Practice Questions Flashcards

1
Q
02-01 Understanding the culture, policies, and procedures of the organization in which the project is
being performed is MOST challenging in:
A. Global organizations.
B. Manufacturing organizations.
C. Small organizations.
D. Agile organizations.
A

Answer A
Explanation Understanding the culture, policies, and procedures of the organization in which
the project is being performed is especially challenging in global organizations. Culture, policies, and procedures in the performing office may be different from those of the office from which the project is managed, and may also vary between international offices of the same organization.
This will influence how the project is managed.

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2
Q
02-02 In a projectized organization, the project team:
A. Reports to many bosses.
B. Has no loyalty to the project.
C. Reports to the functional manager.
D. Will not always have a "home."
A

Answer D
Explanation The main drawback of a projectized organization is that at the end of the project
when the team is dispersed, they do not have a functional department (“home”) to which to
return.

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3
Q
02-03 A project manager is trying to complete a software development project, but cannot get enough attention for the project. Resources are focused on completing process-related work, and the project manager has little authority to assign resources. What form of organization must the project manager be working in?
A. Functional
B. Matrix
C. Expediter
D. Coordinator
A

Answer A
Explanation In a functional organization, the project manager has the least support for the
project and has little authority to assign resources. Project expediter and project coordinator are
roles in a weak matrix organization.

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4
Q

02-04 A project manager has very little project experience, but he has been assigned as the project
manager of a new project. Because he will be working in a matrix organization to complete his project, he can expect communications to be:
A. Simple.
B. Open and accurate.
C. Complex.
D. Hard to automate.

A

Answer C
Explanation Because a project done in a matrix organization involves people from across the
organization, communications are more complex.

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5
Q
02-05 A project team member is talking to another team member and complaining that many people are asking him to do things. If he works in a functional organization, who has the power to give direction to the team member?
A. The project manager
B. The functional manager
C. The team
D. The PMO
A

Answer B
Explanation In a functional organization, the functional manager is the team member’s boss and
probably also the project managers boss.

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6
Q

02-06 Two project managers have just realized that they are in a weak matrix organization and that their power as project managers is quite limited. One figures out that he is really a project expediter, and the other realizes he is really a project coordinator. How is a project expediter different from a project coordinator?
A. The project expediter cannot make decisions.
B. The project expediter can make more decisions.
C. The project expediter reports to a higher-level manager.
D. The project expediter has some authority.

A

Answer A
Explanation The project coordinator reports to a higher-level manager and has authority to make some decisions. The project expediter has no authority to make decisions.

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7
Q
02-07 Who has the MOST power in a projectized organization?
A. The project manager
B. The functional manager
C. The team
D. They all share power
A

Answer A
Explanation In a projectized organization, the entire company is organized by projects, giving the project manager the most power.

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8
Q
02-08 All of the following are characteristics of a project EXCEPT:
A. It is temporary.
B. It has a definite beginning and end.
C. It has interrelated activities.
D. It repeats itself every month.
A

Answer D
Explanation “It repeats itself every month” implies that the whole project repeats every month.
Generally, the only things that might repeat in a project are some activities. The whole project does not repeat.

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9
Q
02-09 A framework for keeping an organization focused on its overall strategy is:
A. Organizational project management.
B. The PMBOK* Guide.
C. Project governance.
D. Portfolio management.
A

Answer A
Explanation Organizational project management (OPM) provides a framework and direction for how projects, programs, portfolios, and organizational work should be done to meet the organization’s strategic goals.

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10
Q

02-10 Which of the following BEST describes the major constraints on a project?
A. Scope, number of resources, and cost
B. Scope, cost, and time
C. Scope, time, cost, quality, risk, resources, and customer satisfaction
D. Time, cost, and number of changes

A

Answer C
Explanation “Scope, time, cost, quality, risk, resources, and customer satisfaction” is the most accurate list of constraints, or competing demands, that a project manager must deal with.

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11
Q

02-11 If a project manager is concerned with gathering, integrating, and disseminating the outputs of all
project management processes, she should concentrate on improving the:
A. Work breakdown structure (WBS).
B. Communications management plan.
C. Project management information system (PMIS).
D. Scope management plan.

A

Answer C
Explanation The scope management plan and the WBS focus on project scope. The communications
management plan addresses who will be communicated with, when, and in what format. The only choice that addresses gathering, integrating, and disseminating information is the PMIS.

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12
Q

02-12 A project manager is managing his second project. It started one month after the first, and both
are in process. Though his first project is small, this one seems to be growing in size every day.
As each day passes, the project manager is beginning to feel more and more in need of help. The
project manager has recently heard that there was another project in the company last year that is
similar to his second project. What should he do?
A. Contact the other project manager and ask for assistance.
B. Obtain historical records and guidance from the project management office (PMO).
C. Wait to see if the project is impacted by the growth in scope.
D. Make sure the scope of the project is agreed to by all the stakeholders.

A

Answer B
Explanation There are many things the project manager could do. Asking the other project manager for assistance is not the best choice, as the other project manager might not be an experienced mentor. His advice might not be adequate to help this project manager. Waiting to assess the impact on the project is reactive; a project manager should be proactive. Gaining agreement of all the stakeholders on the project scope is also not the best choice. It would be helpful, but does not specifically address the issue in this situation. By contacting the PMO, the project manager can access the knowledge of many project managers, historical information from many projects, and the assistance of someone whose job it is to help.

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13
Q
02-13 The project life cycle differs from the project management process in that the project management
process:
A. Is the same for every project.
B. Does not incorporate a methodology.
C. Is different for each industry.
D. Can spawn many projects.
A

Answer A
Explanation The project management process ALWAYS includes the work of initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, and closing a project. This methodology is the same for projects within any industry. The work of these process groups may be repeated (iterated).

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14
Q

02-14 To obtain support for the project throughout the performing organization, it’s BEST if the project
manager:
. A. Ensures there is a communications management plan.
B. Correlates the need for the project to the organizations strategic plan.
C. Connects the project to the personal objectives of the sponsor.
D. Ensures that the management plan includes the management of team members.

A

Answer B
Explanation Connecting the project to the sponsor’s objectives might be a good idea, but it does
not address the issue of obtaining support throughout the performing organization. Neither a communications management plan nor an overall management plan directly addresses obtaining support for the project. Correlating the need for the project to the organization’s strategic plan is the best way to gain support for the project.

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15
Q

02-15 Your management has decided that all orders will be treated as “projects” and that project
managers will be used to update orders daily, to resolve issues, and to ensure the customer formally accepts the product within 30 days of completion. Revenue from the individual orders can vary from US $100 to US $150,000. The project manager will not be required to perform
planning or provide documentation other than daily status. How would you define this situation?
A. Because each individual order is a “temporary endeavor,” each order is a project.
B. This is program management since there are multiple projects involved.
C. This is a recurring process.
D. Orders incurring revenue over $100,000 would be considered projects and would involve
project management.

A

Answer C

Explanation Because orders are numerous and of short duration, this situation is a recurring process, not a project.

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16
Q

02-16 The previous project manager for your project managed it without much project organization.
There is a lack of management control and no clearly defined project deliverables. Which of the
following would be the BEST choice for getting your project better organized?
A. Adopt a life cycle approach to the project.
B. Develop lessons learned for each phase.
C. Develop specific work plans for each work package.
D. Develop a description of the product of the project.

A

Answer A
Explanation Developing lessons learned would help improve subsequent phases, but would do nothing for control or deliverables. Having plans for each work package would help control each phase, but would not control the integration of those phases into a cohesive whole. A description of the product of the project would help, but that would not improve both control and deliverables for each phase. Effective project management requires a life cycle approach to running the project.
Adopting a life cycle approach is the only answer that covers both control and deliverables.

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17
Q

02-17 A project team is working on manufacturing a new product, but they are having difficulty creating
a project charter. What is the BEST description of the real problem?
A. They have not identified the project objectives.
B. They are working on a process and not a project.
C. The end date has not been set.
D. They have not identified the product of the project.

A

Answer B
Explanation Manufacturing a product is an ongoing process; it is operational work, not project work. Therefore, the manufacturing team would have no reason to create a project charter and would have difficulty doing so if they tried, because of the ongoing nature of the work. If the question referred to a team developing a new product, however, that would qualify as a project.

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18
Q

02-18 One of your team members informs you that he does not know which of the many projects he
is working on is the most important. Who should determine the priorities between projects in a
company?
A. The project manager
B. The project management team
C. The project management office (PMO)
D. The team

A

Answer C
Explanation Because the question talks about priorities between projects, this cannot be the role of the project manager, the project management team, or the project team. Determining priorities between projects is a role of the PMO.

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19
Q

02-19 The difference between a project, program, and portfolio is:
A. A project is a temporary endeavor with a beginning and an end, a program may include other
non-project work, and a portfolio is all the projects in a given department or division.
B. A project is a lengthy endeavor with a beginning and an end, a program combines two or more
unrelated projects, and a portfolio combines two or more programs.
C. A project is a temporary endeavor with a beginning and an end, a program is a group of
related projects, and a portfolio is a group of projects and programs related to a specific
strategic objective.
D. A project is a contracted endeavor with a beginning and end, a portfolio is a group of projects
with more open-ended completion dates, and a program combines two or more portfolios.

A

Answer C
Explanation A project is a temporary endeavor with a beginning and an end, a program is a group of related projects, and a portfolio is a group of projects and programs related to a specific strategic objective. Remember to use the process of elimination, ruling out any answer that is not completely correct.

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20
Q
02-20 Operational work is different from project work in that operational work is:
A. Unique.
B. Temporary.
C. Ongoing and repetitive.
D. A part of every project activity.
A

Answer C

Explanation Operational work is that which is ongoing to sustain an organization.

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21
Q

02-21 Company procedures require the creation of a lessons learned document. Which of the following
is the BEST use of lessons learned?
A. Historical records for future projects
B. Planning record for the current project
C. Informing the team about what the project manager has done
D. Informing the team about the project management plan

A

Answer A
Explanation Notice that this question asks about the use of a tool of project management. Many people can learn from a book what a lessons learned document is, but questions like this can more readily be answered if you actually use the tool and know from experience its value. Ask yourself about the other tools of project management. Why are they beneficial? The BEST use of
lessons learned is as historical records for future projects. There are other tools that are better for accomplishing the things listed in the other choices.

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22
Q
02-22 Lessons learned are BEST completed by:
A. The project manager.
B. The team.
C. The sponsor.
D. The stakeholders.
A

Answer D
Explanation The best answer is stakeholders, as their input is critical for collecting all the lessons learned on each project. The term “stakeholders” includes all the other groups.

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23
Q

02-23 Consideration of ongoing operations and maintenance is crucially important to products of
projects. Ongoing operations and maintenance should:
A. Be included as activities to be performed during project closure.
B. Have a separate phase in the project life cycle, because a large portion of life cycle costs is
devoted to maintenance and operations.
C. Not be viewed as part of a project.
D. Be viewed as a separate project.

A

Answer C
Explanation Remember the definition of a project: temporary and unique. Operations and maintenance are considered ongoing activities, not temporary. Therefore, such work is not considered a project or part of a project.

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24
Q

02-24 What is a program?
A. An initiative set up by management
B. A means to gain benefits and control of related projects
C. A group of unrelated projects managed in a coordinated way
D. A government regulation

A

Answer B
Explanation Did you select “a group of unrelated projects managed in a coordinated way”? If so, you missed the word “unrelated.” Programs are groups of related projects.

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25
Q

02-25 A company is making an effort to improve its project performance and create historical records of
past projects. What is the BEST way to accomplish this?
A. Create project management plans.
B. Create lessons learned.
C. Create network diagrams
D. Create status reports.

