Practice Questions B

Question 1

An organization recently updated its security policy to include the following statement:
Regular expressions are included in source code to remove special characters such as $, |, &, `, and ? from variables set by forms in a web application.
Which of the following best explains the security technique the organization adopted by making this addition to the policy?
A. Identify embedded keys
B. Code debugging
C. Input validation
D. Static code analysis

Answer 1

C

Explanation: Input validation is a security technique that checks the user input for any malicious or unexpected data before processing it by the application. Input validation can prevent various types of attacks, such as injection, cross-site scripting, buffer overflow, and command execution, that exploit the vulnerabilities in the application code. Input validation can be performed on both the client-side and the server-side, using methods such as whitelisting, blacklisting, filtering, sanitizing, escaping, and encoding. By including regular expressions in the source code to remove special characters from the variables set by the forms in the web application, the organization adopted input validation as a security technique.

Regular expressions are patterns that match a specific set of characters or strings, and can be used to filter out any unwanted or harmful input. Special characters, such as $, |, &, `, and? can be used by attackers to inject commands or scripts into the application, and cause damage or data theft. By removing these characters from the input, the organization can reduce the risk of such attacks.

Identify embedded keys, code debugging, and static code analysis are not the security techniques that the organization adopted by making this addition to the policy. Identify embedded keys is a process of finding and removing any hard-coded keys or credentials from the source code, as these can pose a security risk if exposed or compromised. Code debugging is a process of finding and fixing any errors or bugs in the source code, which can affect the functionality or performance of the application. Static code analysis is a process of analyzing the source code without executing it, to identify any vulnerabilities, flaws, or coding standards violations. These techniques are not related to the use of regular expressions to remove special characters from the input.

Question 2

Which of the following is the best way to consistently determine on a daily basis whether security settings on servers have been modified?
A. Automation
B. Compliance checklist
C. Attestation
D. Manual audit

Answer 2

A

Explanation: Automation is the best way to consistently determine on a daily basis whether security settings on servers have been modified. Automation is the process of using software, hardware, or other tools to perform tasks that would otherwise require human intervention or manual effort. Automation can help to improve the efficiency, accuracy, and consistency of security operations, as well as reduce human errors and costs. Automation can be used to monitor, audit, and enforce security settings on servers, such as firewall rules, encryption keys, access controls, patch levels, and configuration files. Automation can also alert security personnel of any changes or anomalies that may indicate a security breach or compromise.

The other options are not the best ways to consistently determine on a daily basis whether security settings on servers have been modified:

Compliance checklist: This is a document that lists the security requirements, standards, or best practices that an organization must follow or adhere to. A compliance checklist can help to ensure that the security settings on servers are aligned with the organizational policies and regulations, but it does not automatically detect or report any changes or modifications that may occur on a daily basis.

Attestation: This is a process of verifying or confirming the validity or accuracy of a statement, claim, or fact. Attestation can be used to provide assurance or evidence that the security settings on servers are correct and authorized, but it does not continuously monitor or audit any changes or modifications that may occur on a daily basis.

Manual audit: This is a process of examining or reviewing the security settings on servers by human inspectors or auditors. A manual audit can help to identify and correct any security issues or discrepancies on servers, but it is time-consuming, labor-intensive, and prone to human errors. A manual audit may not be feasible or practical to perform on a daily basis.

Question 3

A security analyst and the management team are reviewing the organizational performance of a recent phishing campaign. The user click-through rate exceeded the acceptable risk threshold, and the management team wants to reduce the impact when a user clicks on a link in a phishing message.
Which of the following should the analyst do?
A. Place posters around the office to raise awareness of common phishing activities.
B. Implement email security filters to prevent phishing emails from being delivered
C. Update the EDR policies to block automatic execution of downloaded programs.
D. Create additional training for users to recognize the signs of phishing attempts.

