If it is 32-bit, the maximum amount of system memory is limited to 4 GB.

Both Intel and AMD manufacture processors capable of 64-bit processing.

379
Q

What type of system would use a Hybrid Fiber Coax (HFC) connection?

A Cable Access TV provider that also has Internet service
A fiber optic network system to your home
A fiber optic network service to your local area
A telephone company that provides high-speed Internet over the phone lines

A

A Cable Access TV (CATV) service that delivers cable Internet connection and television programming to your home would use an HFC connection.

A fiber cable all the way to your house is Fiber to the Home (FTTH), and is not widely available.

Fiber network service to your local area is Fiber to the Curb (FTTC), a compromise solution widely deployed in urban areas. FTTC means that the telecom provider has installed a fiber network terminating at a cabinet somewhere in a nearby street.

Providing high-speed Internet over the phone lines is a type of Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) that uses existing phone lines and would not come to your house via coax cable.

380
Q

What type of connector would you use on the Wide Area Network (WAN) port of a Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) modem?

RJ-11
RJ-45
Coax
PS/2

A

The RJ-11 ports are on the DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) modem/router appliance used to connect a home network to the Internet. The Internet or Wide Area Network (WAN) port on the router will be the RJ-11 type.

An Ethernet network adapter used with twisted pair cable uses an RJ-45 connection on both ends.

Coax cable is another type of copper cable manufactured in a different way from twisted pair. The cable modem or modem/router connects by a short segment of coax cable, terminated using an F-connector.

The PS/2 interface has a round connector with 6 pins. A keyboard PS/2 port is colored purple to differentiate it from the otherwise identical mouse connector. A mouse PS/2 interface is colored green.

381
Q

What type of network technology would use DOCSIS?

Cable Access TV (CATV)
Fiber to the Home (FTTH)
Fiber to the Curb (FTTC)
Very High Bit Rate DSL (VDSL)

A

Data Over Cable Service Interface Specification (DOCSIS) is a specification used in systems that provide Internet across Cable Access TV (CATV) lines.

Providing a fiber cable all the way to customer premises is the Fiber to the Home (FTTH) system. This is a physical implementation of network cabling, not a data specification.

Fiber to the Curb (FTTC) means the provider installed a fiber network terminating at a cabinet somewhere in a nearby street. This is a physical implementation of network cabling, not a data specification.

In Fiber to the Curb (FTTC), each residence connects to the fiber network over the ordinary copper telephone cabling using Very High Bit Rate DSL (VDSL) communications. This specification works with telephone wires, not coaxial cable.

382
Q

What is the major technical issue in using a satellite network connection?

Latency problems within the system
Unusual computer connections
Lack of satellite coverage
The need to have a special satellite dish

A

Satellite connections experience severe latency problems, as the signal has to travel thousands of miles more than in terrestrial connections, introducing a delay of 4-5 times greater that of a land link.

The antenna is connected via coaxial cabling to a DVB-S (Digital Video Broadcast Satellite) modem. This can be installed in the PC as an expansion card or as an external box connected via a USB or Ethernet port, all of which are standard connections.

Satellite systems provide far greater areas of coverage than can be achieved using other technologies. The microwave dishes align to orbital satellites.

The widespread use of satellite television receivers allows for domestic Internet connectivity services over satellite connections. No special satellite is necessary.

383
Q

Which of these cellular standards has the fastest top data rate?

Long Term Evolution (LTE)
General Packet Radio Services (GPRS)
Evolved High Speed Packet Access (HSPA+)
Evolution Data Optimized (EV-DO)

A

Long Term Evolution (LTE) is a converged 4G standard supported by both the GSM and CDMA network providers. In theory, LTE has a maximum downlink of 150 Mbps.

EDGE (Enhanced Data Rates for GSM Evolution) is a precursor to 3G (2.5G) with GPRS offering speeds up to 144–192 Kbps.

Evolved High Speed Packet Access (HSPA) is a 3G standard developed from GSM networks. HSPA+ nominally supports download speeds up to 168 Mbps and upload speeds up to 34 Mbps.

Evolution Data Optimized (EV-DO) is the main 3G standard deployed by CDMA network providers. EV-DO can support a 3.1 Mbps downlink and 1.8 Mbps uplink.

384
Q

Which type of device connects computers together in an Ethernet Local Area Network (LAN)?

A switch
An Access Point
An Internet router/modem
A NIC (Network Interface Card)

A

A switch connects four or eight computers together in a Small Office Home Office (SOHO) Ethernet LAN using RJ-45 network ports and twisted-pair cabling.

An Access Point (AP) creates a Wi-Fi wireless network (WLAN) between computers and mobile devices equipped with suitable adapters and switches communications between wired and wireless networks.

An Internet router/modem connects wired and wireless network clients to the Internet via a WAN link. These devices are often simply referred to as “routers.” It is possible for the modem and the router to be separate appliances.

Computers use a Network Interface Card (NIC) to connect an RJ-45 cable to a wired network. Some computers have the card built into the motherboard and have a connection port soldered to the back of the board.

385
Q

Which of the following is NOT a Radio Frequency means of creating a wireless network?

Near Field Communication (NFC)
Cellular
Wi-Fi
Satellite

A

Near Field Communications (NFC) is a very short-range radio link based on Radio Frequency ID (RFID). NFC sensors and functionality are appearing in smartphones for contactless payment readers.

Cellular data connections use radio transmissions but at greater range than Wi-Fi. Cellular data is more closely associated with Internet access for cell phones and smartphones than with computers.

Wi-Fi is considered IEEE’s 802.11 standards for Wireless LANs (WLAN), using 2.4 and 5 GHz bandwidth speeds between 11 Mbps and 1.7 Gbps.

Satellite systems use microwave dishes aligned with orbital satellites that can either relay signals between sites directly or via another satellite. Satellite services are more common in rural areas where DSL or cable services are less likely to be available.

386
Q

Which wireless standard provides a 54 Mbps maximum transfer rate?

802.11g
802.11ac
802.11n
802.11b

A

802.11g acted as an upgrade path for 802.11b, working at 54 Mbps on the 2.4 GHz channel but also allowing support for older 802.11b clients.

802.11ac works only in the 5 GHz range with the 2.4 GHz band reserved for legacy standards support (802.11b/g/n), but it can provide speeds of up to 1.7 Gbps.

The 802.11n standard can use either a 2.4 or 5 GHz band and delivers much improved data rates over 802.11b/g (nominally up to 600 Mbps).

802.11b is the legacy standard, providing a maximum transfer rate of 11 Mbps in the 2.4 GHz band.

387
Q

Which standard is the best choice for encrypting your wireless network?

WPA2 (Wi-Fi Protected Access 2)
Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)
Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA)
Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP)

A

WPA2 implements the 802.11i WLAN security standard. The main difference from WPA is the use of the AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) cipher for encryption. AES is much stronger than RC4/TKIP.

WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) is an older standard. WEP is flawed and you would only select this if compatibility with legacy devices and software were necessary.

Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) fixes most of the security problems with WEP. WPA uses the same weak RC4 cipher as WEP but adds a mechanism called the Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) to make it stronger.

Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) is part of the WPA standard and is not a wireless protocol in itself.

388
Q

Which system uses an automatically generated Service Set Identifier (SSID) and encryption keys to configure wireless networks?

Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS)
Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA)
Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP)
Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)

A

Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS) allows the router to use an auto-generated SSID and encryption key, and for these to be communicated to the client without the user having to enter them manually.

Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) does not automatically generate an SSID and encryption keys. It uses the same weak cipher as the outdated Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP), but adds a mechanism called the Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) to make it stronger.

Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) is part of the WPA standard and is not a wireless protocol in itself.

Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) is a cipher for encryption. AES is part of the WPA2 standard, but not a wireless protocol in itself.

389
Q

What type of fiber optic networking solution is widely deployed in urban areas?

Fiber Optic to the Curb (FTTC)
Fiber Optic to the Home (FTTH)
Hybrid Fiber Coax (HFC)
Cable Access TV (CATV)

A

Fiber to the Curb (FTTC) is a compromise solution widely deployed in urban areas. FTTC means that the telecom provider has installed a fiber network terminating at a cabinet somewhere in a nearby street.

Fiber to the Home (FTTH), which provides a fiber cable all the way to customer premises, requires substantial investment by the telecom provider and is not widely available.

Hybrid Fiber Coax (HFC) combines a fiber optic core network with coax links to customer premises equipment.

Cable Access TV (CATV) service is a way to deliver cable Internet connection and television programming.

390
Q

Which of these uses volatile memory?

SO-DIMM
SDD
HDD
CD-ROM

A

Small Outline DIMM (SO-DIMM) is a form of Synchronous Dynamic RAM (SDRAM) used in laptops. This memory stores each data bit as an electrical charge and needs refreshing from a power source, thus making it volatile.

Solid state storage (SDD) uses a type of non-volatile memory technology called flash memory. Flash memory is non-volatile because it does not need a power source to retain information.

Hard Disk Drives (HDD) are one of the most widely used types of mass storage device, providing non-volatile storage where the data remains when the power is off.

The Compact Disc – Read Only Memory (CD-ROM) is a storage format for consumer multimedia that is non-volatile, as it retains data without power.

391
Q

Which of the following is a correct Universal Naming Convention (UNC) format for a shared folder?

\GTSLEARNING\DocShare
\GTSLEARNING\DocShare
\GTSLEARNING\DocShare
\GTSLEARNING\DocShare

A

UNC format uses a double slash (\) followed by the server name and then a single slash followed by the shared folder name. The line \GTSLEARNING\DocShare is an example of correct UNC format.

The line \GTSLEARNING\DocShare is not correct UNC format, as the double slash should be at the beginning of the UNC, not between the server name and the folder name.

The line \GTSLEARNING\DocShare is not correct UNC format, as the double slash between the server name and the folder name should be a single slash.

The line \GTSLEARNING\DocShare is not correct UNC format, as the single slash at the beginning should be a double slash.

392
Q

Which format does NOT use a laser to read the data?

Flash
Blu-Ray
Write Once Read Many
Digital Video Disc

A

Flash memory is common in SSDs and USB thumb drives. The computer uses electricity to write to the transistor memory.

Blu-ray Discs (BD) are a form of optical data storage read by laser. They are rapidly replacing DVDs as the media for distributing consumer multimedia and video games.

Write Once Read Many (WORM) is a form of optical media that ensures that data areas once written cannot be overwritten. If there is space, the disc can hold a new session, but old data remains. A laser reads data from the disc.

DVDs (Digital Video or Versatile Disc), is a storage format for consumer multimedia, such as music and video. A laser reads data from the disc.

393
Q

Which protocol is designed to upload and download files between clients and servers?

FTP
NTP
Telnet
TCP

A

FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is used to upload and download files between clients and servers. For example, it is widely used to update the files constituting a website from the designer’s PC to the web server.

NTP (Network Time Protocol) is a network protocol used to synchronize clocks between computers over networks. It is one of the oldest Internet protocols.

Telnet is a network protocol that allows users to log on to another computer on the same network, including over the Internet.

The Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is a standard that defines how to establish and maintain network connections so applications can exchange data. It works with the Internet Protocol (IP).

394
Q

What type of storage device is a hybrid device?

SSD
HDD
Blu-Ray
CD-ROM

A

Solid State Drives (SSDs) can be hybrid drives in which the SSD portion functions as a large cache, containing data that is accessed frequently. The magnetic disc portions spin up when accessing non-cached data.

Hard Disk Drives (HDD) encode data magnetically on specially coated glass or plastic platters accessed by drive heads. They are not hybrids.

Blu-Ray is a storage format for consumer multimedia, such as music and video, and is known as an “optical” drive because a laser reads data from the disc. It is not a hybrid.

The Compact Disc – Read Only Memory (CD-ROM) is a storage format for consumer multimedia, such as music and video, and is not a hybrid.

395
Q

Which of these would NOT use flash memory?

Synchronous Dynamic RAM (SDRAM)
A thumb drive
A memory card
An audio player

A

Synchronous Dynamic RAM (SDRAM) is DRAM used in laptops. This memory stores each data bit as an electrical charge and needs refreshing by an electrical charge.

A USB drive, or “thumb drive,” uses flash memory to store the data. The computer writes the data through an USB port to the data stick.

Many consumer digital imaging products use memory cards that have flash memory, such as digital still and video cameras. Some examples include Compact Flash (CF), Secure Digital (SD), Sony Memory Stick, and xD Picture Card.

Many types of mobile audio players (or mp3 players) use flash memory as the main storage on the device.

396
Q

Using a bare metal backup allows you to skip which step of restoration?

Installing an Operating System (OS)
Installing device drivers
Verifying the backup
Testing the restore

A

A bare metal backup is one applied directly to a partitioned drive without the separate step of reinstalling the Operating System (OS).

Depending the type of backup, you may have to reinstall device drivers after restoring a backup.

Verifying the backup is done when creating the backup and is not part of the restore process. Every backup needs testing regardless of its type.

Every restore job needs verifying to ensure the restored data is not corrupted. This step comes after restoring the data and is done regardless of the type of restore.

397
Q

What type of operating system do most Network Attached Storage (NAS) devices use?

Linux
Windows
Android
iOS

A

A Network Attached Storage (NAS) device is an enclosure with basic server firmware. It usually runs some form of the Linux operating system accessed through a web management page.

Windows is Microsoft’s primary operating system for desktops, laptops, and even some mobile phones. It remains one of the most popular operating systems.

Android is a variant of the Linux operating system created by Google and designed for touchscreen mobile devices such as phones and tablets.

iOS is the operating system created by Apple to run its mobile hardware such as iPods, iPhones, and iPads.

398
Q

What is the name of the cloud storage agent built into the latest versions of Windows?

OneDrive
DropBox
iCloud
Google Drive

A

Microsoft built a cloud storage client called OneDrive into Windows 10 and integrated it natively into the Windows file system.

DropBox is a business-oriented solution that also provides user-level options. It integrates into the Windows system through an application that allows access through the Windows file system.

Apple provides the iCloud system to users of Apple products but also has a Windows application that integrates into the Windows file system.

Google provides Google Drive to users of Google products and has applications for Windows, iOS, and Android devices. This product integrates into Google’s various applications as well.

399
Q

Which type of memory is used for system memory?

RAM
ROM
Cache
Flash

A

System memory is a type of volatile memory called RAM (Random Access Memory). “Volatile” means that data is only retained in the memory chips while there is a power source.

ROM is where data resides on a chip so it cannot change. The computer power-on checks are housed in ROM memory so that the computer can boot every time.

Cache memory is a small-sized type of volatile computer memory that provides high-speed data access to a processor and stores frequently used computer programs, applications, and data.

Flash memory is non-volatile because it does not need a power source to retain information, even though it is a transistor-based technology.

400
Q

Which of these is acting as a local file server?

The Network Attached Storage (NAS) device on the network
Cloud storage through OneDrive
A connection to a computer at work over the Internet
Downloaded music from iTunes

A

The NAS device stores files on its hard drives and uses the server firmware and operating system to share the files. This is a local file server.

Though you can store files in the cloud through programs on your computer, such as OneDrive or Dropbox, you do not have access to them if your Internet connection does not work.

Connecting to a work computer over the Internet allows you to access files, but if the Internet does not work, you have no access.

Downloaded files can be stored on a local file server, but they themselves are not local storage.

401
Q

Which networking feature did Microsoft recently discontinue in updated Windows 1803?

Homegroups
Nearby Devices
Network Troubleshooter
Windows Firewall

A

Microsoft provided a Homegroups feature to try to simplify file sharing with Windows 10, but the Windows 1803 update discontinued the feature.

PCs with a Bluetooth adapter can use the new Windows “Nearby Devices” sharing feature to send a file over the network to nearby Bluetooth-enabled devices.

Network Troubleshooter is a standard feature of Windows that allows the user to diagnose and fix network problems. It is found in the Network Connections folder.

Windows Firewall is part of the Windows Defender Security system. It monitors inbound and outbound network connections for malicious activity.

402
Q

Where is your data stored if you store it on the “cloud”?

On a server hosted by a service provider
On the hard drive in your computer
In an NAS (Network Attached Storage) device in your home
On a Universal Serial Bus (USB) thumb drive attached to your laptop

A

Using hosted storage means leasing a web server from a service provider. Hosted services can also be provided as a “cloud.” The end user pays for the services provided by the cloud. Cloud-based storage is very popular.

The hard drive in your computer is local storage.

An NAS is a storage device connected to the network inside your home.

A USB thumb drive connects to a physical device such as a laptop or desktop. Data is transported through the physical computer connection, not over the Internet.

403
Q

What design consideration can typically be found in a workstation computer?

The device requires peripheral devices connected to the motherboard via ports.
The device has extra copies of many components to make the system more fault tolerant.
The device uses different system components that are smaller, lighter, and draw less power.
The device is optimized to use an HDTV as the primary display and a wireless controller for input.

A

A workstation computer is designed to sit on or under a desk and requires peripheral accessories such as a keyboard and a mouse. One benefit is that a desktop’s basic design can be modified with higher- or lower-grade components and optional features to fit the needs of a user.

The device that has extra copies of components that make the system more fault tolerant is a server.

The device that uses different system components that are smaller, lighter, and draw less power is a laptop.

The device that is optimized to use an HDTV as the primary display and a wireless controller for input is a gaming console.

404
Q

What critical point must be considered when building a “smart” or “digita”” home automation solution?

Compatibility between the networking or communication standards supported by the hub and the appliances
Obtaining the proper permits to operate Radio Frequency (RF) appliances from the needed authorities
Including IP camera coverage of as much square footage as possible to prevent theft
Contracting professionals to pre-wire the house or office so that the final product is seamless

A

Home automation solutions include a hub and appliances that must be able to communicate with each other. To achieve this, the networking or communication standards must be supported by all devices. Most devices support ordinary Wi-Fi but others use low power standards.

Internet of Things (IoT) devices operate using a Radio Frequency (RF) spectrum that does not require special permits.

IP cameras may be included in a home automation solution; however, it depends on the purpose of the solution. Not all home automation solutions will include cameras.

Contracting professionals to pre-wire the facility is not required, as most IoT devices utilize a wireless communication standard.

405
Q

What is an example of an Internet of Things (IoT) device?

A smart light bulb
A smartphone
A laptop
A feature phone

A

The Internet of Things (IOT) refers to a world in which many different types of things are embedded with processing and network functionality. These devices use very small chips and can be integrated into a range of consumer products and industrial machines. One low-cost consumer product commonly found with IoT functionality is the “smart” light bulb.

A smartphone is packed with functionality and has many different sensors; however, it is not considered an IoT device.

A laptop has significant resources and functionality; however, it is not considered an IoT device. It can, however, be used to control IoT devices.

A feature phone is the predecessor to the smartphone and does not contain the needed functionality to be an IoT device.

406
Q

What functionality does an Internet of Things (IOT) streaming media device provide to a homeowner?

The ability to play stored content through any smart speaker or TV connected to the home network
The ability to control heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) from and app installed on a phone
The ability to see a coverage area through either direct connect or snapshots uploaded to the cloud
The ability to check inventory levels or start a washing machine cycle remotely

A

The Internet of Things (IoT) refers to a world in which many different types of things, such as “ordinary” appliances and systems, are embedded with processing and communications capabilities. IoT streaming media devices have the ability to play stored content through any smart speaker or connected TV.

The ability to control HVAC systems from an app installed on a smartphone is functionality provided by IoT thermostats.

The ability to see a coverage area through either direct connect or snapshots uploaded to the cloud is functionality provided by IP cameras.

The ability to check inventory levels or start a washing machine cycle remotely is functionality provided by IoT home appliance automation products.

407
Q

Which of the following is NOT an example of IoT functionality in modern cars?

Systems that begin the vehicle wash cycle so that it finishes at a specific time
Computer systems that control the vehicle’s engine and brakes
Embedded systems for in-vehicle entertainment and for navigation
Systems that detect and avoid potential collisions and provide parking assistance

A

The Internet of Things (IoT) includes devices large and small. One of the larger IoT devices is the modern car. Modern motor vehicles use a substantial amount of electronics to perform a variety of functions; however, automatically washing the car is not one of them.

Modern motor vehicles have computer systems that control the vehicle’s engine and brakes.

Embedded systems for in-vehicle entertainment and navigation are part of many modern cars. These include integrated Global Positioning Systems (GPS).

Systems that control the vehicle on behalf of the driver are part of many modern vehicles. These include automatic collision detection and avoidance as well as parking assist.

408
Q

What functionality does an Internet of Things (IOT) home appliance provide to a homeowner?

The ability to check inventory levels or start a washing machine cycle remotely

The ability to monitor and control alarms, locks, lighting, and videophone entry systems remotely
The ability to see a coverage area through either direct connect or snapshots uploaded to the cloud
The ability to control heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) from an app installed on a phone

A

Home automation uses software and “smart” devices to accomplish certain functionality remotely, often through the Internet. One category of home automation categories is appliances. For example, an IoT refrigerator may report its contents to the owner before the owner goes grocery shopping.

The ability to control alarms, locks, lighting, and entry systems is functionality provided by security system home automation products, not appliances.

The ability to see a coverage area through either direct connect or snapshots uploaded to the cloud is functionality provided by IP cameras.

The ability to control HVAC systems from an app installed on a smartphone is functionality provided by IoT thermostats.

409
Q

What design consideration can typically be found in a server?

The device has extra copies of many components to make the system more fault tolerant.
The device uses different system components that are smaller, lighter, and draw less power.
The device requires peripheral devices connected to the motherboard via ports.
The device is optimized to use an HDTV as the primary display and a wireless controller for input.

A

A server is designed to be fault tolerant so that it can continue to provide service to tens or even hundreds of users. To accomplish this, a server often has extra copies of components like power supplies and network interface cards.

The device that uses different system components that are smaller, lighter, and draw less power is a laptop.

The device that requires peripheral accessories connected to the motherboard via ports is a desktop. Those accessories include a keyboard and a mouse.

The device that is optimized to use an HDTV as the primary display and a wireless controller for input is a gaming console.

410
Q

What is a benefit of an Internet of Things-enabled (IoT-enabled) medical device?

Doctors and nurses can monitor a patient and potentially adjust dosage levels remotely.
Patients will no longer need to have routine health checkups since the IoT device will detect issues.
Hospital billing staff can remotely deactivate a medical device if payment is not received.
A patient can control other home automation devices using the IoT-enabled medical device.

A

The use of electronics to remotely monitor and configure medical devices is expanding rapidly. Portable medical devices include cardiac monitors/defibrillators and insulin pumps. An IoT-enabled medical device allows doctors and nurses to adjust dosages and monitor a patient.

An IoT-enabled medical device is intended to augment, not replace, the care of a medical professional.

Deactivating a medical device for financial purposes would be an unethical practice.

It is unlikely that an IoT-enabled medical device would include functionality to control other home automation equipment.

411
Q

What design consideration can typically be found in a laptop?
To use different system components that are smaller, lighter, and draw less power
To have extra copies of components to make the system more fault tolerant
To have peripheral accessories connected to the motherboard via ports
To be optimized to use an HDTV as the primary display and a wireless controller for input

A

A laptop is designed for portability and uses components that are smaller, lighter, and draw less power. By using these types of components, laptops can operate for longer periods of time before needing to connect to an electrical outlet to recharge.

A server is the device that has extra copies of components that make the system more fault tolerant.

A desktop is the device whose peripheral accessories, including a keyboard and a mouse, connect to the motherboard via ports.

A gaming console is the device that is optimized to use an HDTV as the primary display and a wireless controller for input.

412
Q

What functionality does an Internet Protocol (IP) camera provide to a business owner?

The ability to see a coverage area through either direct connect or snapshots uploaded to the cloud
The ability to monitor and control alarms, locks, lighting, and videophone entry systems remotely
The ability to control heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) from an app installed on a phone
The ability to check inventory levels or start a washing machine cycle remotely

A

Home automation uses software and “smart” devices to accomplish certain functionality remotely, often through the Internet. Home automation categories include camera systems that provide the owner with a video feed or still images of a coverage area.

The ability to control alarms, locks, lighting, and entry systems is functionality provided by security system home automation products.

The ability to control HVAC systems from an app installed on a smartphone is functionality provided by IoT thermostats.

The ability to check inventory levels or start a washing machine cycle remotely is functionality provided by home appliance automation products.

413
Q

What functionality does an Internet of Things (IOT) thermostat provide to a homeowner?

The ability to control heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) from an app installed on a phone
The ability to monitor and control alarms, locks, lighting, and videophone entry systems remotely
The ability to see a coverage area through either direct connect or snapshots uploaded to the cloud
The ability to check inventory levels or start a washing machine cycle remotely

A

Home automation uses software and “smart” devices to accomplish certain functionality remotely, often through the Internet. IoT thermostats have the ability to control HVAC from an app installed on a smartphone.

The ability to control alarms, locks, lighting, and entry systems is functionality provided by security system home automation products.

The ability to see a coverage area through either direct connect or snapshots uploaded to the cloud is functionality provided by IP cameras.

The ability to check inventory levels or start a washing machine cycle remotely is functionality provided by home appliance automation products.

414
Q

What is the difference between a smartphone and a feature phone?

A feature phone is an older device with limited software functionality.
A smartphone is an older device with limited software functionality.
A feature phone is identical to a tablet PC, but smaller.
A smartphone is only made only by Apple, but feature phones are made by many vendors.

A

A feature phone is an older device with limited software functionality. Many feature phones had clumsy user interfaces and failed to provide the same level of service as modern smartphones.

A smartphone is the name of today’s modern device that has roughly the same functionality as a personal computer but can be held in one hand.

A tablet PC, more commonly called a “tablet,” is a large version of a smartphone, not a large feature phone.

Smartphones are manufactured by many vendors including Apple, Samsung, LG, and Google.

415
Q

What functionality does an Internet of Things (IOT) security system provide to a homeowner?

The ability to monitor and control alarms, locks, lighting, and videophone entry systems remotely
The ability to control heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) from an app installed on a phone
The ability to see a coverage area through either direct connect or snapshots uploaded to the cloud
The ability to check inventory levels or start a washing machine cycle remotely

A

The Internet of Things (IoT) refers to a world in which many different types of things, such as “ordinary” appliances and systems, are embedded with processing and communications capabilities. IoT security systems can monitor and control alarms, locks, lighting, and videophone entry systems remotely.

The ability to control HVAC systems from an app installed on a smartphone is functionality provided by IoT thermostats.

The ability to see a coverage area through either direct connect or snapshots uploaded to the cloud is functionality provided by IP cameras.

The ability to check inventory levels or start a washing machine cycle remotely is functionality provided by IoT home appliance automation products.

416
Q

What design consideration can typically be found in a gaming console?

The device is optimized to use an HDTV as the primary display and a wireless controller for input.
The device has extra copies of many components to make the system more fault tolerant.
The device requires peripheral devices connected to the motherboard via ports.
The device uses different system components that are smaller, lighter, and draw less power.

A

A gaming console contains many of the same components as a workstation but is designed specifically for playing video games. Therefore, the primary display is an HDTV and the input device is a console gamepad or controller.

The device that has extra copies of components that make the system more fault tolerant is a server.

The device that requires peripheral accessories connected to the motherboard via ports is a desktop. Those accessories include a keyboard and a mouse.

The device that uses different system components that are smaller, lighter, and draw less power is a laptop.

417
Q

What feature does a laptop have that a tablet does not?

A physical QWERTY keyboard
A capacitive or resistive touch screen
The ability to run different operating systems
Built-in Wi-Fi connectivity

A

The main difference between a laptop and a tablet is the lack of a physical keyboard on a tablet. Some devices attempt to bridge this gap by making detachable keyboards for tablets or adding a flipping or rotating screen to convert a laptop into a tablet.

Both laptops and tablets come with touch screens, depending on the make and model of the device.

Both laptops and tablets have the ability to run different operating systems. Most devices, however, come preloaded with the operating system designed for the hardware.

Wi-Fi is a common set of communication protocols that can be found on most laptops and tablets.