A

Answer B
Explanation Lessons learned help to avoid future pitfalls and use the good ideas of past projects. This leads to improvements in future projects.

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26
Q
03-01 In which project management process group is the detailed project budget created?
A. Initiating
B. Before the project management process
C. Planning
D. Executing
A

Answer C

Explanation Notice the use of the word “detailed.” Such a budget is created during project planning.

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27
Q
03-02 The project charter is created in which project management process group?
A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Closing
D. Initiating
A

Answer D
Explanation The project charter is needed before planning and execution of the work can begin. Therefore, it is created and approved in project initiating.

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28
Q

03-03 The project team has just completed the initial project schedule and budget. The NEXT thing to do is to:
A. Identify risks.
B. Begin iterations.
C. Determine communications requirements.
D. Create a bar (Gantt) chart.

A

Answer C
Explanation Communications requirements and quality standards are needed before risks (especially risks relating to communications and quality) can be determined. Iterations cannot begin until the risks are identified, qualified and quantified, and responses are developed.
Through iterations, the WBS and other parts of the project management plan are revised. A bar chart would have been done during the creation of the schedule, so it cannot be the next thing. Of the choices listed, determine communications requirements is the best option.

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29
Q
03-04 A detailed project schedule can be created only after creating the:
A. Project budget.
B. Work breakdown structure.
C. Project management plan.
D. Detailed risk assessment.
A

Answer B
Explanation In the project management process, the project budget, detailed risk assessment, and project management plan come after the schedule is created. The only answer that could be an input is the work breakdown structure.

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30
Q
03-05 The person who should be in control of the project during project planning is the:
A. Project manager.
B. Team member.
C. Functional manager.
D. Sponsor.
A

Answer A
Explanation The project manager should be named early in the project, during project initiating if possible. It is then his or her responsibility to control the project throughout its life.

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31
Q
03-06 Which of the following is NOT an input to the initiating process group?
A. Company processes
B. Company culture
C. Historical WBSs
D. Project scope statement
A

Answer D
Explanation Notice the question asks which is NOT an input to project initiating. Did you read it correctly? Companies should have processes in place for hiring resources, reporting, and managing risks on projects (to name only a few). These are inputs to project initiating, as are company culture and historical WBSs. The project scope statement is an output of project planning.

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32
Q
03-07 The project sponsor has just signed the project charter. What is the NEXT thing to do?
A. Begin to complete work packages.
B. Validate scope.
C. Start integrated change control.
D. Start to create management plans.
A

Answer D
Explanation To answer this type of question, look for the choice that occurs closest to the process group you are in. The project charter is created during project initiating. Completing work packages is done during project executing. Validating scope and performing integrated change control are done during project monitoring and controlling. Starting to create management plans is the best choice, as it is part of project planning.

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33
Q
03-08 The high-level project schedule constraints have just been determined. What project management process group are you in?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Monitoring and controlling
A

Answer A

Explanation High-level constraints are identified in the project charter, which is created during project initiating.

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34
Q

03-09 The WBS and WBS dictionary are completed. The project team has begun working on identifying risks. The sponsor contacts the project manager, requesting that the responsibility assignment matrix be issued. The project has a budget of US $100,000 and is taking place in three countries using 14 human resources. There is little risk expected for the project, and the project manager has managed many projects similar to this one. What is the NEXT thing to do?
A. Understand the experience of the sponsor on similar projects.
B. Create an activity list.
C. Make sure the project scope is defined.
D. Complete risk management and issue the responsibility assignment matrix.

A

Answer B
Explanation Look at the order of planning the project that the team has chosen. Although understanding the experience of the sponsor might sound like a good idea, the sponsor is a stakeholder and understanding the stakeholders is part of stakeholder analysis. That should have occurred before the creation of a WBS. Project scope must be defined before a WBS can be created. Completing risk management and issuing the responsibility assignment matrix cannot be best, as that work does not come next in the process. Other work must be done before risk management can effectively be completed. Creating an activity list comes next after the WBS and “WBS dictionary.

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35
Q

03-10 A project manager does not have much time to spend on planning before the mandatory start date arrives. He therefore wants to move through planning as effectively as possible. What advice would you offer?
A. Make sure you have a signed project charter and then start the WBS.
B. Create an activity list before creating a network diagram.
C. Document all the known risks before you document the high-level assumptions.
D. Finalize the quality management plan before you determine quality metrics.

A

Answer B
Explanation This question is asking which of the choices is the most effective way to move through project planning. Starting the WBS immediately after obtaining a project charter skips the important steps of defining the scope and other activities. High-level assumptions are determined
in project initiating. Quality metrics are determined as part of the quality management plan, not after it. The activity list is created before the network diagram, so that is the best option.

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36
Q
03-11 The BEST time to assign a project manager to a project is during:
A. Integration.
B. Project selection.
C. Initiating.
D. Planning.
A

Answer C

Explanation The project manager should be assigned during project initiating.

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37
Q
03-12 A project manager gets a call from a team member notifying him that there is a variance between the speed of a system on the project and the desired or planned speed. The project manager is surprised because that performance measurement was not identified in planning. If the project manager then evaluates whether the variance warrants a response, he is in which part of the
project management process?
A. Initiating
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and controlling
D. Closing
A

Answer C
Explanation Even though the measurement was not identified in planning, the project manager would still have to investigate the variance and determine if it is important. The project manager is in project monitoring and controlling.

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38
Q
03-13 A team member notifies the project manager that the activities comprising a work package are no longer appropriate. It would be BEST for the project manager to be in what part of the project management process?
A. Corrective action
B. Integrated change control
C. Monitoring and controlling
D. Project closing
A

Answer C
Explanation If you chose another part of the project management process, you probably forgot that the situation needs to be evaluated by the project manager before recommending a change or beginning integrated change control.

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39
Q
03-14 During a team meeting, a team member asks about the measurements that will be used on the project to assess performance. The team member feels that some of the measures related to activities assigned to him are not valid measurements. The project is BEST considered to be in what part of the project management process?
A. Closing
B. Monitoring and controlling
C. Executing
D. Initiating
A

Answer C
Explanation This situation does not describe an actual measurement (a monitoring and controlling activity) but rather a meeting occurring during project executing.

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40
Q

03-15 Which of the following is the MOST appropriate thing to do during the initiating process group?
A. Create a detailed description of the project deliverables.
B. Get familiar with the company culture and structure as they relate to the project.
C. Identify the root cause of problems.
D. Ensure all project management processes are complete.

A

Answer B
Explanation A detailed description of the project deliverables is created during project planning, as part of creating the project scope statement. Root cause analysis occurs during project monitoring and controlling, not initiating. Ensuring all project management processes are
complete occurs during project closing. It is important for a project manager to become familiar with the company culture and structure as they relate to the project as early in the project as possible. This is the most appropriate choice to do in project initiating.

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41
Q
03-16 Which of the following is a characteristic of project management processes?
A. Iterative
B. Unique
C. Unnecessary
D. Standardized
A

Answer A
Explanation As the project life cycle progresses, more information becomes available, allowing the team to manage the project to a more detailed level.

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42
Q
03-17 Which project management process group generally takes the MOST project time and resources?
A. Planning
B. Design
C. Integration
D. Executing
A

Answer D
Explanation Did you notice that planning and executing are the only process groups offered as choices? Therefore, design and integration can be eliminated as options. Doing the actual work (in executing) will generally take the most project time and resources.

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43
Q

03-18 All of the following must be performed during project initiating EXCEPT:
A. Identify and document business needs.
B. Create a project scope statement.
C. Divide a large project into phases.
D. Accumulate and evaluate historical information.

A

Answer B

Explanation A project scope statement is created during project planning.

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44
Q

03-19 Closure includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Determining performance measures.
B. Turning over the product of the project.
C. Documenting the degree to which each project phase was properly closed after its completion.
D. Updating the company’s organizational process assets.

A

Answer A
Explanation Performance measures are determined earlier in the project so they can be used to measure progress during the project, making determining performance measures the only correct answer to this question.

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45
Q

03-20 The first phase of your project has come to an end. What is the MOST important thing to ensure is done BEFORE beginning the next phase?
A. Verify that the resources are available for the next phase.
B. Check the project’s progress compared to its baselines.
C. Confirm that the phase has reached its objectives, and have its deliverables formally accepted.
D. Recommend corrective action to bring the project results in line with project expectations.

A

Answer C

Explanation A phase or project must be formally closed and accepted

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46
Q
03-21 During which process group does the team measure and analyze the work being done on the project?
A. Initiating
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and controlling
D. Closing
A

Answer C
Explanation During monitoring and controlling, project performance is measured and needed changes are identified and approved.

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47
Q

03-22 Which process groups must be included in every project?
A. Planning, executing, and closing
B. Initiating, planning, and executing
C. Initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, and closing
D. Planning, executing, and monitoring and controlling

A

Answer C
Explanation All five process groups are addressed in each project. It is the responsibility of the project manager to determine the level of attention to give to each process group.

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48
Q

03-23 Which of the following is the MOST appropriate thing to do in project closing?
A. Work with the customer to determine acceptance criteria.
B. Collect historical information from previous projects.
C. Confirm all the requirements in the project have been met.
D. Gain formal approval of the management plans.

A

Answer C
Explanation Collecting historical information and determining high-level acceptance criteria are done in project initiating. Gaining approval of management plans is part of project planning. Confirming that project requirements have been met occurs in project closing.

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49
Q
03-24 Which process group focuses on completing the requirements of the project?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Closing
A

Answer C

Explanation Project executing is where work is done to produce the product of the project.

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50
Q
03-25 All of the following occur during the planning process group EXCEPT:
A. Develop Project Charter.
B. Create WBS.
C. Estimate Costs.
D. Sequence Activities.
A

Answer A

Explanation Develop Project Charter occurs during project initiating.

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51
Q

03-26 A market demand, a business need, and/or a legal requirement are examples of:
A. Reasons to hire a project manager.
B. Reasons projects are initiated.
C. Reasons people or businesses become stakeholders.
D. Reasons to sponsor a project.

A

Answer B

Explanation These are all reasons projects are initiated.

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52
Q
04-01 The need for \_\_\_ is one of the major driving forces for communication in a project.
A. Optimization
B. Integrity
C. Integration
D. Differentiation
A

Answer C

Explanation The project manager is an integrator. This is a question about your role as an integrator and communicator.

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53
Q

04-02 The customer has accepted the completed project scope. However, the lessons learned required by the project management office have not been completed. What is the status of the project?
A. The project is incomplete because it needs to be replanned.
B. The project is incomplete until all project and product deliverables are complete and accepted.
C. The project is complete because the customer has accepted the deliverables.
D. The project is complete because it has reached its due date.

A

Answer B
Explanation Replanning is uncalled for by the situation described. Reaching the planned completion date does not mean the project is necessarily finished. A project is complete when all work, including all project management work, is complete and the product of the project and all project deliverables are accepted. The lessons learned are project management deliverables, and therefore must be completed for the project to be complete.

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54
Q
04-03 When it comes to changes, the project manager's attention is BEST focused on:
A. Making changes.
B. Tracking and recording changes.
C. Informing the sponsor of changes.
D. Preventing unnecessary changes.
A

Answer D

Explanation Project managers should be proactive. The only proactive answer here is preventing unnecessary changes.

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55
Q

04-04 The customer on a project tells the project manager they have run out of money to pay for the project. What should the project manager do FIRST?
A. Shift more of the work to later in the schedule to allow time for the customer to get the funds.
B. Close Project or Phase.
C. Stop work.
D. Release part of the project team.

A

Answer B
Explanation Every project must be closed, as closure provides benefit to the performing organization. This means simply stopping work is not the best choice. Shifting work and releasing team members do not solve the problem—they just postpone dealing with it. The best thing for the project manager to do is begin the Close Project or Phase process.