Answer 3

C

Explanation: An endpoint detection and response (EDR) system is a security tool that monitors and analyzes the activities and behaviors of endpoints, such as computers, laptops, mobile devices, and servers. An EDR system can detect, prevent, and respond to various types of threats, such as malware, ransomware, phishing, and advanced persistent threats (APTs). One of the features of an EDR system is to block the automatic execution of downloaded programs, which can prevent malicious code from running on the endpoint when a user clicks on a link in a phishing message.

This can reduce the impact of a phishing attack and protect the endpoint from compromise. Updating the EDR policies to block automatic execution of downloaded programs is a technical control that can mitigate the risk of phishing, regardless of the user’s awareness or behavior. Therefore, this is the best answer among the given options.

The other options are not as effective as updating the EDR policies, because they rely on administrative or physical controls that may not be sufficient to prevent or stop a phishing attack. Placing posters around the office to raise awareness of common phishing activities is a physical control that can increase the user’s knowledge of phishing, but it may not change their behavior or prevent them from clicking on a link in a phishing message. Implementing email security filters to prevent phishing emails from being delivered is an administrative control that can reduce the exposure to phishing, but it may not be able to block all phishing emails, especially if they are crafted to bypass the filters. Creating additional training for users to recognize the signs of phishing attempts is an administrative control that can improve the user’s skills of phishing detection, but it may not guarantee that they will always be vigilant or cautious when receiving an email.

Therefore, these options are not the best answer for this question.

Question 4

After a recent ransomware attack on a company’s system, an administrator reviewed the log files. Which of the following control types did the administrator use?
A. Compensating
B. Detective
C. Preventive
D. Corrective

Answer 4

B

Explanation: Detective controls are security measures that are designed to identify and monitor any malicious activity or anomalies on a system or network. They can help to discover the source, scope, and impact of an attack, and provide evidence for further analysis or investigation. Detective controls include log files, security audits, intrusion detection systems, network monitoring tools, and antivirus software. In this case, the administrator used log files as a detective control to review the ransomware attack on the company’s system. Log files are records of events and activities that occur on a system or network, such as user actions, system errors, network traffic, and security alerts. They can provide valuable information for troubleshooting, auditing, and forensics.

Question 5

Which of the following agreement types defines the time frame in which a vendor needs to respond?
A. SOW
B. SLA
C. MOA
D. MOU

Answer 5

B

Explanation: A service level agreement (SLA) is a type of agreement that defines the expectations and responsibilities between a service provider and a customer. It usually includes the quality, availability, and performance metrics of the service, as well as the time frame in which the provider needs to respond to service requests, incidents, or complaints. An SLA can help ensure that the customer receives the desired level of service and that the provider is accountable for meeting the agreed- upon standards. Service Level Agreements (SLAs) are contracts between a service provider and a customer that specify the level of service expected from the service provider.

Question 6

After reviewing the following vulnerability scanning report:
Server:192.168.14.6
Service: Telnet
Port: 23
Protocol: TCP
Status: Open Severity: High
Vulnerability: Use of an insecure network protocol
A security analyst performs the following test: Nmap -p 23 192.168.14.6 —script telnet-encryption
PORT STATE SERVICE REASON
23/tcp open telnet syn-ack I telnet encryption:
| _ Telnet server supports encryption
Which of the following would the security analyst conclude for this reported vulnerability?
A. It is a false positive.
B. A rescan is required.
C. It is considered noise.
D. Compensating controls exist.

Answer 6

A

Explanation: A false positive is a result that indicates a vulnerability or a problem when there is none. In this case, the vulnerability scanning report shows that the telnet service on port 23 is open and uses an insecure network protocol. However, the security analyst performs a test using nmap and a script that checks for telnet encryption support. The result shows that the telnet server supports encryption, which means that the data transmitted between the client and the server can be protected from eavesdropping. Therefore, the reported vulnerability is a false positive and does not reflect the actual security posture of the server. The security analyst should verify the encryption settings of the telnet server and client and ensure that they are configured properly.