418
Q

What usually happens to email messages when a client accesses them using the Post Office Protocol v3 (POP3)?

The messages are downloaded to the client and deleted from the server.
The messages remain on the server and can be accessed from other devices.
The messages are archived to a different folder, keeping read and unread separate.
The messages are downloaded to the client and encrypted for storage.

A

With the Post Office Protocol v3 (POP3), email messages are usually deleted from the server when they are downloaded to an email client. This protocol is intended to be used only when a single device or email client application is used.

The Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) keeps a copy of email messages on the server so that multiple devices can access them.

The POP3 protocol does not move email messages to different folders based on whether or not they are read. POP3 does not use folders in the same manner as IMAP.

The messages are downloaded to the client; however, encrypting them for storage is not part of the protocol.

419
Q

What device is capable of performing packet switching?

A router
A modem
A switch
A firewall

A

A TCP/IP network transmits data to the desired recipient using packet switching. To accomplish this, each packet of information has a source and destination address. A router is responsible for analyzing the packet header information and directing the packet based on pre-configured tables.

A modem is used to modulate/demodulate a signal, as well as to convert the digital signals from a computer into the appropriate analog signal. It also performs the opposite, returning an analog signal back to digital.

A switch receives incoming data and then forwards it out of the appropriate port based on the MAC address.

A firewall filters traffic passing into or out of a network depending on several criteria.

420
Q

The Post Office Protocol v3 (POP3) protocol is for incoming mail. Which protocol is used for outgoing mail?

SMTP
WEP
SNMP
PGP

A

The Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is responsible for sending messages between mail servers and for sending messages from email client software to the server. SMTP can be used with traditional settings that transmit information in plain text or in coordination with SSL to send messages encrypted.

Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is a wireless security protocol, not an email protocol.

The Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is used to locate and manage systems on a network and is not used for sending emails.

The Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) is used for data encryption and decryption. It can be used to encrypt attachments that are sent via email but it is not used to actually transmit the email.

421
Q

Which of the following is NOT a valid IP address?

192.168.1.256
192.168.0.5
192.168.1.1
192.168.200.200

A

An IP address is used to logically identify each device (host) on a given network. The address is either a 32-bit binary value (IPV4) or a 128-bit binary value (IPV6). In IPV4, the IP address is broken into four 8-character binary values called octets. This results in a decimal value between 0 and 255 within each octet. In this question, the IP address 192.168.1.256 is NOT valid because the decimal value must be between 0 and 254.

The IP address 192.168.0.5 is a valid IP on a private class C network.

The IP address 192.168.1.1 is a valid IP on a private class C network and is often the default gateway.

The IP address 192.168.200.200 is a valid IP address on a private class C network.

422
Q

What protocol is used to retrieve email from a server and supports multiple clients connecting to the same mailbox simultaneously?

Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
Post Office Protocol v3 (POP3)
Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions (MIME)
Message Application Programming Interface (MAPI)

A

The Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) supports permanent connections to a server and connecting multiple clients to the same mailbox simultaneously. IMAP is used to retrieve emails from a server’s message store.

The Post Office Protocol v3 (POP3) is also used to retrieve emails; however, POP3 does not support multiple-client simultaneous access.

The Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions (MIME) is an encoding technique used to transmit text messages and binary file attachments by email.

The Message Application Programming Interface (MAPI) is used by email client software to send a message to a Microsoft Exchange email server.

423
Q

What limitation should you be aware of when applying Media Access Control (MAC) filtering on your network devices?

You will need to modify the safe list for each new authorized client device going forward.
Some connected client devices might need access to specific traffic that is being filtered out.
The risk of data packet collisions between connected client devices could potentially increase.
Throughput is likely to be impacted, since the filtering device must constantly check the status of connected client devices.

A

When applying MAC filtering on your network devices, you will need to modify the safe list, often called a whitelist, for each new authorized client device going forward.

Filtering traffic is a service performed by firewalls based on a ruleset. MAC filtering uses a whitelist to authorize access to a network.

The rate of data packet collisions is not impacted by MAC filtering.

Throughput of the client device is not impacted because a device goes through the authorization process only when it is initially connected or when it is disconnected and later reconnected.

424
Q

Which feature of a wireless router allows you to specify precisely which wireless clients may join your network?

MAC filtering
Port forwarding
Port triggering
Quality of Service

A

MAC filtering is a setting that allows a network administrator to indicate exactly which devices are permitted to access the wireless network, and which devices are not. These devices are identified by their MAC address. Approved devices are part of the “whitelist,” and specific blocked devices are part of the “blacklist.”

Port forwarding is a setting that, when enabled, forwards a network port from one network node to another.

Port triggering is a setting that automates port forwarding by specifying triggering ports to which inbound traffic is automatically forwarded.

Quality of Service is the feature that allows you to prioritize certain types of network traffic over other types of lesser importance.

425
Q

What hardware device is used to obtain Internet access when the service provider delivers a coaxial cable?

A modem
A switch
An access point
A firewall

A

Internet service providers deliver services using various technologies. With Cable Access TV (CATV) and Hybrid Fiber Coax (HFC), the service is delivered using a coaxial cable, which requires a modem as the first device in the equipment string, so that the signal can be modulated/demodulated for transmission over coax.

With a modem as the first device in the equipment string, a switch can be connected as the second or third device.

An access point generally refers to a Wireless Access Point (WAP), which provides Wi-Fi service.

With a modem as the first device in the equipment string, a firewall hardware device can also be connected in the second or third position.

426
Q

What is the networking term that describes the total time it takes a data packet to travel from one node to another?

Latency
Availability
Bandwidth
Throughput

A

Latency is the term used to describe the total time it takes a data packet to travel from one node to another. This is often measured in milliseconds (ms). The greater the latency, or “lag,” the higher this number will be.

Availability refers to how long the network stays up and operational without interruption, and how quickly it can recover should it go down.

Bandwidth refers to the maximum amount of data that can be transmitted over a medium in a given time.

Throughput refers to the actual amount of data that is transmitted over a medium in a given time.

427
Q

How does a Uniform Resource Locator (URL) get translated to an Internet Protocol (IP) address?

Using the Domain Name System (DNS) resolution process
Using the HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
Using the local address resolution process
Using the Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)

A

When a user enters a Uniform Resource Locator (URL) into a web browser, the Domain Name System (DNS) resolution process locates the correct IP address for the web server. This is accomplished using the DNS hierarchy.

The HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP) enables a client web browser to request resources on a web server. DNS resolution must happen before HTTP can be used.

The local address resolution process occurs when a new system connects to a network and an IP address needs to map to the hardware, or MAC, address. This uses the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).

The Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) is a protocol that enables encryption of HTTP and other plain-text protocols.

428
Q

What is the advantage of downloading files from a site that begins with HTTPS as opposed to HTTP?

The HTTPS site uses SSL/TLS to encrypt data and provide a secure connection.
An HTTPS site will cache data locally for faster future visits, whereas an HTTP site will not.
Files are transferred faster over HTTPS than over HTTP.
The HTTPS site uses TCP/IP to define how messages are formatted, while HTTP does not.

A

The advantage of HTTPS over regular HTTP is the additional level of security it provides. A site that uses HTTPS is using Secure Sockets Layer/Transport Layer Security (SSL/TLS) to encrypt data. Just about all web browsers today will support HTTPS communications.

Websites often cache data for faster future visits; however, this occurs for both HTTPS and HTTP.

Transfer rates between HTTPS and HTTP are the same. Technically, establishing the initial connection via HTTPS may take slightly longer, but the added time is unnoticeably small.

TCP/IP is the protocol set that governs how information is arranged and exchanged as packets. TCP/IP is used in both HTTPS and HTTP.

429
Q

How many Ethernet LAN ports are typically found on a Small Office Home Office (SOHO) network switch?

Four to eight
24 to 48
254
One

A

A Small Office Home Office (SOHO) network switch typically has either 4 or 8 ethernet LAN ports. SOHO devices are often multifunction and may include an integrated router, modem, and wireless access point.

An enterprise network switch typically has 24 or 48 ethernet LAN ports. This would be excessive for a SOHO network.

A Local Area Network (LAN) can typically have up to 254 clients on the network, but this depends the subnet configuration. Regardless, a switch does not have 254 physical ports on the device.

A SOHO multifunction device may have one Wide Area Network (WAN) uplink, but it has four or eight LAN ports.

430
Q

What is the primary difference between a LAN and a WAN?

The geographic distance between the devices that are being networked
The connection type of the devices being networked
The number of devices that are being networked
The speed of the devices that are being networked

A

The key difference between a LAN and a WAN is the physical distance that the network spans. The LAN, by definition, is a local network of devices in a particular physical location. A Wide Area Network (WAN) is used to connect devices over great distances, and is often used to network computers in different office branches across the country or even internationally.

The connection type of the devices being networked for both LANs and WANs varies between implementations and often involves multiple types of connectors and transmission mediums (i.e., catV, fiber, etc.)

The number of devices being networked can range from two to thousands for both LANs and WANs.

The device speed varies depending on the equipment being used. This is not the primary difference between LANs and WANs.

431
Q

Which is NOT a key function of a Small Office Home Office (SOHO) wireless router?

It provides access to 3G and 4G networks.
It allows multiple users to be connected to a network at the same time.
It can be configured to prioritize certain types of network traffic.
It enables wired and wireless computers to connect to the Internet.

A

Wireless routers are among the most commonly used pieces of networking equipment both in the workplace and in SOHO networks. Wireless routers do not, however, provide access to 3G and 4G networks. These are cellular networks that are used by mobile telecommunications devices such as smartphones.

Routers allow many different users to access the network at the same time.

Most routers have Quality-of-Service (QoS) options that allow you to prioritize certain types of traffic, such as VoIP, over other types of traffic.

A wireless router has physical ports that allow both wired and wireless computers to connect to the Internet.

432
Q

What is packet switching?

The ability of one computer to forward information to another using any available pathway
A suite of network transport protocols that work in layers, each with defined functions
The method used to assign names to hosts and networks and to convert these names into IP addresses
An encryption technique used in web browsing to authenticate the client/server and to encrypt in-transit data

A

Packet switching is the ability of one computer to forward information to another using any available pathway. To ensure that information reaches the correct destination, each packet is addressed with a source and destination address.

A suite of network transport protocols that work in layers, each having a defined function, is known as the Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP).

The method used to assign names to hosts and networks that are converted into IP addresses is known as the Domain Name System (DNS).

An encryption technique used in web browsing to authenticate the client/server and to encrypt in-transit data is the Secure Sockets Layer/Transport Layer Security (SSL/TLS).

433
Q

Which term describes a group of computers and devices that share resources without a router within a small geographical area?

LAN
SAN
WAN
WAP

A

A Local Area Network (LAN) is a group of computers and devices that share resources (without a router) within a small geographic area. A LAN can be a few connected computers, or it can comprise hundreds of computers and devices.

A Storage Area Network (SAN) is a network that provides access to consolidated data storage.

A Wide Area Network (WAN) is a network of computers that are spread across a large geographic area. A WAN can also be composed of smaller LANs that are interconnected.

A Wireless Access Point (WAP) is a device or software that facilitates communication and provides enhanced security to wireless devices. It can extend the physical range of a Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN).

434
Q

What is the basic function of a router?

It forwards TCP/IP packets between dissimilar networks.
It creates the LAN for a set of computers.
It is a virus and malware filter for a LAN.
It prevents electric surges by routing them to ground.

A

The basic function of a router is to forward TCP/IP packets between dissimilar networks. In Small Office Home Office (SOHO) networks, a router connects to the Internet via a WAN link. In enterprise environments, a router connects to other infrastructure devices including switches, firewalls, Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS).

A device that creates the LAN for a set of computers is either a switch for wired networks or a Wireless Access Point (WAP) for wireless networks.

Filtering for viruses and malware on a LAN is often performed by the Intrusion Detection System (IDS).

Preventing damage to equipment from electrical surges is a secondary function of an Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS).

435
Q

What does Internet Message Access Protocol 4 (IMAP4) allow a user to do that Post Office Protocol 3 (POP3) does not?

View the same email from many different devices
Download and send attachments to other email users
Save emails locally rather than on a central email server
Use an unlimited amount of inbox storage space

A

Because IMAP4 stores emails on the server end as opposed to the client end, it allows users to access the same email from many different devices. This means that when you check your email from a different laptop or mobile device, you see the same messages.

Both POP3 and IMAP4 allow users to download and send attached files.

Saving emails to a local machine is a characteristic of POP3, not IMAP4.

It is rare for users of IMAP4 to have an unlimited mailbox size, as emails are stored on a server. Most companies impose a mailbox limit to manage the storage capacity on email servers.

436
Q

What protects a network by denying specific types of incoming traffic?

A firewall appliance
A TCP/IP accelerator appliance
Antivirus software
Diagnostic software

A

A firewall is a network appliance or a piece of software that uses rules to inspect traffic flowing in and out of a device or a network. Packets can be filtered depending on several criteria such as inbound or outbound, IP address, and port number. More advanced firewalls can examine higher layer information and provide enhanced security.

A TCIP/IP accelerator uses protocol acceleration, Quality of Service (QoS), to speed up applications such as file access, email, and web pages.

Antivirus software is often able to thwart threats in real time, but it is designed to protect endpoint devices, not full networks.

Diagnostic software is used to determine the cause of a problem after it has already occurred.

437
Q

How can you confirm that you have properly configured a Small Office Home Office (SOHO) wireless router?

A wireless client can connect to the router.

The router can simulate a device connecting to it and give you the results.

The router will alert you if any settings have been improperly configured.

You receive a pop-up message that indicates your changes were successful.

A

The best way to verify that you have properly configured a router is to test it out from a wireless device. If the device cannot connect to the router, then this is a sign that your settings still need to be adjusted. Of course, even if your test is successful, you still might want to check your settings again.

A wireless router does not have built-in functionality that can simulate a device connecting. This must be done manually by the administrator.

A wireless router does not alert you if configurations are not set properly. It is the administrator’s responsibility to ensure that settings are correct and the device is secure.

When changing settings, the wireless router may send a pop-up message confirming the change; however, it cannot determine if the settings have been changed successfully.

438
Q

Which wireless standard would give newer devices the maximum possible transfer rate?

802.11ac
802.11b
802.11g
802.11n

A

Wireless standards have evolved since 1999. The most recent standard is 802.11ac, which operates on the 5GHz spectrum band and can achieve a maximum transfer rate of 1.7 Gbps. The number of channels available affects the throughput (i.e., speed).

The 802.11b standard was one of the first announced in 1999, and it used the 2.4 GHz spectrum with a maximum transfer rate of 11 Mbps.

The 802.11g standard was announced in 2003, and it used the 2.4 GHz spectrum with a maximum transfer rate of 54 Mbps.

The 802.11n standard was announced in 2009, and it uses both 2.4 GHz and 5GHz spectrums. It operates at 72.2 Mbps on a single channel or 150 Mbps on bonded channels.

439
Q

Which is NOT a likely cause of Wi-Fi signal interference?

Bluetooth devices

Other Wi-Fi networks

Dense wall materials

Fluorescent lighting

A

Radio signals pass through solid objects but can be weakened or blocked. One technology that is unlikely to cause interference, however, is Bluetooth. Despite using the same 2.4 GHz frequency range, the modulation technique is different.

Other Wi-Fi networks that are nearby can cause interference, especially if operating on the same channel.

Particularly dense or thick wall materials, as well as metal, can cause interference with Wi-Fi signals.

Fluorescent lighting is a common source of signal interference for Wi-Fi. Fluorescent lighting can also cause interference on wired networks if the network cable is unshielded and comes in close proximity to the light fixture.

440
Q

Which type of encryption should be avoided when configuring a wireless router?

WEP
Captive portal
WPA
WPA2

A

Wired Equivalency Protocol (WEP) was developed for the purpose of providing confidentiality over a wireless network comparable to that of a traditional wired network. The problem with WEP is that the implementation is done in an insecure manner that can be easily cracked by malicious attackers.

A captive portal is not an encryption method. An unencrypted (i.e., open) access point may redirect to a captive portal so that authorized users can authenticate or submit payment.

Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) has been updated to WPA2, but it still provides better security than WEP.

WPA2 is a more secure and complex security protocol and certification program for wireless devices. WPA2 is the current best option for wireless encryption.

441
Q

How does attenuation affect wireless networking?

A loss of signal strength reduces the data transfer rate.
An increase in signal strength reduces the data transfer rate.
The longer a signal’s strength stays consistent, the faster the data transfer rate will be.
A varying signal strength will maximize the data transfer rate.

A

Attenuation is the loss of a signal’s strength. The distance between the wireless client and the access point determines the attenuation of the signal. Each station determines an appropriate data rate based on the quality of the signal. A lower quality signal results in a slower data transfer rate.

Increasing the signal strength increases the data transfer rate.

Consistency of a signal will not increase the transfer rate. A consistently poor signal strength will always have a slower transfer rate.

To achieve a maximum transfer rate, a consistent excellent signal strength is needed.

442
Q

What step should be performed as early as possible when configuring a wireless access point?

Changing the default password

Selecting which channel to use

Configuring an Access Control List (ACL)

Enabling Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

A

When configuring a wireless access point, you must always change the default password to prevent unauthorized access. Most devices come from the manufacturer with “default,” “password,” or “admin” as the default password. A quick Internet search will reveal the default password for a specific manufacturer.

Selecting the channel used by the access point can be done if interference is caused by nearby access points, but this is not the earliest action to take.

An Access Control List (ACL) can help prevent devices from connecting; however, this is of a lower priority than changing the default password.

Enabling Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is likely done by default and will not be required when setting up an access point.

443
Q

Which wireless encryption standard improves on Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) by adding the Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP)?

WPA

Captive portal

WPA3

WPA2

A

The Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) security standard and certification fixed most of the security problems found with Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP). WPA still uses the same weak RC4 cipher as WEP but adds a mechanism called the Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) to make it stronger.

A captive portal is not an encryption standard. It is a mechanism used to force clients connecting to an open access point to provide credentials or payment.

Wi-Fi Protected Access III (WPA3) is a newer security standard and certification published in January 2018. It will soon be the best option for securing Wi-Fi, but it will not use TKIP.

Wi-Fi Protected Access II (WPA2) is the implantation of the 802.11i WLAN security standard, which uses the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) instead of TKIP.

444
Q

What is a captive portal?

A secure login page presented to a client after connecting to an open access point

A virtual store where customers can purchase add-ons to browsers and other apps

A “tunnel” that connects a client to a private network using encryption

A mechanism where a user only has to authenticate to a single system once to gain access to all its resources

A

Open authentication may be combined with a secondary authentication mechanism managed via a browser. When the client associates with an open hotspot and launches the browser, the client is redirected to a captive portal to enter credentials or provide payment.

Examples of virtual stores where customers can purchase add-ons or apps include the iTunes store, Google Play, or other vendor-specific stores. These are not captive portals.

A “tunnel” that connects a client to a private network using encryption is called a Virtual Private Network (VPN). Using a VPN when connecting through an open captive portal helps protect the confidentiality and integrity of the transmitted data.

Authenticating to a single system to get access to all its resources is referred to as Single Sign-On (SSO). Captive portals are specific to accessing wireless networks.

445
Q

Which 802.11 wireless standard has the greatest rate of data throughput?

802.11ac

802.11a

802.11n

802.11g

A

The 802.11ac wireless standard allows data throughput of up to 1.7 Gbps at the time of writing. It uses the 5 GHz band. Those planning wireless networks should take into account that most access points have a compatibility mode that will allow older devices to connect using older standards; however, this also reduces the rate of data throughput for those devices.

The 802.11a wireless standard supports speeds up to 54 Mbps, but has a limited range of about 60 feet. The 802.11a standard uses the 5 GHz band.

The 802.11n wireless standard allows data throughput of up to 600 Mbps. The 802.11n standard uses the 2.4 and 5 GHz bands.

The 802.11g wireless standard has a maximum throughput of 54 Mbps. The 802.11g wireless standard uses the 2.4 GHz band.

446
Q

Which wireless encryption standard improves security by adding Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) cipher-based authentication?

WPA2

TKIP

WEP

WPA

A

Wi-Fi Protected Access II (WPA2) improves security by adding Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) cipher-based authentication. This cipher uses strong message authenticity and integrity checking, which provides significantly stronger protection for both privacy and integrity.

WPA added the TKIP security protocol, which uses an RC4 stream cipher. AES has replaced TKIP.

Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) uses an insecure implementation of a stream RC4 cipher, not an AES cipher.

Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) was developed to replace WEP, which was known to have major security flaws. WPA relies on TKIP, not AES.

447
Q

What is a best practice for the Service Set Identifier (SSID) of a wireless router?

It should be changed to a more unique name or have its broadcast disabled.

It should be changed to a name that identifies the physical location of the router.

It should be left as the factory default so that the settings can be modified later if needed.

It should have the same SSID as any other routers that are part of the same WLAN.

A

The SSID of a wireless browser should be changed to a more unique name or should have its broadcast disabled.

It is better to pick a name that does not indicate exactly where the router is. For example, an SSID named “Marketing, 1C” tells potential attackers where the device is.

Each wireless router will have a default SSID when you take it out of the box. To improve the security of the router, you should immediately change the SSID to something more unique.

Depending on the wireless router configuration, each access point may have a unique SSID. An exception to this a mesh wireless network, in which access points pass traffic from hop to hop.

448
Q

What is a Service Set Identifier (SSID) and how is it used?

A series of alphanumeric characters used to identify a WAP and all the devices attached to it

A password used to identify devices that are authorized to access the network

A text file stored in a router that lists the MAC addresses of all currently connected clients

A type of file protection that disguises the data within a file or message

A

A Service Set Identifier (SSID) is a string of letters and/or numbers. This is commonly referred to as the network name. Most wireless access points broadcast their SSID unless you specify otherwise. It is recommended that you change the SSID to something more unique or disable SSID broadcasting altogether.

The password for the access point is usually configured in addition to the SSID.

A list of all currently connected clients can often be found on the Status page of the router, although the exact location will vary depending on the manufacturer.

File protection that disguises the data within a message is known as encryption.

449
Q

When would open authentication be appropriate for a wireless network?

When the network is completely public and intended for everyone

When the network needs to be private, but is enclosed in a secure building

When the network is a public access point intended only for customers of a specific business

When the network is private and sensitive information is being transmitted

A

An “open” wireless access point does not require authentication to connect. Because of this, all network traffic is sent and received in plain-text unencrypted form, which is susceptible to interception. When using an open access point, connecting to a Virtual Private Network (VPN) is highly recommended.

Even if a wireless network is enclosed within a secure building, open authentication allows anyone in the building to eavesdrop on network traffic. Also, RF signals can pass through walls.

If a wireless network is only intended for customers of a business, enabling encryption or using a captive portal is recommended.

A private network containing sensitive information should use encryption and should not be configured with open authentication.

450
Q

Why are server operating systems likely to include software packages (or roles)?

They often use one role to run network services and a different role to support specific functions for more users.

They have simple command-line interfaces rather than Graphic User Interface systems (GUIs).

Server operating systems use multiple roles to match the OS kernel of their workstation equivalent.

Server systems can only run the OS they were designed for. They are not flexible.

A

Servers can be configured to perform a number of roles. The applications that the server is running specify the particular server’s role. Servers typically need services and additional features installed to perform their specific role. The server’s role determines the hardware that server requires. A few common server roles are domain controller, database server, backup server, file server, print server, infrastructure server, web server, and email server.

Server operating systems do have simple command-line interfaces, but that isn’t why they have multiple roles. The command-line interface makes them more secure and stable.

Servers do tend to match the kernel of their workstation equivalent (for example, Windows 10 and Windows Server 2016 are very similar), but this is not why they use multiple roles.

Servers are extremely flexible because they tend to have more disk space, more memory, and faster processors.

451
Q

What manages memory on a computer?

The operating system will do the best job it can with the resources available.

The systems cache will manage the memory for the computer.

The Task Manager can override processes and will allow the user to grab the memory needed.

Memory cards manage themselves. The user can go into the case and remove the memory card for later use.

A

There is not a lot to configure in terms of memory management. The OS will do the best job it can with the resources available; if there is not enough memory the only real solution is to install more or run fewer programs simultaneously.

The systems cache memory on a computer is used by the central processing unit (CPU). The CPU can retrieve the information extremely quickly and use it to process the next batch of information.

You can override processes if you know what you are doing. The problem with overriding a process in the Task Manager is that you may override something that the OS needs.

Removing a memory card would actually cause more problems. This would certainly reduce the resources available for the OS to manage.

452
Q

Which of these is NOT considered an aspect of a Type 1 hypervisor?

A Type 1 hypervisor runs as a software application “within” a host’s operating system.

A Type 1 hypervisor is also known as a “bare metal” hypervisor.

A Type 1 hypervisor is installed directly on the computer.

A Type 1 hypervisor interacts directly with a computer’s hardware.

A

A Type 1 hypervisor doesn’t run as a software application “within” a host’s operating system; that is an aspect of a Type 2 hypervisor.

A Type 1 hypervisor is also known as a “bare metal” hypervisor because it is installed directly onto the computer.

Type 1 hypervisors run directly on the host’s hardware to control the hardware and to manage guest operating systems. For this reason, they are sometimes called “bare metal” hypervisors because they reside directly on the computer, whereas Type 2 hypervisors reside on the virtual platform.

Type 1 hypervisors interact directly with a computer’s hardware.

453
Q

How can you implement access control/protection on your computer?
Create ordinary user accounts for day-to-day access to the computer.

Allocate a group user account with a group password.

Ensure you keep your computer active so that you don’t lose data when you lease your desk.

Keep the local administrator account open for use as everybody’s log-in account.

A

When the OS is first installed, the account created or used during setup is a powerful local administrator account. You should create ordinary user accounts for day-to-day access to the computer.

Group accounts are not advisable because there is no accountability of access to the computer. You need to implement access controls on each user account that you create.

You should always log off when you leave your computer, as this provides a bit of security to your account.

You should not keep the local administrator account open for use as everybody’s log-in account because this leaves your computer vulnerable.

454
Q

After installing an application, you experience difficulty getting it to run. What should you do?
Inspect the properties of the executable file.

Immediately try to reinstall the program.

Go to Add and Remove Program in Settings and delete the application.

Wait a day or so because the problem may fix itself.

A

You should inspect the properties of the executable file (or a shortcut to it). The Details tab is useful for troubleshooting, as it will let you know whether you are running a version with the latest patches. The Compatibility tab can be used to run the program in a compatibility mode (for Windows 98, for instance) and adjust the display settings.

You shouldn’t try to reinstall the program without first trying to figure out what is wrong with it.

Removing the program is not an option. You need to gather more information and look at the executable file.

Applications don’t usually fix themselves in a day or so.

455
Q

What is the basic function of an operating system?

Providing an interface between user and machine

Accessing video, audio, and office automation software

Protecting the computer against viruses

Enabling wireless connectivity

A

The most basic function of an operating system is to provide an interface between user and machine.

Accessing video, audio, and office automation all require external software and applications to function. This is not the most basic function of the operating system.

Although some operating systems, like Linux, have built-in protection because they were meant for open-source use, an operating system’s basic function is not to protect against viruses. In most computer systems this is accomplished with the use of anti-virus software.

Wireless connectivity is not a function of the operating system.

456
Q

Which statement about an embedded operating system is true?

An embedded system is a computer system or appliance designed for a very specific function.

An embedded system is a computer system designed to run software to perform a variety of tasks.

An embedded system allows a user to upgrade the operating system.

An embedded system is often used in a dynamic environment because it can tolerate reboots or crashes.

A

Embedded systems are specifically used to operate devices that perform acutely time-sensitive tasks. Examples include drip meters and flow valves.

Embedded systems are not general-purpose systems. They are usually not capable of running software to perform multiple tasks.

Because they are meant for specific purposes, embedded systems do not usually allow the user to install upgrades.

Embedded systems are not used in a dynamic environment and are considered static devices (i.e., they don’t change often). Because they are used to perform acutely sensitive tasks, they don’t tolerate reboots and crashes well.