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56
Q
04-05 All of the following are parts of an effective change management plan EXCEPT:
A. Procedures.
B. Standards for reports.
C. Meetings.
D. Lessons learned.
A

Answer D
Explanation A change management plan includes the processes and procedures that allow smooth evaluation and tracking of changes. Lessons learned are reviews of the processes and procedures after the fact, to improve them on future projects.

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57
Q

04-06 A work authorization system can be used to:
A. Manage who does each activity.
B. Manage when and in what sequence work is done.
C. Manage when each activity is done.
D. Manage who does each activity and when it is done.

A

Answer B
Explanation Who does each activity is managed with the responsibility assignment matrix. When each activity is done is managed with the project schedule. A work authorization system is used to coordinate when and in what order the work is performed so that work and people may properly interface with other work and other people.

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58
Q
04-07 A project is plagued by changes to the project charter. Who has the primary responsibility to decide if these changes are necessary?
A. The project manager
B. The project team
C. The sponsor
D. The stakeholders
A

Answer C
Explanation The sponsor issues the project charter and so he or she should help the project manager control changes to the charter. The primary responsibility lies with the sponsor.

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59
Q

04-08 Effective project integration usually requires an emphasis on:
A. The personal careers of the team members.
B. Timely updates to the project management plan.
C. Effective communication at key interface points.
D. Product control.

A

Answer C
Explanation This question is asking for the most important of the choices. Think about what is involved in integration: project management plan development, project management plan execution, and integrated change control. Updates and product control are parts of project
monitoring and controlling, while integration includes more than control. Advancing the careers of team members falls under project executing (the Develop Project Team process). In order to integrate the project components into a cohesive whole, communication is key whenever one
activity will interface with another or one team member will interface with another, and when any other form of interfacing will occur.

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60
Q
04-09 Integration is done by the:
A. Project manager.
B. Team.
C. Sponsor.
D. Stakeholders.
A

Answer A

Explanation Integration is a key responsibility of the project manager.

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61
Q

04-10 Which of the following BEST describes the project manager’s role as an integrator?
A. Help team members become familiar with the project.
B. Put all the pieces of a project into a cohesive whole.
C. Put all the pieces of a project into a program.
D. Get all team members together into a cohesive whole.

A

Answer B

Explanation Integration refers to combining activities, not team members.

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62
Q
04-11 Approved corrective actions are an input to which of the following processes?
A. Validate Scope
B. Direct and Manage Project Work
C. Develop Project Charter
D. Develop Schedule
A

Answer B

Explanation Direct and Manage Project Work is the only correct response.

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63
Q
04-12 Double declining balance is a form of:
A. Decelerated depreciation.
B. Straight line depreciation.
C. Accelerated depreciation.
D. Life cycle costing.
A

Answer C .
Explanation Double declining balance is a form of depreciation. That eliminates the choice of life cycle costing. The choices of decelerated depreciation and straight line depreciation are also incorrect because double declining balance is a form of accelerated depreciation.

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64
Q

04-13 Which of the following BEST describes what a project charter may be used for when the work is being completed?
A. To make sure all the team members are rewarded
B. To help determine if a scope change should be approved
C. To assess the effectiveness of the change control system
D. To make sure that all the documentation on the project is completed

A

Answer B
Explanation One of the ways to decide if a change should be approved is to determine whether the work falls within the project charter. If not, it should be rejected, assigned to a more appropriate project, or addressed as a project of its own.

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65
Q

04-14 Which of the following BEST describes a project management plan?
A. A printout from project management software
B. A bar chart
C. Risk, human resource., process improvement, and other management plans
D. The project scope

A

Answer C
Explanation The project management plan includes more than just a bar chart and the project manager’s plan for completing the work. It includes all the management plans for the project.

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66
Q

04-15 Which of the following is TRUE about the development of a project charter?
A. The sponsor creates the project charter, and the project manager approves it.
B. The project team creates the project charter, and the PMO approves it.
C. The executive manager creates the project charter, and the functional manager approves it.
D. The project manager creates the project charter, and the sponsor approves it.

A

Answer D
Explanation The project manager may create the project charter, but it is approved and authorized by the project sponsor, giving the project manager authority to proceed with the project.

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67
Q

04-16 A project management plan should be realistic in order to be used to manage the project. Which of the following is the BEST method to achieve a realistic project management plan?
A. The sponsor creates the project management plan based on input from the project manager.
B. The functional manager creates the project management plan based on input from the project
manager.
C. The project manager creates the project management plan based on input from senior
management.
D. The project manager creates the project management plan based on input from the team.

A

Answer D
Explanation If we were to rephrase the question, it would be asking, “Who creates the project management plan?” The best answer is that the project management plan is created by the project manager but requires input from the team.

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68
Q

04-17 You are taking over a project during project planning and discover that six individuals have signed the project charter. Which of the following should MOST concern you?
A. Who will be a member of the change control board
B. Spending more time on configuration management
C. Getting a single project sponsor
D. Determining the reporting structure

A

Answer B
Explanation Determining who will be on the change control board and determining the reporting structure may have already been done. In any case, these choices are not directly impacted by the number of sponsors who have signed the charter. Having a single project sponsor
is not necessary. This situation implies that there are six areas concerned with this project. In addition to added communications requirements, you should be concerned with competing needs and requirements impacting your efforts on configuration management.

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69
Q

04-18 The project manager is working to clearly describe the level of involvement expected from everyone on the project in order to prevent rework, conflict, and coordination problems. Which of the following BEST describes the project managers efforts?
A. Develop Project Management Plan and Plan Quality Management
B. Manage Stakeholder Engagement and Direct and Manage Project Work
C. Validate Scope and Control Quality
D. Identify Risks and Develop Project Team

A

Answer A
Explanation Notice that this question uses the words “working to clearly describe’ and prevent. Taken together, they should tell you the project is in project planning. This eliminates all choices except Develop Project Management Plan and Plan Quality Management. Coordination and
conflict prevention relate to Develop Project Management Plan, and preventing rework is part of Plan Quality Management.

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70
Q
04-19 All of the following are parts of the Direct and Manage Project Work process EXCEPT:
A. Identifying changes.
B. Using a work breakdown structure.
C. Implementing corrective actions.
D. Setting up a project control system.
A

Answer D
Explanation A WBS is created in project planning, but can be used to help manage the project during project executing. The wording here was not “creating a WBS,” but “using a WBS.” A project control system is set up during project planning, not during project executing, and therefore is the exception.

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71
Q

04-20 A project manager is appointed to head a highly technical project in an area with which this person has limited familiarity. The project manager delegates the processes of Develop Schedule, Estimate Costs, Define Activities, and Estimate Activity Resources to various project team members, and basically serves as an occasional referee and coordinator of activities. The results of this approach are likely to be:
A. A team functioning throughout the project at a very high level, demonstrating creativity and
commitment.
B. A team that initially experiences some amounts of confusion, but that after a period of time
becomes a cohesive and effective unit.
C. A team that is not highly productive, but that stays together because of the work environment
created by the project manager.
D. A team that is characterized by poor performance, low morale, high levels of conflict, and high
turnover.

A

Answer D
Explanation A project manager must manage and integrate all aspects of a project. If all activities are delegated, chaos ensues and team members will spend more time jockeying for position than completing activities.

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72
Q

04-21 You are in the middle of executing a major modification to an existing product when you learn that
the resources promised at the beginning of the project are not available. The BEST thing to do is to:
A. Show how the resources were originally promised to your project.
B. Replan the project without the resources.
C. Explain the impact if the promised resources are not made available.
D. Crash the project.

A

Answer C
Explanation Crashing and replanning are essentially delaying the situation. Instead, the project manager should try to prevent the situation by showing the consequences if the resources are not available. This is a more effective strategy than saying, “But you gave them to me.”

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73
Q

04-22 The primary customer of a project has requested an application change during user testing. As project manager, how should you BEST address this issue?
A. Develop a risk mitigation plan.
B. Create a formal change request.
C. Inform the project sponsor of changes to scope, cost, and schedule.
D. Ensure the scope change complies with all relevant contractual provisions.

A

Answer B
Explanation Your first action is to formally document the requested change to the requirements, and then follow the integrated change control process.

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74
Q

04-23 The project manager has just received a change from the customer that does not affect the project
schedule and is easy to complete. What should the project manager do FIRST?
A. Make the change happen as soon as possible.
B. Contact the project sponsor for permission.
C. Go to the change control board.
D. Evaluate the impacts on other project constraints.

A

Answer D
Explanation The other impacts to the project should be evaluated first. Such impacts include scope, cost, quality, risk, resources, and customer satisfaction. Once these are evaluated, the change control board, if one exists, can approve or deny the change.

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75
Q

04-24 Your company just won a major new project. It will begin in three months and is valued at US $2,000,000. You are the project manager for an existing project. What is the FIRST thing you should do once you hear of the new project?
A. Ask management how the new project will use resources.
B. Resource level your project.
C. Crash your project.
D. Ask management how the new project will affect your project.

A

Answer D
Explanation You do not have enough information to consider resource leveling or crashing this project. As you work on any project, you need to constantly reevaluate the project objectives and how the project relates to other concurrent projects. Is your project still in line with corporate objectives? If the other project will impact yours, you need to be proactive and work on options now.

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76
Q
04-25 You were just assigned to take over a project from another project manager who is leaving the company. The previous project manager tells you that the project is on schedule, but only because  he has constantly pushed the team to perform. What is the FIRST thing you should do as the new project manager?
A. Check risk status.
B. Check cost performance.
C. Determine a management strategy.
D. Tell the team your objectives.
A

Answer C
Explanation Before you can do anything else, you have to know what YOU are going to do. Developing the management strategy will provide the framework for all the rest of the choices presented and the other activities that need to be done.

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77
Q
04-26 You are assigned as the project manager in the middle of the project. The project is within the baselines, but the customer is not happy with the performance of the project. What is the FIRST thing you should do?
A. Discuss it with the project team.
B. Recalculate baselines.
C. Renegotiate the contract.
D. Meet with the customer.
A

Answer D

Explanation First, you need to find out why the customer is not happy. Then meet with the team and determine options.

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78
Q

04-27 It is the middle of the project when the project manager is informed by her scheduler that the
project control limits are secure. That same morning she receives a note from a team member about a problem he is having. The note says, “This activity is driving me crazy, and the manager of the accounting department won’t help me until the activity’s float is in jeopardy.” In addition,
the project manager has e-mails from a minor stakeholder and 14 e-mails from team members. While she is reading the e-mails, a team member walks into the project manager’s office to tell her a corrective action was implemented by a team member from the project management office, but was not documented. What should the project manager do NEXT?
A. Report the documentation violation to the project management office, evaluate the security of
the control limits, and review the e-mailing rules in the communications management plan.
B. Clarify the reasoning behind documentation being a problem, get the accounting department
to assist the team member, and respond to the minor stakeholder.
C. Add the implemented corrective action to the change log, discuss the value of documentation
at the next team meeting, and smooth the team member’s issue with the accounting
department.
D. Find out who caused the problem with the accounting department, respond to the minor
stakeholder before responding to the other e-mails, and review the process listed in the
communications management plan for reporting concerns with the team member having the
documentation problem.