Question 7

A security consultant needs secure, remote access to a client environment. Which of the following should the security consultant most likely use to gain access?
A. EAP
B. DHCP
C. IPSec
D. NAT

Answer 7

C

Explanation: IPSec is a protocol suite that provides secure communication over IP networks. IPSec can be used to create virtual private networks (VPNs) that encrypt and authenticate the data exchanged between two or more parties. IPSec can also provide data integrity, confidentiality, replay protection, and access control. A security consultant can use IPSec to gain secure, remote access to a client environment by establishing a VPN tunnel with the client’s network.

Question 8

Which of the following best practices gives administrators a set period to perform changes to an operational system to ensure availability and minimize business impacts?
A. Impact analysis
B. Scheduled downtime
C. Backout plan
D. Change management boards

Answer 8

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: Scheduled downtime is a planned period of time when a system or service is unavailable for maintenance, updates, upgrades, or other changes. Scheduled downtime gives administrators a set period to perform changes to an operational system without disrupting the normal business operations or affecting the availability of the system or service. Scheduled downtime also allows administrators to inform the users and stakeholders about the expected duration and impact of the changes.

Question 9

Which of the following actions could a security engineer take to ensure workstations and servers are properly monitored for unauthorized changes and software?
A. Configure all systems to log scheduled tasks.
B. Collect and monitor all traffic exiting the network.
C. Block traffic based on known malicious signatures.
D. Install endpoint management software on all systems.

Answer 9

D

Explanation: Endpoint management software is a tool that allows security engineers to monitor and control the configuration, security, and performance of workstations and servers from a central console. Endpoint management software can help detect and prevent unauthorized changes and software installations, enforce policies and compliance, and provide reports and alerts on the status of the endpoints. The other options are not as effective or comprehensive as endpoint management software for this purpose.

Question 10

After a security awareness training session, a user called the IT help desk and reported a suspicious call. The suspicious caller stated that the Chief Financial Officer wanted credit card information in order to close an invoice.
Which of the following topics did the user recognize from the training?
A. Insider threat
B. Email phishing
C. Social engineering
D. Executive whaling

Answer 10

C

Explanation: Social engineering is the practice of manipulating people into performing actions or divulging confidential information, often by impersonating someone else or creating a sense of urgency or trust. The suspicious caller in this scenario was trying to use social engineering to trick the user into giving away credit card information by pretending to be the CFO and asking for a payment. The user recognized this as a potential scam and reported it to the IT help desk. The other topics are not relevant to this situation.

Question 11

An organization is building a new backup data center with cost-benefit as the primary Which of the following exercises should an organization use to improve its incident response process?
A. Tabletop
B. Replication
C. Failover
D. Recovery Correct

Answer 11

A

Explanation: A tabletop exercise is a simulated scenario that tests the organization’s incident response plan and procedures. It involves key stakeholders and decision-makers who discuss their roles and actions in response to a hypothetical incident. It can help identify gaps, weaknesses, and improvement areas in the incident response process. It can also enhance communication, coordination, and collaboration among the participants.

Question 12

Which of the following automation use cases would best enhance the security posture of an organization by rapidly updating permissions when employees leave a company?
A. Provisioning resources
B. Disabling access
C. Reviewing change approvals
D. Escalating permission requests

Answer 12

B

Explanation: Disabling access is an automation use case that would best enhance the security posture of an organization by rapidly updating permissions when employees leave a company. Disabling access is the process of revoking or suspending the access rights of a user account, such as login credentials, email, VPN, cloud services, etc. Disabling access can prevent unauthorized or malicious use of the account by former employees or attackers who may have compromised the account. Disabling access can also reduce the attack surface and the risk of data breaches or leaks.
Disabling access can be automated by using scripts, tools, or workflows that can trigger the action based on predefined events, such as employee termination, resignation, or transfer. Automation can ensure that the access is disabled in a timely, consistent, and efficient manner, without relying on manual intervention or human error.