457
Q

What is a hotfix?

An update that is typically issued on an emergency basis to address a specific security vulnerability

A collection of previously issued patches, which is usually meant to be applied to one component of a system

A compilation of updates that generally includes functionality enhancements, new features, and patches issued up to a certain point

A small unit of supplemental code intended to address either a security problem or a functionality flaw that is not immediately threatening

A

A hotfix is an update that is usually issued as an immediate response to a specific flaw or vulnerability.

A collection of previously issued patches, which is usually meant to be applied to one component of a system, is commonly referred to as a rollout.

A compilation of updates that generally includes functionality enhancements, new features, and patches issued up to a certain point is known as a Service Pack.

Patches are small units of code that address a security problem or a functionality issue, but typically the problem is not immediately threatening.

458
Q

Which option is NOT among the basic functions of an operating system?

Providing productivity applications such as word processing and spreadsheets
Displaying folder and file directories for data management
Facilitating communication between different hardware components
Providing a graphical interface between the computer and the user

A

Providing productivity applications, such as word processing and spreadsheets, is not among the basic functions of an operating system. These must be acquired and installed separately. The applications are often written for specific operating systems. For instance, Microsoft Office was coded with a Windows operating system in mind, and might not function on a Macintosh operating system.

An operating system enables users to display folder and data directories for data management.

An operating system facilitates communication between input devices, output devices, and other hardware components.

An operating system is designed to allow a user to interact with a computer without having to understand all of the underlying technologies that allow it to function.

459
Q

Which of the following is NOT an example of a workstation operating system?

A mobile device operating system like Apple iOS
An enterprise client like Windows Enterprise
A Network Operating System (NOS) or server OS like Linux
A home client like Windows Home

A

A mobile device OS is one designed for handheld devices, such as smartphones and tablets. Mobile devices by definition are not workstations, so a mobile device OS is the only OS that is not for use on workstations.

An enterprise client is designed to work as a client in business networks.

A Network Operating System (NOS), or server OS, is designed to run on servers in business networks.

A home client is designed to work on standalone or workgroup PCs and laptops in a home or small office. This will also allow each client to run some basic peer-to-peer network servers, such as file sharing.

460
Q

You need to partition a disk into two separate drives. Where would you go to do this?

Disk Management
Task Manager
Memory management plug-in
The C: drive

A

Windows provides a GUI Disk Management tool to format mass storage devices (disks and USB drives) and manage partitions. Also, each partition must be formatted with a file system so that the OS can read and write files to the drive.

Task Manager can monitor the various tasks and see how much memory and what percent of the processing is taken up by each application, but you can’t manage the disk from there.

Memory is managed by the operating system, not by a memory management plug-in.

The C: drive can’t be manipulated without the GUI Disk Management tool.

461
Q

Which of the following is an open source mobile operating system?

Android
Apple iOS
Blackberry
Windows Phone

A

The only open source mobile operating system in this list is Android. It was developed by Google based on a modified version of the Linux kernel and other open source software and was designed primarily for touchscreen mobile devices.

Apple iOS is a proprietary mobile operating system, although it contains open source components. If Apple fails to approve an app or removes it from the app store, you can’t use it.

Blackberry is a proprietary mobile operating system, although it contains open source components.

Windows Phone is a proprietary mobile operating system, although it contains open source components.

462
Q

In which situation would Windows Disk Defragmenter be helpful?

Performance is being affected by used and free storage areas on a hard disk being greatly scattered.
A newly installed piece of hardware is not functioning because old or incorrect drivers are installed.
Malware is causing a computer to run undesired applications in the background, which consumes system memory.
The operating system will not boot properly because the boot sector has been damaged or modified.

A

Windows Disk Defragmenter is helpful when performance is being affected by used and free storage areas on a hard disk being greatly scattered. Over time, a disk can become fragmented. Files that are saved on a disk are stored in multiple separate blocks, which causes the used and available storage areas to become scattered on the disk. A high degree of file fragmentation can impact the performance of the disk. Disk Defragmenter fixes this problem by rearranging the stored files to be contiguous rather than dispersed.

Disk Defragmenter is not helpful for issues involving driver incompatibility.

Disk Defragmenter is not helpful for issues involving malware.

Disk Defragmenter is not helpful for issues involving a damaged boot sector.

463
Q

In the Device Manager window, you notice a yellow exclamation mark next to a specific device. What is most likely the problem?

The driver for that device is either missing or the wrong version.
The component is physically damaged and in need of replacement.
The device has been physically removed from the system.
The system does not have sufficient space on the local disk to support it.

A

When a yellow alert is displayed next to a device in the Device Manager window, it indicates a problem with that particular device. In most cases, there is a problem with the driver. Installing the most current driver for the device is a recommended first step.

A damaged or removed component would be unlikely to appear in the Device Manager at all.

A component that has been physically removed from the computer would not be displayed.

An alert in Device Manager is unrelated to the amount of hard disk space available.

464
Q

What needs to be installed on a PC to manage computer hardware and software resources?

Operating system
Application software
Licensed software
Productivity software

A

An operating system is an interface between the user and the computer. It manages communication between input devices, output devices, and peripherals.

Application software provides specific functionality, such as word processing, and is generally written to run on a specific operating system.

Licensed software is software that requires the user to enter a valid license key before the program will install and/or run.

Productivity software is a broad category that often refers to applications that allow users to create typed documents, spreadsheets, and presentations, or to manage projects.

465
Q

If you can’t end a task by closing it or ending it normally, what is the best way to “kill” the process?

Use the Task Manager utility to end the task
Try to open the program again
Unplug the computer to reset the task
Allow the program to run in the background

A

Terminating a process by using the Task Manager utility (rather than the application’s Close or Exit function) is often called “killing” the process. The command line option for doing this in Windows is called taskkill. Always try to close or end a task normally before attempting to “kill” it.

Trying to open the program again will most likely not work because it’s already frozen.

Unplugging the computer would certainly kill the process, but it would result in the loss of all the work that you have done since your last save. This is not the best option.

Allowing a program to run in the background will occupy resources that you could otherwise use elsewhere.

466
Q

If you are interested in viewing real-time statistics of processor and memory usage, which Windows operating system tool should you open?

Task Manager

Device Manager

Disk Management

Task Scheduler

A

Task Manager is a basic system-diagnostic and performance-monitoring tool. It provides real-time data of processor and memory usage, as well as a list of all currently running processes and applications. It can be opened by pressing CTRL + ALT + DEL on a Windows machine and selecting Task Manager.

Device Manager is useful for managing, configuring, and diagnosing system devices, by allowing users to view and control the hardware attached to the computer. It does not provide real-time statistics of processor and memory usage.

Disk Management is a tool with which drives on a disk can be formatted and partitioned. It does not provide real-time statistics of processor and memory usage.

Task Scheduler provides a way to automatically perform routine tasks on a specific device, such as running an application or a scan, but not real-time statistics of processor and memory usage.

467
Q

What is the purpose of firmware in an embedded system?

Firmware provides all the functions for interacting with the device hardware.

Firmware is a flexible operating system that changes continually.

Firmware supports frequent updates.

Firmware can run on all system components except for graphics adapters, storage devices, and network controllers.

A

The embedded OS in an embedded system is called firmware because it is not designed to be continually changed and it provides all the functions for interacting with the device hardware. Workstations, laptops, and servers also use a type of firmware. Such PC firmware provides a low-level interface that allows the OS to load and take control of the PC’s components.

Firmware is not designed to be a flexible operating system and is not supposed to change continually (that’s why it’s called firmware).

Firmware doesn’t support frequent updates. Occasional updates are usually allowed, but frequent changes would disrupt firmware.

Graphic adapters, storage devices, and network controllers all tend to come with firmware to operate them.

468
Q

In the Windows operating system, where do you navigate to when you want to install new operating system features?

Control Panel
Accessories
Terminal Services
The C: Drive

A

Windows users navigate to the Control Panel to install new operating system features. Within Control Panel, you navigate to Programs and Features and then to Turn Windows Features on or off.

Accessories provides a few tools, such as the Snipping Tool, Character Map, and Steps Recorder, but they don’t allow you to navigate to Windows system features.

Terminal Services is one of the components of Microsoft Windows that allows a user to take control of a remote computer or virtual machine over a network connection. It does not take you directly to the new Windows system features.

The C: Drive is usually the main drive on your computer, and it holds the majority of your files. It will not take you to features.

469
Q

What type of device uses the iOS operating system?

An Apple mobile device
A Blackberry
A Windows phone
An Android mobile device

A

Most mobile devices run off of proprietary operating systems. The brand of device you buy will determine which operating system it should use. If you purchase an Apple mobile device, whether it is an iPhone, iPad, or Apple Watch, it will use the Apple iOS operating system. This system is proprietary, meaning that other manufacturers can’t use it.

Blackberry phones run the Blackberry OS.

Windows phones use the Windows Phone OS, which was developed by Microsoft.

Android mobile devices run the Android OS, which is owned by Google.

470
Q

What is a file with a .zip extension?

It is a compressed collection of one or more files.
It is a media file that contains audio and/or video.
It is a small text file containing a list of system commands that execute in a batch.
It is an executable file that will run a program.

A

The .zip extension indicates that the file has been archived and compressed for Windows, OS X, iOS, and Android by a program called WinZip. WinZip creates archives in zip file format but also provides various levels of support for other archive formats. It is one of the most commonly used programs for compressing files.

The .zip extension is not a media file, which would show up in a variety of formats, depending on the application used to view it. Examples of media file extensions include .avi, .mov, .wma, .mp4, and .mpg.

The .zip extension is not a small text file containing a list of system commands that execute in a batch. This is commonly referred to as a batch file.

Executable files that run a program typically have a .exe file extension.

471
Q

Which of the following is NOT an example of a management Graphical User Interface (GUI) or interface snap-in or applet tool?

The Command Line Interface
Control Panel
The default Computer Management console
Windows Settings

A

The Command Line Interface is not a snap-in management tool. It is a means of interacting with a computer program where the user (or client) issues commands to the program in the form of successive lines of text (Command lines).

The Control Panel has individual applets to configure various aspects of Windows. It is a legacy interface.

The default Computer Management console contains a number of different administrative snap-ins. Each snap-in configures the settings for a different OS subsystem, such as disk management or user management.

Increasingly, configuration options are being moved to the touchscreen-friendly Windows Settings app.

472
Q

What computer systems use the extended Hierarchical File System (HFS)?

Apple Mac workstations and laptops

Linux boxes

Windows operating systems

Android phones

A

Although the latest Mac OS version is being updated to the Apple File System (APFS), Apple Mac workstations and laptops currently use the extended Hierarchical File System (HFS).

Linux boxes use the 4th extended file system or Ext4, not HFS.

Most computers using the new Windows operating systems use NTFS, not HFS.

Android phones use FAT32 or SD cards for their file system.

473
Q

How do you install services on your computer?

Services may be installed by Windows and by other applications, such as anti-virus,
database, or backup software.
Services may be installed using the Task Manager, through which you can assign each service to a specific program or task.
Services may be installed using Microsoft Event Viewer, in which each service acts as a separate event.
Services may be installed by running through the System bus.

A

A service is a Windows process that does not require any sort of user interaction and so runs in the “background” (without a window). You can use the Services snap-in to check which services are running and to start and stop each service or configure its properties, such as whether it starts automatically at system boot time.

The Task Manager only monitors the activities and can be used to stop them. You can’t use it to schedule services.

The Microsoft Event Viewer keeps track of activities on your computer, not services.

The System bus will probably have multiple services running through it (almost everything goes through the bus). But the bus is just a means for the data to transfer between circuits. It does not control the services.

474
Q

What limitations should you consider when comparing different file systems?

File systems are limited in terms of their maximum capacity and the size of individual files.
There are too few options for backing up data, and not all types of data can be backed up successfully depending on the file system in use.
There is a lack of redundancy across different types of file systems.
There are no limitations to consider when reviewing the various file systems.

A

The specific limitations you need to consider for file systems are as follows: In FAT32, the max file size is 4 GB and the max volume size is 8 TB. In NTFS, the max file size is 16 EB and the max volume size is 16 EB. In HFS+, the max file size is 8 EB and the max volume size is 8 EB. In Ext4, the max file size is 16 TB and the max volume size is 1 EB.

Data storage technology is evolving quickly and there are many options for backing up your data.

The use of file systems allows for more cost savings and the ability to purchase more equipment to provide redundancy.

Every file system is different, and each has its own benefits and limitations.

475
Q

What system command would you enter to verify the logical integrity of a file system on a Windows machine?

chkdsk.exe
defrag.exe
format.exe
ipconfig.exe

A

In Microsoft Windows, the Check Disk (chkdsk) command verifies the logical integrity of a file system. If you follow it with a drive letter and the /f switch, chkdsk can repair the file system data. For example, chkdsk c: /f

In Microsoft Windows, the defrag.exe command will start the Disk Defragmenter tool to defragment a particular volume or disk.

In Microsoft Windows, the format.exe command will format partitions to a selected file system.

In Microsoft Windows, ipconfig is a console application that displays all current TCP/IP network configuration values and can modify Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings. The ipconfig command will show the current IP settings on the machine.

476
Q

Which option does NOT describe benefit of journaling in Linux?

Journaling will flush the cache at certain points in the journal.
Journaling gives you the ability to track changes and determine which disk has gone bad.
Journaling changes the system restart time after a crash.
Journaling algorithms are sophisticated, thus they perform optimally.

A

Some journaling file systems conservatively assume that a device write-reordering always takes place. This is a disadvantage, because the journal system will actually sacrifice performance for correctness by forcing the device to flush its cache at certain points in the journal.

The ability to track changes and determine which disk has gone bad is an important benefit of journaling.

Journaling will actually provide a faster system restart time after a crash because the computer does not have to examine each file system in its entirety to guarantee its consistency. Journaling file systems can be made consistent by simply replaying outstanding, complete entries in the log.

Journaling uses sophisticated algorithms that provide better performance.

477
Q

What happens when a user running Word 2003 tries to open a .docx file?

The file may cause issues, since it is a format that was created in Word 2007 or later.
The file is opened with WordPad by default, since it is an incompatible file format.
The file will open normally without any issues, since it was created in Word.
The user is prompted to upgrade to a newer version of Word to view this file.

A

When a user running Word 2003 tries to open a .docx file, the file may cause issues, since it is a format that was created in Word 2007 or later. Microsoft Word 2007 and later versions can save documents as either .docx or .doc files. A .docx file is XML-based and is automatically compressed when the file is closed. Users running Word 2003 or older may experience issues opening .docx files unless they have the Microsoft Office Compatibility Pack installed.

The file will not open in WordPad by default. Windows should ask you what program you would like to open the document with.

The file may not open normally depending on the version of Office you have; the best bet is to have the Microsoft Office Compatibility Pack installed.

Word will not automatically prompt the user to upgrade to a newer version to view the file.

478
Q

What type of operating system is a .dmg file intended for?

OS X
Linux Red Hat
Unix
Windows 8.1

A

A .dmg file is a mountable disk image created in Mac OS X. It contains raw block data that is typically compressed and sometimes encrypted. These files are commonly used for OS X software installers that are downloaded from the Internet and mount a virtual disk on the desktop when opened.

The .dmg file extension is not used in a Linux operating system.

The .dmg file extension is not used in a Unix operating system.

Users running other operating systems, such as Windows 8.1 or later, will likely experience issues trying to open .dmg files. Windows users should consider compression tools such as WinZip and WinRAR.

479
Q

While browsing through a set of directories, you see a folder called New Folder (2). What can you tell about this folder?

There was already a folder called New Folder in the directory at the time it was created.
There are exactly two files inside of this folder.
This folder was created by another user somewhat recently.
This was the second folder created within this directory.

A

There was already a folder called New Folder in the directory at the time it was created. When you first create a folder, it is given a default name of New Folder. If you then create another new folder without first changing the default name of the first folder, the next folder will have a default name of New Folder (2).

The number in the name does not indicate how many files are actually inside the folder.

The word “New” appearing in the title does not mean that the folder was created recently. Regardless of the date it was created, it will still appear as New Folder (2) until it is renamed.

The folder name does not indicate the sequence in which the folders in the directory were created. Creation date and time can be found in the folder properties.

480
Q

Which of these is NOT considered a best practice policy for naming files?

Use spaces to add definite breaks in the name.
Create a consistent naming methodology.
Use descriptive information in the file names.
Create a descriptive readme.txt file in the folders.

A

Using spaces in the file name can cause issues. Some software will not recognize file names with spaces, and file names with spaces must be enclosed in quotes when using the command line. How you organize and name your files will have a big impact on your ability to find files later and to understand what they contain.

A consistent naming scheme will help make names more comprehensible.

Descriptive information in the file names will make it easier to figure out your system later.

Creating a readme.txt file in a folder with explanations of the contents or, at a minimum, the naming scheme for the files would be helpful.

481
Q

Where do you manage drivers on a computer?

Device Manager
Driver Manager
The download folder
Desktop

A

Device drivers allow the OS to communicate with a peripheral device. You need to go to the Device Manager to view the device drivers. Windows 10 will handle virtually all of your driver updates through the Windows update utility.

There is no tool named Driver Manager.

Drivers will only be found in the download folder if you had to search for a driver online and downloaded it. If you find that you are missing a driver, you can go to the device manufacturer’s website to find it and download it.

Drivers do not reside directly on the desktop.

previous

482
Q

If you need to deliver several files to someone via email, what type of software would you use to bundle them into a single package for easy transmission?

Compression
Audio
Collaboration
Video

A

Compression software builds easy-to-distribute packages of files of disparate types and sizes. For example, most software is distributed in one or more compression formats to make it easier for users to store and use.

Audio software provides a local output to your computer and will not help you share a file through email.

Collaboration software could be used to share a file, but it doesn’t require you to use email.

Video software provides a local output to your monitor and does not help you share a file through an email.

483
Q

How do you distinguish between tasks and processes/services?

Tasks are usually the actions that the user or CPU directs in the foreground. Processes and services run in the background.

There is no distinguishable difference between tasks and processes/services. They are analogous terms.

Tasks are usually the actions that run in the background. Processes and services are directed by the user and the CPU in the foreground.

Processes and services are the only things always running. Tasks run only when the user tells them to.

A

Tasks can be manipulated by the user through the Task Manager and usually run in the foreground. Processes and services run in the background and are usually managed by programs or by the CPU.

There is clearly a difference between tasks and processes/services. They are not analogous terms.

Tasks do not run in the background. Processes and services run in the background.

Foreground tasks and background processes/services are all running and all have a purpose.

484
Q

What advantage does the File Allocation Table 32 (FAT32) have over the New Technology File System (NTFS)?

FAT32 provides the best compatibility between different types of computers and devices.

FAT32 has larger partitions and supports extended attributes, allowing for file-level security permissions, compression, and encryption.

NTFS is the older file system and was used predominantly on older versions of Windows.

FAT32 has a 64-bit addressing scheme, which permits a file size limit of 4GB and a maximum partition size of 2 TB.

A

The advantage of FAT32 over NTFS is that FAT32 is the file system used for formatting many removable drives and disks because it provides the best compatibility between different types of computers and devices.

FAT32 is smaller than NTFS, which has a 64-bit addressing scheme that allows for much larger partitions (up to 2 TB) than FAT32 (32 GB). NTFS supports extended attributes, allowing for file-level security permissions, compression, and encryption.

FAT32 was used on older versions of Windows, not NTFS.

NTFS has a 64-bit addressing scheme. FAT32 is limited to a file size of 4GB and a maximum partition size of 32 GB.

485
Q

Which file extension indicates that the file is an audio clip?

.wav
.jpg
.rtf
.tiff

A

An audio clip usually has a .wav extension, which indicates that the file is in the Waveform Audio File Format.

An audio clip is not a .jpg file. The .jpg extension indicates the file is an image. Many photographs and Internet graphics are stored in the JPG file format. JPG files are commonly referred to as JPEG images.

An audio clip is not a .rtf file. The .rtf extension implies that it is a text file that includes a limited amount of formatting, such as bold and italics.

An audio clip is not a .tiff file. Like the .jpg file, the .tiff extension indicates that the file is an image. The TIFF format is widely supported by image-manipulation applications, by publishing and page layout applications, and by scanning, faxing, word processing, optical character recognition, and other applications.

486
Q

What type of utility software is intended to keep users safe from malicious code, such as viruses or Trojans?

Anti-malware
Disk Defragmenter
Remote desktop
Task Manager

A

Anti-malware software can be used to prevent viruses, adware, Trojans, worms, and other malicious code from infecting a computer.

Disk Defragmenter is used to rearrange stored data on a disk into contiguous blocks to boost disk performance.

Remote desktop software is used to access another desktop via the Internet. This software is often used when IT specialists need to diagnose a problem from a different computer.

Task Manager is a basic system-diagnostic and performance-monitoring tool that can indicate current CPU and RAM usage, and display all currently running processes and applications.

487
Q

What type of software allows you to reduce the size of files for the sake of transferring them from one location to another?

Compression
Collaboration
Productivity
Proprietary

A

Compression is the process of making file sizes smaller for the purpose of transferring them from one device to another. WinZip is one of the most popular compression programs available.

Collaboration software refers to applications that facilitate the sharing of data. These include email programs, instant messaging software, and video conferencing applications.

Productivity software includes applications that are used to create typed documents, spreadsheets, and presentations, or to manage projects.

Proprietary software refers to any software that places restrictions on use, analysis, modification, or distribution and is customized specifically for the operations of a particular business.

488
Q

What is the advantage of using a Graphic User Interface (GUI) over the Command Line Interface (CLI)?

GUIs make it easier for non-technical staff and home users to run and operate computers.

The GUI uses less of the computer’s system resources than the Command Line Interface.

Each GUI has the same design and structure when it comes to performing different tasks.

It is faster for a skilled technician to use a GUI.

A

Because a GUI is much more visually intuitive, users typically pick up on how to use a GUI faster than a Command Line Interface.

A GUI interface takes up more resources than a Command Line Interface. A GUI requires more system resources because of the elements that require loading, such as icons and fonts. Video, mouse, and other drivers need to be loaded, taking up additional system resources.

Even different iterations of the same GUI, such as Windows, can have hundreds of different changes between each version.

Command Line users only need to utilize a keyboard to navigate the interface, often resulting in faster performance. This, however, often requires more training and allocation of resources.

489
Q

What is an advantage that the New Technology File System (NTFS) has over the File Allocation Table (FAT)?

NTFS has larger partitions and supports extended attributes, allowing for file-level security permissions, compression, and encryption.

NTFS has a 32-bit addressing scheme, which permits a maximum file size of 4 GB and a maximum partition size of 32 GB.

NTFS is used for formatting most removable drives and disks as it provides the best compatibility between different types of computers and devices.

NTFS was used predominantly on older versions of Windows.

A

The main advantage of NTFS over FAT is that NTFS has a 64-bit addressing scheme, which allows for much larger partitions (up to 2 TB) than FAT (32 GB). In addition, NTFS supports extended attributes, allowing for file-level security permissions, compression, and encryption.

NTFS has a 64-bit addressing scheme, not a 32-bit addressing scheme. FAT32 is the addressing scheme that is limited to a file size of 4GB and a maximum partition size of 32 GB.

NTFS is a common file system used for formatting most removable drives and disks; however, FAT32 offers greatest interoperability among different types of computers and devices.

NTFS is used on the newer versions of Windows, not the older versions.

490
Q

What type of file extension should be opened with caution, as it initiates instructions for the computer to carry out?

.exe
.bmp
.doc
.png

A

An .exe is an executable file that launches a program or application. Many email applications restrict users from sending or receiving files with an .exe extension, as they have been known to carry viruses.

The .bmp file extension indicates that the file is an image. In Windows, Paint is an application that can view an image file.

The .doc file extension indicates that the file was created in a word processing program, such as Microsoft Word or WordPad.

The .png file extension indicates that the file is an image. In Windows, Paint is an application that can view an image file.

491
Q

What computer systems use the 4th extended file system (Ext4)?

Linux boxes
Apple Mac workstations and laptops
Android phones
Windows operating systems

A

Linux boxes use the 4th extended file system or Ext4, not the Hierarchical File System. Ext4 is a 64-bit file system with support for journaling, which means that the file system tracks changes, giving better reliability and less chance of file corruption in the event of crashes or power interruptions.

Although the latest Mac OS version is being updated to the Apple File System (APFS), Apple Mac workstations and laptops use the extended Hierarchical File System (HFS), not Ext4.

Android phones use FAT32 or SD cards for their file system.

Most of the computers using the new Windows operating systems use NTFS, not Ext4.

492
Q

What Windows utility monitors the system for changes to core system files and drivers, as well as the registry?

System Restore

Defender

ReadyBoot

Shadow Copy

A

The System Restore utility creates restore points, which are snapshots of the system configuration at a given moment in time. You can use these restore points to revert to an earlier state of your system settings without affecting user data, such as documents.

Defender scans for and removes malicious materials at scheduled intervals.

ReadyBoot enables the user to supplement the computer’s memory with an external storage device, such as a flash drive.

Shadow Copy creates backup copies of the system’s data and stores them locally or to an external location of the user’s choosing.

493
Q

Where can the Task Scheduler be found?

The Task Scheduler is accessed via its own console or the Computer Management console.

The Task Scheduler resides on an external drive and can be used on multiple machines.

The Task Scheduler can be accessed only from the Command Line Interface.

The Task Scheduler is automatically run by the CPU, and you can’t interface with it.

A

In Windows the Task Scheduler, as its name suggests, sets tasks to run at a particular time. The Task Scheduler is accessed via its own console or the Computer Management console. Tasks can be run once at a future date and time or according to a recurring schedule. Similar tools are available in other operating systems.

Each Windows machine has its own Task Scheduler, and there is no need to carry it to multiple machines on an external drive.

The Task Scheduler has its own GUI.

The Task Scheduler will indeed run automatically, and many programs set their own tasks to be completed on a recurring schedule. However, you have access to the Task Scheduler to make sure that tasks aren’t running when you need the memory and processing speed for other work.

494
Q

What does a file management system use to control permissions for who is allowed to read, write, or control an object?

An access control list (ACL)
A content filter
Encryption
The system folder

A

The file system maintains an Access Control List (ACL) for each file or folder object. The ACL records which user accounts are allowed to read, write, or control the object.

Content filters are used to set up parental controls for web access on your network.

The file system can automatically encrypt data in a file when it is saved. This means that the file can only be opened when there is access to the encryption key. It does not set permissions. It’s important to understand that encryption is different than permission.

The system folder doesn’t set permissions for who has access rights.

495
Q

What should you expect to happen when double-clicking a .msi file?

A program will begin installing.

A scan of the boot sector will initiate.

An installed application will launch.

An internal or external drive will begin formatting a disk.

A

When double-clicking an .msi file, a program will begin installing. An .msi file is a Microsoft Windows Installer package that specifies particular installation parameters for an application.

Fixing the boot sector requires special care. The Bootrec.exe system command can be useful for repairing a bad boot sector.

Installed applications are typically launched by double-clicking an .exe or .app file, depending on the program and operating system.

There are many ways a disk can be reformatted. The Disk Management tool can be used for this purpose.

496
Q

What is the set of rules that determines what actions you are allowed to perform on a computer and what resources you can access?

Permissions

Accessibility

Account

Authentication

A

A user account uniquely identifies each specific user on a computer or a network. Each user is assigned a set of permissions, which are the rules that determine what that user is allowed to do, and what resources the user is allowed to access.

Accessibility in a computing context generally refers to the tools that enable users with visual or hearing impairments to be able to access certain computer features and web pages.

An account is a profile that is unique to each individual user. Each account will have a set of permissions assigned to it to govern what the user is allowed to do.

Authentication refers to the mechanism that the system uses to verify that the user is who he or she claims to be.

497
Q

What service does the Windows BitLocker feature provide?

It provides full disk-encryption protection for the operating system.