A

Answer C
Explanation Notice how many situations are thrown at you in this question. It is important to practice reading through questions to discover what is important and what is just background information. In this question, the only thing relevant was the corrective action taken. Once you discover what the primary issue is, look at the choices to find out which is best for addressing that issue. What is the primary issue here? Did you realize the team members note is about a noncritical path activity? (“Until the project float is in jeopardy” means there is float and, thus, it is not on the critical path.) So is the issue the noncritical path activity or the documentation? You might disagree with the logic, but in this case the answer is the documentation. In the real world, problems often repeat. Without a record of what was done, there is no opportunity to consider the
same solution for future problems. Documentation is critical to projects. Because the change log becomes part of the historical records database, it is best to first record the corrective action taken, then discuss the value of documentation at the next team meeting, and smooth the team member’s issue with the accounting department.

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79
Q

04-28 The client demands changes to the product specification that will add only two weeks to the critical path. Which of the following is the BEST thing for the project manager to do?
A. Compress the schedule to recover the two weeks.
B. Cut scope to recover the two weeks.
C. Consult with the sponsor about options.
D. Advise the client of the impact of the change.

A

Answer C
Explanation Do you remember what to do when there is a change? Evaluate first. You wouldn’t take action before getting approval, so compressing the schedule or cutting scope would happen after consulting the sponsor and/or advising the client of the impact of the change. You would
not go to the customer before going to your internal management, so advising the client is not the correct thing to do next. The next step is to discuss options with the sponsor.

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80
Q

04-29 During project executing, the project manager determines that a change is needed to material purchased for the project. The project manager calls a meeting of the team to plan how to make the change. This is an example of:
A. Management by objectives.
B. Lack of a change management plan.
C. Good team relations.
D. Lack of a clear work breakdown structure.

A

Answer B
Explanation The project manager is asking how to make a change. Such a question cannot be resolved using management by objectives, team relations, or a work breakdown structure. The procedures, forms, sign-offs, and other similar requirements for handling changes should have already been determined in the change management plan. Because they were not, the project manager will waste valuable work time trying to figure it out after the fact.

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81
Q

04-30 The project was going well when all of a sudden there were changes to the project coming from multiple stakeholders. After all the changes were determined, the project manager spent time with all the stakeholders to find out why there were changes and to discover any more.
The project work has quieted down when a team member casually mentions to the project manager that he added functionality to a product of the project. “Do not worry,” he says, “I did not impact time, cost, or quality!” What should the project manager do FIRST?
A. Ask the team member how the need for the functionality was determined.
B. Hold a meeting to review the team members completed work.
C. Look for other added functionality.
D. Ask the team member how he knows there is no time, cost, or quality impact.

A

Answer D
Explanation Notice that the first paragraph is extraneous. Also notice that the question states that the change has already been made. The project managers actions would be different if the change had not been made. The project manager, with the help of others, must determine how a
change impacts the project as a whole. Asking the team member how he knows there is no impact on time, cost, or quality is the best answer. This begins the project managers analysis of the impacts to the project as a whole by finding out what analysis has already been done. This change minimally involves a change to the scope baseline, and likely other baselines. A change request must ultimately be submitted to integrated change control, but that is not listed as an option.

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82
Q
04-31 You are asked to prepare a budget for completing a project that was started last year and then shelved for six months. All the following would be included in the project budget EXCEPT:
A. Fixed costs.
B. Sunk costs.
C. Direct costs.
D. Variable costs.
A

Answer B
Explanation Sunk costs are expended costs. The rule is that they should not be considered when deciding whether to continue with a troubled project.

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83
Q
04-32 Which of the following sequences represents straight line depreciation?
A. $100, $100, $100
B. $100, $120, $140
C. $100, $120, $160
D. $160, $140, $120
A

Answer A

Explanation Straight line depreciation uses the same amount each time period.

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84
Q

04-33 This project is chartered to determine new ways to extend the product life of one of the company’s medium-producing products. The project manager comes from the engineering department, and the team comes from the product management and marketing departments. The project scope statement and project planning are completed when a stakeholder notifies the team that there is a better way to complete one of the work packages. The stakeholder supplies a technical review letter from his department proving that the new way to complete the work
package will actually be faster than the old way. The project manager has had similar experiences with this department on other projects, and was expecting this to happen on this project. What is the FIRST thing the project manager should do?
A. Contact the department and complain again about their missing the deadline for submission
of scope.
B. Look for how this change will impact the cost to complete the work package and the quality of
the product of the work package.
C. See if there is a way to change from a matrix organization to a functional organization so as to
eliminate all the interference from other departments.
D. Ask the department if they have any other changes.

A

Answer B
Explanation Complaining about the missed deadline could be done, but it is not proactive. It would be helpful to get to the root cause of why this department always comes up with such ideas or changes after the project begins. However, this is not the immediate problem; the change is
the immediate problem, and therefore complaining is not best. The type of project organization described is a matrix organization. There is not anything inherently wrong with such an organization, nor is there anything in this particular situation that would require it to be changed, so changing the way the company is organized cannot be best. The departments history indicates that asking if the department has other changes is something that should definitely be done, but the proposed change needs more immediate attention. Looking at impacts of the change begins
integrated change control.

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85
Q
04-34 Project A has an internal rate of return (IRR) of 21 percent. Project B has an IRR of 7 percent. Project C has an IRR of 31 percent. Project D has an IRR of 19 percent. Which of these would be the BEST project?
A. Project A
B. Project B
C. Project C
D. Project D
A

Answer C
Explanation Remember, the internal rate of return is similar to the interest rate you get from the bank. The higher the rate, the better the return.

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86
Q
04-35 An output of the Close Project or Phase process is the creation of:
A. Project archives.
B. A project charter.
C. A project management plan.
D. A risk management plan.
A

Answer A
Explanation The project charter is created in initiating. The project management plan and risk management plan are outputs of project planning. Project records are archived in the Close Project or Phase process.

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87
Q
04-36 All of the following occur during the Close Project or Phase process EXCEPT:
A. Creating lessons learned.
B. Formal acceptance.
C. Performance reporting.
D. Performing cost-benefit analysis.
A

Answer D
Explanation Cost-benefit analysis is done earlier in the project to help select between alternatives. All the other choices are done during the Close Project or Phase process. Therefore, performing cost-benefit analysis must be the best answer.

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88
Q
04-37 Which of the following is included in a project charter?
A. A risk management strategy
B. Work package estimates
C. Detailed resource estimates
D. The business case for the project
A

Answer D
Explanation A risk management strategy and work package estimates are not created until project planning, but the project charter is created in initiating. A project charter may include the names of some resources (the project manager, for example), but not detailed resource estimates. Of the choices given, only the business case for the project is included in the project charter.

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89
Q

04-38 A project manager is trying to convince management to use more formal project management procedures and has decided to start improving the company’s project management by obtaining a project charter for each of his projects. Which of the following BEST describes why a project charter would help the project manager?
A. It describes the details of what needs to be done.
B. It lists the names of all team members.
C. It gives the project manager authority.
D. It describes the history of similar or related projects.

A

Answer C
Explanation The exam will ask questions like this to make sure you know the benefits you should be getting out of the processes and tools of project management. The details of what needs to be done are found in the WBS dictionary. The names of team members are included in the
responsibility assignment matrix and other documents. Project history is found in the lessons learned and other historical records. A major benefit of a project charter is that it documents the authority given to the project manager.

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90
Q
04-39 Linear programming is an example of what type of project selection criteria?
A. Constrained optimization
B. Comparative approach
C. Benefit measurement
D. Impact analysis
A

Answer A

Explanation Constrained optimization uses mathematical models. Linear programming is a mathematical model.

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91
Q

04-40 You have been involved in creating the project charter, but could not get it approved. Your manager and his boss have asked that the project begin immediately. Which of the following is the BEST thing to do?
A. Set up an integrated change control process.
B. Show your manager the impact of proceeding without approval.
C. Focus on completing projects that have signed project charters.
D. Start work on only the critical path activities.

A

Answer B
Explanation The best thing to do would be to show the impact. This is the only choice that prevents future problems—always the best choice. The other choices just pretend the problem does not exist.

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92
Q

04-41 The engineering department has uncovered a problem with the cost accounting system and has asked the systems department to analyze what is wrong and fix the problem. You are a project manager working with the cost accounting programs on another project. Management has issued a change request to the change control board to add the new work to your project. Your existing project has a cost performance index (CPI) of 1.2 and a schedule performance index (SPI) of 1.3, so you have some room to add work without delaying your existing project or going over budget. However, you cannot see how the new work fits within the project charter for your existing project. After some analysis, you determine that the new work and existing work do not overlap and can be done concurrently. They also require different skill sets. Which of the following is the BEST thing to do?
A. Develop a project charter.
B. Reestimate the project schedule with input from the engineering department.
C. Validate the scope of the new work with the help of the stakeholders.
D. Identify specific changes to the existing work.

A

Answer A
Explanation How long did it take you to read this question? Expect long-winded questions on the exam. Take another look at the choices before you continue reading. Did you notice that each of the choices occurs during a different part of the project management process?
This question is essentially asking if the new work should be added to the existing project. There may be many business reasons to try to do this, but from a project management perspective, major additions to the project are generally discouraged. In this case, the new work is a self-contained unit of work, has no overlap with the existing work, does not fit within the project charter, and
needs a different skill set. Therefore, it is best to make it a new project.
The first step to answering this question is to realize that the work should be a separate project. The second step is to look at the choices and see which relates to initiating a new project. Reestimating the project sounds like the best choice only if you did not realize that the new work should be a separate project. Validating scope is done during project monitoring and controlling,
and does not relate to the decision of whether to add work to the project. Identifying scope changes also implies that the new work has been accepted as an addition to the existing project. Developing a project charter is among the first steps of initiating a new project, and the best
choice in this situation.

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93
Q
04-42 All technical work is completed on the project. Which of the following remains to be done?
A. Validate Scope
B. Plan Risk Responses
C. Create a staffing management plan
D. Complete lessons learned
A

Answer D
Explanation Did you pick Validate Scope? Then you may have forgotten that the Validate Scope process is done during project monitoring and controlling, not project closing. Planning the risk responses and creating the staffing management plan are done earlier in the project. The lessons learned can only be completed after the work is completed.

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94
Q

04-43 Which of the following BEST reflects the phrase “influencing the factors that affect change
A. Telling people that changes are not allowed after planning is complete
B. Determining the sources of changes and fixing the root causes
C. Adding more activities to the work breakdown structure to accommodate risks
D. Calculating the impact of changes to date on the project

A

Answer B
Explanation A project manager should be looking at where changes are coming from and doing whatever is necessary to limit the negative effects of change on the project. He or she needs to find the root cause, so future changes may be avoided.

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95
Q

05-01 A work breakdown structure numbering system allows the project team to:
A. Systematically estimate costs of work breakdown structure elements.
B. Provide project justification.
C. Identify the level at which individual elements are found.
D. Use it in project management software.

A

Answer C
Explanation The numbering system allows team members to quickly identify the level in the work breakdown structure where the specific element is found. It also helps to locate the element in the WBS dictionary.

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96
Q
05-02 The work breakdown structure can BEST be thought of as an effective aid for communications.
A. Team
B. Project manager
C. Customer
D. Stakeholder
A

Answer D
Explanation The term “stakeholder” encompasses all the other choices. In this case, it is the best answer since the WBS can be used (but does not need to be used) as a communications tool for all stakeholders to “see” what is included in the project.

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97
Q

05-03 Which of the following is a KEY output of the Validate Scope process?
A. A more complete scope management plan
B. Customer acceptance of project deliverables
C. Improved schedule estimates
D. An improved project management information system

A

Answer B
Explanation The output of the Validate Scope process is customer acceptance of project deliverables. The other choices all happen during project planning, well before the time the Validate Scope process takes place.