Question 13

Which of the following methods to secure credit card data is best to use when a requirement is to see only the last four numbers on a credit card?
A. Encryption
B. Hashing
C. Masking
D. Tokenization

Answer 13

C

Explanation: Masking is a method to secure credit card data that involves replacing some or all of the digits with symbols, such as asterisks, dashes, or Xs, while leaving some of the original digits visible. Masking is best to use when a requirement is to see only the last four numbers on a credit card, as it can prevent unauthorized access to the full card number, while still allowing identification and verification of the cardholder. Masking does not alter the original data, unlike encryption, hashing, or tokenization, which use algorithms to transform the data into different formats.

Question 14

A security administrator needs a method to secure data in an environment that includes some form of checks so that the administrator can track any changes.
Which of the following should the administrator set up to achieve this goal?
A. SPF
B. GPO
C. NAC
D. FIM

Answer 14

D

Explanation: FIM stands for File Integrity Monitoring, which is a method to secure data by detecting any changes or modifications to files, directories, or registry keys. FIM can help a security administrator track any unauthorized or malicious changes to the data, as well as verify the integrity and compliance of the data. FIM can also alert the administrator of any potential breaches or incidents involving the data. Some of the benefits of FIM are:
It can prevent data tampering and corruption by verifying the checksums or hashes of the files.
It can identify the source and time of the changes by logging the user and system actions.
It can enforce security policies and standards by comparing the current state of the data with the baseline or expected state.
It can support forensic analysis and incident response by providing evidence and audit trails of the changes.

Question 15

Which of the following is the phase in the incident response process when a security analyst reviews roles and responsibilities?
A. Preparation
B. Recovery
C. Lessons learned
D. Analysis

Answer 15

A

Explanation: Preparation is the phase in the incident response process when a security analyst reviews roles and responsibilities, as well as the policies and procedures for handling incidents. Preparation also involves gathering and maintaining the necessary tools, resources, and contacts for responding to incidents. Preparation can help a security analyst to be ready and proactive when an incident occurs, as well as to reduce the impact and duration of the incident.

Some of the activities that a security analyst performs during the preparation phase are:
Defining the roles and responsibilities of the incident response team members, such as the incident manager, the incident coordinator, the technical lead, the communications lead, and the legal advisor.

Establishing the incident response plan, which outlines the objectives, scope, authority, and procedures for responding to incidents, as well as the escalation and reporting mechanisms.
Developing the incident response policy, which defines the types and categories of incidents, the severity levels, the notification and reporting requirements, and the roles and responsibilities of the stakeholders. Creating the incident response playbook, which provides the step-by-step guidance and checklists for handling specific types of incidents, such as denial-of-service, ransomware, phishing, or data breach.

Acquiring and testing the incident response tools, such as network and host-based scanners, malware analysis tools, forensic tools, backup and recovery tools, and communication and collaboration tools.

Identifying and securing the incident response resources, such as the incident response team, the incident response location, the evidence storage, and the external support.

Building and maintaining the incident response contacts, such as the internal and external stakeholders, the law enforcement agencies, the regulatory bodies, and the media.

Question 16

A company is discarding a classified storage array and hires an outside vendor to complete the disposal.
Which of the following should the company request from the vendor?
A. Certification
B. Inventory list
C. Classification
D. Proof of ownership

Answer 16

A

Explanation: The company should request a certification from the vendor that confirms the storage array has been disposed of securely and in compliance with the company’s policies and standards. A certification provides evidence that the vendor has followed the proper procedures and methods to destroy the classified data and prevent unauthorized access or recovery. A certification may also include details such as the date, time, location, and method of disposal, as well as the names and signatures of the personnel involved.