It creates backup copies of the system’s data and stores them on an external device.

It enables older versions of Microsoft Office to run on a newer version of Windows.

It enables you to supplement the computer’s memory with an external storage device.

A

The Windows BitLocker feature provides full disk-encryption protection for the operating system. BitLocker ensures the protection of early startup components and locks volumes in order to prevent access or tampering when the operating system is not running.

The Windows BitLocker feature does not create backup copies of the system’s data stores on an external device.

Older versions of Microsoft Office can be run on newer versions of Windows with the Microsoft Office Compatibility Pack.

Windows BitLocker does not enable you to supplement the computer’s memory with an external device.

498
Q

What type of software do you need to use if your business functions cannot be performed by “off-the-shelf” software?

Business-specific software
Accounting software
Project management software
Database software

A

Business-specific software is implemented to cover functions that cannot be performed by “off-the-shelf” software. This might include product design and manufacturing, inventory control, marketing, and sales.

Accounting software is specifically designed to support financial and commercial functions, such as order processing, accountancy, and payroll.

Project management software is software used for project planning, scheduling, resource allocation, and change management. It allows project managers (PMs), stakeholders, and users to control costs and manage budgeting, quality management, and documentation, and may also be used as an administration system.

Database software enables the user to store, organize, and retrieve information. Databases can search thousands of records very quickly and display data in a format specified by the user. They can be used to store many different types of information.

499
Q

Collectively speaking, screen sharing, video conferencing, instant messaging, and email are examples of what type of software?

Collaboration software
Open source software
Shared portal
Software as a Service (SaaS)

A

Collaborative software, or groupware, is application software designed to help people involved in a common task to achieve their goals. Screen sharing, video conferencing, instant messaging, and email are collaboration software programs because they are used among many different users simultaneously.

While some of these files can be obtained through open sources, they are not all obtained via open source means.

A shared portal is the platform on which these programs work, but it is not an example of a collaboration software program.

Software as a Service, or SaaS, is a product that provides software as a service on the cloud.

500
Q

Which type of software allows the user to write and edit a document?

Word processing software
Spreadsheet software
Presentation software
Visual diagramming software

A

Word processing software helps users write and edit documents. A word processor comes with features that enable the user to edit and review text quickly (automated spell checker, for instance).

Spreadsheet software allows users to carry out complex calculations by entering values into cells and applying formulas to them. Spreadsheet packages can be used for many tasks, including tracking and analyzing sales data and working on company accounts.

Presentation software enables users to create sophisticated business presentations that can be displayed at a meeting. Pictures, company logos, graphs, and text can be added to the slides, together with a variety of animations.

Visual diagramming software provides diagram templates and shapes to help users create different kinds of diagrams.

501
Q

Which application is an example of collaboration software?

Skype
Microsoft PowerPoint
Microsoft Excel
Microsoft Word

A

Skype is an instant messaging application and an example of collaborative software, since it is used to improve the ability to communicate with others.

Microsoft PowerPoint and Apple iWork Keynote are both examples of presentation software. Presentation software is a tool used to create visual presentations. It makes it possible to combine text and graphic elements to convey important information to a group of people.

Microsoft Excel and Apple iWork Numbers are both examples of spreadsheet software. Spreadsheet software is used to organize, analyze, and store of data in tabular form.

Microsoft Word and Apple iWork Pages are both examples of word processing software. Word processing software is used to create documents.

502
Q

When a file is hosted on a network that can be accessed by users signing in, where is it located?

An online workspace
Email
Remote desktop
Instant messaging

A

An online workspace is one where a file is hosted on a network and users can sign in to get access to it. Different users might be assigned different permissions for the document. For example, some users may be able to view or print the document or add comments to it; others may be able to edit it.

Email is a messaging system and is not considered a shared space.

Remote desktop allows a user to connect to a computer over a network, but it doesn’t create a shared space.

Instant messaging (IM) software allows users to communicate in real time. Unlike with email, there is (virtually) no delay between sending and receiving a message.

503
Q

Which type of software would you use to ensure everyone can see the same display output during an online meeting?

Screen sharing software
Desktop publishing software
Presentation software
Software firewall

A

Screen sharing software allows you to share an individual program or your entire desktop with a group of other users. It can be used to facilitate online meetings.

Desktop publishing software allows individuals, businesses, and other organizations to self-publish a wide range of printed matter to create magazines, newspapers, newsletters, and similar documents. It is not used to control the display during online meetings.

Presentation software might be used in an online meeting to give visual cues to the attendees, but it doesn’t have the capability to be used as a sharing software program.

A software firewall protects a computer from over-the-network threats.

504
Q

What type of software is Microsoft SQL?

Database application
Email and newsreader application
Mobile operating system software
Remote desktop software

A

Microsoft SQL is a database application. It is a domain-specific language used in programming and designed for managing data held in a relational database management system, or for stream processing in a relational data stream management system.

Microsoft SQL is not an email application, nor is it a newsreader application.

Mobile operating systems software is specifically built for mobile devices. It has nothing to do with Microsoft SQL.

Remote desktop software is what you would use to log into a desktop remotely. It has nothing to do with Microsoft SQL.

505
Q

What software assists in the creation of a schematic representation of simplified drawings showing the appearance, structure, or workings of something?

Visual diagramming software
Spreadsheet software
Word processing software
Presentation software

A

Visual diagramming software provides diagram templates and shapes to help users create different kinds of diagrams.

Spreadsheet software allows users to carry out complex calculations by entering values into cells and applying formulas to them. Spreadsheet packages can be used for many tasks, including tracking and analyzing sales data and working on company accounts.

Word processing applications help users write and edit documents. A word processor comes with features that enable the user to edit and review text quickly (an automated spell checker, for instance).

Presentation software enables users to create sophisticated business presentations that can be displayed at a meeting. Pictures, company logos, graphs, and text can be added to the slides, together with a variety of animations.

506
Q

What type of software enables you to create sophisticated business briefs that can be projected for display?

Presentation software

Visual diagramming software

Spreadsheet software

Word processing software

A

Presentation software enables users to create sophisticated business presentations that can be displayed for a meeting. Pictures, company logos, graphs, and text can be added to the slides, together with a variety of animations.

Visual diagramming software provides diagram templates and shapes to help users create different kinds of diagrams.

Spreadsheet software allows users to carry out complex calculations by entering values into cells and applying formulas to them. Spreadsheet packages can be used for many tasks, including tracking and analyzing sales data and working on company accounts.

Word processing applications help users write and edit documents. A word processor comes with features that enable users to edit and review text quickly (an automated spell checker, for instance).

507
Q

What type of software allows users to configure virtual meeting rooms to talk face-to-face over the Internet?

Video conferencing software

Email client software

Word processing software

Presentation software

A

Video conferencing or Video Teleconferencing (VTC) software allows users to configure virtual meeting rooms, with options for voice, video, and instant messaging.

Email client software is an application that allows the user to compose and send messages as well as receive messages from others. Email client software works in conjunction with an email server, which handles the business of actually transmitting the messages over the network.

Word processing software helps users write and edit documents. A word processor comes with features that enable the user to edit and review text quickly (an automated spell checker, for instance).

Presentation software enables users to create sophisticated business presentations that can be displayed at a meeting. Pictures, company logos, graphs, and text can be added to the slides, together with a variety of animations.

508
Q

A web application is client/server software that uses a web server as its server and what type of software as its client?

A web browser
A database
A dynamic link library
A script

A

Web applications use web servers as their servers and web browsers as their clients. Often referred to as thin clients, web browsers work on any computing device and remove the need to install a local “fat” client that might not be available on all platforms or devices.

A database allows users to store data in the form of structured fields, tables, and columns, which can then be retrieved directly and/or through programmatic access. It is not related to web application client/server software.

A dynamic link library (DLL) is a collection of small programs that can be loaded when needed by larger programs and used at the same time. It is not related to web application client server software.

A script has nothing to do with web applications.

509
Q

What type of software allows stakeholders and users to control costs and manage budgeting through project planning, scheduling, resource allocation, and change management?

Project management software

Accounting software

Database software

Business-specific software

A

Project management software is used for project planning, scheduling, resource allocation, and change management. It allows project managers (PMs), stakeholders, and users to control costs and manage budgeting, quality, and documentation. It may also be used as an administration system.

Accounting software is specifically designed to support financial and commercial functions, such as order processing, accountancy, and payroll.

Database software enables the user to store, organize, and retrieve information. Databases can search thousands of records very quickly and display data in a format specified by the user. They can be used to store many different types of information.

Business-specific software is implemented to cover functions that cannot be performed by “off-the-shelf” software. This might include product design and manufacturing, inventory control, marketing, and sales.

510
Q

What does Remote Desktop software allow you to do?

Access and control a different computer via the Internet

Control a computer with wireless input devices

Host a video conference for real-time collaboration

Restore the state of the computer to an earlier time

A

Remote Desktop allows a user to assume control of a computer in a different location using an Internet connection

Wireless input devices can be used to interact with a local machine via wireless connectivity. While wireless input devices may be used for remote access, they are not required for accessing a remote computer.

Remote Desktop software does not allow you to host a video conference for real-time collaboration. Collaboration software is needed for hosting a video conference.

The System Restore feature can be used to reset system settings to an earlier state without affecting changes in user data.What business software supports financial and commercial functions, such as order processing and payroll?

511
Q

What business software supports financial and commercial functions, such as order processing and payroll?

Accounting software

Database software

Business-specific software

Project management software

A

Accounting software is specifically designed to support financial and commercial functions, such as order processing, accountancy, and payroll.

Database software enables the user to store, organize, and retrieve information. Databases can search thousands of records very quickly and display data in a format specified by the user. They can be used to store many different types of information.

Business-specific software is implemented to cover functions that cannot be performed by “off-the-shelf” software. This might include product design and manufacturing, inventory control, marketing, and sales.

Project management software is used for project planning, scheduling, resource allocation, and change management. It allows project managers (PMs), stakeholders, and users to control costs and manage budgeting, quality, and documentation. It may also be used as an administration system.

512
Q

If you had to track and analyze sales data and work on your company accounts, which type of software would you use?

Spreadsheet software

Word processing software

Visual diagramming software

Presentation software

A

Spreadsheet software allows users to carry out complex calculations by entering values into cells and applying formulas to them. Spreadsheet software can be used for many tasks, including tracking and analyzing sales data and working on company accounts.

Word processing applications help users to write and edit documents. A word processor comes with features that enable the user to edit and review text quickly (an automated spell checker, for instance).

Visual diagramming software provides diagram templates and shapes to help users create different kinds of diagrams.

Presentation software enables users to create sophisticated business presentations that can be displayed at a meeting. Pictures, company logos, graphs, and text can be added to the slides, together with a variety of animations.

513
Q

What type of business software would you use to store a large amount of information, such as timetables, customer details, and patient records?

Database software
Project management software
Accounting software
Business-specific software

A

Database software enables the user to store, organize, and retrieve information. Databases can search thousands of records very quickly and display data in a format specified by the user. They can be used to store many different types of information.

Project management software is used for project planning, scheduling, resource allocation, and change management. It allows project managers (PMs), stakeholders, and users to control costs and manage budgeting, quality, and documentation. Also, it may be used as an administration system.

Accounting software is specifically designed to support financial and commercial functions, such as order processing, accountancy, and payroll.

Business-specific software is implemented to cover functions that cannot be performed by “off-the-shelf” software. This might include product design and manufacturing, inventory control, marketing, and sales.

514
Q

What type of software helps you compose and send messages over the network?

Email client software
Word processing software
Presentation software
Spreadsheet software

A

Email client software is an application that allows the user to compose and send messages as well as receive messages from others. The email client software works in conjunction with an email server, which handles the business of actually transmitting the messages over the network.

Word processing applications help users write and edit documents. A word processor comes with features that enable the user to edit and review text quickly (an automated spell checker, for instance).

Presentation software enables users to create sophisticated business presentations that can be displayed at a meeting. Pictures, company logos, graphs, and text can be added to the slides, together with a variety of animations.

Spreadsheet software allows users to carry out complex calculations by entering values into cells and applying formulas to them. Spreadsheet packages can be used for many tasks, including tracking and analyzing sales data and working on company accounts.

515
Q

Which server application architecture model requires that the client NOT have direct communications with the data tier?

Three-tier
Two-tier
One-tier
N-tier

A

In a three-tier client server application architecture model, the application layer executes the query on the data layer, which resides on a third tier, and returns the result to the client. The client should have no direct communications with the data tier.

A two-tier client-server application separates the database engine, or back-end or data layer, from the presentation layer and the application layer, or business logic. The application and presentation layers are part of the client application. The database engine will run on one server (or more likely a cluster of servers), while the presentation and application layers run on the client.

If the application front-end and processing logic and the database engine are all hosted on the same computer, the application architecture can be described as one-tier or standalone.

An n-tier application architecture can include a two-tier or three-tier application, but it can also operate with a more complex architecture in which the application may use separate access control or monitoring services.

516
Q

What operating system is considered to be stateless?

Chrome OS
Linux
OS X
Windows 8.1

A

Stateless means there is no record of previous interactions and each interaction request has to be handled based entirely on information that comes with it. Since Chrome OS does not store any files locally on the machine it runs on, is it considered to be a stateless OS.

Linux is an operating system that relies on physical disks for storing and managing files and application data. It is not stateless.

Mac OS X is an operating system that relies on physical disks for storing and managing files and application data. It is not stateless.

Windows 8.1 is an operating system that relies on physical disks for storing and managing files and application data. It is not stateless.

517
Q

Which type of server application architecture model can have a complex architecture in which the application may use separate access control or monitoring services?

N-tier
Three-tier
Two-tier
One-tier

A

An n-tier application architecture model can operate with a more complex architecture in which the application may use separate access control or monitoring services.

In a three-tier client server application architecture model, the application layer executes the query on the data layer, which resides on a third tier, and returns the result to the client. The client should have no direct communications with the data tier.

A two-tier client-server application separates the database engine, or back-end or data layer, from the presentation layer and the application layer, or business logic. The application and presentation layers are part of the client application. The database engine will run on one server (or more likely a cluster of servers) while the presentation and application layers run on the client.

If the application front-end and processing logic and database engine are all hosted on the same computer, the application architecture can be described as one-tier or standalone.

518
Q

What type of application delivery method requires the least amount of infrastructure from the client?

Cloud-hosted
Locally installed and saved
Local but network-hosted
The “traditional” method

A

The advantage of a cloud-hosted system is that it requires very little infrastructure from the client. Cloud-hosted servers are often hosted on well-established, state-of-the-art hosting environments that can be far superior to most corporate server environments.

Installing the application locally and saving it locally is one of the costliest methods because it requires that you own and operate the equipment.

Local but network-hosted application delivery works well when you want to save your data over the network but run the application locally. However, this requires more infrastructure.

“Traditional” PC-type software application delivery can be expensive because it requires a lot of equipment to support everything that resides locally. It does give you the advantage of local processing speed. Launching an application executes it within the computer’s memory, and it is then processed by the local CPU.

519
Q

What is the advantage of a local network–hosted application, in terms of data storage?

If data is stored on the server rather than the local workstation, it is easier to apply access controls and to back it up.
You can depend on the cloud to support your organization.
The cost overhead is cheaper for your organization.
You can supply remote data storage to remote sites, allowing them to get quick access to applications and services.

A

If data is stored on the server rather than the local workstation, it is easier to apply access controls and to back it up.

This type of application delivery does not include cloud services. It requires that your organization control the servers.

The cost overhead is not cheaper for your organization. The cost of running your own servers can be very high. Depending on the size of your organization, you run the risk of server expansion taking up room in your data center or data closet. You may have to expand your network storage capabilities.

There is no advantage for “remote sites” in this data storage application, because it presumes that everything is located onsite. The remote sites will have to deal with communication latency when trying to reach your systems.

520
Q

If a computer is running a stateless operating system, where would the user’s documents be stored?

In the cloud
In a networked drive
On a local hard disk drive
On an external hard drive

A

In a stateless operating system, files are all stored on the Internet. This means that if the computer should fail, the loss to data will be minimal or nonexistent. A Chromebook is an example of a device that runs a stateless operating system.

While it may be similar to a stateless operating system in that the information is stored elsewhere, a networked drive to store data still requires a physical device that is operated by your organization.

A stateless operating system does not rely on a physical device like a local hard disk.

A stateless operating system does not rely on a physical device like an external hard drive.

521
Q

What is the disadvantage of a “locally installed but network required” delivery method?

If you lose network connectivity, you may lose some capabilities.
You have to depend on the cloud to support your organization.
Servers are managed locally, which requires maintenance.
Someone else controls and manages the servers.

A

If the network becomes unavailable, you may lose functionality in your application because the files may be stored on the servers and not locally.

This type of application delivery does not include cloud services.

The network required delivery method does not necessarily imply that servers are managed locally. The server can be anywhere as long as you have connectivity over the network.

This type of application delivery requires that your organization control the servers.

522
Q

Which type of application architecture model is considered “standalone”?

One-tier
N-tier
Three-tier
Two-tier

A

If the application front-end and processing logic and database engine are all hosted on the same computer, the application architecture can be described as one-tier or standalone.

An n-tier application architecture can be used for either a two-tier or three-tier application, but it can also operate with a more complex architecture in which the application may use separate access control or monitoring services.

In a three-tier client server application architecture model, the application layer executes the query on the data layer, which resides on a third tier, and returns the result to the client. The client should have no direct communications with the data tier.

A two-tier client-server application separates the database engine, or back-end or data layer, from the presentation layer and the application layer, or business logic. The application and presentation layers are part of the client application. The database engine will run on one server (or more likely a cluster of servers), while the presentation and application layers run on the client.

523
Q

What is an advantage of having an application delivery method in which the application and files are saved locally?

All of your data can be contained within your organization’s firewall.
You are responsible for the entire infrastructure.
The cost overhead is cheaper for your organization.
There is a lot of flexibility.

A

If you manage the application and files locally, you can protect all of your information and contain it on your local network behind your firewall.

While it can give you more control, being responsible for your entire infrastructure requires significant equipment cost and personnel training.

The cost overhead is not cheaper for your organization when you store locally. Of all the options, this can be one of the most expensive, and it can result in server sprawl.

Storing the files and applications locally does not provide the most flexibility, since remote users will likely not be able to access the data.

524
Q

What type of application delivery method should be used when information is of high value to a user and it can’t easily be recreated or downloaded?

Locally-installed application that runs from the local PC
Cloud-hosted application for which Internet access is required
Cloud-hosted application for which both user and service provider must have Internet access
Network-installed application for which the user needs local network access

A

A locally-installed application, which means the the app and data exist locally, should be used for any information that is of high value to the user and can’t easily be recreated or downloaded. This model is best for extremely large files that cannot be compressed and would take a long time to download, or applications that have limited latency rates for transmitting/receiving data over the network.

A cloud-hosted service for which the user must have Internet access provides a lot of flexibility in terms of provisioning the app to clients located in different regions; however, an Internet outage would prevent the user from accessing the app and data, so it is not the best option for high value information.

A cloud-hosted service for which both the user and service provider need Internet service is typical of a cloud-based model. An Internet outage for either the user or the service provider would prevent the user from accessing the app and data, so it is not the best option for high value information.

An application delivery model in which an application is installed on the network and the user requires LAN access may be problematic if the LAN experiences an outage, so it is not the best option for high value information.

525
Q

Which type of server application architecture model separates the database engine from the business logic?

Two-tier application architecture model
One-tier application architecture model
N-tier application architecture model
Three-tier application architecture model

A

A two-tier client-server application separates the database engine, or back-end or data layer, from the presentation layer and the application layer, or business logic. The application and presentation layers are part of the client application. The database engine will run on one server (or more likely a cluster of servers), while the presentation and application layers run on the client.

If the application front-end and processing logic and the database engine are all hosted on the same computer, the application architecture can be described as one-tier or standalone.

An n-tier application architecture can include either a two-tier or three-tier application, but it can also operate with a more complex architecture in which the application may use separate access control or monitoring services.

In a three-tier client server application architecture model, the application layer executes the query on the data layer, which resides on a third tier, and returns the result to the client. The client should have no direct communications with the data tier.

526
Q

Which of the following application delivery models is considered the “traditional” way to install an application?

Locally installed without the use of a network
Locally installed using network services
Cloud-hosted with Internet access required
Cloud-hosted with offline capability

A

A locally-installed application where network connectivity is not required simply doesn’t need network access to run. This “traditional” PC-type software application delivery, in which the app is installed locally to the computer’s hard drive, can be performed on a standalone machine. When launched, it executes within the computer’s memory and is processed by the local CPU.

In a “local network–hosted” option, the application is installed locally but services are provided over the network.

The “cloud-hosted service with required Internet access” option allows clients to connect to the application servers over the Internet. This method provides a lot of flexibility in terms of provisioning the app to clients located in different regions.

The “cloud-hosted with offline capability” option allows the app to run locally, but the app is provisioned on the cloud, which can reduce processing and storage problems on the local machine.

527
Q

When set in your browser, what can be configured to act as a firewall and apply other types of content filtering rules?

Proxy settings
User Account Control
Client-side scripting
Browser add-ons

A

A proxy server can be configured as a firewall and apply other types of content filtering rules. Some proxy servers work “transparently” so that clients can use them without any extra configuration of the client application. Other proxies require that client software, such as the browser, be configured with the IP address and port of the proxy server.

Modifying your User Account Control will help block scripts and should keep them from changing the computer configuration without your approval, but it doesn’t act as a firewall.

You should never disable client-side scripting because it tends to break most of the websites published on the Internet. They depend very heavily on the functionality that client-side scripting allows.

There are many different add-ons, each working with a different type of content. Add-ons can also be used to extend or change the functionality of the browser, by adding a custom toolbar for instance, but they won’t act as a firewall.

528
Q

When using Windows, how can you best protect yourself against malicious scripts when browsing?

Go to your User Account Control (UAC) and set up an alert in your notifications.
Go to Network and Internet settings and adjust your proxy settings.
Enter private browsing mode.
Go to manufacturers’ websites to upgrade web applications

A

Setting alerts in the UAC allows the browser to block malicious script, so it would not be able to change the computer configuration without your explicit authorization.

Setting your proxy settings may help protect against malicious scripts, but setting alerts in the UAC is the most comprehensive solution.

Private mode doesn’t block scripts. It only limits the browser so it doesn’t store cookies or temporary files and doesn’t add pages to the history list.

Upgrading web applications to modern standards is the best long-term solution to ensure compatibility with today’s web browsers, but it will not specifically protect you against malicious scripts.

529
Q

Which of these is a clear warning from the browser that a certificate is invalid?

The address bar is colored maroon and a warning message is displayed.
A padlock icon is shown.
Your browser will be slow, and you will have performance problems.
You will have compatibility issues.

A

If the certificate is untrusted or otherwise invalid, the address bar will be colored maroon and the site will be blocked by a warning message. If you want to trust the site anyway, click through the warning.

A padlock icon is shown if the certificate is actually trusted and valid.

Your browser will respond with a message saying that the certificate isn’t trusted, but it should not slow down your performance—unless you don’t heed the warning and end up going to a malicious site.

Certificate issues may cause compatibility issues only if you click through the warning and navigate to a malicious site.

530
Q

How do you enable or disable add-ons?

Go to the web browser settings.
Find the location in which the add-on was installed and remove it manually.
Set up your private browsing mode.
Clear the browser cache before shutting down or logging off.

A

The ability to enable/disable add-ons in web browsers resides in browser settings. The exact location is different for each browser, and could be through Options, Tools, or Preferences. Once there, find a link named “Manage Add-ons”, then “Enable or disable Add-ons”.

Removing an add-on manually from the location in which it was installed will not allow you to enable or disable it. The best and simplest way is from the web browser settings.

In private mode, the browser doesn’t store cookies or temporary files and doesn’t add pages to the history list, but it does not affect the enabling or disabling of add-ons.

Clearing the browser cache before shutting down or logging off is a good security practice, but it does not enable or disable add-ons.

531
Q

How do you fully remove a browser add-on or extension?

Find the location in which it was installed and remove it manually.
Clear the browser cache before shutting down or logging off.
Set your proxy settings.
Disable client-side scripting.

A

To fully remove an add-on, you’ll need to find the location where the add-on files were installed and delete them manually. Windows users may also be able to uninstall add-on files through Add/Remove Programs.

Clearing the browser cache before shutting down or logging off is a good security practice, but it does not add/remove your extensions or add-ons.

Proxy settings can be set to route web traffic through another device that provides filtering, but they don’t have anything to do with adding or removing add-ons.

You should never disable client-side scripting because it tends to break most of the websites published on the Internet. They depend very heavily on the functionality that client-side scripting allows.

532
Q

What can a user do to prevent the browser from storing cookies or temporary files?

Use private browsing mode.
Set content filtering rules in proxy settings.
Modify your User Account Control settings.
Upgrade web applications.

A

In private mode, the browser doesn’t store cookies or temporary files and doesn’t add pages to the history list.

A proxy server can be configured as a firewall and apply other types of content filtering rules, but it doesn’t provide the same functionality as enabling private mode.

Modifying your User Account Control will help block scripts and should keep them from changing the computer configuration without your approval. This doesn’t prevent the storage of cookies or collection of Internet browsing history.

Upgrading web applications is actually the best long-term solution to ensure compatibility with today’s web browsers, but it doesn’t provide the same functionality as enabling private mode.

533
Q

What is the best long-term solution to ensure compatibility with today’s web browsers?

Upgrading web applications
Deactivating client-side scripting
Configuring a proxy server
Enabling private browsing mode

A

Upgrading web applications to modern standards is the best long-term solution to ensure compatibility with today’s web browsers, even though using backward compatibility can save time and money. Internet Explorer 11 has features, such as backward compatibility, that can reduce the number of web app upgrades needed, which ultimately reduces web application testing and remediation costs. On Windows 10, for example, you can use Microsoft Edge for faster, safer browsing and fall back to Internet Explorer 11 only for sites that require backward compatibility.

Deactivating client-side scripting may prevent some websites from working properly and will not help with compatibility.

A proxy server can be configured as a firewall and apply other types of content filtering rules. It does not affect your long-term compatibility with browsers.

Private mode doesn’t ensure long-term compatibility. It will limit the browser so that it doesn’t store cookies or temporary files and doesn’t add pages to the history list.

534
Q

What should you NOT do when configuring and managing a web browser, as it tends to break most websites?

Deactivate client-side scripting
Upgrade web applications
Configure your proxy settings
Modify your User Account Controls

A

Many websites depend on client-side scripting. You should not disable client-side scripting, because it tends to break most of the websites published on the Internet. Most websites depend very heavily on the functionality that client-side scripting allows.

Upgrading web applications is the best long-term solution to ensure compatibility with today’s web browsers.

A proxy server can be configured as a firewall and apply other types of content filtering rules, which is often recommended.

By modifying your User Account Controls, you can ensure that malicious scripts won’t be able to change the computer configuration without your explicit authorization.

535
Q

What type of software allows you to protect a network by denying specific types of incoming traffic?

Firewall
Anti-malware
Antivirus software
Diagnostic software

A

A firewall is a piece of software that acts as a network security system that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. A firewall typically establishes a barrier between a trusted internal network and an untrusted external network, such as the Internet.

Anti-malware is a type of software program designed to prevent, detect, and repair malicious programming on computing devices; it does not prevent specific types of incoming traffic for a full network.

Antivirus software is often able to thwart threats in real time, but it is designed to protect endpoint devices rather than full networks.

Diagnostic software is used to determine the cause of a problem after it has already occurred.

536
Q

Where do you go to configure a pop-up blocker?

Browser settings
User Account Control settings
Proxy settings
A private browsing window

A

You can configure a pop-up blocker in browser settings. Depending on which browser you are using, you can determine specifically how you set the blocker.

User Account Control will block scripts from reconfiguring your system without your authorization.

A proxy server can be configured as a firewall and apply other types of content filtering rules; it doesn’t configure your pop-up blocker.