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98
Q
05-04 During project executing, a team member comes to the project manager because he is not sure what work he needs to accomplish on the project. Which of the following documents contains detailed descriptions of work packages?
A. WBS dictionary
B. Activity list
C. Project scope statement
D. Scope management plan
A

Answer A
Explanation Activity lists may identify the work package they relate to, but they do not contain detailed descriptions of the work packages. The project scope statement defines the project scope, but it does not describe the work a team member is assigned. The scope management plan describes how scope will be planned, managed, and controlled. It does not include a description of each work package. The WBS dictionary defines each element in the WBS. Therefore, descriptions of the work packages are in the WBS dictionary.

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99
Q
05-05 During which part of the project management process is the project scope statement created?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Monitoring and controlling
A

Answer B

Explanation The project scope statement is an output of the Define Scope process, which occurs during project planning.

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100
Q
05-06 The program was planned years ago, before there was a massive introduction of new technology. While planning the next project in this program, the project manager has expanded the scope management plan because, as a project becomes more complex, the level of uncertainty in the scope:
A. Remains the same.
B. Decreases.
C. Decreases then increases.
D. Increases.
A

Answer D
Explanation Not all questions will be difficult. The level of uncertainty in scope increases based on the scale of effort required to identify all the scope. For larger projects, it is more difficult to “catch” everything.

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101
Q

05-07 During a meeting with some of the project stakeholders, the project manager is asked to add work
to the project scope. The project manager had access to correspondence about the project before the project charter was signed and remembers that the project sponsor specifically denied funding for the scope mentioned by these stakeholders. The BEST thing for the project manager to do is to:
A. Let the sponsor know of the stakeholders’ request.
B. Evaluate the impact of adding the scope.
C. Tell the stakeholders the scope cannot be added.
D. Add the work if there is time available in the project schedule.

A

Answer C
Explanation Although one could let the sponsor know about the stakeholders’ request, the best choice listed would be to say no, as this was already considered. An even better choice would be to find the root cause of the problem, but that choice is not listed here.

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102
Q

05-08 A new project manager is being mentored by a more experienced PMP-certified project manager. The new project manager is having difficulty finding enough time to manage the project because the project scope is being progressively elaborated. The PMP-certified project manager advises that the basic tools for project management, such as a work breakdown structure, can be used during project executing to assist the project manager. For which of the following can a work breakdown structure be used?
A. Communicating with the customer
B. Showing calendar dates for each work package
C. Showing the functional managers for each team member
D. Showing the business need for the project

A

Answer A
Explanation A WBS does not show dates or responsibility assignments. The business need is described in the project charter. In this situation, the project scope is being fine-tuned. It would save the project manager time in effectively managing progressive elaboration if the WBS was used as a communications tool. Using the WBS helps ensure everyone (including the customer) understands the scope of the work.

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103
Q
05-09 During a project team meeting, a team member suggests an enhancement to the scope that is beyond the scope of the project charter. The project manager points out that the team needs to concentrate on completing all the work and only the work required. This is an example of:
A. Change management process.
B. Scope management.
C. Quality analysis.
D. Scope decomposition.
A

Answer B
Explanation The team member is suggesting an enhancement that is outside the scope of the project charter. Scope management involves focusing on doing the work and only the work in the project management plan that meets the objectives of the project charter. The project manager is performing scope management.

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104
Q

05-10 When should the Validate Scope process be done?
A. At the end of the project
B. At the beginning of the project
C. At the end of each phase of the project
D. During the planning processes

A

Answer C
Explanation The Validate Scope process occurs during project monitoring and controlling. It is done at the end of each project phase to get approval for phase deliverables, as well as at other points to get approval for interim deliverables.

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105
Q

05-11 The project is mostly complete. The project has a schedule variance of 300 and a cost variance of -900. All but one of the quality control inspections have been completed and all have met the quality requirements. All items in the issue log have been resolved. Many of the resources have been released. The sponsor is about to call a meeting to obtain product validation when the customer notifies the project manager that they want to make a major change to the scope. The project manager should:
A. Meet with the project team to determine if this change can be made.
B. Ask the customer for a description of the change.
C. Explain that the change cannot be made at this point in the process.
D. Inform management.

A

Answer B
Explanation Do not jump into the problem without thinking. The customer only notified the project manager that they want to make a change. They did not describe the change. The project manager should not say no until he or she knows more about the potential change, nor should the project manager go to management without more information. The project manager must understand the nature of the change and have time to evaluate the impact of that change before doing anything else. Of these choices, the first thing to do is to determine what the change is. The project manager might then analyze the potential change with the team, but only if their input is required.

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106
Q

05-12 You have just joined the project management office after five years of working on projects. One of the things you want to introduce to your company is the value of creating and utilizing work breakdown structures. Some of the project managers are angry that you are asking them to do “extra work.” Which of the following would be the BEST thing you could tell the project managers to convince them to use work breakdown structures?
A. Work breakdown structures will prevent work from slipping through the cracks.
B. Work breakdown structures are only needed on large projects.
C. Work breakdown structures are required only if the project involves contracts.
D. Work breakdown structures are the only way to identify risks.

A

Answer A
Explanation Work breakdown structures are required on projects of every size, regardless of whether contracts are involved. Work breakdown structures can be used to help identify risks, but risks can be identified using other methods as well. Preventing work from being forgotten
(slipping through the cracks) is one of the main reasons the tool is used, and is the best choice offered here.

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107
Q

05-13 A new project manager has asked you for advice on creating a work breakdown structure. After you explain the process to her, she asks you what software she should use to create the WBS and what she should do with it when it is completed. You might respond that it is not the picture that
is the most valuable result of creating a WBS. The most valuable result of a WBS is:
A. A bar chart.
B. Team buy-in.
C. Activities.
D. A list of risks.

A

Answer B
Explanation The WBS is an input to all of these choices. However, team buy-in is a direct result of the WBS creation process, while the other choices use the WBS to assist in their completion. Involving the team in creating the WBS provides project team members with an understanding
of where their pieces fit into the overall project management plan and gives them an indication of the impact of their work on the project as a whole.

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108
Q

05-14 To manage a project effectively, work should be broken down into small pieces. Which of the following does NOT describe how far to decompose the work?
A. Until it has a meaningful conclusion
B. Until it cannot be logically subdivided further
C. Until it can be done by one person
D. Until it can be realistically estimated

A

Answer C
Explanation The lowest level of the WBS is a work package, which can be completed by more than one person. The other choices are aspects of a work package.

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109
Q
05-15 A project manager may use to make sure the team members clearly know what work is included in each of their work packages.
A. The project scope statement
B. The product scope
C. The WBS dictionary
D. The schedule
A

Answer C
Explanation The project scope statement describes work on a high-level basis. Work packages need to be specific to enable team members to complete their work without gold plating. The product scope does not tell team members what work is assigned to them. The team should have a copy of the schedule, but a schedule does not show them what work is included in each of their work packages. Work packages are described in the WBS dictionary. NOTE: Do not think of the WBS dictionary as a dictionary of terms.

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110
Q

05-16 The MAIN purpose of writing a user story is:
A. To document features or functions required by stakeholders.
B. To create a record of issues encountered on the project.
C. To perform what-if analysis.
D. To communicate progress.

A

Answer A
Explanation A user story is a way of stating a requirement, often using the following format: As a , I want , so that User stories may be developed in facilitated workshops or as part of other requirements-gathering methods.

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111
Q
05-17 The construction phase of a new software product is near completion. The next phases are testing and implementation. The project is two weeks ahead of schedule. Which of the following processes should the project manager be MOST concerned with before moving into the final phase?
A. Validate Scope
B. Control Quality
C. Manage Communications
D. Control Costs
A

Answer A
Explanation The Validate Scope process deals with acceptance by the customer. Without this acceptance, the project manager will not be able to move into the next project phase.

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112
Q

05-18 You are managing a six-month project and have held bi-weekly meetings with your project stakeholders. After five-and-a-half months of work, the project is on schedule and budget, but the stakeholders are not satisfied with the deliverables. This situation will delay the project completion
by one month. The MOST important process that could have prevented this situation is:
A. Monitor and Control Risks.
B. Control Schedule.
C. Define Scope.
D. Control Scope.

A

Answer C
Explanation Monitor and Control Risks, Control Schedule, and Control Scope are monitoring and controlling processes. This situation asks how to prevent the problem, which would have been done during planning. The project deliverables are defined in the Define Scope process, which is a part of project planning. Good planning reduces the likelihood of a situation like the one described, by including the right people and spending adequate time clarifying the project scope.

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113
Q
05-19 All of the following are parts of the scope baseline EXCEPT the:
A. Scope management plan.
B. Project scope statement.
C. Work breakdown structure.
D. WBS dictionary.
A

Answer A
Explanation The scope baseline includes the WBS, WBS dictionary, and the project scope statement. The scope management plan is not part of the scope baseline.

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114
Q

05-20 One of the stakeholders on the project contacts the project manager to discuss some additional scope they would like to add to the project. The project manager asks for details in writing and then works through the Control Scope process. What should the project manager do NEXT when the evaluation of the requested scope is complete?
A. Ask the stakeholder if there are any more changes expected.
B. Complete integrated change control.
C. Make sure the impact of the change is understood by the stakeholder.
D. Find out the root cause of why the scope was not discovered during project planning.

A

Answer B
Explanation Notice that there are many things the project manager could do listed in the choices. The question asks what is the BEST thing to do NEXT. Management of the change is not complete when the Control Scope process is completed. It is important to look at the impact of the change on other parts of the project, such as time and cost. Therefore, performing integrated change control is the best thing to do next. This would probably be followed by making sure the impact of the change is understood by the stakeholder, then determining why this scope was not identified in planning, and asking the stakeholder if there are more changes expected.

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115
Q

05-21 During the completion of project work, the sponsor asks the project manager to report on how the project is going. In order to prepare the report, the project manager asks all the team members what percent complete their work is. There is one team member who has been hard to manage from the beginning. In response to being asked what percent complete he is, the team member asks, “Percent complete of what?” Being tired of such comments, the project manager reports to the team member’s boss that the team member is not cooperating. Which of the following is MOST likely the real problem?
A. The project manager did not get buy-in from the manager for the resources on the project.
B. The project manager did not create an adequate reward system for team members to improve
their cooperation.
C. The project manager should have had a meeting with the team member’s boss the first time the
team member caused trouble.
D. The project manager did not assign work packages.

A

Answer D
Explanation The project manager is not losing resources (which is implied by not getting the manager’s buy-in). Although a reward system would help with cooperation, the real problem here is not cooperation. Meeting with the team member and his boss cannot be the answer because it also does not solve the problem at hand (the team member not knowing what he is to do). If you selected this choice, be very careful! You can get 10 to 20 questions wrong on the exam simply because you do not see the real problem! The whole discussion of the team member and his actions is a distracter. The real problem in this scenario is not that the team member is being uncooperative. He is asking a question that many team members want to ask in the real world. “How can I tell you how things are going if I do not know what work I am being asked to do?” The real problem is the lack of a WBS and work packages. If there were a WBS and work packages for the project, the team member would not have to ask such a question.

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116
Q
05-22 The development of the scope baseline can BEST be described as involving:
A. The functional managers.
B. The project team.
C. All the stakeholders.
D. The project expediter.
A

Answer B
Explanation After obtaining input from the customer and other stakeholders, the project team is responsible for developing the scope baseline. Remember that the scope baseline includes the WBS, WBS dictionary, and project scope statement.

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117
Q
05-23 Which of the following is an output of the Collect Requirements process?
A. Requirements traceability matrix
B. Project scope statement
C. Work breakdown structure
D. Change requests
A

Answer A
Explanation The project scope statement is an output of the Define Scope process. The work breakdown structure is an output of the Create WBS process. Scope change requests are outputs of the Validate Scope and Control Scope processes. The requirements traceability matrix is an output of the Collect Requirements process, and is used to track the requirements throughout the life of the project.