Question 17

Which of the following would be the best ways to ensure only authorized personnel can access a secure facility? (Select two).
A. Fencing
B. Video surveillance
C. Badge access
D. Access control vestibule
E. Sign-in sheet
F. Sensor

Answer 17

Correct Answer: C D

Explanation: Badge access and access control vestibule are two of the best ways to ensure only authorized personnel can access a secure facility. Badge access requires the personnel to present a valid and authenticated badge to a reader or scanner that grants or denies access based on predefined rules and permissions. Access control vestibule is a physical security measure that consists of a small room or chamber with two doors, one leading to the outside and one leading to the secure area. The personnel must enter the vestibule and wait for the first door to close and lock before the second door can be opened. This prevents tailgating or piggybacking by unauthorized individuals.

Question 18

A company’s marketing department collects, modifies, and stores sensitive customer data. The infrastructure team is responsible for securing the data while in transit and at rest.
Which of the following data roles describes the customer?
A. Processor
B. Custodian
C. Subject
D. Owner

Answer 18

C

Explanation: Data subjects are the individuals whose personal data is collected, processed, or stored by an organization. Data subjects have certain rights and expectations regarding how their data is handled, such as the right to access, correct, delete, or restrict their data. Data subjects are different from data owners, who are the individuals or entities that have the authority and responsibility to determine how data is classified, protected, and used. Data subjects are also different from data processors, who are the individuals or entities that perform operations on data on behalf of the data owner, such as collecting, modifying, storing, or transmitting data. Data subjects are also different from data custodians, who are the individuals or entities that implement the security controls and procedures specified by the data owner to protect data while in transit and at rest.

Question 19

Malware spread across a company’s network after an employee visited a compromised industry blog.
Which of the following best describes this type of attack?
A. Impersonation
B. Disinformation
C. Watering-hole
D. Smishing

Answer 19

C

Explanation: A watering-hole attack is a type of cyberattack that targets groups of users by infecting websites that they commonly visit. The attackers exploit vulnerabilities to deliver a malicious payload to the organization’s network. The attack aims to infect users’ computers and gain access to a connected corporate network. The attackers target websites known to be popular among members of a particular organization or demographic. The attack differs from phishing and spear-phishing attacks, which typically attempt to steal data or install malware onto users’ devices1

In this scenario, the compromised industry blog is the watering hole that the attackers used to spread malware across the company’s network. The attackers likely chose this blog because they knew that the employees of the company were interested in its content and visited it frequently. The attackers may have injected malicious code into the blog or redirected the visitors to a spoofed website that hosted the malware. The malware then infected the employees’ computers and propagated to the network.

Question 20

A newly identified network access vulnerability has been found in the OS of legacy IoT devices.
Which of the following would best mitigate this vulnerability quickly?
A. Insurance
B. Patching
C. Segmentation
D. Replacement

Answer 20

C

Explanation: Segmentation is a technique that divides a network into smaller subnetworks or segments, each with its own security policies and controls. Segmentation can help mitigate network access vulnerabilities in legacy IoT devices by isolating them from other devices and systems, reducing their attack surface and limiting the potential impact of a breach. Segmentation can also improve network performance and efficiency by reducing congestion and traffic. Patching, insurance, and replacement are other possible strategies to deal with network access vulnerabilities, but they may not be feasible or effective in the short term. Patching may not be available or compatible for legacy IoT devices, insurance may not cover the costs or damages of a cyberattack, and replacement may be expensive and time-consuming.

Question 21

A bank insists all of its vendors must prevent data loss on stolen laptops. Which of the following strategies is the bank requiring?
A. Encryption at rest
B. Masking
C. Data classification
D. Permission restrictions

Answer 21

A

Explanation: Encryption at rest is a strategy that protects data stored on a device, such as a laptop, by converting it into an unreadable format that can only be accessed with a decryption key or password. Encryption at rest can prevent data loss on stolen laptops by preventing unauthorized access to the data, even if the device is physically compromised. Encryption at rest can also help comply with data privacy regulations and standards that require data protection.