Private mode doesn’t configure your pop-up blocker. It will limit the browser so that it doesn’t store cookies or temporary files and doesn’t add pages to the history list.

537
Q

When using public workstations, what action should you always take before leaving a machine?

Clear the browser cache before shutting down or logging off.
Deactivate client-side scripting.
Disable proxy settings.
Go into private browsing mode.

A

When using a public workstation, you should always be alert to the possibility that it could be monitored. Clear the browser cache before shutting down or logging off, and make sure you do not allow passwords to be cached.

Many websites depend on client-side scripting. You should never disable client-side scripting because it tends to break most of the websites published on the Internet. They depend very heavily on the functionality that client-side scripting allows.

A proxy server can actually be configured as a firewall and apply other types of content-filtering rules.

If you are concerned about other people seeing your browsing history, you should immediately use private browsing mode. It should be entered when you sit down, not when you leave. In private mode, the browser doesn’t store cookies or temporary files and doesn’t add pages to the history list, so it is considered a good practice.

538
Q

What can be done to change or extend the functionality of a web browser?

Use browser add-ons.
Upgrade web applications.
Clear the browser cache before shutting down or logging off.
Go into private browsing mode.

A

There are many different add-ons, each working with a different type of content. Add-ons can also be used to extend or change the functionality of the browser, by adding a custom toolbar, for instance.

Upgrading web applications to modern standards is the best long-term solution to ensure compatibility with today’s web browsers, but it doesn’t extend the functionality of your browser.

Clearing the browser cache before shutting down or logging off is a good security practice, but it does not affect the functionality of your browser.

In private mode, the browser doesn’t store cookies or temporary files and doesn’t add pages to the history list, which actually limits the functionality of your browser.

539
Q

How do you know if a certificate is valid on your browser?

A padlock icon is shown.
The address bar is colored maroon and a warning message is displayed.
The screen will turn blue.
You won’t see anything at all.

A

If the certificate is valid and trusted, a padlock icon is shown in the browser bar.

The address bar is colored maroon if the certificate is untrusted or otherwise invalid. If the site is trusted and your certificate is good, you will see a padlock instead.

The “blue screen of death” is usually a sign that a vital process has an issue.

If you go to a trusted web site, you will see a padlock in the browser.

540
Q

What type of license allows a company to install software on an agreed-upon number of computers so all employees can use the software at the same time?

Group use/site
Concurrent
Single use
Commercial

A

A group use or site license allows a large company to install software on an agreed-upon number of computers and have them all using the software at the same time.

A concurrent license provides limitations stating that only a set number of users can access software at any one time.

Single use license applies the basic restriction that the software may be installed on only one computer.

The commercial software license is closed source and does not provide users with the means to access or modify the source code.

541
Q

What is NOT considered a challenge of using cross-platform applications?

The performance of JavaScript/HTML5-based apps
Interface support and the wide range of display issues
“Platform independent” performance problems
Compatibility issues

A

The functional strength and performance of JavaScript/HTML5-based apps is at an advanced level. These apps incorporate native capabilities of mobile platforms, consume less energy on mobile devices, are easier to deploy, and have decent support for cloud services.

Cross-platform development is complicated by the different hardware interfaces for different computing devices. The interfaces supported by keyboard and mouse input devices for PCs and laptops do not always work well with the touchscreens used by smartphones, for instance.

There can be performance problems when software is written for a “platform independent” environment rather than code run natively by the OS.

Compatibility issues can affect web applications, as different browser vendors can make slightly different interpretations of open standards that result in applications not working correctly in particular browsers or browser versions.

542
Q

What does the Boot Camp feature of a Mac allow you to do?

Run a Windows operating system on a Mac
Accelerate the startup time by bypassing the least commonly used boot processes
Access your laptop over the Internet from another device
Scan the boot sector and fix any errors that are discovered

A

Boot Camp comes with the Mac, and it allows you to partition a disk so that you can install and run a Windows operating system on a Mac.

Accelerating the startup time by bypassing the least commonly used boot processes is not a function of Mac Boot Camp.

Boot Camp does not allow you to access your laptop over the Internet from another device. This is a function of Apple Remote Desktop.

Boot Camp does not scan the boot sector and fix any errors that are discovered. If you boot up in safe mode, the Mac will automatically run a fsck command line command, which will scan the disk and fix errors that are discovered.

543
Q

What is a characteristic of an open source software license?

Users have the ability to access the code and the right to modify it.
It is intended for commercial purpose and must be registered within a certain timeframe.
It is provided on a trial basis for a limited time, after which the full version must be purchased.
It can be downloaded it from the Internet directly and used without any restrictions.

A

Users of open source software have the ability to access the code and the right to modify it, because open source licensing grants free and legal redistribution of the software.

Commercial software is intended to meet commercial needs, and requests that users register their copy within a certain timeframe. Users of this type of software do not have access to the source code or a way to modify it.

Shareware is usually provided on a trial basis for a limited time. Users commonly have to purchase the full version after the trial period has passed.

Freeware applications can be downloaded from the Internet and used without restriction.

544
Q

Which of the following is NOT a best practice when installing software from a remote location?
Install the program on the root of the C Drive.
Use command-line options for each software update in a package.
Specify a user countdown of at least 30 minutes.
Perform the update after normal business hours.

A

When installing software packages remotely, you must take several factors into consideration. One of those is the destination directory for the application. You should not install a program to the root of the C drive. It is better to install programs to the Program Files directory.

To avoid repeated system restarts and unnecessary user interruption, you should specify command-line options to suppress automatic system restarts and also suppress the install interface for each software update.

A countdown period of at least 30 minutes gives users time to save documents and review the list of software updates that have been installed.

Normal business hours are when most users are actively using the computer and network resources. Performing remote software updates after working hours will limit user interruption.

545
Q

What type of license allows only a set number of users to access it at any one time?

Concurrent
Group use/site
Single use
Proprietary

A

A concurrent license allows only a set number of users at a company access to the software at any one time.

A group use or site license allows a large company to install software on an agreed-upon number of computers and gives them all access to it at the same time.

A single use license applies the basic restriction that the software may be installed on only one computer.

Proprietary software is owned by a business and customized specifically for that business. It is generally not made available for public use.

546
Q

What is the difference between a one-time purchase license and a subscription?

A one-time purchase license requires fees for subsequent upgrades, whereas a subscription provides upgrades at no additional cost.
A one-time purchase license entails recurring fees typically based on calendar year, whereas a subscription is a single purchase.
A one-time purchase license provides upgrades at no additional cost, whereas a subscription charges a fee for major upgrades.
A one-time purchase license provides new features right after they are developed, whereas a subscription requires the user to wait for a new version.

A

A one-time purchase license allows the user to use a software product in its current state of development. Future functionality or versions will require the user to purchase a new license. With a subscription, the user pays an annual fee and receives feature updates as soon as they are available.

A one-time purchase license entails fees for new features. The subscription license entails annual fees.

Feature upgrades are free with subscription licenses; however, feature upgrades entail additional fees if the license was a one-time purchase.

New features are made available as soon as possible with subscription licenses.

547
Q

What should you be looking for when you read software licensing agreements?

Verification that you have a valid agreement or license to install and use the product
Ways to work around the limitations provided in the agreement or license
Information about whether you can copy the application and redistribute it to other users
There is no reason to read the software licensing agreements for the average user.

A

You should always ensure that you have a valid agreement or license to install and use the product. Using software without a license is called pirating, which is unethical and also illegal.

Most agreements clearly outline what you can do with the software and may explicitly state what you can’t do. It is a legal agreement that defines both parties’ responsibilities. It is not a good idea to circumvent the agreement.

Unless the application is considered open source and is clearly labeled as such, copying and redistributing the application is usually illegal.

Software licensing agreements contain important legal information and should always be read.

548
Q

What is an advantage of developing software using a single-platform model?

The software can perform better, and it is easier to check the software for errors because it was tailor-made for a specific platform.
The software can run on a single operating system or multiple versions of a single operating system.
The software is written using a development environment suitable for only that specific operating system.
The developer writes the application in program code using a particular programming language.

A

Because it is tailor-made for a specific platform, the software can perform better and it is easier to check it for errors. This is a benefit of software written for a single platform.

Some software applications are written to run only under a particular operating system. This is a limiting factor because portability between devices is important in today’s operating environments.

When the software is written using a development environment suitable for only that OS, it becomes difficult to use between platforms. For example, it is not easy to transfer between Microsoft Windows and an Apple iOS.

While the developer does write the application in program code using a particular programming language, this is neither an advantage nor a disadvantage; this is simply how software is written.

549
Q

What should NOT be done before trying to install an application?

Verify that the software will run on your computer by pressing the executable command
Verify that the software is compatible with your operating system
Verify that your computer hardware meets the application’s recommended system requirements
Check for any special installation instructions or known issues

A

You should never load software by just running it on your computer or clicking on the executable file. Before you try to install an application, make sure you are following the software installation best practices as detailed by the manufacturer.

Before trying to install an application, you should verify that the software is compatible with your operating system. The manufacturer will provide information on what operating systems are compatible with the application.

Before trying to install an application, you should verify that your computer hardware meets the application’s recommended system requirements. The manufacturer will provide those specifications as well.

The manufacturer should have conducted extensive tests on their software. Check for any special installation instructions or known issues.

550
Q

How can you ensure that an operating system is always kept up to date on all Windows client devices in your network?
Configure Automatic Updates to download and install as soon as they are available.
Configure Automatic Updates to notify users that new updates are available.
Ensure that all installations of the operating system are using a valid license key.
Send an email to all users reminding them to install updates when they become available.

A

To ensure that the operating system is up to date on all Windows client machines, set Automatic Updates to download and install as soon as they are available.

Configuring Automatic Updates to merely inform the user that updates are available does not guarantee that the user will actually install the updates. The only way to ensure this is by having this happen automatically, as soon as the updates become available.

A Windows operating system requires a valid license key regardless of how updates to the OS are managed.

Sending emails to all users does not guarantee that they will follow through and install all available updates in a timely manner.

551
Q

For what reason would you need to download a codec pack?

Inability to view a video file of a certain format
Inability to open a .docx file with an older version of Microsoft Word
Inability to send or receive emails with attached files
Inability to open a software application that is past its trial period

A

Codecs are compression technologies that are commonly used for streaming media such as videos. Some video files require you to have certain codecs installed in order to be able to view them in a particular program.

The Microsoft Office Compatibility Pack is helpful for accessing .docx files on older Word versions.

An issue with sending or receiving email is highly unlikely to be solved by installing a codec.

Generally, you must have a valid license key to continue using expired software. A codec would not help in this instance.

552
Q

What security-related action helps protect the wireless router in your home?

Setting up encryption and using a password
Advertising the SSID
Securing the router in a locked room
Renaming the router

A

You should always protect your wireless router from random access by strangers by setting encryption and use a strong Wi-Fi password. This practice protects you from hackers and prevents anyone from leeching off of your connection.

Advertising your SSID makes your network visible to everyone. Hiding the SSID is recommended so that people attempting to connect must know the SSID as well as the encryption/access password.

Securing your wireless router in a locked room will keep your family members from physically turning it off, but it won’t keep hackers out.

Renaming your router won’t necessarily protect it.

553
Q

Where can you find the product key and serial number for your licensed computer?

The product key is usually on the license sticker on the box and can also be found in the About option of the Help menu.

The product key will be engraved on the case near the model number and on the desktop.

The product key is displayed every time you run the application.

The product key can be found in the warranty information that accompanies the equipment.

A

A product key will be a long string of characters and numbers printed on the box or disk case. It may display when the application starts for the first time, and it can be accessed using the About option on the Help menu.

The product key may be on the software case, but it will not be saved on the operating system’s desktop.

The product key will not be displayed every time you run the application; however, it may be displayed during the first run of the application.

The key will not be with the warranty information that accompanies the equipment; however, it may be included in other paperwork.

554
Q

You need to update a device that was installed two years ago. What action should you take to find the most recent updates?

Visit the website of the company that manufactured the device.
Reinstall the program from the CD-ROM that came with the hardware.
Upgrade the device to a newer version.
Visit a popular download site that hosts free installation files.

A

When software updates are needed for a device, the best place to look is the manufacturer of the device. Almost all manufacturers have a support page where users can download updates for their products.

The CD-ROM that was originally sold with the product will not have any updates that have been released since the disc was made.

It is not necessary to replace the hardware to receive updates for the software that supports it.

It is recommended that you avoid websites other than that of the manufacturer, as downloads from other free sites are often infected with malware.

555
Q

What is the preferred installation method when adding new software to a computer?

Selecting the default installation options
Selecting different settings such as the target destination or icon options
Selecting various feature sets
Selecting specific modules within the software package

A

Most software installer packages offer a choice between a default installation and a custom (or advanced options) installation. Usually the default is the most logical choice because it will place the program in the location that the manufacturer has decided is the optimum location for your operating system.

An installation that allows you to choose specific settings, such as where to install the software and what icons or startup/autorun options to configure is a custom (or advanced options) installation. This is not typically the installation of choice.

An installation that allows you to choose specific feature sets is a custom installation and is not typically the installation of choice.

An installation that allows you to choose specific modules within the software package is also a custom installation and thus not typically the installation of choice.

556
Q

What is a basic restriction found in software licensing?

The software may only be installed on one computer.
The software supports open source only.
The software must be used for a large number of users.
The software has no proprietary limitations.

A

The terms of the license will vary according to the type of software, but the basic restriction is usually that the software may be installed on only one computer (single use license).

Open source software has very few restrictions, if any.

Licenses do not ensure that a large number of users can install the license; this is the opposite of the basic restriction of licensing.

If the software is proprietary or closed source, there will usually be significant restrictions in the license that limit the ways you can use the software.

557
Q

What type of software license grants users permission to modify the code of the program as they see fit?

Open source
Commercial
Proprietary
Shareware

A

Open source software enables users to access its source code and gives them the right to modify it.

Commercial software is closed source and does not provide users with the means to access or modify the source code.

Proprietary software is owned by a business and customized specifically for that business. It is generally not made available for public use.

Shareware is usually available in the form of a trial version and is acquired freely over the Internet. Users typically must pay for the full version after a trial period, but do not have the right to modify it.

558
Q

Which statement BEST describes the overall purpose of Windows PowerShell?

It enables you to perform management and administrative tasks in Windows 10 and Windows Server 2016 (and some earlier versions).
It can be used to apply formatting within an application such as Microsoft Word.
It is used to control power settings and features through the Control Panel on a Windows operating system.
It is used to reorganize directories through a Graphical User Interface.

A

Windows PowerShell enables you to perform management and administrative tasks in Windows 10 and Windows Server 2016 (and some earlier versions).

Windows PowerShell does not have any impact on or association with word processing applications such as Microsoft Word. PowerShell is used to complete administrative tasks, not formatting.

Despite the name, Windows PowerShell has nothing to do with adjusting the power settings in the Control Panel of a Windows operating system. PowerShell is a Command-Line Interface (CLI) designed to execute administrative tasks.

Windows PowerShell does have the ability to reorganize directories and is often used for that; however, this is not its only purpose. Windows PowerShell does not have a Graphical User Interface; instead it utilizes more of a terminal-style window to run commands.

559
Q

In terms of coding, what does the acronym XML stand for?

eXtensible Markup Language
eXtended Markup Language
eXaggerated Markup Language
eXtra Markup Language

A

XML stands for eXtensible Markup Language, which is a markup language that defines a series of nested tags that describe the structure and/or meaning of the tag contents.

eXtended Markup Language is not a real term and not what XML stands for.

eXaggerated Markup Language is not a real term and not what XML stands for.

eXtra Markup Language is not a real term and not what XML stands for.

560
Q

Which of the following HTML code snippets includes properly nested tags?

<p><em>Hello World!</em></p>

<em><p>Hello World!</p></em>
<em><p>Hello World!</em></p>
<em><p>Hello World!<p><em></em></em>

A

“<p><em>Hello World!</em></p>” is properly nested. Nesting code is the process of organizing code based on the proper order defined by HTML standards. For this example, the <p></p> is considers a block-level element, and the <em>, which is used to emphasize text, is considered a text-level element. Text-level elements must both open and close within the block-level elements. Although failing to do so may not prevent the code from appearing to execute properly, it will fail validation when checking for errors and warnings.</em>

“<em><p>Hello World!</p></em>” has a block-level element nested within a text-level element, which is improper syntax.

“<em><p>Hello World!</em></p>” has a block-level element over-nesting a text-level element, which is improper syntax and may create a validation error.

“<em><p>Hello World!<p><em>” has a block-level element over-nesting a text-level element, which is improper syntax. It is does not properly close the tags, which would create a validation error.</em></em>

561
Q

Which of the following is NOT a scripting language?
Hypertext Markup Language
Python
Perl
JavaScript

A

Hypertext Markup Language, also known as HTML, is a markup language that is used to present data to a browser utilizing defined structure tags. By organizing the data in this fashion through structured nested tags, it allows greater functionality and for additional rendering capabilities in the browser to create a more user-friendly program.

Python is a popular form of interpreted programming language. It is considered a very easy-to-learn high-level programming language.

Perl is a popular form of interpreted programming language that shares several similarities with the C programming language.

JavaScript is a popular form of interpreted programming language. JavaScript programs have great flexibility when it comes to operating across different browsers, as most major browsers support the language.

562
Q

Which object is NOT utilized by Object-Oriented Programming (OOP)?

Commands
Attributes
Methods
Properties

A

Object-Oriented Programming (OOP) does not utilize commands when being executed. Object-oriented programming languages use different “objects” that have attributes, methods, and properties.

Attributes are one of three primarily used objects in Object-Oriented Programming (OOP). Attributes are values and data types that define the object.

Methods are one of three primarily used objects in Object-Oriented Programming (OOP). Methods define what you can do to an object.

Properties are one of three primarily used objects in Object-Oriented Programming (OOP). Properties represent an alternative way of accessing a field publicly.

563
Q

What is the key difference, in programming terms, between a procedure and a function?

A function can return a value to whatever called it.
A procedure can return a value to whatever called it.
A procedure can be used by the program for further processing.
A function can only be used one time by the program while processing.

A

The key difference, in programming terms, between a procedure and a function is that the latter can return a value to whatever called it, whereas a procedure cannot.

A procedure cannot return a value to whatever called it; however, a function is able to return a value.

A procedure cannot be used by the program for further processing; however, a function is able to be called for further processing.

Both a function and a procedure can be used more than once. This allows for programming efficiency and reduced duplicate code.

564
Q

How do compilers and interpreters respond to comments in your code?

They ignore comments.
They display all comments at runtime.
They display all comments in a prompt window.
They attempt to execute comments at runtime.

A

Compilers and interpreters ignore comments. Comments are part of the programming code that are not executed by the computer but help the developer read and maintain the code. Comments also make the source code easier to read by other developers.

Comments are not displayed at runtime; they are hidden and ignored. If you open the code itself, then you would be able to see the comments. They are helpful for developers because they provide clarity to program flow.

Comments are not displayed in a prompt window; they are hidden and ignored.

Comments are not executed at runtime; they are hidden and ignored.

565
Q

Which of the following uses proper HTML5 syntax?

<html> <body> <h1>Hello World</h1> <p>Say hello back to <a>CompTIA</a>!</p> </body> </html>

<html> <body> <h1>Hello World</h1> <p>Say hello back to <a>CompTIA!</p></a> </body> </html>

<html> <body> <h1>Hello World<\h1> <p>Say hello back to <a>CompTIA<\a>!<\p> <\body> <\html>

<html> <body> <h1>Hello World <p>Say hello back to <a>CompTIA<\a>!<\p><\h1> <\body> <\html>
</a></p></h1></body></html></a></p></h1></body></html></p></body></html>

A

HTML5 uses tag pairs that are properly opened and closed (with a forward slash: “/”). For example, in “<h1>Hello World</h1>”, <h1> is the opening tag, </h1> is the closing tag, and the content between them is displayed using a pre-defined format that corresponds to the tag.

In HTML5, tags must be properly nested, meaning that each inside tag must be closed before an outer one is. In this example, the <a> tag is inside the <p> tag, and needs to be closed first. Improperly nested tags will display in browsers, but might produce unexpected results and/or errors.</a>

In HTML5, closing tags use forward slashes, not backward slashes. Instead of <\body>, the correct closing tag for <body> is </body>.

In addition to the backward slashes not being the correct closing tags, having the <h1> tag close after the <p> tag will result in the entire content being formatted as a heading, which is not the likely intention of this piece of code.

566
Q

Which of the following is NOT important to consider when choosing a programming language?

How large the source code file size will be after compiling the program

What type of program you are writing

How experienced you are as a programmer

What type(s) of device(s) your users will be using

A

The size of the source file is not important when considering which programming language to use for a project.

What type of program you are writing is extremely relevant and important to consider in order to achieve the desired functionality of a program.

A programmer should be experienced with a specific language so that the capabilities of software can be met, and code can be securely and properly written to prevent bugs and other errors.

The devices being used with the program can directly affect which programming language should be used, as each language has its own limitations when it comes to cross-platform designs.

567
Q

Why is it important to compile code before executing it?
Compiling converts the source code into machine code for the CPU to process.

Compiling stacks the source code so that the CPU can process it correctly.

Compiling converts the source code into easy-to-read words to increase the code’s readability.

Compiling source code increases the size of the files, which improves efficiency.

A

Compiling is the process of converting source code into machine code, which can then be executed directly by the Central Processing Unit (CPU).

A software stack is a set of software components needed to create a complete platform. A compiled programming language can be part of such a stack, but the stack is not relevant to the act of compiling the program.

Compiling converts the source code into machine code for processing by the computer, not being more readable by humans.

The size of a compiled program, as compared to the source file, is not what improves efficiency when executing the program.

568
Q

Which of the following is NOT a compiled programming language?

CSS
C++
C#
COBOL

A

CSS (Cascading Style Sheets) are utilized in front-end web page development to style HTML elements. They are neither compiled nor do they need to be converted to machine code.

C++ is an example of a compiled programming language. You must transform the code to an executable binary before it can run.

C# is an example of a compiled programming language. You must transform the code to an executable binary before it can run.

COBOL is an example of a compiled programming language. You must transform the code to an executable binary before it can run. You must transform the

569
Q

How is a script different than a program?

A script is generally smaller and targeted at completing a specific task.

A script allows branching, whereas a program does not.

A script is generally larger and is targeted at completing multiple tasks.

A script allows looping, whereas a program does not.

A

A script is generally smaller and targeted at completing a specific task, while a program is designed to execute a series of scripts that are capable of achieving multiple results.

Both scripts and programs may allow branching, so this would be considered a common attribute.

A script is not larger or designed for multiple tasks. It is typically smaller and focused on a single task. Also, the size of the script would not play a major role in how the script or program operates.

Both scripts and programs may allow looping, so this would be considered a common attribute.

570
Q

Query languages, such as Structured Query Language, are designed for what purpose?

To retrieve specific records from a dataset

To validate markup language files prior to executing them

To scrape web pages in order to collect information for further processing

To automatically locate and render smaller data files before loading larger pieces of data

A

Query languages are designed to retrieve specific records from a dataset. Code written in a query language, such as Structured Query Language (SQL), is designed to retrieve specific records from a dataset. The code does not need to be compiled.

Query languages are not designed to validate markup language files. This would be a validator. Structured Query Language (SQL) is designed to retrieve specific record sets.

Query languages are not primarily designed to scrape web pages, or to act as a web scraper.

Query languages load data in the order it is processed. Query languages are not designed by default to load balance data while processing.

571
Q

What does a Java Virtual Machine (VM) do?

The Java VM converts source code into machine code to run on the hardware platform.

The Java VM executes source code in the command-line interface.

The Java VM converts source code into JavaScript to run with any browser.

The Java VM converts source code into cross-platform compatible code for both mobile and personal computers.

A

The interpreter can either be part of an operating system, or it can be provided as a virtual machine, such as the Java VM. With a Java VM, you develop the programming code in the Java environment and deploy it to your hosts. Each host OS (Windows versus Linux versus Mac OS for instance) has a different Java VM. When you package your Java program, your source code is compiled to bytecode for the Java VM, and the VM converts it to machine code to run on the hardware platform.

The Java VM does not execute the source code via the command-line interface. It is used to convert code into machine code to be processed by the hardware platform in a machine language.

The Java VM does not convert source code to JavaScript. Despite the similarity in name, Java and JavaScript are two different languages: Java is object-oriented and JavaScript is an object-based interpreted language. A Java VM converts the source code to machine code.

The Java VM does not create cross-platform compatibility. This would be done by the programmer when designing and compiling the code. The Java VM is solely used to convert the code to machine code.

572
Q

What is a program BEST described as?

A sequence of instructions for your computer to perform

A mathematical equation utilizing compiled code to execute commands

A piece of software designed for business to streamline commonly used tasks

Proprietary software to which the owner has exclusive rights

A

A program is a sequence of instructions for your computer to perform that is designed by a programmer.

Not all programs contain mathematical equations or use compiled coding languages.

A program may have many uses, both personal and commercial. Streamlining tasks is only one purpose a program could serve.

While a program could be proprietary, it doesn’t have to be. Some software programs are considered open source and are a compilation of contributing developers around the world.

573
Q

What is the key difference between Java and JavaScript?

Java is a programming language, whereas JavaScript is a scripting language.

Java is a scripting language, whereas JavaScript is a programming language.

Java is an object-based programming language.

JavaScript is an object-oriented programming language.

A

Java is a programming language used to create applications that run in a virtual machine or browser, while JavaScript is a scripting language that can run on a browser only. Java code needs to be compiled, while JavaScript code is all in text.

Java is for programming and JavaScript is for scripting.

JavaScript is an object-based programming language, not Java. It is a scripting language often executed through the use of a web browser.

Java is an object-oriented programming language, not JavaScript. It is considered a high-level compiled programming language.

574
Q

In Hypertext Markup Language (HTML), what does the <body> tag do?

The <body> tag indicates the main part of the content as a page to show to the

client.

The <body> tag is the top-level parent element that identifies the type of document.

The <body> tag indicates that the content is a paragraph-level block.

The <body> tag indicates that the content is a heading level.

A

The <body> tag indicates the main part of the content as a page to show to the client. The <body> tag opens immediately after the closing <head> tag.

The <html> tag is the top-level parent element that identifies the type of document. This tag is required for an HTML page to execute properly and identify the coding standard being used, as multiple variations exist.

The <p> tag indicates the content is a paragraph-level block. These are typically used for general text on a web page, and do not have any special formatting unless specified otherwise through CSS3.

The <h1> tag indicates that the content is a heading level. This is considered the most important heading title of a web page. There are a total of 6 heading tags (H1- H6).

575
Q

Most programming languages are similar in their structure and syntax, but it is important to use the specific syntax of a given language. Why?

Using incorrect syntax creates errors, causing the code not to compile or run.

By using specific syntax, the program runs at quicker speeds during execution.

Using proper syntax removes all security vulnerabilities.

The use of improper syntax may void any assistance from programming support representatives.

A

Using incorrect syntax creates errors, causing the code not to compile or run, so it’s important to use the correct structure and syntax of the programming language that is being used to write a program.

Proper syntax does not increase the speed of a program during execution, because a program with improper syntax does not run at all.

Proper syntax increases a program’s security posture but cannot make it completely impervious to security vulnerabilities.

Unlike software applications, programming languages do not offer assistance from support representatives. Most languages are considered open source, and do not have a support team of developers to help troubleshoot programs. Assistance can be obtained from private companies or contractors who specialize in the particular programming language.

576
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered platform dependent?

JavaScript

PASCAL

C#

COBOL

A

JavaScript is known as an interpreted language, which is capable of running on most platforms.

PASCAL is a compiled language and tends to be platform specific. To run it on another platform, you must recompile the source code for the new platform.

C# is a compiled language and tends to be platform specific. To run it on another platform, you must recompile the source code for the new platform.