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118
Q

05-24 A scope change has been suggested by one of the stakeholders on the project. After careful consideration and a lot of arguing, the change control board has decided to reject the change. What should the project manager do?
A. Support the stakeholder by asking the board for the reason for the rejection.
B. Suggest to the stakeholder that the next change they request will be approved.
C. Document the outcome of the change request.
D. Advise the change control board to make sure they create approval processes before the next
change is proposed.

A

Answer C
Explanation There is no reason to think that the boards rejection would not contain an explanation already, since providing that information is commonly done. Suggesting a change process that circumvents the change control board’s authority is not ethical. There is no reason to think that approval processes are not already in place. A rejected change should be recorded for historical purposes, in case the idea is resurrected later, and for other reasons.

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119
Q

05-25 The cost performance index (CPI) on the project is 1.13, and the benefit cost ratio is 1.2. The project scope was created by the team and stakeholders. Requirements on the project have been changing throughout the project. No matter what the project manager has tried to accomplish in
managing the project, which of the following is he MOST likely to face in the future?
A. Having to cut costs on the project and increase benefits
B. Making sure the customer has approved the project scope
C. Not being able to measure completion of the product of the project
D. Having to add resources to the project

A

Answer C
Explanation There are many pieces of data in this question that are abstracters from the real issue. Though it is common to have to cut costs and add resources to a project, nothing in the question should lead you to think these will be required in this situation. Customers do not generally approve the project scope (what you are going to do to complete their requirements); instead, they approve the product scope (their requirements). Since requirements are used to measure the completion of the product of the project, not having complete requirements will make such measurement impossible.

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120
Q
05-26 Validate Scope is closely related to:
A. Control Quality.
B. Sequence Activities.
C. Perform Quality Assurance.
D. Time Management.
A

Answer A

Explanation Control Quality checks for correctness, and Validate Scope checks for acceptance.

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121
Q

05-27 Which of the following can create the MOST misinterpretation of the project scope statement?
A. Imprecise language
B. Poor pattern, structure, and chronological order
C. Small variations in size of work packages or detail of work
D. Too much detail

A

Answer A
Explanation Much of the work on the project is dictated by the project scope statement. Any imprecision in such a key document will lead to differing interpretations.

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122
Q

05-28 Which of the following is CORRECT in regard to the Control Scope process?
A. Effective scope definition can lead to a more complete project scope statement.
B. The Control Scope process must be done before scope planning.
C. The Control Scope process must be integrated with other control processes.
D. Controlling the schedule is the most effective way of controlling scope.

A

Answer C
Explanation Though it is correct that effective scope definition can lead to a more complete project scope statement, this cannot be the answer, because it does not deal with control. Scope planning occurs before the Control Scope process, not after it. Controlling the schedule is not
the best way to control scope, so that is not the best answer. The control processes do not act in isolation. A change to one will most likely affect the others. Therefore the need to integrate the Control Scope process with other control processes is the best answer.

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123
Q

05-29 Which of the following BEST describes the Validate Scope process?
A. It provides assurances that the deliverable meets the specifications, is an input to the project
management plan, and is an output of Control Quality.
B. It ensures the deliverable is completed on time, ensures customer acceptance, and shows the
deliverable meets specifications.
C. It ensures customer acceptance, shows the deliverable meets specifications, and provides a
chance for differences of opinion to come to light.
D. It is an output of Control Quality, occurs before Define Scope, and ensures customer
acceptance.

A

Answer C
Explanation The project management plan is completed before the Validate Scope process. The Validate Scope process does not deal with time, but rather acceptance. The Validate Scope process does not occur before the Define Scope process. The choice stating that the Validate Scope process ensures customer acceptance, shows the deliverable meets specifications, and provides a chance for differences of opinion to come to light is entirely correct, making that the best answer.

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124
Q

05-30 Which of the following BEST describes product analysis?
A. Working with the customer to determine the product description
B. Mathematically analyzing the quality desired for the project
C. Gaining a better understanding of the product of the project in order to create the project
scope statement
D. Determining whether the quality standards on the project can be met

A

Answer C
Explanation You need to have a product description before you can do product analysis. Analyzing the level of quality desired is related to the Plan Quality Management process.
Determining whether the quality standards on the project can be met is done in the Perform Quality Assurance process. Product analysis includes gaining a better understanding of the product of the project, in order to create the project scope statement.

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125
Q
06-01 To control the schedule, a project manager is reanalyzing the project to predict project duration. She does this by analyzing the sequence of activities with the least amount of scheduling flexibility. What technique is she using?
A. Critical path method
B. Flowchart
C. Precedence diagramming
D. Work breakdown structure
A

Answer A
Explanation There are only two choices related to scheduling: critical path method and precedence diagramming. Precedence diagramming, however, is a diagramming technique that deals with the relationship between activities, not schedule flexibility. The project manager is analyzing the critical path.

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126
Q
06-02 A dependency requiring that design be completed before manufacturing can start is an example of a(n):
A. Discretionary dependency.
B. External dependency.
C. Mandatory dependency.
D. Scope dependency.
A

Answer C
Explanation No mention is made that the dependency comes from a source outside the project, so this is not an external dependency. Scope dependency is not a defined term. The key word in the question is “requiring.” Since the dependency is required, it could not be discretionary and
therefore must be mandatory. The question defines a mandatory dependency.

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127
Q
06-03 Which of the following are GENERALLY illustrated BETTER by bar charts than network diagrams?
A. Logical relationships
B. Critical paths
C. Resource trade-offs
D. Progress or status
A

Answer D
Explanation The bar chart (or Gantt chart) is designed to show a relationship to time. This is best used when demonstrating progress or status as a factor of time.

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128
Q
06-04 If the optimistic estimate for an activity is 12 days, and the pessimistic estimate is 18 days, what is the standard deviation of this activity?
A. 1
B. 1.3
C. 6
D. 3
A

Answer A

Explanation The beta standard deviation is computed by (P - 0)/6. Therefore, the answer is (18 - 12)/6 = 6/6 = 1.

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129
Q
06-05 A heuristic is BEST described as a:
A. Control tool.
B. Scheduling method.
C. Planning tool.
D. Generally accepted rule.
A

Answer D
Explanation A heuristic is a generally accepted rule. Examples are cost per line of code, cost per square foot of floor space, etc.

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130
Q

06-06 Lag means:
A. The amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project finish date.
B. The amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the early start date of its successor.
C. Waiting time.
D. The product of a forward and backward pass.

A

Answer C
Explanation Total float and free float are the time an activity can be delayed without impacting the entire project or the next activity. A forward or backward pass refers to a network analysis technique, not waiting time. Waiting time is the correct definition of lag.

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131
Q
06-07 Which of the following is the BEST project management tool to use to determine the longest time the project will take?
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Network diagram
C. Bar chart
D. Project charter
A

Answer B
Explanation The bar chart may show an end date, but it is not used to determine dates. The project charter also may include a required end date, but not a logical determination of how long the project will take. The network diagram takes the activities from the activity list and a adds dependencies. The dependencies allow us to look at the various paths through the diagram to determine the longest duration (critical) path. The network diagram is the best answer.

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132
Q

06-08 Which of the following is CORRECT?
A. The critical path helps prove how long the project will take.
B. There can be only one critical path.
C. The network diagram will change every time the end date changes.
D. A project can never have negative float.

A

Answer A
Explanation This question tests your knowledge about a number of topics. There can often be more than one critical path, but you might adjust the plan in order to decrease risk and have only one critical path. The network diagram may or may not change when the end date changes,
depending on the amount of schedule reserve and the reason for the change to the schedule. You can have negative float if you are behind schedule. The critical path helps prove how long the project will take. This is the only correct statement of the choices given.

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133
Q

06-09 What is the duration of a milestone?
A. It is shorter than the duration of the longest activity.
B. It is shorter than the activity it represents.
C. It has no duration.
D. It is the same length as the activity it represents.

A

Answer C
Explanation A milestone represents the completion of a series of activities or work packages. Therefore, it takes no time of its own.

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134
Q

06-10 Which of the following BEST describes the relationship between standard deviation and risk?
A. There is no relationship.
B. Standard deviation tells you if the estimate is accurate.
C. Standard deviation tells you how uncertain the estimate is.
D. Standard deviation tells you if the estimate includes a pad.

A

Answer C
Explanation An estimate can have a wide range and still be accurate if the item estimated includes identified risks. There is no such thing as a pad in proper project management. An estimate might be inflated, but it is a calculated reserve to account for risks, not arbitrary padding. The standard deviation tells you the amount of uncertainty or risk involved in the estimate for the activity.

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135
Q

06-11 The float of an activity is determined by:
A. Performing a Monte Carlo analysis.
B. Determining the waiting time between activities.
C. Determining lag.
D. Determining the length of time the activity can be delayed without delaying the critical path.

A

Answer D
Explanation The total float of an activity is the length of time the activity can be delayed withoutdelaying the critical path.

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136
Q
06-12 A project has three critical paths. Which of the following BEST describes how this affects the project?
A. It makes it easier to manage.
B. It increases the project risk.
C. It requires more people.
D. It makes it more expensive.
A

Answer B
Explanation Though having three critical paths COULD require more people or cost more, the answer that is definitely and always true is that it increases project risk. Because you need to manage three critical paths, there is more risk that something could happen to delay the project.

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137
Q
06-13 If project time and cost are not as important as the number of resources used each month, which of the following is the BEST thing to do?
A. Perform a Monte Carlo analysis.
B. Fast track the project.
C. Perform resource optimization.
D. Analyze the life cycle costs.
A

Answer C
Explanation Fast tracking affects both time and cost but may not help even out resource usage. Monte Carlo analysis and analysis of life cycle costs do not directly deal with resources. Resource optimization is the only choice that will definitely affect resources.

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138
Q
06-14 When is a milestone chart used instead of a bar chart?
A. Project planning
B. Reporting to team members
C. Reporting to management
D. Risk analysis
A

Answer C
Explanation Both types of charts are used in project planning. Team members need to see details and so they need a bar chart rather than a milestone chart. Risk analysis COULD make use of both charts. A milestone chart is used instead of a bar chart for any situation where you want to report in a less detailed way. Since bar charts can scare people with their complexity and often show too much detail to be worthwhile on a management level, milestone charts are more effective for reporting to management.

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139
Q
06-15 Your project management plan results in a project schedule that is too long. If the project network diagram cannot change but you have extra personnel resources, what is the BEST thing to do?
A. Fast track the project.
B. Level the resources.
C. Crash the project.
D. Perform Monte Carlo analysis.
A

Answer C
Explanation Leveling resources generally extends the schedule. Monte Carlo analysis does not directly address the constraints of this situation. To compress the schedule, you could either crash or fast track. However, the situation says that the network diagram cannot change. This eliminates the fast tracking option, leaving crashing the project as the best answer.

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140
Q

06-16 Which of the following is the BEST thing to do when asked to complete a project two days earlier than planned?
A. Tell senior management that the projects critical path does not allow the project to be finished
earlier.
B. Tell your boss.
C. Meet with the team to look at options for crashing or fast tracking the critical path.
D. Work hard and see what the project status is next month.

A

Answer C
Explanation This is another question that asks about problem solving. Neither telling the boss nor waiting to see the status next month tries to solve the real problem. It would be inaccurate to report that the project cannot be finished earlier. Only meeting with the team to look for options for compressing the schedule (by crashing or fast tracking) relates to problem solving.

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141
Q

06-17 In attempting to complete the project faster, the project manager looks at the cost associated with crashing each activity. The BEST approach to crashing would also include looking at the:
A. Risk impact of crashing each activity.
B. Customer’s opinion of which activities to crash.
C. Boss’s opinion of which activities to crash and in which order.
D. Project life cycle phase in which the activity is due to occur.