Masking, data classification, and permission restrictions are other strategies that can help protect data, but they may not be sufficient or applicable for data stored on laptops. Masking is a technique that obscures sensitive data elements, such as credit card numbers, with random characters or symbols, but it is usually used for data in transit or in use, not at rest. Data classification is a process that assigns labels to data based on its sensitivity and business impact, but it does not protect the data itself. Permission restrictions are rules that define who can access, modify, or delete data, but they may not prevent unauthorized access if the laptop is stolen and the security controls are bypassed.

Question 22

Which of the following would be best suited for constantly changing environments?
A. RTOS
B. Containers
C. Embedded systems
D. SCADA

Answer 22

B

Explanation: Containers are a method of virtualization that allows applications to run in isolated environments with their own dependencies, libraries, and configurations.

Containers are best suited for constantly changing environments because they are lightweight, portable, scalable, and easy to deploy and update. Containers can also support microservices architectures, which enable faster and more frequent delivery of software features.

Question 23

A security analyst scans a company’s public network and discovers a host is running a remote desktop that can be used to access the production network.
Which of the following changes should the security analyst recommend?
A. Changing the remote desktop port to a non-standard number
B. Setting up a VPN and placing the jump server inside the firewall
C. Using a proxy for web connections from the remote desktop server
D. Connecting the remote server to the domain and increasing the password length

Answer 23

Correct Answer: B

Explanation: A VPN is a virtual private network that creates a secure tunnel between two or more devices over a public network. A VPN can encrypt and authenticate the data, as well as hide the IP addresses and locations of the devices. A jump server is a server that acts as an intermediary between a user and a target server, such as a production server. A jump server can provide an additional layer of security and access control, as well as logging and auditing capabilities.
A firewall is a device or software that filters and blocks unwanted network traffic based on predefined rules. A firewall can protect the internal network from external threats and limit the exposure of sensitive services and ports. A security analyst should recommend setting up a VPN and placing the jump server inside the firewall to improve the security of the remote desktop access to the production network. This way, the remote desktop service will not be exposed to the public network, and only authorized users with VPN credentials can access the jump server and then the production server.

Question 24

Security controls in a data center are being reviewed to ensure data is properly protected and that human life considerations are included.
Which of the following best describes how the controls should be set up?
A. Remote access points should fail closed.
B. Logging controls should fail open.
C. Safety controls should fail open.
D. Logical security controls should fail closed.

Answer 24

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: Safety controls are security controls that are designed to protect human life and physical assets from harm or damage. Examples of safety controls include fire alarms, sprinklers, emergency exits, backup generators, and surge protectors.

Safety controls should fail open, which means that they should remain operational or allow access when a failure or error occurs. Failing open can prevent or minimize the impact of a disaster, such as a fire, flood, earthquake, or power outage, on human life and physical assets. For example, if a fire alarm fails, it should still trigger the sprinklers and unlock the emergency exits, rather than remain silent and locked. Failing open can also ensure that essential services, such as healthcare, transportation, or communication, are available during a crisis.

Remote access points, logging controls, and logical security controls are other types of security controls, but they should not fail open in a data center. Remote access points are security controls that allow users or systems to access a network or a system from a remote location, such as a VPN, a web portal, or a wireless access point. Remote access points should fail closed, which means that they should deny access when a failure or error occurs. Failing closed can prevent unauthorized or malicious access to the data center’s network or systems, such as by hackers, malware, or rogue devices. Logging controls are security controls that record and monitor the activities and events that occur on a network or a system, such as user actions, system errors, security incidents, or performance metrics.

Logging controls should also fail closed, which means that they should stop or suspend the activities or events when a failure or error occurs. Failing closed can prevent data loss, corruption, or tampering, as well as ensure compliance with regulations and standards. Logical security controls are security controls that use software or code to protect data and systems from unauthorized or malicious access, modification, or destruction, such as encryption, authentication, authorization, or firewall. Logical security controls should also fail closed, which means that they should block or restrict access when a failure or error occurs.