COBOL is a compiled language and tends to be platform specific. To run it on another platform, you must recompile the source code for the new platform.

577
Q

How does a markup language, such as HTML, assist a program when rendering code?

Markup language makes data in a document accessible to a program through structured tags.

Markup language presents data in binary code for a browser to render at runtime.

Markup language utilizes semantic elements to increase efficiency for developers.

Markup language makes data in a document accessible to a program through numbered tags.

A

Markup language makes data in a document accessible to a program through structured, nested tags. By organizing the data in this fashion, it allows greater functionality and additional rendering capabilities in the browser to create a more user-friendly program.

Markup language does not present data in the form of binary code; instead, it uses nested structure elements. These tags are typically in the format of special characters and letters, not numbers.

HTML5 presents many tags known as semantic elements. Although semantic elements may assist a developer when building web pages, these elements do not necessarily assist programs at runtime.

Markup language elements are defined with letters, not numbers.

578
Q

What is the primary function of markup language tags?

They tell a client application (such as a browser) how to structure the

document.

They instruct the programmer where to add content for the document.

They are used to organize the code for optimal readability.

They identify what kind of content should be included within an element.

A

The tags tell a client application (such as a browser) how to structure the document. A markup language is not a programming language but a means of making data in a document accessible to a program. A markup language, such as Hypertext Markup Language (HTML) or eXtensible Markup Language (XML), defines a series of nested tags that describe the structure and/or meaning of the tag contents.

Tags do assist programmers with locating the correct elements, but this is not their primary purpose.

When properly nested and indented, tags can organize code effectively; however, this is not their primary function.

Tags and semantic elements do identify what kind of content should be included in an element; however, this is not their primary function.

579
Q

What programming language is VBScript based on?

Visual Basic

Java

Python

Perl

A

VBScript is a scripting language based on Microsoft’s Visual Basic programming language. It provides similar functionality to JavaScript. VBScript is often used by network administrators to perform repetitive administrative tasks.

Java is an object-oriented high-level programming language that was not used as the basis for VBScript.

Python is an interpreted language that is easy to read and work with as a programmer. It was not used as the basis for VBScript.

Perl is a high-level interpreted language that shares syntax similarities with the C language. It was not used as the basis for VBScript.

580
Q

Which of the following is NOT a comment line special delimiter?

Dollar ($)

Double forward slash (//)

Hash (#)

Apostrophe (‘)

A

The dollar sign is not a common special delimiter. It is important to use comments in code to assist with maintaining it. A comment line is ignored by the compiler or interpreter. A

comment line is indicated by a special delimiter, such as double forward slash (//), hash (#), or apostrophe (‘).

The double forward slash (//) is considered a special delimiter in programming. Double forward slashes are found in the C and C++ languages.

The hash (#) is considered a special delimiter in programming. The hash delimiter is found in Perl.

The apostrophe (‘) is considered a special delimiter in programming. The apostrophe is found in the BASIC language.

581
Q

What language does VBScript share similarities with?

JavaScript

PHP

Ruby

C++

A

VBScript is a scripting language based on Microsoft’s Visual Basic programming language. It provides similar functionality to JavaScript. VBScript is often used by network administrators to perform repetitive administrative tasks.

PHP (which stands for the recursive acronym “PHP: Hypertext Preprocessor”) is a server-side preprocessor language typically implemented in web development. PHP is not similar to VBScript.

Ruby is an open source, interpreted, object-oriented programming language. Ruby is not similar to VBScript.

C++ is a compiled programming language that must be converted to binary prior to execution. C++ is not similar to VBScript.

582
Q

Which statement BEST defines a virtual machine?

It is used to operate multiple operating systems and virtual computers on existing hardware.

It is a cloud-based machine that can only be accessed via Internet.

It is used to support and emulate virtual reality software to enhance graphics effects.

It is defined as two operating systems running on one piece of hardware.

A

A virtual machine is an instance of virtualization where multiple operating systems are installed on a single host PC using a hypervisor, such as Microsoft Hyper-V or VMware. The primary objectives of virtualizing an environment is to utilize resources more effectively and to lower hardware and other operating costs.

A virtual machine may be cloud-based or use cloud-based Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) from vendors like Amazon Web Services; however, this is not the only way virtual machines can be accessed. Virtual machines can operate on everything from personal computers to private servers without Internet access.

Virtual machines are not typically used to support virtual reality graphic effects; however, they technically are able to do so, as virtual machines still access hardware directly to deliver efficient and reliable computing capabilities.

A virtual machine may operate more than two operating systems on one piece of hardware; however, note that hardware resource availability plays a direct role on the computer’s ability to store and process multiple operating systems.

583
Q

In Hypertext Markup Language (HTML), what does the <html> tag do?
The <html> tag is the top-level parent element that identifies the type of document.

The <html> tag indicates the main part of the content as a page to show to the

client.

The <html> tag indicates that the content is a paragraph-level block.

The <html> tag indicates that the content is a heading level.

A

The <html> tag is the top-level parent element that identifies the type of document. This tag is required for an HTML page to execute properly and identify the coding standard being used as multiple variations exist.

The <body> tag indicates the main part of the content as a page to show to the client. The <body> tag opens immediately after the closing <head> tag.

The <p> tag indicates that the content is a paragraph block-level element. These are typically used for general text on a web page, and do not have any special formatting unless specified otherwise through CSS3.

The <h1> tag indicates that the content is a heading level. This is considered the most important heading title of a web page. There are a total of 6 heading tags (H1 to H6).

584
Q

In Hypertext Markup Language (HTML), what does the <h1> tag do?

The <h1> tag indicates that the content is a heading level.

The <h1> tag is the top-level parent element identifies the type of document.

The <h1> tag indicates the content is a paragraph-level block.

The <h1> tag indicates that the content links to another resource.

A

The <h1> tag indicates that the content is a heading level. This is considered the most important heading title of a web page. There are a total of six heading tags (H1- H6).

The <html> tag is the top-level parent element identifies the type of document. This tag is required for an HTML page to execute properly and identify the coding standard being used as multiple variations exist.

The <p> tag indicates the content is a paragraph block-level element. These are typically used for general text on a webpage, and do not have any special formatting unless specified otherwise through CSS3.

The <a> tag indicates that the content links to another resource. These are known as anchor tags and are used to represent in internal page link, or to link with an external page.</a>

585
Q

What is the primary purpose of the Windows PowerShell Integrated Scripting Environment (ISE)?

To help create and manage your Windows PowerShell scripts

To help create directories within the system’s file management system

To execute new programs manually without a script

To open a new programming document written in a language that needs to be compiled

A

Windows PowerShell enables you to perform management and administrative tasks in Windows 10 and Windows Server 2016 (and some earlier versions). It is fully integrated with the operating system and supports both remote execution and scripting. To help create and manage your Windows PowerShell scripts, Microsoft provides the Windows PowerShell Integrated Scripting Environment (ISE).

ISE was designed to create and manage PowerShell scripts, not to create directories.

ISE allows you to create and manage scripts to increase efficiency, not to execute scripts manually.

Compiled programming languages must be compiled and converted to machine code prior to execution, but this is unrelated to ISE.

586
Q

What does the acronym SQL stand for?

Structured Query Language

Series Query Language

Secure Query Language

Standard Query Language

A

SQL is the acronym for Structured Query Language. Code written in a query language, such as SQL, is designed to retrieve specific records from a dataset. The code does not need to be compiled.

Series Query Language is not a valid term and is non-existent in the world of programming languages.

Secure Query Language is not a valid term and is non-existent in the world of programming languages.

Standard Query Language is not a valid term and is non-existent in the world of programming languages.

587
Q

In Hypertext Markup Language (HTML), what does the <a> tag do?</a>

The <a> tag indicates that the content links to another resource.</a>

The <a> tag indicates the main part of the content as a page to show to the</a>

client.

The <a> tag indicates that the content is a paragraph-level block.
The <a> tag is the top-level parent element that identifies the type of document.</a></a>

A

The <a> tag indicates that the content links to another resource. These are known as anchor tags and are used to represent an internal page link, or to link with an external page.</a>

The <body> tag indicates the main part of the content as a page to show to the client. The <body> tag opens immediately after the closing <head> tag.

The <p> tag indicates that the content is a paragraph-level block. These are typically used for general text on a web page, and do not have any special formatting unless specified otherwise through CSS3.

The <html> tag is the top-level parent element that identifies the type of document. This tag is required for an HTML page to execute properly and identify the coding standard being used, as multiple variations exist.

588
Q

How does assembly language work?

It represents machine code in human-readable text.

It represents human-readable text in machine code.

It is used to compile human-readable text.

It is used to compile machine code.

A

An assembly language is any low-level programming language in which there is a very strong correspondence between the program’s statements and the architecture’s machine code instructions. Assembly code is converted into executable machine code by a utility program referred to as an assembler. Programs written in an assembly language consist of a series of mnemonic processor instructions, such that machine code is represented in human-readable text.

Even though assembly languages are very low-level, they are more human-readable than machine code, so human-readable text is not represented in machine code

Compiled languages use compilers, which are computer programs that translate computer code written in a high-level programming language to a lower level language, to create an executable program. Higher level languages are more human-readable than lower level languages.

A program that translates from a low-level language, such as machine code, to a higher level one, is a decompiler.

589
Q

In Hypertext Markup Language (HTML), what does the <p> tag do?

The <p> tag indicates the content is a paragraph-level block.
The <p> tag is the top-level parent element identifies the type of document.
The <p> tag indicates that the content links to another resource.
The <p> tag indicates that the content is a heading level.

A

The <p> tag indicates the content is a paragraph block-level element. These are typically used for general text on a webpage, and do not have any special formatting unless specified otherwise through CSS3.

The <html> tag is the top-level parent element identifies the type of document. This tag is required for an HTML page to execute properly and identify the coding standard being used as multiple variations exist.

The <a> tag indicates that the content links to another resource. These are known as anchor tags and are used to represent in internal page link, or to link with an external page.</a>

The <h1> tag indicates that the content is a heading level. This is considered the most important heading title of a webpage, there are a total of six heading tags (H1- H6).

590
Q

What does a programmer do?

Works with programming language(s) to write code for applications

Develops file storage systems for enterprise networks

Creates static web pages for informational purposes using only Hypertext Markup Language

Works with real-time databases in order to manage large quantities of data

A

Programmers (or coders) are individuals who work with one or more programming languages to write code that is used as the basis for the applications that you use on your computing device. Programmers take part in software development as teams with various methodologies, one of which is called DEVOPS.

System administrators develop file storage systems for enterprise networks.

Web designers create static web pages for informational purposes using only Hypertext Markup Language.

Database administrators work with real-time databases in order to manage large quantities of data.

591
Q

Which statement BEST describes batch files?

They are a collection of command-line instructions that you store in a .CMD file.

They are used to open a file or directory within a command line.

They are folders containing multiple related applications from the same publisher.

They contain information regarding different command-line functions and what they do.

A

Batch files are a collection of command-line instructions that you store in a .CMD file. You can run the file by calling its name from the command line, or by double-clicking the file in File Explorer. Generally, batch file scripts run from end to end, and are limited in terms of branching and user input.

Batch files may be utilized to open a file or directory within a command line; however, this is not their sole purpose.

Folders containing multiple related applications from the same publisher would typically be referred to as a collection or suite by a publisher such as Microsoft Office Suite or Adobe Creative Suite.

Each Command Line Interface (CLI) has specific commands that provide information regarding different commands. Batch files are a collection of command-line instructions.

592
Q

Why is it important to write comments when coding a program?

It helps the developer read and maintain the code.

It helps the code render properly.

It is used to separate a web page visually into sections.

It tells other developers what coding standard to implement for consistency.

A

Comments are part of the programming code that are not executed by the computer but help the developer read and maintain the code. Different programming languages have different special delimiters that indicate which lines are comments and which are not.

Comments do not assist with rendering, as they are ignored by browsers.

Comments do not add any visual effects to a web page, as they are ignored by browsers.

Coding standards may be documented in a comment; however, in HTML, for example, the code is defined by the initial doctype tag.

593
Q

Which negative factor must be considered when developing with interpreted languages?

They must be converted into machine code, therefore increasing runtime.

They operate at a higher rate than other languages, which may result in overclocking your CPU.

They create large source files, which may impact the amount of storage required to execute the code.

They tend to decrease the security of an application when compared to compiled languages.

A

Interpreted languages must be converted into machine code, therefore increasing runtime.

Overclocking your computer hardware is a manual procedure to push your components at a higher rate than that at which they were designed to operate, which is unrelated to programming.

Interpreted languages do not create larger source files than other programming languages. Also, the size of the source file would not be a primary consideration when choosing a programming language to work with.

All languages are inherently vulnerable, therefore proper coding and implementation of necessary security policies and procedures are required to ensure confidentiality, integrity, and availability.

594
Q

How does pseudocode present comments to maintain revisions?

Comments are preceded by a special character syntax depending on the language being used.

Comments are preceded by the // character.

Comments are preceded by the * character.

Pseudocode does not present comments for maintaining revisions.

A

Pseudocode contains comments that are preceded by a special character syntax depending on the language being used. Comments are part of the programming code that are not executed by the computer but that help the developer read and maintain the code. Do keep in mind that each programming language may operate with different comment syntax or special characters.

Pseudocode may use the // character for comments; however, the question does not specify which programming language is being used.

Pseudocode may use the * character for comments; however, the question does not specify which programming language is being used.

Pseudocode does contain comments for maintaining revisions.

595
Q

How is machine code, the language that all computers speak, presented?

In binary format as 1s and 0s

In the original programming language in which it was coded

In a language that is easy for humans to read

In tag pairs, including opening and closing tags

A

Compiling converts the source code that you wrote into machine code. Machine code is the instructions converted to strings of 1s and 0s for the CPU to process. This is the way all electronic signaling communicates, with “0” representing off, and “1” representing on.

Programming languages are presented in the original language which it was coded in; however, most languages need to be compiled in order to be converted to machine code for the CPU to process.

Machine code is presented in 1s and 0s; therefore it is not easy for humans to read.

Machine code is not presented in tag pairs; that is the case for markup languages like Extensible Markup Language (XML) and Hypertext Markup Language (HTML).

596
Q

Which pseudocode populates the first row and second column?

Logons(0,1) = find LastLoggedOnUser and get Time

declare Logons(9) as string

declare Logons(9,1) as string

Logons(0,0) = find LastLoggedOnUser and get Forename

A

The code “Logons(0,1) = find LastLoggedOnUser and get Time” populates the first row and second column of a two-dimensional array Logons. Array elements begin with 0, so the first array coordinate of 0 refers to row #1, and the second array coordinate of 1 refers to column #2.

The code “declare Logons(9) as string” creates a one-dimensional array allowing up to ten rows of string data type. The quantity of numbers inside the parentheses corresponds to the dimensions of the array.

The code “declare Logons(9,1) as string” creates a two-dimensional array, with 10 rows across 2 columns, of string data type.

The code “Logons(0,0) = find LastLoggedOnUser and get Forename” populates the first row and first column of a two-dimensional array Logons.

597
Q

Which pseudocode populates the first row and first column?

Logons(0,0) = find LastLoggedOnUser and get Forename

Logons(0) = find LastLoggedOnUser and get Forename

declare Logons(9,1) as string

Logons(0,1) = find LastLoggedOnUser and get Time

A

The code “Logons(0,0) = find LastLoggedOnUser and get Forename” populates the first row and first column of a two-dimensional array Logons. Array elements begin with 0, so Logons(0) is the first element in a one-dimensional array, and Logons(0,0) is the first element, in both rows and columns, in a two-dimensional array.

The code “Logons(0) = find LastLoggedOnUser and get Forename” adds a value to the first element in a one-dimensional array. The quantity of numbers inside the parentheses corresponds to the dimensions of the array.

The code “declare Logons(9,1) as string” creates a two-dimensional array, with 10 rows across 2 columns, of string data type.

The code “Logons(0,1) = find LastLoggedOnUser and get Time” populates the first row and second column of a two-dimensional array Logons.

598
Q

Which pseudocode adds a value to the first element in the array?

Logons(0) = find LastLoggedOnUser and get Forename

declare Logons(9,1) as string

Logons(0,0) = find LastLoggedOnUser and get Forename

Logons(0,1) = find LastLoggedOnUser and get Time

A

The code “Logons(0) = find LastLoggedOnUser and get Forename” adds a value to the first element in the array. The variable that is being set represents a one-dimensional array, because there is only one number inside the parentheses. Array elements begin with 0, so Logons(0) is the first element in the array Logons.

The code “declare Logons(9,1) as string” creates a two-dimensional array (there are two numbers inside the parentheses) of string data type.

The code “Logons(0,0) = find LastLoggedOnUser and get Forename” populates the first row and first column of a two-dimensional array Logons.

The code “Logons(0,1) = find LastLoggedOnUser and get Time” populates the first row and second column of a two-dimensional array Logons.

599
Q

How is pseudocode used in programming?

It is used to write informal programming code that is readable by humans.

It is used to write informal code that is readable by machines.

It is used to write formal programming code that is readable by humans.

It is used to write formal code that is readable by machines.

A

Pseudocode is an informal high-level description of the operating principle of a computer program or other algorithm. Being high-level means that it’s readable by humans.

Although it’s used to write informal code, pseudocode uses the structural conventions of a normal programming language, but is intended for human reading rather than machine reading.

Pseudocode generally does not obey the syntax rules of any particular language, which is what distinguishes it from formal programming code.

One of the aspects of pseudocode is that variable declarations are typically omitted. This, along with other informal practices that differentiate it from a specific programming language, make it not readable by machines.

600
Q

Which pseudocode creates a two-dimensional array?

declare Logons(9,1) as string

declare Logons(2) as string

Logons(0,0) = find LastLoggedOnUser and get Forename

Logons(0,1) = find LastLoggedOnUser and get Time

A

The code “declare Logons(9,1) as string” creates a two-dimensional array, with 10 rows across 2 columns, of string data type. The quantity of numbers inside the parentheses corresponds to the dimensions of the array.

The code “declare Logons(2) as string” creates a one-dimensional array, with 3 rows. The value of the numbers inside the parentheses is the size of the array, and array elements begin with 0, so this array has 3 rows.

The code “Logons(0,0) = find LastLoggedOnUser and get Forename” populates the first row and first column of a two-dimensional array Logons.

The code “Logons(0,1) = find LastLoggedOnUser and get Time” populates the first row and second column of a two-dimensional array Logons.

601
Q

Your team is developing a program and would like to create a visual representation of how it works. Which type would be most helpful?

Flowchart

Venn diagram

Pie chart

Planning report

A

As program complexity increases, it might help to visualize how the program flows through modules and interactions between objects. You could view the sequence as a graphical flow chart to help your team understand the processes.

A Venn diagram represents data as circles or closed curves in a graphic to help illustrate overlap between elements. It is not a visual representation of how a program works.

A pie chart is typically used to represent data in percentages through a visual aid of a circle cut into slices like a pie. It is not a visual representation of how a program works.

A planning report is great for planning; however, these do not provide a visual representation of a how a program works.

602
Q

Which psuedocode defines a one-dimensional array allowing up to ten rows?

declare Logons(9) as string

declare Logons(9,1) as string

Logons(0,0) = find LastLoggedOnUser and get Forename

Logons(0,1) = find LastLoggedOnUser and get Time

A

The code “declare Logons(9) as string” defines a simple array allowing up to ten rows. The number of possible elements in an array is fixed when the array is declared.

The code “declare Logons(9,1) as string” creates a two-dimensional array. An array is an identifier for a group of variables of the same type.

The code “Logons(0,0) = find LastLoggedOnUser and get Forename” populates the first row and first column. The first row or column is defined by “0” in programming; all numbers range from 0 to 9, with “0” being the first row/column and “9” being the tenth row/column.

The code “Logons(0,1) = find LastLoggedOnUser and get Time” populates the first row and second column.

603
Q

When writing pseudocode, what are subroutines?

Subroutines are blocks of code that represent duplicate tasks but have been defined separately.

Subroutines are one-time-use blocks of code.

Subroutines are blocks of code that act as the primary routines.

Subroutines are blocks of code that repeat in a continuous loop during the execution of a program.

A

Programs can be divided into blocks of instructions that each perform some specific task. For example, where there are duplicate steps, you could write those as separate subroutines and then call them whenever needed. This in return reduces confusion from a development perspective.

Subroutines may act either as one-time-use blocks of code or can be used on multiple occasions.

Subroutines act as a secondary element in pseudocode and are not the primary routine.

Subroutines do not act as loops during processing. They are implemented only when they are called and are terminated by an end statement.

604
Q

What would you use to instruct your computer to execute a different sequence of instructions?

Branching

Looping

A constant

A variable

A

Branching is used to instruct the computer to execute a different sequence of instructions, for example, there may be a branch based on a condition. This causes the program to deviate from the main path. Branches are used to control the flow within the program. Code inside an IF statement is an example of a conditional branch.

Looping instructs the computer to perform, or repeat, a task until a condition is fully met. The FOR and WHILE statements are examples of looping.

A constant is a specific identifier that contains a value that cannot be changed within the program. It has no impact on which sequences of instructions are executed, other than as a possible reference in a conditional statement.

A variable contains a value that can change during the execution of the program. The variables can be evaluated inside a conditional statement (for example, looping until the variable “i” reaches a certain value), but variables by themselves cannot execute a different sequence of instructions.

605
Q

What is the main difference between looping and branching?

Loops are used to perform a task until a condition is met.

Loops execute a task only once.

Loops are primarily used to segment conditions for different outcomes.

Loops and branching are identical and have the same outcome with conditions.

A

Loops are similar to branches insofar as they deviate from the initial program path according to some sort of logic condition. However, with looping, when the logic condition is met, program flow returns to the initial program path. With branching, the program enters a new path based on a new sequence of instructions.

With a loop, you instruct your computer to perform, or repeat, a task until a condition is met. It is not designed for executing one time.

Loops are designed to repeat as many times as necessary in order to achieve the desired results during program execution.

Both looping and branching are used to segment for different conditions; this is not a difference. They are not identical; however, they are very similar.

606
Q

What is the function of an IF conditional statement in code?

Part of the code only executes when certain conditions are true.

All of the code must execute when certain conditions are false.

The code can only be used when conditions are true

If the programming team approves of the code, then the code can be released.

A

An IF conditional statement means that part of the code executes only when certain conditions are true (another part of the code can execute when the condition is false). This statement can be used when information needs to be processed for a variety of different outcomes.

All of the code is not executed when there are conditional statements that prove to be false.

The code can be used at all times, but certain portions of it will execute only when specified conditions are true.

Releasing the code when the programming team approves of it is part of a project cycle. It does not depend on which statements are used in the code.

607
Q

What purpose does branching in programming serve?

It controls flow within a program based on specific conditions.

It stacks conditions in order to streamline the program.

It uses only text strings to increase efficiency during program execution.

It is the process of declaring variables for specific conditions to condense a program.

A

Your program runs from the start to the end unless you instruct it to deviate from this path. One way of doing so is to create a branch; this is an instruction to your computer to execute a different sequence of instructions. You use branches to control the flow within your program.

Branching does not stack conditions; instead it redirects flow out into different “branches” when specific conditions are met.

Branching is designed for flow control and organization, not for specific text strings.

Branching is not used to condense a program and may utilize different variable types.

608
Q

A program has a piece of code that needs to be repeated over and over until the condition has been fulfilled. What is this an example of?

Looping

Branching

A constant

A variable

A

Looping instructs your computer to perform, or repeat, a task until a condition is fully met.

Branching is used to instruct your computer to execute a different sequence of instructions.

A constant is a specific identifier that contains a value that cannot be changed within the program. For example, you might want to reference the numerical value for the screen dimensions or resolution.

A variable contains a value that can change during the execution of the program. This value might be a text string, a number, or any other data type.

609
Q

Which of the following is NOT an example of a function?

While

Sum

Write

Prompt

A

While is considered a looping statement. A looping statement is a piece of code that repeats over and over until the condition has been fulfilled.

Sum is a function used when adding multiple values and strings together. This is a very common function.

Write is the function used to output the result. Often this is used to write the result to the display for the user to see.

Prompt is the function designed to ask the user for a form of input. An example would be “Please enter your name?” A field would then be presented in which the user could type a name.

610
Q

What is the primary purpose of a flow chart?

It visualizes the graphical sequence of a program.

It visualizes how a language is compiled.

It visualizes the way code is written.

It presents the placement of loops and variables.

A

A flow chart is used to visualize the graphical sequence of a program. These programs are not completely linear: they consist of different branches and loops. We can use these diagrams to analyze the sequence of instructions and write better code to support that sequence.

Flow charts are not used for compiling; they are used for visual representation.

Flow charts are not used to present code; they are used to create a graphical sequence of a program.

A flow chart may identify where certain placements occur; however, its primary objective is to present the graphical sequence of a program.

611
Q

Which of the following BEST defines the XOR condition?

If either, but not both, condition is TRUE, then the whole statement is TRUE.

If both conditions are TRUE, then the whole statement is TRUE.

If either condition is TRUE, then the whole statement is TRUE.

If one of the conditions is TRUE based on its inverse value, then the whole statement is TRUE.

A

Logical operators can combine simple relational statements into more complex expressions. With the XOR (Exclusive OR) logical operator, the whole statement is TRUE when either condition is TRUE, but not both. So, TRUE XOR FALSE == TRUE, but TRUE XOR TRUE == FALSE.

With the AND (&&) logical operator, the whole statement is TRUE only when each of the conditions are TRUE. So, only TRUE && TRUE == TRUE, all other combinations are FALSE.

With the OR (||) logical operator, the whole statement is TRUE when either condition is TRUE. Both conditions can be TRUE as well with the OR operator. For example, TRUE || FALSE == TRUE, and also TRUE || TRUE == TRUE.

The NOT (!) operator is used to evaluate the inverse value of a condition: !(FALSE) == TRUE.

612
Q

Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of methods?

They define what you can do to an object.

They are values and data types that define the object.

They represent an alternative way of accessing a field publicly.

They enable you to create segments of code that you will reuse.

A

Methods are procedures associated with a message and an object. They define what you can do to an object.

Attributes are values and data types that define the object. The attributes are stored within the object as fields or private variables.

Properties represent an alternative way of accessing a field publicly. Using a method might be regarded as quite a “heavyweight” means of doing this, so properties allow external code to ask the object to show or change the value of one of its fields.

Functions enable you to create segments of code that you will reuse.

613
Q

Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of properties in object-oriented programming?

They allow external code to ask the object to show or change the value of one of its fields.

They define what another part of a program can do to an object.

They are values and data types that define the object.

They enable the creation of segments of reusable code.

A

Properties allow external code to ask the object to show or change the value of one of its fields. They represent an alternative way of accessing a field publicly, instead of using a method to access an attribute.

Methods define what the program can do to an object. They are procedures of an object, which another part of the program can invoke to access or update a field of the object.

Attributes are values and data types that define the object, and are stored within the object as fields or private variables.

Functions are segments of code that the program can reuse.

614
Q

You have created an identifier with a value that cannot be changed. What is this considered?

A constant
A variable
A container
A vector

A

A constant is a specific identifier that contains a value that cannot be changed within the program. For example, you might want to reference the numerical value for screen dimensions or resolution.

A variable contains a value that can change during the execution of the program. This value might be a text string, a number, or any other data type.

A container is a special type of identifier that can reference multiple values (or elements).

A vector is a container that can grow or shrink in size as elements are added or removed.

615
Q

Which of the following BEST defines the AND condition?

If both conditions are TRUE, then the whole statement is TRUE.

If either condition is TRUE, then the whole statement is TRUE.

If either condition is TRUE, but not both, then the whole statement is TRUE.

If both conditions are TRUE and one is evaluated based on the inverse value, then the whole statement is TRUE.

A

The logical operators for AND (&&) and OR (||) are used to combine simple relational statements into more complex expressions. The NOT (!) operator is used to negate a Boolean statement. With the AND logical operator, the whole statement is TRUE when both conditions are TRUE.