A

Answer A
Explanation You may or may not need your customer’s or your boss’s input, but you will definitely need to include an analysis of risk.

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142
Q
06-18 Which of the following processes includes asking team members about the time estimates for their activities and reaching agreement on the calendar date for each activity?
A. Sequence Activities
B. Develop Schedule
C. Define Scope
D. Develop Project Charter
A

Answer B
Explanation By the time this process is taking place, Develop Project Charter, Define Scope, and Sequence Activities would be completed. The process defined in the question is Develop Schedule.

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143
Q

06-19 A project manager is in the middle of executing a very large construction project when he discovers the time needed to complete the project is longer than the time available. What is the BEST thing to do?
A. Cut product scope.
B. Meet with management and tell them the required date cannot be met.
C. Work overtime.
D. Determine options for schedule compression and present management with his recommended option.

A

Answer D
Explanation This question again tests whether you know how to solve problems. Cutting product scope negatively affects the customer, and is therefore not best. A project managers job is to determine options for meeting any end date; therefore, simply telling management the required
date cannot be met is not correct. Working overtime is expensive and unnecessary when there are many other choices that could be selected first. Determining options for schedule compression would have the least negative effect on the project.

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144
Q

06-20 During project planning, you estimate the time needed for each activity and then add up the estimates to create the project estimate. You commit to completing the project by this date. What is wrong with this scenario?
A. The team did not create the estimate, and estimating takes too long using that method.
B. The team did not create the estimate, and a network diagram was not used.
C. The estimate is too long and should be created by management.
D. The project estimate should be the same as the customers required completion date.

A

Answer B
Explanation Time estimates for the activities should be created by the team and should not be added together to create the project estimate. Some activities may take place concurrently; these would be identified in the network diagram.

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145
Q
06-21 You are a project manager on a US $5,000,000 software development project. While working with your project team to develop a network diagram, you notice a series of activities that can be worked in parallel but must finish in a specific sequence. What type of activity sequencing method is required for these activities?
A. Precedence diagramming method
B. Arrow diagramming method
C. Critical path method
D. Operational diagramming method
A

Answer A
Explanation The question implies a finish-to-finish relationship between activities. The arrow diagramming method does not support that type of relationship. Critical path is not a diagramming method, and operational diagramming method is a made-up term. The precedence diagramming method is most appropriate in this case.

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146
Q
06-22 You are a project manager on a US $5,000,000 software development project. While working with your project team to develop a network diagram, your data architects suggest that quality could be improved if the data model is approved by senior management before moving on to other design elements. They support this suggestion with an article from a leading software development journal. Which of the following BEST describes this type of input?
A. Mandatory dependency
B. Discretionary dependency
C. External dependency
D. Heuristic
A

Answer B
Explanation The situation is neither mandatory nor driven by an external source. A heuristic is a general rule that can be used consistently. This situation is a unique occurrence for which a preferred method is being suggested. Therefore, this is a discretionary dependency.

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147
Q

06-23 Based on the following, if you needed to shorten the duration of the project, which activity would
you try to shorten?
Activity Preceding Activity Duration in Weeks
Start None 0
A Start 1
B Start 2
C Start 6
D A 10
E B,C 1
F C 2
G D 3
H E 9
I F 1
End G, H, I 0
A. Activity B
B. Activity D
C. Activity H
D. Activity C

A

Answer D
Explanation This is an example of a two-stage question you may find on the exam. First you need to draw the network diagram and find the critical path, and then make a decision. The network diagram would be:
Paths Duration in Weeks
Start A,D,G, End 14
Start B,E,H, End 12
Start C,E,H, End 16
Start C,F,I, End 9
The critical path is 16 (Start, C, E, H, End). Many people immediately look for the longest duration activity on the project to cut. Here activity D is the longest, at 10 weeks. However, that activity is not on the critical path, and cutting it would not shorten the projects duration. You must change the critical path. In this case, both activity C and activity H are on the critical path. If you have a choice, all things being equal, choose the earlier option. Therefore, activity C is the best answer.

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148
Q

06-24 You have a project with the following activities: Activity A takes 40 hours and can start after the project starts. Activity B takes 25 hours and should happen after the project starts. Activity C must happen after activity A and takes 35 hours. Activity D must happen after activities B and C and takes 30 hours. Activity E must take place after activity C and takes 10 hours. Activity F takes place after Activity E and takes 22 hours. Activities F and D are the last activities of the project. Which of the following is TRUE if activity B actually takes 37 hours?
A. The critical path is 67 hours.
B. The critical path changes to Start, B, D, End.
C. The critical path is Start, A, C, E, F, End.
D. The critical path increases by 12 hours.

A

Answer C
Explanation Did you notice how difficult this question was to read? Such wording is intentional to prepare you for interpreting questions on the real exam. Looking at this situation, you see there are three paths through the network as shown in the following table. If the duration of
activity B changes from 25 to 37, the activity will take 12 hours longer. As the activity is only on the third path, it will only change the duration of that path from 55 to 55+12, or 67 hours. Since the duration of the critical path is 107 hours, the delay with activity B will have no impact on the project timeline or the current critical path.
Paths Duration
Start A,C.E,E,End 107
Start A,C,D,End 105
Start B,D,End 55

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149
Q
06-25 A project manager has received activity duration estimates from his team. Which of the following does he need in order to complete the Develop Schedule process?
A. Change requests
B. Schedule change control system
C. Recommended corrective actions
D. Reserves
A

Answer D
Explanation The Develop Schedule process includes all work and uses all inputs needed to come up with a finalized, realistic schedule. As part of the Estimate Activity Durations process, reserves are created to cover identified and unknown schedule risks. All the other items are parts of Control Schedule and occur after the Develop Schedule process.

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150
Q
06-26 A project manager is taking over a project from another project manager during project planning. If the new project manager wants to see what the previous project manager planned for managing changes to the schedule, it would be BEST to look at the:
A. Communications management plan.
B. Update management plan.
C. Staffing management plan
D. Schedule management plan.
A

Answer D
Explanation The schedule management plan is the most correct answer. It includes plans for how schedule changes will be managed.

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151
Q
06-27 A project manager is using weighted average duration estimates to perform schedule network analysis. Which type of mathematical analysis is being used?
A. Critical path method
B. Beta distribution
C. Monte Carlo
D. Resource leveling
A

Answer B

Explanation Beta distribution uses weighted averages to compute activity durations.

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152
Q

06-28 The WBS, estimates for each work package, and the network diagram are completed. The NEXT thing for the project manager to do is:
A. Sequence the activities.
B. Validate that they have the correct scope.
C. Create a preliminary schedule and get the team’s approval.
D. Complete risk management.

A

Answer C
Explanation Sequencing the activities is the same thing as creating a network diagram, so that has already been done. The Validate Scope process is done during project monitoring and controlling, not during project planning. Since a schedule is an input to risk management, risk management comes after the creation of a preliminary schedule, and so that is not the “next thing to do.” Creating the preliminary schedule is next.

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153
Q
06-29 A new product development project has four levels in the work breakdown structure and has been sequenced using the precedence diagramming method. The activity duration estimates have been received. What should be done NEXT?
A. Create an activity list.
B. Begin the work breakdown structure.
C. Finalize the schedule.
D. Compress the schedule.
A

Answer D
Explanation The question is really asking, “What is done after the Estimate Activity Durations process?” The work breakdown structure and activity list are done before Estimate Activity Durations. The schedule is not finalized until after schedule compression. Therefore compressing the schedule is done next.

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154
Q
06-30 You are the project manager for a new product development project that has four levels in the work breakdown structure. The network diagram and duration estimates have been created, and a schedule has been developed and compressed. Which time management activity should you do NEXT?
A. Control Schedule.
B. Estimate Activity Resources.
C. Analogously estimate the schedule.
D. Gain approval.
A

Answer D
Explanation Notice how this question and the previous one seem very similar. This is intended to prepare you for similar questions on the exam. Estimating activity resources and analogously estimating the schedule should have already been completed. The situation described is within the Develop Schedule process of time management. Control Schedule is the next time management process after Develop Schedule, but the Develop Schedule process is not yet finished. Final approval of the schedule by the stakeholders is needed before one has a project schedule.

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155
Q
06-31 A team member from research and development tells you that her work is too creative to provide you with a fixed single estimate for the activity. You both decide to use the average labor hours to develop a prototype (from past projects). This is an example of which of the following?
A. Parametric estimating
B. Three-point estimating
C. Analogous estimating
D. Monte Carlo analysis
A

Answer A
Explanation Monte Carlo analysis is a modeling, or simulation, technique. Three-point estimating uses three time estimates per activity. One could use data from past projects to come up with the estimate (analogous estimating), but the best answer is parametric estimating because past history is being used to calculate an estimate.

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156
Q
06-32 An activity has an early start (ES) of day 3, a late start (LS) of day 1 3, an early finish (EF) of day 9, and a late finish (LF) of day 19. The activity:
A. Is on the critical path.
B. Has a lag.
C. Is progressing well
D. Is not on the critical path.
A

Answer D
Explanation There is no information presented about lag or progress. The activity described has float, because there is a difference between the early start and late start. An activity that has float is probably not on the critical path.

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157
Q

06-33 The project is calculated to be completed four days after the desired completion date. You do not have access to additional resources. The project is low risk, the benefit cost ratio is expected to be 1.6, and the dependencies are preferential. Under these circumstances, what is the BEST thing to do?
A. Cut resources from an activity.
B. Make more activities concurrent.
C. Move resources from the preferential dependencies to the external dependencies.
D. Remove an activity from the project.

A

Answer B
Explanation Cutting resources from an activity would not save time, nor would moving resources from the preferential dependencies to the external dependencies. Removing an activity from the project is a possibility, but since the dependencies are preferential and the risk is low, the best choice is to make more activities concurrent, as this would have less impact on the project.

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158
Q

06-34 A project manager for a small construction company has a project that was budgeted for US $130,000 over a six-week period. According to her schedule, the project should have cost US $60,000 to date. However, it has cost US $90,000 to date. The project is also behind schedule,
because the original estimates were not accurate. Who has the PRIMARY responsibility to solve this problem?
A. Project manager
B. Senior management
C. Project sponsor
D. Manager of the project management office

A

Answer A
Explanation Did you get lost looking at all the numbers presented in this question? Notice that there are no calculations required, simply an understanding of what the problem is. This question describes schedule management, which is a responsibility of the project manager.

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159
Q
06-35 Senior management is complaining that they are not able to easily determine the status of ongoing projects in the organization. Which of the following types of reports would help provide summary information to senior management?
A. Detailed cost estimates
B. Project management plans
C. Bar charts
D. Milestone reports
A

Answer D
Explanation Detailed cost estimates have nothing to do with the situation described. Project management plans include more detail than is necessary for the situation described, and may distract from the conversation if used in this situation. Bar charts are most effective for reporting to the team. The best answer is milestone reports, which present the right level of detail for upper management.

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160
Q
06-36 Rearranging resources so that a constant number of resources is used each month is called:
A. Crashing.
B. Floating.
C. Leveling.
D. Fast tracking.
A

Answer C
Explanation The key to this question is the phrase “constant number used each month.” Only leveling has such an effect on the schedule.

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161
Q

06-37 Which of the following is a benefit of an analogous project estimate?
A. It will be closer to what the work will actually require.
B. It is based on a detailed understanding of what the work requires.
C. It gives the project team an understanding of managements expectations.
D. It helps the project manager determine if the project will meet the schedule.