Failing closed can prevent data breaches, cyberattacks, or logical flaws, as well as ensure confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data and systems.

Question 25

Which of the following is the most common data loss path for an air-gapped network?
A. Bastion host
B. Unsecured Bluetooth
C. Unpatched OS
D. Removable devices

Answer 25

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: An air-gapped network is a network that is physically isolated from other networks, such as the internet, to prevent unauthorized access and data leakage. However, an air-gapped network can still be compromised by removable devices, such as USB drives, CDs, DVDs, or external hard drives, that are used to transfer data between the air-gapped network and other networks. Removable devices can carry malware, spyware, or other malicious code that can infect the air-gapped network or exfiltrate data from it. Therefore, removable devices are the most common data loss path for an air-gapped network.

Question 26

Which of the following can best protect against an employee inadvertently installing malware on a company system?
A. Host-based firewall
B. System isolation
C. Least privilege
D. Application allow list

Answer 26

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: An application allow list is a security technique that specifies which applications are authorized to run on a system and blocks all other applications. An application allow list can best protect against an employee inadvertently installing malware on a company system because it prevents the execution of any unauthorized or malicious software, such as viruses, worms, trojans, ransomware, or spyware.

Question 27

An organization is struggling with scaling issues on its VPN concentrator and internet circuit due to remote work. The organization is looking for a software solution that will allow it to reduce traffic on the VPN and internet circuit, while still providing encrypted tunnel access to the data center and monitoring of remote employee internet traffic.
Which of the following will help achieve these objectives?
A. Deploying a SASE solution to remote employees
B. Building a load-balanced VPN solution with redundant internet
C. Purchasing a low-cost SD-WAN solution for VPN traffic.
D. Using a cloud provider to create additional VPN concentrators

Answer 27

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: SASE stands for Secure Access Service Edge. It is a cloud-based service that combines network and security functions into a single integrated solution. SASE can help reduce traffic on the VPN and internet circuit by providing secure and optimized access to the data center and cloud applications for remote employees. SASE can also monitor and enforce security policies on the remote employee internet traffic, regardless of their location and can offer benefits such as lower costs, improved performance, scalability, and flexibility compared to traditional VPN solutions.

Question 28

A company’s end users are reporting that they are unable to reach external websites. After reviewing the performance data for the DNS severs, the analyst discovers that the CPU, disk, and memory usage are minimal, but the network interface is flooded with inbound traffic. Network logs show only a small number of DNS queries sent to this server.
Which of the following best describes what the security analyst is seeing?
A. Concurrent session usage
B. Secure DNS cryptographic downgrade
C. On-path resource consumption
D. Reflected denial of service

Answer 28

Correct Answer: D

Explanation: A reflected denial of service (RDoS) attack is a type of DDoS attack that uses spoofed source IP addresses to send requests to a third-party server, which then sends responses to the victim server. The attacker exploits the difference in size between the request and the response, which can amplify the amount of traffic sent to the victim server. The attacker also hides their identity by using the victim’s IP address as the source. A RDoS attack can target DNS servers by sending forged DNS queries that generate large DNS responses. This can flood the network interface of the DNS server and prevent it from serving legitimate requests from end users.

Question 29

A company is planning a disaster recovery site and needs to ensure that a single natural disaster would not result in the complete loss of regulated backup data.
Which of the following should the company consider?
A. Geographic dispersion
B. Platform diversity
C. Hot site
D. Load balancing

Answer 29

A

Explanation: Geographic dispersion is the practice of having backup data stored in different locations that are far enough apart to minimize the risk of a single natural disaster affecting both sites. This ensures that the company can recover its regulated data in case of a disaster at the primary site. Platform diversity, hot site, and load balancing are not directly related to the protection of backup data from natural disasters.