With the OR logical operator, the whole statement is TRUE when either condition is TRUE.

With the XOR logical operator, the whole statement is TRUE if either condition is TRUE, but not both.

The NOT (!) operator is used to evaluate the inverse value of a condition. For a whole statement to be TRUE based on two TRUE conditions where one is the inverse, the OR operator must be used. For example, TRUE || !TRUE == TRUE.

616
Q

Given the equation “-329 __ -2034” during a logical test, which of the following operators would result in a TRUE condition?

”>=”

”==”

”<”

”<=”

A

Looping and branching structures depend on logical tests to determine whether to continue the loop or the branch to follow. A logical test is one that resolves to a TRUE or FALSE value. The “>=” operator declares that the value on the left is greater than (or equal to) the value on the right.

The “==” operator declares that the two set values are equal to one another.

The “<” operator declares that the value on the left is less than the value on the right.

The “<=” operator declares that the value on the left is less than (or equal to) the value on the right.

617
Q

During program execution, a value changes and returns a new value to be used. Which type of identifier is this?

A variable

A constant

A container

A vector

A

A variable contains a value that can change during the execution of the program. This value might be a text string, a number, or any other data type.

A constant is a specific identifier that contains a value that cannot be changed within the program. For example, you might want to reference the numerical value for screen dimensions or resolution.

A container is a special type of identifier that can reference multiple values (or elements).

A vector is a container that can grow or shrink in size as elements are added or removed.

618
Q

Which of the following BEST defines the OR condition?

If either condition is TRUE, then the whole statement is TRUE.

If both conditions are TRUE, then the whole statement is TRUE.

If either, but not both, condition is TRUE, then the whole statement is TRUE.

If one of the conditions is TRUE based on its inverse value, then the whole statement is TRUE.

A

Logical operators can combine simple relational statements into more complex expressions. With the OR (||) logical operator, the whole statement is TRUE when either condition is TRUE. Both conditions can be TRUE as well with the OR operator. For example, TRUE || FALSE == TRUE, and also TRUE || TRUE == TRUE.

With the AND (&&) logical operator, the whole statement is TRUE only when each of the conditions are TRUE. So, only TRUE && TRUE == TRUE, all other combinations are FALSE.

With the XOR (Exclusive OR) logical operator, the whole statement is TRUE when either condition is TRUE, but not both. So, TRUE XOR FALSE == TRUE, but TRUE XOR TRUE == FALSE.

The NOT (!) operator is used to evaluate the inverse value of a condition: !(FALSE) == TRUE.

619
Q

In which situation would you use a vector?

To include a container that can grow or shrink in size as elements are added or removed

To allow room for more elements than is currently being used

To statically set the size of a container to add several elements

To limit the container to only one element

A

A vector should be used when a container is needed that can grow or shrink in size as elements are added or removed. A vector is best defined as an identifier for a group of variables of the same type. The number of possible elements in a vector can vary during program execution.

Allowing room for more elements than needed is possible with an array; a vector will grow and shrink dynamically.

To statically set the number of container elements, an array should be used.

To limit a container to only one element, an array should be used.

620
Q

What key role do functions play in both consistency and functionality?

They enable you to create segments of code that you will reuse.

They create segments that are designed for single use, increasing security.

They create code that must be changed manually after each use.

They create code snippets that can be used as a template when creating new snippets.

A

Functions enable you to create segments of code that you will reuse. When using a function, you call the function and its value. Once that value is determined, it is then returned back to the main program for further processing.

Functions are designed for multiple use, not single use. They are returned back to the program for processing.

Functions are not required to be changed manually after each use. They are changed as the program is executed and return each value back to the program.

Functions may be used as a template; however, this does not improve functionality.

621
Q

Which of the following accurately describes arrays?

They can be either single-dimensional or multi-dimensional.

They are only single-dimensional.

They are only multi-dimensional.

They are neither single-dimensional nor multi-dimensional.

A

Arrays can be either single-dimensional or multi-dimensional. An array is an identifier for a group of variables of the same type. The number of possible elements in an array is fixed when the array is declared.

Arrays may be either single-dimensional or multi-dimensional. The number of possible elements in an array is fixed when the array is declared.

Arrays may be either multi-dimensional or single-dimensional. The number of possible elements in an array is fixed when the array is declared.

Arrays have the ability to be either single-dimensional or multi-dimensional. The number of possible elements in an array is fixed when the array is declared.

622
Q

Which of the following best defines a container?

It is a special type of identifier that can reference multiple values or elements.

It is code that tells the compiler to execute a different sequence of instructions.

It is an identifier that can be changed during program execution.

It is an identifier that cannot be changed during program execution.

A

A container is a special type of identifier that can reference multiple values (or elements). An array is a type of container because it holds, or references, multiple values.

Code that tells the compiler to execute a different sequence of instructions is called a branch.

An identifier that can be changed during program execution is called a variable. This value might be a text string, a number, or any other data type.

An identifier that contains a value that cannot be changed during program execution is called a constant. For example, you might want to reference the numerical value for screen dimensions or resolution.

623
Q

While writing a program, you notice that you use a value multiple times throughout your program but it doesn’t change. You decide to create an identifier and assign the unchanging value to that identifier. What did you just create?

A constant

An array

A variable

An operator

A

When writing code, a constant is a specific identifier that contains a value that cannot be changed within the program. Since your code makes multiple references to this unchanging value, you decide to create a constant and use it as an identifier when needed.

An array is a type of container construct that holds references to multiple values. An array’s values will likely change during program execution.

A variable contains a value that changes during the execution of a program.

An operator is a method that makes a mathematical comparison or a logical test. For example, the “<” and “!=” operators can be used to compare the values of variables.

624
Q

Given the equation “-39810 __ -39810” during a logical test, which of the following operators would result in a TRUE condition?

”==”

”!=”

”<”

”>”

A

Looping and branching structures depend on logical tests to determine whether to continue the loop or the branch to follow. A logical test is one that resolves to a TRUE or FALSE value. The “==” operator declares that the two set values are equal to one another.

The “!=” operator declares that the two values are not equal to one another.

The “<” operator declares that the value on the left is less than the value on the right.

The “>” operator declares that the value on the left is greater than the value on the right.

625
Q

Given the equation “4 __ 5” during a logical test, which of the following operators would result in a TRUE condition?

”!=”

”==”

”>=”

”>”

A

Looping and branching structures depend on logical tests to determine whether to continue the loop or the branch to follow. A logical test is one that resolves to a TRUE or FALSE value. The “!=” operator declares that the two values are not equal to one another.

The “==” operator declares that the two set values are equal to one another.

The “>=” operator declares that the value on the left is greater than (or equal to) the value on the right.

The “>” operator declares that the value on the left is greater than the value on the right.

626
Q

Constants are best used in which situation?

When referencing a value that cannot be changed within a program

When referencing a value that can be modified in a program

When determining the speed of program execution

When using data validation to assure that values match

A

A constant is a specific identifier that contains a value that cannot be changed within the program. For example, you might want to reference the numerical value for screen dimensions or resolution. These numbers stay the same and do not change on the fly like a variable would.

Values that can be modified in a program are known as variables, not constants.

The speed of execution is often constrained by hardware or other software and is not referenced as a constant.

Data validation may play an important role in needing constants; however, they are not used to check whether values match.

627
Q

Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of attributes?

They are values and data types that define the object.

They represent an alternative way of accessing a field publicly.

They define what you can do to an object.

They enable you to create segments of code that you will reuse.

A

Attributes are values and data types that define the object. The attributes are stored within the object as fields or private variables.

Properties represent an alternative way of accessing a field publicly. Using a method might be regarded as quite a “heavyweight” means of doing this, so properties allow external code to ask the object to show or change the value of one of its fields.

Methods are procedures associated with a message and an object. They define what you can do to an object.

Functions enable you to create segments of code that you will reuse.

628
Q

Which is NOT a characteristic of a variable?

A variable is a fixed value that does not change.

A variable can change during the execution of a program.

The value of a variable may be a text string, number, or other data type.

Declared variables are more common than undeclared variables.

A

A variable is not a fixed value, but instead one that can change during the execution of the program. Every time you assign it a new value, the variable retains that value until it is modified again.

A variable can change during the execution of a program.

The value of a variable may be a text string, a number, or any other data type.

Variables are usually declared, defined as a particular data type, and given an initial value at the start of the routine in which they are used. It is possible to use undeclared variables, but this can make code harder to read and more prone to errors, so declared variables are more common.

629
Q

Given the equation “3821 __ 6598” during a logical test, which of the following operators would result in a TRUE condition?

”<”

”==”

”>=”

”>”

A

Looping and branching structures depend on logical tests to determine whether to continue the loop or which branch to follow. A logical test is one that resolves to a TRUE or FALSE value. The “<” operator declares that the value on the left is less than the value on the right.

The “==” operator declares that the two set values are equal to one another.

The “>=” operator declares that the value on the left is greater than (or equal to) the value on the right.

The “>”operator declares that the value on the left is greater than the value on the right.

630
Q

Microsoft SQL Server is an example of what?

RDBMS

Relational database

Database server

Query/report builder

A

Software is required to create and maintain a database schema and the data inside the actual database. SQL Server, Oracle, MS Access, and MySQL are all examples of Relational Database Management Systems (RDBMS).

A relational database is created and managed by an RDBMS.

A database server is the computer on which an RDBMS is installed and running, as it is used to create and manage databases.

A query/report builder may be a feature of an RDBMS—or it may be an additional application software package that can connect to a database managed by the RDBMS.

631
Q

In a relational database, data is organized into tables that are made up of rows and columns. The term “record” is a synonym for which of these terms?

Row
Column
Table
Field

A

The rows in a relational database are also called records. The term “record” has a logical meaning: each patient has a record. It is also a term that was originally used for a row in a flat file, and the term continued to be used after the advent of database technology.

A column can also be called a field.

A table contains rows of data, which are also called records. For example, in a table containing data about a classroom, there would be one row/record in the table for each student.

A field is an individual piece of data in a record. For example, a patient’s last name would be a field in the patient record in a hospital database.

632
Q

Which is the correct sequence in the process of database creation?
CREATE DATABASE
CREATE TABLE
INSERT INTO

CREATE TABLE
CREATE DATABASE
INSERT INTO

INSERT INTO
CREATE DATABASE
CREATE TABLE

CREATE DATABASE
INSERT INTO
CREATE TABLE

A

In the database creation process, the database must be created first. It’s the all-around container for all of the tables and data.

Without being housed in a database, a relational table is really a flat file structure. It can’t connect with other tables, and the constraints and features provided by a database structure can’t be applied.

The DML commands are not useful until DDL commands have been used to build an adequate structure.

Inserting rows into a table that doesn’t yet exist is much like pouring water onto the ground before you build a pool.

633
Q

In which order are the rows typically stored in a relational table?

The order in which they were entered into the database

Ascending alphabetical order

Ascending numeric order

Random order

A

Each time a row is inserted into the database, it is added to the end of the appropriate table. Consequently, rows are stored in the order in which they were loaded into the table.

Rows can be displayed in ascending alphabetical order by using a query with an ORDER BY clause to sort the results.

Rows can be displayed in numeric order if a query is used to sort the output by the values in a numeric field.

Rows may appear to be in random order when you glance at the table contents, but they’re really in the order in which they were added.

634
Q

What is the relationship between queries and reports?

A query selects and retrieves the correct data, whereas a report formats and summarizes the output.

A query produces output on the screen and a report produces output on the printer.

A report filters the data values to provide only the needed data and a query retrieves it.

“Report” and “query” are really two terms for the same thing.

A

A query’s job is to retrieve only the rows and columns needed, which it does using the SELECT and WHERE clauses. A report’s job is to summarize and format the output for improved readability.

Reports can be displayed on the screen or on a printer.

Filtering, which is another term for data selection, is done in a query using the WHERE clause.

A query is a data retrieval tool that determines what the user sees, whereas a report is a tool to provide formatting and summarization to control how the data is viewed.

635
Q

Which is the BEST example of importing data to populate a database?

Data records that are already stored in a digital format can be loaded directly into a database.

Data can be read from a form and, using a keyboard as an input device, keyed into a similar form on a computer.

Data can be loaded via voice recognition using a microphone as the input device.

Data can be scanned from a paper document using character recognition software and hardware.

A

The database expects to receive data in a digital format. Importing data is the process of copying existing digital data that is already stored on another device and pasting it into the database.

Keying data in via a keyboard is a basic input operation, because the data doesn’t exist in digital format until it’s keyed in.

Voice data, which is sound, must be digitized before it can be input into a database.

Data on a paper document must be scanned, which converts it into a digital format, before it can be input into a database.

636
Q

Why is the level of data integrity greater in a database than in a flat file?

A database can enforce data types for each column in a table, and can validate data as it is entered into those columns.

Users are more careful when they enter data into a database.

A database is backed up so that data cannot be lost, while a flat file is never backed up.

The items/fields of data in a flat file are added randomly to each row/record, so there isn’t a way to know where a specific piece of data is in a given row.

A

A database does enforce data types for each field/column in a table; therefore, it can validate that the correct type of data is being entered and stored in each field.

When users enter data they don’t typically know whether the data is being stored in a database or a flat file.

Databases and flat files are both backed up on a regular basis so that there is always a copy of the data that can be restored.

The records in a flat file all have the fields in the same order so that it is possible to locate a specific piece of data. The flat file, however, has no data validation capabilities of its own, as a database would.

637
Q

Which of the following statements best describes data persistence?

Data in memory is lost once the processing is completed. Data in a database is stored persistently and securely so that it can be used again in the future.

Persistent data in a database consists of that group of rows in a table that is viewed and updated most frequently.

Data in a database is protected by a password and persistently checked against intrusion.

Data persistence refers to the length of time an item of data is stored after it is no longer of value to the user.

A

Persistent data is data that is stored permanently in a database. A copy of the data may be loaded into memory at processing time and lost when processing is complete, but the original data is safely stored in the database.

All data stored in the database is persistent, whether or not it is accessed frequently.

Although persistent data is often password protected, that isn’t what makes it persistent.

The time at which an item of data is archived doesn’t affect its persistence—it’s saved permanently even after archival.

638
Q

When processing large numbers of transactions, how does processing speed compare between databases and flat file systems?

Database processing speeds are much faster than flat file speeds.

Flat files’ processing speeds are much faster than database processing speeds.

The speed of processing transactions is the same whether the data is stored in a flat file or a database.

Flat file processing speeds are faster than database processing speeds if the computer’s processor is slower than average.

A

A database is organized by relating data together, so its processing speed is much faster than it can be with a flat file.

Flat file processing speeds are slower than database processing because each entire row must be read into memory whether or not all of the fields in the row are needed.

The data stored in a database always processes more quickly because only the parts of the data that are needed are loaded into memory.

A computer with a smaller, slower processor will process data from the database and the flat file more slowly, but the database will still be processed more quickly than the flat file.

639
Q

What are the steps in the process of creating a database?

Determine how the database will be used by clients, where it will be hosted, and what information it will store.

Determine where to purchase the database, which features to include, and how much it will cost.

Measure the size of the database, purchase an appropriate-sized storage device, and load the data.

Locate an existing database and generate a copy to avoid repeating work that’s already been completed.

A

Creating a database begins with deciding who will use it, what kind of information they need, and where that information will be stored.

You can’t always buy a database that suits your needs. Creating a new database, rather than buying an existing one, allows for customization.

You can’t really measure the size of a database before it exists, and it may be better to have it hosted elsewhere rather than purchasing hardware.

Since clients have specific needs, a copy of someone else’s database wouldn’t satisfy those needs.

640
Q

Which language is typically used by Relational Database Management Systems (RDBMS) to maintain data?

Structured Query Language (SQL)

Visual Basic (VB)

English

Command Line

A

Structured Query Language (SQL) is the standard relational language, consisting of DDL commands to manage the database structure and DML commands to manage the database contents.

Visual Basic (VB) is an application development language that can be used for database access, but only if SQL commands are embedded in the VB code.

Translators allow SQL code to be written in many languages.

Rather than a language, command line is actually a location (with syntax requirements) where SQL commands can be written and issued directly to the DBMS.

641
Q

Which language is typically used by Relational Database Management Systems (RDBMS) to maintain data?

Structured Query Language (SQL)

Visual Basic (VB)

English

Command Line

A

Structured Query Language (SQL) is the standard relational language, consisting of DDL commands to manage the database structure and DML commands to manage the database contents.

Visual Basic (VB) is an application development language that can be used for database access, but only if SQL commands are embedded in the VB code.

Translators allow SQL code to be written in many languages.

Rather than a language, command line is actually a location (with syntax requirements) where SQL commands can be written and issued directly to the DBMS.

642
Q

What is a database?

A database is a collection of related data organized in a structured manner for easier access.

A database is a software program that is used to show better ways to access data.

A database is any individual basic piece of data that an organization considers valuable.

A database is a collection of bits of random information stored together on a computer.

A

A database makes it much easier for clients to manage and access their data since all of the data is related and stored in an organized manner.

There are database management software packages that are used to create databases. However, the database itself is a collection of data, and is not considered software.

A database is not just one piece of valuable data, but a collection of many pieces of valuable data.

The collection of data in a database is all related to a central theme or purpose—like tracking customer information.

643
Q

What term is defined as the ability of a database to increase in size as more information is added to it without increasing costs at the same rate?

Scalability

Persistence

Import

Relational

A

Databases are scalable because they can expand in size without increasing in cost at the same rate. For example, if the database triples in size, the cost of managing it does not triple.

Data stored in memory during processing is temporary. Persistent data is kept permanently—in a database or flat file—even after the applications that use it are finished.

To import data means to populate a database with data that is already stored somewhere in digital format.

A relational database stores data in tables that are connected by common values in columns.

644
Q

Which statement is NOT true regarding the relationship between a table and its components?

A table always has the same number of columns as it has rows.

A table typically has multiple columns.

A table contains data about one entity type, and the columns describe the attributes of that entity.

A table typically has one or more columns that uniquely identify each row in the table.

A

A relational table has one row for each entity. For example, if there are five pets in a “Pets” table, it will have five rows. It will have as many columns as it needs to describe each pet. Although it is possible to have an equal number of rows and columns, it will not ALWAYS be equal.

Tables almost always have multiple columns.

The columns of a table do describe the attributes of that entity. For example, a “Patients” table contains data that describes patients in a clinic. Each patient has a row, and in each row are all of the attributes of one patient (patientID, last name, first name, address, etc.) The columns describe each attribute.

A good relational table always has a primary key made up of one or more columns that can uniquely identify every row in the table.

645
Q

How do Relational Database Management Systems (RDBMS) handle multiple users accessing the same database concurrently?

Multiple users can view the same record at the same time. If more than one user attempts to update the same record at the same time, the RDBMS locks that record so that only one user at a time can update.

RDBMS allow multiple users to view a table simultaneously, but only allow one user at a time to view and update a row in a table.

If two users update a row in a table at exactly the same time, the RDBMS will prompt both users to decide which update should be posted to the database.

Updates are allowed on a first-come-first-serve basis since there wouldn’t ever be two updates on the same row of the same table at exactly the same millisecond.

A

Often, many users will be viewing the same record—a product in an online catalog, for example—at exactly the same time. But, as soon as a user begins the order process, that record is locked from access by other users.

If only one user at a time could view a database record, the concept of online shopping would not be possible. At the very least, it would be incredibly slow.

The RDBMS will actually provide a message to let the second user know that the record is locked because someone else is in the middle of an update.

People time is much slower than computer time. A person may begin an update and take several minutes to complete it. It would be very messy if other users were able to sneak in and update that record before the initial user finished the transaction.

646
Q

Why would a flat file system not be the optimum choice for data storage for an online shopping cart application?

A flat file system doesn’t support multiple concurrent users.

A flat file system is a more complicated file structure than a database.

Flat file systems are not used for permanent and long-term data storage.

Flat file systems are no longer supported by most programming languages.

A

A successful online shopping application would be highly likely to have hundreds or thousands of users hitting the database at any given time. A flat file system is not able to support multiple concurrent users. Rather, it only provides access to one user at a time.

The structure of a flat file system is simpler than a database structure, since it has only rows and columns—much like a basic spreadsheet.

Both databases and flat files can be used for permanent and long-term data storage.

Flat file systems are still supported by most programming languages and continue to have many relevant uses, such as storing simple collections of data and exporting and importing data between systems.

647
Q

Why is a query an important tool in database processing?

A query allows a user to extract only the data needed from a database by selecting specific rows and columns from a table.

A query provides a user with a method of formatting and summarizing data, making it much more pleasant to read.

Once a query extracts data from a database, the database table is clean and empty.

A query can be used to extract the data before it has been loaded into the database tables.

A

A user can write a query to retrieve or extract exactly the data they need. They can use selection criteria to match values in one or more fields to retrieve only specific rows and columns.

Reports—not queries—are typically used to format and summarize data after the query has extracted it.

A retrieval query lets users view data, but the data remains saved and unchanged in the database.

A query can only extract the data that is already in the database. An empty database would have no data to return in answer to a query.

648
Q

Which would be the LEAST desirable architecture option for a database that requires a high degree of scalability?

One-tier

Two-tier

Three-tier

N-tier

A

A highly scalable database would need the ability to grow quickly in size without growing at the same rate in cost. Keeping the database and the application on the same computer, as done in one-tier architecture, would reach limits in terms of storage and processing power. That would mean replacing hardware and software often as the database grows.

Two-tier architecture allows the database to be stored on its own server.

Three-tier architecture makes it easier to grow the database or the application—or both.

N-tier architecture is the most flexible in terms of selecting where parts of the application are stored.

649
Q

Why might a table called “Products” in a relational database have twelve rows?
There are twelve products.

Twelve pieces of data are stored for each product.

A relational table must have a minimum of twelve rows.

Rows in a table are added in multiples of twelve.

A

A relational table called “Products” is most likely designed to track the different products a company sells or manufactures. There would be one unique row in the table for each product—twelve products, twelve rows.

Each individual piece of data (product number, product description, price, etc.) for each product is stored in a column/field on that product’s row. The number of rows corresponds to the number of products.

A table can actually have zero rows of data, especially after its initial creation.

Rows are added one by one, whether the data is added with an SQL command at the command prompt or a program is used to add many rows.

650
Q

Why do a report and a query work well together?

A query can be used to extract only the data based on specified criteria, while a report can format and summarize the data making it easier to read and interpret.

A report can heighten the data selection capabilities of a query by formatting the data before the query is run.

A report can retrieve a different type of data than a query can, so using them together can increase the scope of data provided to the user.

A report can only be used to display a small amount of data; therefore, a query is necessary to keep the volume of data within the allowed limit.

A

A query extracts the data based on the criteria specified in the request, but the resulting data set is not in a user-friendly format. Adding the formatting and summarizing capabilities that reporting provides makes that data more readable for users.

A report cannot format the data before the query is run, because the data returned by the query is what gets formatted. The report must run after the query completes, and use the results of the query as the input into the report, with the formatted report being the output.

A report does not retrieve a different type of data than a query does. The report uses the results of the query as the raw data, which it converts into a more readable format.

The volume of data that a query returns and inputs into the report depends on the criteria that is in the query statement. It is not a constraint or a limit specification of the report, as reports often include massive amounts of data.

651
Q

A manager needs to view last month’s sales figures. Which of the following functionalities can be done with a query statement?

Specifying criteria to match values in one or more fields

Formatting the output to look better for a management meeting

Summarizing the data to provide statistics and totals

Eliminating rows from the table that aren’t included in last month’s figures

A

A sales manager’s query would use the WHERE clause to specify criteria, such as matching a date field to retrieve and display only those records containing last month’s sales figures.

Formatting the output to make it more attractive is not accomplished with a query; rather, it’s a feature of reporting.

Summarizing and displaying statistics is a function of reporting.

Rows may be hidden from output, but they are never eliminated from a table by a retrieval query. The DELETE command would be required to physically eliminate a row from the table.

652
Q

Why might a language like Extensible Markup Language (XML) be commonly used in a document database?

XML makes it easier to parse and sort through the data in a variety of types of documents.

A document database includes all documents of the same type.

Using XML manipulates all of the documents so they appear similar in format.

XML is the same markup language used to develop web pages.

A

Since Extensible Markup Language (XML) provides an easy way to identify individual pieces of data in different types of documents, it’s a good choice for a document database where all the documents may be in different formats—spreadsheets, text files, Word files, etc.

One of the great strengths of a document database is that it can store a variety of document types all in one place.

XML allows each document to be different and still have identifiable data inside.

XML and HTML are both markup languages, but have different purposes. HTML is for web page development. XML is for data storage.

653
Q

In a database where each employee is assigned to one project, and each project can have multiple employees, which database design option would apply?
The Project table has a primary key of ProjectID. The Employee table has a primary key of EmployeeID and a foreign key of ProjectID.

The Project table has a primary key of ProjectID and a foreign key of EmployeeID. The Employee table has a primary key of EmployeeID.

The Project table has a primary key of ProjectID and a foreign key of EmployeeID. The Employee table has a primary key of ProjectID.

The Project table has a primary key of ProjectID. The Employee table has a primary key of EmployeeID and a foreign key of EmployeeID.

A

Each of these tables needs a primary key, to uniquely identify each row with the corresponding ID field: ProjectID for the Project table and EmployeeID for the Employee table. Since each employee is assigned to only one project, the Employee table needs the ProjectID field as well, to identify which project each employee is assigned to. This field becomes the foreign key that relates with the Project table, and each ProjectID can appear in several records of the Employee table.

If the Project table has a foreign key of EmployeeID, then there could be only one employee assigned to each project, which is not the case.

There is no reason for the Employee table to have a primary key of ProjectID. Employees need to be uniquely identified by their own ID field, EmployeeID.

A self-referencing design of the Employee table, to have a second EmployeeID field as a foreign key, can work to contain data such as the employee’s supervisor. That is not relevant to the goal of establishing an employee-project relationship.

654
Q

You are designing a “Customer” table in a relational database. Which of the following fields would be the best candidate for a primary key?
CustomerNumber

CustomerBirthdate

CustomerLastName

CustomerPhone

A

The primary key must be able to uniquely identify each customer from all other customers. In past decades, social security numbers were used for that purpose. Now, a good database designer would create a CustomerNumber field to use as the primary key and generate unique numbers for each customer.

Two customers could potentially have the same birthdate, which would make them not unique.

Last names can certainly be shared by multiple customers—John and Jane Doe, for example.

Phone numbers can also be shared by customers, especially when a landline is shared by customers who live in the same home.

655
Q

How is a relational table structured?

A table is made up of rows and columns, where all of the rows include the same columns.

A table is made up of fields, where all fields are placed into random rows.

A table is made up of rows, where each row has its own unique collection of columns.

A table is made up of columns, where each column has its own unique collection of rows.

A

A table contains rows and columns of data, much like a spreadsheet. The columns are the same for all rows. For example, if a “Customer” table includes columns like customerID, lastName, and firstName, then each row in this table includes these columns.

A relational table is very structured with specific fields/columns; consequently, fields are never randomly placed.

All rows in a relational table include the same columns. There are no rows with a unique collection of columns.

All columns in a relational table apply to the same rows. There are no columns with a unique collection of rows.

656
Q

What type of flat file contains plain text with delimiters to set apart the columns?

Comma Separated Values (CSV)

A relational table

A spreadsheet

A bitmap file (BMP)

A

Comma Separated Values files are commonly used flat files, identifiable by the file extension .csv. They can easily be used to load database tables when they are designed so that the columns in the file match up with those in a database table.

A relational table is a component of a relational database, and is not a flat file structure.

A spreadsheet is a file that is output from an application program, like Excel, with an identifiable file extension.

A BMP file format is a type of graphic file where an image is stored as a matrix of dots.

657
Q

A database administrator is considering adding a primary key to enforce unique rows, defining a format for a phone number, and adding a rule so that a user must enter a date prior to today.

What is the administrator adding to the database?

Constraints
Foreign keys
Schemas
Permissions

A

There are many kinds of constraints that can be used to make sure the data entered into the database is as accurate as possible. A constraint is like a rule or a law that the DBMS enforces for you.

A foreign key is a type of constraint used to create a relationship between two tables.

A schema is used to view the structure of your database. It does typically display two types of constraints—primary and foreign keys.

Permissions can be set to help protect the security of your data.

658
Q

Which of the following statements is true about a column in a table of a relational database?

A column with naturally occurring unique values is a good choice to be the primary key.

The column order is an essential part of table design.

Each row can contain several values for each column.

A given column can have multiple data types for its values.

A

The column, or combination of columns, that becomes the primary key for the table, must be unique. If no such column exists naturally (i.e., social security number or employee id) then an automatically generated sequentially numbered column can be added to the table.

Columns can be in any order in a table. Some columns may be grouped together to make up a logical sequence (i.e., Last Name, Middle Initial, and First Name, or Address, City, State, and Zip Code), but even a random order of columns will work the same way.

Each row contains one and only one value for each column, similar to a simple spreadsheet with one cell per row-column combination.

Each value for a given column has the same data type. The specifications of the table assign a data type to each column (i.e., string, number, date, etc.)

659
Q

A field in a relational table corresponds to which part of a spreadsheet?

A column
A row
A cell
A worksheet

A

A column is another name for a field in a relational table. It is a place in the table where a specific piece of data can be stored on each row. Consider a “Student” table, in which data describing each student is stored in one row in the table—250 students results in 250 rows in the table. Every one of the 250 students has a last name in the lastName column/field in that table.

A row in a spreadsheet corresponds to a record in a database table. Each student in the student table has one record/row.

A cell in a spreadsheet corresponds to the location of one data item in a specific field in one specific record in a table—the last name of one student in one row and one column of the table.

Since it contains both rows and columns, a worksheet corresponds most closely to the entire table.

660
Q

Why is it important to consider the number and size of columns included in a table schema?

The size of each row affects the amount of storage used, and how quickly it can be processed.

As the rows grow longer, it’s more difficult to see all of the columns on one screen.

Viewing all of the columns in a table can make it very difficult to code in SQL when there are too many columns.

Eliminating columns that are used only occasionally can simplify the design to make the database easier to work with.

A

Storage is important, but processing speed is often a critical factor in database applications. Rows must be kept as succinct as possible by carefully choosing field sizes, because each row is read into memory during processing.

A query can always be used to filter out any columns that a user doesn’t want/need to see.

Viewing all of the columns in SQL doesn’t require that they all be listed in the SELECT statement. This can be accomplished with the SELECT * command.

Even columns that are seldom used may be too important to eliminate from the table. Keep all of the columns needed, but make them as short as possible in terms of field size.

661
Q

How is a key/value pair database different from a relational database?

In a relational database, all attributes of a record are defined up front, and each record has all of the same attributes as the other records. In a key/value pair database, objects and their properties are stored, but each object doesn’t have to have all of the properties.

A relational database uses primary and foreign keys to establish relationships among tables. A key/value pair database uses a pair of primary keys, but no foreign keys to join tables.

A relational database can contain data about many subjects/themes, with each theme (customer, invoice, product, etc.) having its own table. In a key/value pair database, data for only two themes can be included.

Both types of databases have formal structures to link the different data objects and files. But searches and queries are not used with key/value pair databases.

A

The key/value pair database stores only necessary properties with each object. The relational database requires all of the fields (properties) to be defined for each table (object).

Instead of a primary key, the key/value pair database’s key includes an object and an attribute, and that key is stored with the attribute’s value.

Key/value pair databases can also store data about multiple themes.

Since there are no formal structure to link different data objects and files, a key/value pair database is non-relational, and it does allow searches and queries.

662
Q

In a relational database, what is the relationship between a primary key and a foreign key?

The primary key is in one table and it is matched to the foreign key in a secondary table.

The foreign key and primary key are in the same table. The foreign key is used as the backup key in case the primary key is compromised.

Both foreign and primary keys are used to uniquely identify each row in a table.

The primary key is used to uniquely identify each row in a table, whereas the foreign key is used only for searching and sorting.

A

The primary key uniquely identifies each row. The foreign key, in a secondary table, is not necessarily unique, but it does match up with the primary key in the first table to create a relationship between the two tables. That way, related data can be extracted from both tables.

The primary and foreign keys are always in separate tables, since they’re used to relate two tables.

Foreign keys are not necessarily unique.

Indexes are the database components that are used primarily for searching and sorting.

663
Q

Your manager has asked you to display the customer database schema. What useful information will your schema provide?

The structure of the database

The main purpose of the database

The plan for the development of the database

The list of all of the users who will use the database, with examples of which data each user will use

A

The schema shows the structure of the database. It shows the fields in each table, and outlines the relationships among the tables by showing how the tables’ primary and foreign keys match up.

The basic description of the main purpose of the database would be found in the database design documentation.

A project plan would be used to outline the planned (and actual) steps and timeline in the design and development of a database.

A UML (Unified Modeling Language) use case diagram is typically used to document which users use the database and which types of data each user requires.

664
Q

What is the purpose of a schema?

It describes the structure of a database.

It contains data values used for queries.

It is used only by the programmer for documentation.

It displays business rules that dictate how a database will be used.

A

A schema contains the names of all of the tables. It shows all of the columns along with their data types and lengths. It shows primary and foreign keys to demonstrate that the tables are related via common columns.

The data values are stored in the actual data tables.

Schemas, which define the structure of the database, are used by programmers, database analysts, users, and even the RDBMS itself.

Business rules are often used to design a database structure, but they are not displayed in the schema.

665
Q

In a relational database table, what is the significance of creating a field with a varchar data type?

It allows a variable number of characters to be stored for a particular column in each row.

It is the only way a field can contain a variety of numbers and letters together.

It provides the option for each row to either include or exclude a column.

It specifies in the schema exactly how many bytes of storage will be used for that column in each and every row of the table.

A

The varchar data type provides for a variable-sized field type. If a book title is twenty-seven characters long, twenty-seven bytes are stored. If a title is only three characters long, only three bytes are stored, resulting in a significant savings in storage space.

Text and memo fields allow both letters and numbers, although they store a specific number of bytes per row, even if spaces are at the end of the data value.

Every row in a relational table has the same number of columns, and if a specific column in one row has a varchar data type, then that column will be a varchar column in all of the other rows as well.

Varchar specifies a maximum number of bytes per column as a limit, but stores only the number of bytes used.

666
Q

An attorney uses a standard form to capture information about new clients. Which type of database would best suit those needs?

A relational database

A document database

A flat file

A key/value pair database

A

When a form contains a common set of information that will be collected from each user, a relational database is the best choice. Data can be organized so that each client has a row in a table. That table could be related to other tables that may include data about the client’s case.

A document database is best used when there are a variety of documents to be stored.

A flat file is useful, but you wouldn’t be able to relate it to other data that may be stored about each client’s case.

Since the form is the same for every client, they’ll all have the same fields. A key/value pair database is best used when many unique attributes need to be matched to a key.

667
Q

How many students would be represented in a “Student” table containing 150 rows, 17 columns, 1 primary key, and 1 foreign key?

150
17
1
2,550

A

In a “Student” table, each student would have one row in the table that contains all of his or her data.

The 17 columns would be used to store 17 individual pieces of data about each student.

The one primary key would be used to uniquely identify each student. In most organizations, a studentID is generated for each student to serve that purpose.

The one foreign key would be used to make a relationship to another table—in this case, perhaps a “Program” table.

There would be 2,550 individual pieces of information if each of the 150 students has 17 items of data stored in the table.

668
Q

Structured databases work well, but why is it sometimes a better choice to store data in unstructured and semi-structured databases?

There are certain types of data (PowerPoint presentations, text files, Word documents, etc.) that are more easily stored without the rigid formatting a structured database requires.

It’s much less work for a programmer to store the data in an unstructured or semi-structured format, which makes those formats ideal for projects with short timelines.

Storing data in an unstructured or semi-structured format eliminates the need for expensive database management software.

Without the data validation, data types, and other constraints required by a structured database, semi-structured and unstructured databases use less storage space.

A

It is more difficult to store documents and files in fields in a database table. Unstructured and semi-structured databases are made specifically to handle that kind of data.

Using any kind of database requires a learning curve and work on the part of the programmer.

Since some kind of organization system that supports searching and extracting would be required, unstructured and semi-structured databases require sophisticated database management software as well.

It’s highly likely that the storage space used to store the types of data suited to unstructured and semi-structured database would be greater than the storage space required by a structured database.

669
Q

Which software package is a Relational Database Management System (RDBMS)?

Microsoft SQL Server

Microsoft Windows

Microsoft Excel

Microsoft Word

A

Microsoft SQL Server is a database management system that can be used to create and manage small- to enterprise-sized databases. It’s the software that will create the tables, fields, primary keys, and other components that make up a relational database structure.

Microsoft Windows is an operating system that must be installed in order to use SQL Server, but it doesn’t manage the database itself.

Microsoft Excel is a spreadsheet management tool. Although it has some data management features, a spreadsheet is more like a flat file, so Excel is not a fully functional RDBMS.

Microsoft Word is document creation software. It creates the types of documents one might find in a document database.

670
Q

What is a true statement about Data Definition Language (DDL)?
It comprises SQL commands that can add to or modify the structure of a database.

It is the group of SQL commands that can add and update data in the tables in a database.

It does not exist outside of SQL, and is only used to manipulate a relational database.

DDL commands can only include other DDL commands.

A

Data Definition Language (DDL) includes commands that can manipulate the structure of a database, rather than the data inside the database. Examples include ALTER, CREATE, and DROP. Adding and deleting tables, changing column names and sizes, as well as adding indexing and permissions, are all functions of DDL.

Data Manipulation Language (DML) commands refer to SQL (Structured Query Language) commands such as INSERT and UPDATE, that can add and update data in the tables.

The term DDL is used to refer to a subset of SQL for declaring tables, columns, data types and constraints, but it is also used in a generic sense to refer to any formal language for describing data or information structures.

Some DDL commands incorporate DML commands as part of their statements, such as CREATE TABLE2 AS SELECT * FROM TABLE1. The SELECT clause is a DML command.

671
Q

Who would typically use a query/report builder to access database data?
Power users and programmers

Programmers only

Programmers and database architects

Systems analysts

A

Query and report builders are typically used by those who need to interact closely with a database, but might not want to learn SQL commands. However, programmers also find them useful for quickly extracting data in some situations.

Query builders are designed with end users in mind. They’re especially useful for people who understand and need to use the data for decision-making, but don’t necessarily have SQL knowledge.

A database architect is responsible for the design of the structure of the database, and is unlikely to use the data loaded into it.

A systems analyst is more interested in the design of the overall computer system, and is unlikely to use queries and reports after the system is complete.

672
Q

Which of the following is the best example of a direct/manual database access method?

Log into phpMyAdmin and run SQL statements at the command prompt.

Use a report builder to select rows and columns and format the output.

Write a Visual Basic program that contains code to update database data.

Delete a row in a database by accessing a form provided in an application.

A

Using an administrative tool to connect and sign directly into the RDBMS provides the greatest level of control over the database. It allows the SQL commands to interact directly with the database, without the use of any other form or application.

Report and query builders access the database indirectly through a user interface so that some restrictions can be applied.

A programming language must be connected to the RDBMS to access the database.

Often, users interact with databases via forms in applications, as in the case of online shopping carts.

673
Q

What is the purpose of the SQL DROP command?

To delete a table or an entire database

To drop or delete a row in a table

To drop or delete a column in a table

To import a flat file directly into a table

A

The SQL DROP command, which is a DDL command, is very powerful in that it can delete an entire table—or an entire database, which includes all of the data as well.

The DELETE command is used to delete one or more rows of data from an existing table.

An individual column can be deleted only by using the ALTER command.

Importing a flat file into a table would require some programming. However, many of the more full-featured DBMS interfaces provide wizards and other options to assist with imports.

674
Q

Why is a client-server application considered a two-tier architecture?

The database runs on a database server, while the application is run on the client computer.

The clients view the database at a higher level because they are not information technology professionals.

The part of the database that the clients use is on a client PC, whereas the part used by programmers is on the server PC.

A database, which includes the schema and data, cannot be stored on the same computer as the application, which includes forms, reports, and queries.

A

The database processing in a client-server application takes place on a server, while the application resides on the user’s workstation. It’s a good example of two-tier architecture.

Permissions and the user interface provided to clients are typically what determines the level at which they view data.

Clients or users view the data on the database server using the application components on their workstation.

In Microsoft Access, the database schema and data are both stored on the same PC as all of the forms, reports, and queries that make up the database application. This is an example of one-tier architecture.

675
Q

Which is the best way to issue SQL commands to manipulate data in a relational database?

It depends on the user’s level of SQL experience, overall purpose, and access permissions.

SQL at the command line is the fastest and easiest way to manipulate database data.

Embedding SQL in a programming language allows the use of libraries of pre-written SQL code.

Using a GUI interface like phpMyAdmin provides a user-friendly interface, making coding faster and easier.

A

For emergency edits, an experienced user with command-line access permission would likely type the commands in at the command line. But that wouldn’t be possible for an end user who typically accesses the data via an application form, or a power user who doesn’t have command line permission.

With direct access to the database, command-line SQL offers the greatest control over the database. It is not necessarily the fastest and easiest way to manipulate database data.

Embedded SQL is the best way for application programmers to provide SQL commands that will access data when the program is being used by authorized users.

A GUI interface is often used by programmers and power users who have some SQL knowledge, but prefer the user-friendly interface. The GUI often provides more data validation than command-line SQL, which decreases the possibility of user error.

676
Q

What is the term used for the file that includes a copy of the database along with the schema?

Database dump

Database restore

Database access method

Database import

A

Database dump is the term used for a copy of the database or table schema along with the data records—all expressed as SQL CREATE and INSERT statements. The dump is used to create an exact duplicate of the database structure and load an exact copy of the data from the original database.

Restoring a database or table is accomplished by using a backup copy to replace an original that has become corrupt.

Database access methods determine how data is updated and added to existing databases.

To database import means to take data in an already digital format and load it into a database.

677
Q

What is the difference between the DELETE and DROP commands in SQL?

DELETE deletes rows from a table, whereas DROP eliminates the entire table.

DROP eliminates rows from a table, whereas DELETE eliminates the entire table.

DELETE deletes rows from a table, whereas DROP eliminates columns.

DELETE deletes data from rows in a table, whereas DROP deletes rows from the schema.

A

DELETE is a DML command that works on the data inside a database by deleting rows from a table. DROP is a DDL command that works on the data structure by deleting entire tables.

When you use DROP to delete a table, any data in the table is also deleted.

Eliminating a column from a table requires the ALTER command.

Neither DROP or DELETE is used to manipulate the schema. It’s automatically generated and regenerated by the RDBMS as tables are created, dropped, and altered.

678
Q

What is the purpose of the SQL INSERT command?

It adds a new row to a table in a database.

It adds a primary key to a table.

It inserts a new field into a table.

It inserts a new table into a database.

A

The INSERT command adds a new row to an existing table in the database. For example, a SQL statement that includes INSERT INTO CUSTOMER will add a new row of data to the “Customer” table.

A primary key is added to a table at the time the table is created, as an option in the CREATE TABLE command. It can also be added at a later time, using the ALTER TABLE command.

A new field is added to a table with the ALTER TABLE command.

A new table is added to the database with the CREATE TABLE command.

679
Q

Which statement is NOT true regarding the SQL INSERT statement?

It is a data definition language statement.

It is a data manipulation language statement.

It is a statement that adds table rows.

It can be entered at a command line.

A

Data definition statements are SQL statements, such as CREATE DATABASE and CREATE TABLE, that define the structure of a database. The INSERT command adds rows of data into a table, not new objects into a database.

Data manipulation statements refer to SQL commands that access or modify the contents of the database. They include operations to add new rows, delete existing rows of data, and update values in the fields inside the table.

INSERT is the data manipulation command to add rows of data into a table.

INSERT is an SQL statement that can be entered at a command line, inside a program, or using a utility or user interface.

680
Q

Which statement is NOT true regarding SQL permissions?

The owner of a table can assign only the permission to view (not update) data in the table to other users.

Users who are not owners of a table can assign permissions for that table to other users.

An owner of a table has complete control over it, including giving permissions to other users.

Permissions can be given at a variety of levels, including table and column.

A

The owner of a table, or the database administrator, can grant SQL permissions that allow users to view, update, and delete existing data, and to create new data, all using SQL commands.

An owner or administrator can grant another user permission to use the GRANT and DENY commands on a table, so that this user can assign permissions for that table to other users.

An owner of a table has full access to the table, and can grant and deny access to other users.

Permissions can be granted even at the data value level. For example, permission could be granted to view any rows in an “Employee” table where the salary is less than $500,000.

681
Q

You’ve been tasked with changing the primary key in the Customer table from the CustID field to the AcctNum field. Which Data Definition Language (DDL) command can do that?

Alter table
Update CustID
Create Table
INSERT PRimary Key

A

The ALTER TABLE command can be used to add, remove, and change table columns, primary keys, and foreign keys.

The UPDATE command is not a DDL command because it modifies data values inside a table, but doesn’t modify the structure of a table.

CREATE TABLE is a DDL command used to create a new table, and to establish a primary key at creation time. It cannot, however, be used to modify the primary key after it has been created.

The INSERT command only inserts data into an existing table and is not a DDL command.

682
Q

Adding a new relational database, table, or index is a function of which Data Definition Language (DDL) command?

CREATE
INSERT
UPDATE
ALTER

A

A new database, table, or index is added with the CREATE command: CREATE DATABASE adds a new database, CREATE TABLE adds new tables to the database, and CREATE INDEX adds an index to the tables, by specifying one or more columns which will be used for faster searching and sorting.

The INSERT command adds new data rows into an existing table. It is a Data Manipulation Language (DML) command, not a DDL command, because it changes the content of the database, not the structure.

The UPDATE command changes data values, and is also a DML, not DDL, command.

The ALTER command is used to modify an existing database structure, i.e., adding or removing columns in an existing table.

683
Q

The use of a Graphical User Interface (GUI) to allow users to search and add records is an example of which type of database access method?

User interface/utility

Programmatic

Query/report builder

Direct/manual

A

An ATM machine is an excellent example of a user interface that allows users to access a database. For example, withdrawing $100 from a savings account via an ATM updates the database to decrease your account balance by $100.

While a program can be used to create a GUI, its method of database access is not considered programmatic. A programmer created the GUI for an ATM, but users access the ATM through a user interface, not through the programming.

Queries and reports are typically used to view data. An ATM would require update capabilities so that amounts could be added and subtracted from accounts.

A GUI does not provide direct/manual access to a database. For example, a user could never log directly into the database to issue SQL commands at an ATM.

684
Q

Why might a database dump be a good option for backup/restore?

A database dump includes both the database data and the structure, so it could be restored whether the offending error was in the data or in the structure.

A database dump includes all of the data and the application programs that are used to access it.

A database dump is not compressed and restores much more quickly than a regular backup file.

A database dump is scheduled more frequently, so the data inside is more likely to be as current as possible.

A

A database can become corrupted in a variety of ways. A user can enter bad data that corrupts a table, a hacker can introduce a virus that changes permissions, or a program can have a bug that alters the wrong table. Either way, the error could be in the data or the structure, and both are covered by the database dump.

Application programs are usually backed up separately, unless, as in MS Access, they are included as objects in the RDBMS.

Whether or not a file is compressed, it must be decompressed in order to run the SQL commands.

All backups can be scheduled as often as needed. In fact, many databases are journaled, which means they’re backed up at every transaction.

685
Q

What is the SQL UPDATE command used for?

To change the value in one or more fields in a table

To change the field name in a table

To add security updates to a database

To add or delete a table from a schema

A

The UPDATE command specifies one or more field values to be updated. If a WHERE clause is added, those fields are updated only for the rows that satisfy the selection criteria. For example, the command could be used to change the grade for one specific student from a B to a C if the studentID was specified in a WHERE clause.

A field name can only be changed with the ALTER command. In some cases, the table needs to be dropped and recreated to change a field name.

SQL commands are not used to add security updates.

A table is dropped from the schema/database with the DROP command, and added with the CREATE TABLE command.

686
Q

Queries often retrieve data from multiple tables. If the same column name is used in two tables, how does SQL know which column to use?

In the SELECT statement, the column name is prefixed by the table name.

The programmer temporarily alters the schema so that the column names are unique.

An error message prevents the query from running, because only one of those columns could be included.

It really isn’t relevant because the columns must contain the same data in both tables if they have the same name.

A

Adding the table name as a prefix (Customer.lastName) tells SQL to extract the lastName from a “Customer” table, even if the same field name appears in another table.

To temporarily alter a schema could be dangerous. There may be other programs running that are using the schema at the same time. Those programs could fail if the schema is changed.

Columns from two different tables may have the same names, and may be included in one query as long as both table names are included in the SELECT statement, and the column names are prefixed with table names.

If common columns between two tables are primary and foreign keys, the values may be the same in both columns. But often values are very different. For example, a query may be displaying the last names of sales reps from a “Salesrep” table and last names of customers from a “Customer” table. Both fields may be called “lastName,” but they have very different values because they describe different entities.

687
Q

In the event of an application failure, which application architecture model would be the most disruptive to users?

Standalone
Two-tier
Three-tier
N-tier

A

Since the standalone, or one-tier architecture stores all of the database data and schema along with the application, the entire system would be unavailable to all users during an application failure.

In a two-tier system, there are often multiple database applications accessing the same database server. That database server would still be usable by anyone using applications other than the one that failed.

In a three-tier architecture model, the database would still be available to working applications. Also, it’s possible that portions of the failed application would still work as well.

The n-tier category includes two- and three-tier architectures. In both of these architecture types, only the application that failed, or portions of it, would be unavailable to users.

688
Q

You have been placed on a project to update the addresses of customers in a “Customer” table. Who can issue the SQL commands to give you permission to update the data in that table?

The owner of the “Customer” table

The manager of security at your company

Your supervisor

Human Resources

A

Permissions can be granted by the owner of a database or table—and by anyone to whom that owner has given GRANT permissions.

You may have to obtain written permission from the security manager to provide to the database owner, but even the security manager may not have permission to issue the SQL commands.

Your supervisor may have to sign off on your request for permissions, but they can’t issue the SQL commands unless they own the database or table.

Human Resources may have to approve certain security clearances, but would not issue the SQL commands.

689
Q

In a database application, what is the difference between a form and a report?

Both display data, but a form can be used to update the contents of the database as well.

A form displays online, while a report is printed on paper.

Forms are used to display data for viewing only, whereas a report can be used only for updating data.

Forms are typically only one page long, but reports can be multiple pages long.

A

Displaying data to users allows for better decision-making, and it is an important aspect of a database application. Both forms and reports display data, but a form can also allow users to add, delete, or make changes to the data in a database.

Both forms and reports can be displayed online or printed on paper. However, most forms are better utilized when they can be filled out online.

Reports are only used to display data and often include summaries and supporting information to make the reports more readable and understandable for users.

Both forms and reports can be multiple pages long, whether displayed online or on paper.

690
Q

You submitted the following SQL command for a “Customer” table: DELETE FROM CUSTOMER.
What happened next?

All of the records from the “Customer” table were deleted.

SQL will prompt you to specify which records you wish to delete.

All of the records in the “Customer” table, as well as the table structure, were deleted.

An error message was returned because the command was incomplete.

A

Without a WHERE clause to specify which rows should be deleted, all of the rows would be deleted. Adding a clause like “WHERE state = ‘MN’” would cause only the rows with Minnesota customers to be deleted.

Once the command is submitted, SQL will not automatically double-check to see if you have completed your command.

The DROP command would need to be used to delete the structure of the table so that there’s no longer a schema.

No error message was returned since the command was valid.

691
Q

In a situation where a PC-based database and an application are both hosted on the same computer, what is the application architecture called?

One-tier
Two-tier
N-tier
Relational

A

When the application, which includes reports, forms, queries, etc., is hosted on the same computer as the actual database, it’s called a standalone or one-tier database application architecture.

Storing the database and the application on two separate servers makes for a two-tier architecture.

Two- and three-tier architectures are often referred to as n-tier. In fact, “n-tier” can be used to describe an even more complex structure where parts of the application may reside on different servers.

Relational databases are those databases whose structures are made of tables related by common columns, regardless of the application architecture

692
Q

You’ve written an SQL query for an “Order” table: SELECT ProductName, Price from ProductMaster. Now your mentor asks you to add this line to your query: ORDER BY PRICE.
How will that affect your query results?
The list of product names and prices will now be sorted by price.

The price column will now display first in your answer, followed by the product name.

The prices will now display without the product name, and they will be sorted in numeric order.

The price from the “Order” table will also be displayed.

A

Adding the ORDER BY clause to a query causes the query output to be sorted in ascending order.

Columns always display in the order in which they’re keyed into the SELECT statement. In fact, you can sort by columns that are not even included in the SELECT statement, as long as they’re valid columns in the table you’re querying.

Adding the ORDER BY clause will never change the number of columns or rows displayed in the answer.

The FROM clause dictates from which table or tables the query will extract data.

693
Q

Using a programmatic database access method to interact with a relational database would require what type of commands?

SQL

RDBMS

UNIX

PHP

A

When accessing a database via a programming language, database interaction is handled with SQL commands. SQL is the relational database access language. As such, many programming languages even include libraries that provide default code for database connection and queries.

The RDBMS is the software that manages the database structure.

UNIX is an example of an operating system that an RDBMS may run on.

PHP is one of the many programming languages that can be used to connect to and access database data.

694
Q

Which type of constraint is added to a table for the purpose of establishing a relationship with another table?

Foreign Key
Primary Key
Index
Data validation

A

A relationship between two tables requires a common column between the two tables. A foreign key is added to a table for the purpose of being that common column that matches back to a primary key in another table.

The primary key is added to a table for the purpose of making sure that each row in the table can be uniquely identified.

An index on a table is created for the purpose of making sorting and searching easier and faster.

Data validation is a feature that helps users by reducing the possibility of errors during data entry.

695
Q

Why is the process of generating backups such an important feature of an RDBMS?

A database can contain mission-critical data, which an organization may not be able to afford to lose.

Backing up forms and reports online helps to eliminate paper-related expenses.

The backup is intended to allow users to go back to previous ways of doing things, in case the current way is uncomfortable.

A backup makes a copy of the database schema so that it’s easier to recreate all of the data.

A

Most companies rely on the accuracy and timeliness of their data to stay in business. Backing up data ensures that even if the database becomes corrupt or is destroyed, it can be restored and business can resume.

Forms and reports might be backed up as a part of the process, but it’s the data that is most critical.

Parallel system implementation allows users to return to the previous way of doing things if the new way doesn’t work out well.

A backup includes the data and the schema. Since the schema describes the data, one is of little value without the other.

696
Q

What does the query SELECT * FROM Customers WHERE state = ‘MN’ return as an answer?
All fields in the “Customers” table, for those rows where the value of the state column is ‘MN’

The state column in the “Customers” table, for all rows that have a state code of ‘MN’

All fields in the “Customers” table, up to and including the state field

All of the fields and rows from the “Customers” table

A

The query returns all fields in the “Customers” table, for those rows where the value of the state column is ‘MN’. The asterisk (*) in the SELECT clause specifies that all fields that are in the table are included in the answer. The WHERE clause limits the row selection to only those whose value for the state column is ‘MN’.

If the SELECT clause contained the state field instead of the asterisk, then only the state column would be returned, for rows which satisfy the condition in the WHERE clause.

There is no way to specify the field selection to contain all fields up to and including one of the fields. Field selection is specified with either the asterisk, meaning all fields, or each field that needs to be returned is explicitly listed in the SELECT clause.

If the WHERE clause was not there, then all of the rows and all of the fields would be returned.