A

Answer C
Explanation Remember that analogous project estimates are considered to be top-down, high-level estimates. Therefore, they are not based on a detailed understanding of what the work will require. The project manager needs more than an analogous (high-level) estimate to determine whether or not the project will meet the schedule. The benefit of an analogous project estimate is that it is managements expectations of how long the project will take. Any differences between the analogous estimate and the detailed bottom-up estimate can be reconciled in the planning processes.

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162
Q

06-38 During project executing, a large number of changes are made to the project. The project manager should:
A. Wait until all changes are known and print out a new schedule.
B. Make approved changes as needed, but retain the schedule baseline.
C. Make only the changes approved by management.
D. Talk to management before any changes are made.

A

Answer B
Explanation Waiting until ail changes are known, and then printing out a new schedule, is a common error many project managers make. Instead, the project manager should be controlling the project throughout its completion. The situation in the question does not provide a reason to believe the schedule baseline must be changed. A project manager must be in control of the project, rather than consulting with management before making any changes. Whenever a large number of changes occur on a project, it is wise to confirm that the business case, as stated in the project charter, is still valid.

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163
Q
07-01 One common way to compute estimate at completion (EAC) is to take the budget at completion (BAC) and:
A. Divide by SPI.
B. Multiply by SPI.
C. Multiply by CPI.
D. Divide by CPI.
A

Answer D
Explanation This formula for EAC is used if no variances from the BAG have occurred or you will continue at the same rate of spending (as calculated in your cumulative CPI). You have to remember the formula to get the answer correct.

164
Q

07-02 stimate at completion (EAC) is a periodic evaluation of:
A. The cost of work completed.
B. The value of work performed.
C. The anticipated total cost at project completion.
D. What it will cost to finish the project.

A

Answer C
Explanation When you look at earned value, many of the terms have similar definitions. This could get you into trouble. EAC means the estimate at completion. What it will cost to finish the project is the definition of ETC, or estimate to complete.

165
Q
07-03 If earned value (EV) = 350, actual cost (AC) = 400, and planned value (PV) - 325, what is cost variance (CV)?
A. 350
B. -75
C. 400
D. -50
A

Answer D

Explanation The formula is CV = EV - AC. Therefore, CV = 350 - 400, or CV = -50.

166
Q

07-04 The customer responsible for overseeing your project asks you to provide a written cost estimate that is 30 percent higher than your estimate of the project’s cost. He explains that the budgeting process requires managers to estimate pessimistically to ensure enough money is allocated for projects. What is the BEST way to handle this?
A. Add the 30 percent as a lump sum contingency fund to handle project risks.
B. Add the 30 percent to your cost estimate by spreading it evenly across all project activities.
C. Create one cost baseline for budget allocation and a second one for the actual project
management plan.
D. Ask for information on risks that would cause your estimate to be too low.

A

Answer D
Explanation Presenting anything other than your original estimate (allocating more to the budget) is inaccurate and calls into question your competence and integrity as a project manager. The customer should list potential changes and risks related to your estimate. If the costs and risks are justified, you can increase the budget.

167
Q

07-05 Analogous estimating:
A. Uses bottom-up estimating techniques.
B. Is used most frequently during project executing.
C. Uses top-down estimating techniques.
D. Calculates estimates using actual detailed historical costs.

A

Answer C
Explanation Analogous estimating is used most frequently during project planning, not project executing. Parametric estimating involves calculations based on historical records. Analogous estimating uses top-down estimating techniques.

168
Q

07-06 All of the following are outputs of the Estimate Costs process EXCEPT:
A. An understanding of the cost risk in the work that has been estimated.
B. The prevention of inappropriate changes from being included in the cost baseline.
C. An indication of the range of possible costs for the project.
D. Documentation of any assumptions made during the Estimate Costs process.

A

Answer B
Explanation This question is asking, “When you finish estimating costs, what do you have?” Many people who do not realize that estimates should be in a range pick that option. Documentation of assumptions is referring to the basis of estimates, which is an output of Estimate Costs. The prevention of inappropriate changes is more correctly part of the cost management plan and the change control system.

169
Q

07-07 The main focus of life cycle costing is to:
A. Estimate installation costs.
B. Estimate the cost of operations and maintenance.
C. Consider installation costs when planning the project costs.
D. Consider operations and maintenance costs in making project decisions.

A

Answer D
Explanation Life cycle costing looks at operations and maintenance costs and balances them with the project costs to try to reduce the cost across the entire life of the project.

170
Q

07-08 Cost performance measurement is BEST done through which of the following?
A. Asking for a percent complete from each team member and reporting that in the monthly
progress report
B. Calculating earned value and using the indexes and other calculations to report past
performance and forecast future performance
C. Using the 50/50 rule and making sure the life cycle cost is less than the project cost
D. Focusing on the amount expended last month and what will be expended the following month

A

Answer B
Explanation Asking percent complete is not a best practice since it is usually a guess. Often the easiest work is done first on a project, throwing off any percentage calculations of work remaining. The life cycle cost cannot be lower than the project cost, as the life cycle cost includes the project cost. Focusing on the amount spent last month and what will be spent in the next month is often done by inexperienced project managers. Not only does this provide little information, but the data cannot be used to predict the future. Using earned value and other calculations is the best answer since this choice looks at the past and uses that information to estimate future costs.

171
Q

07-09 A cost performance index (CPI) of 0.89 means:
A. At this time, we expect the total project to cost 89 percent more than planned.
B. When the project is completed, we will have spent 89 percent more than planned.
C. The project is progressing at 89 percent of the rate planned.
D. The project is getting 89 cents out of every dollar invested.

A

Answer D
Explanation The CPI is less than one, so the situation is bad. The project is only getting 89 cents out of every dollar invested.

172
Q

07-10 A schedule performance index (SPI) of 0.76 means:
A. You are over budget.
B. You are ahead of schedule.
C. You are progressing at 76 percent of the rate originally planned.
D. You are progressing at 24 percent of the rate originally planned.

A

Answer C
Explanation Earned value questions ask for a calculation or an interpretation of the results. In this case, the project is progressing at 76 percent of the rate planned.

173
Q
07-11 Which of the following is NOT needed in order to come up with a project estimate?
A. AWBS
B. A network diagram
C. Risks
D. Change requests
A

Answer D
Explanation You need the WBS to define the activities, the network diagram to see the dependencies, and the risks to determine contingencies. NOTE: These are high-level risks, not the detailed risks we identify later in project planning. Change requests are not required to obtain estimates, although they could cause existing estimates to be adjusted. Without the other three choices, you cannot develop the estimates.

174
Q
07-12 Which of the following is an example of a parametric estimate?
A. Dollars per module
B. Learning bend
C. Bottom-up
D. CPM
A

Answer A

Explanation Parametric estimates use a mathematical model to predict project cost or time.

175
Q
07-13 A rough order of magnitude estimate is made during which project management process group?
A. Planning
B. Closing
C. Executing
D. Initiating
A

Answer D
Explanation This estimate has a wide range. It is done during project initiating, when very little is known about the project.

176
Q
07-14 A cost baseline is an output of which cost management process?
A. Estimate Activity Resources
B. Estimate Costs
C. Determine Budget
D. Control Costs
A

Answer C

Explanation A cost baseline is an output of the Determine Budget process.

177
Q
07-15 During which project management process group are budget forecasts created?
A. Monitoring and controlling
B. Planning
C. Initiating
D. Executing
A

Answer A

Explanation Budget forecasts are an output of Control Costs, which is part of monitoring and controlling.

178
Q
07-16 Which type of cost is team training?
A. Direct
B. NPV
C. Indirect
D. Fixed
A

Answer A
Explanation You are training the team on skills required for the project. The cost is directly related to the project and thus a direct cost.

179
Q
07-17 Project setup costs are an example of:
A. Variable costs.
B. Fixed costs.
C. Overhead costs.
D. Opportunity costs.
A

Answer B

Explanation Setup costs do not change as production on the project changes. Therefore, they are fixed costs.

180
Q

07-18 Value analysis is performed to get:
A. More value from the cost analysis.
B. Management to buy into the project.
C. The team to buy into the project.
D. A less costly way of doing the same work.

A

Answer D
Explanation Notice that you need to know the definition of value analysis to answer this question. Also notice that the other choices could be considered correct by someone who does not know the definition. Value analysis seeks to decrease cost while maintaining the same scope.

181
Q
07-19 Which estimating method tends to be MOST costly for creating a project cost estimate?
A. Bottom-up
B. Analogous
C. Parametric
D. 50/50
A

Answer A
Explanation Because you need project details to estimate this way, the effort expended will be greater with bottom-up estimating.

182
Q
07-20 Which of the following represents the estimated value of the work actually accomplished?
A. Earned value (EV)
B. Planned value (PV)
C. Actual cost (AC)
D. Cost variance (CV)
A

Answer A
Explanation It can be confusing to differentiate earned value terms from each other. The estimated value of the work actually completed is the definition of EV, or earned value.

183
Q

07-21 Which of the following are ALL items included in the cost management plan?
A. The level of accuracy needed for estimates, rules for measuring cost performance, specifications for how duration estimates should be stated
B. Specifications for how estimates should be stated, rules for measuring cost performance, the level of accuracy needed for estimates
C. Rules for measuring team performance, the level of accuracy needed for estimates, specifications for how estimates should be stated
D. Specifications for how estimates should be stated, the level of risk needed for estimates, rules for measuring cost performance

A

Answer B
Explanation Notice how one item in each of the incorrect options makes the entire choice incorrect. Duration estimates are created during time management, and measuring team performance is a part of human resource management. There is no level of risk required for estimates. Specifications for how estimates should be stated, rules for measuring cost performance, and the level of accuracy needed for estimates are all parts of the cost management plan.

184
Q

07-22 Your project has a medium amount of risk and is not very well defined. The sponsor hands you a project charter and asks you to confirm that the project can be completed within the project cost budget. What is the BEST method to handle this?
A. Build an estimate in the form of a range of possible results.
B. Ask the team members to help estimate the cost based on the project charter.
C. Based on the information you have, calculate a parametric estimate.
D. Provide an analogous estimate based on past history.

A

Answer A
Explanation With such limited information, it is best to estimate in a range. The range can be narrowed as planning progresses and risks are addressed.

185
Q

07-23 The cost contingency reserve should be:
A. Hidden to prevent management from disallowing the reserve.
B. Added to each activity to provide the customer with a shorter critical path.
C. Maintained by management to cover cost overruns.
D. Added to the costs of the project to account for risks.

A

Answer D
Explanation Hiding the reserve is an inappropriate action. Adding cost to each activity will not shorten the critical path, and thus is an incorrect statement. Management reserves, not contingency reserves, are maintained by management to cover cost overruns. During the risk management process, you determine appropriate contingency reserves to cover the cost of identified risks.

186
Q

07-24 You are having difficulty estimating the cost of a project. Which of the following BEST describes the most probable cause of your difficulty?
A. Inadequate scope definition
B. Unavailability of desired resources
C. Lack of historical records from previous projects
D. Lack of company processes

A

Answer A

Explanation Although all choices could cause difficulty, only inadequate scope definition makes estimating impossible.

187
Q

07-25 Your cost forecast shows that you will have a cost overrun at the end of the project. Which of the following should you do?
A. Eliminate risks in estimates and reestimate.
B. Meet with the sponsor to find out what work can be done sooner.
C. Cut quality.
D. Decrease scope.

A

Answer A
Explanation Look for the choice that would have the least negative impact on this situation. You would not need to meet with the sponsor to determine which work can be done sooner. Cutting quality and decreasing scope always have negative effects. The choice with the least negative impact is to eliminate risks in estimates and re-estimate.

188
Q

07-26 Early in the life of your project, you are having a discussion with the sponsor about what estimating techniques should be used. You want a form of expert judgment, but the sponsor argues for analogous estimating. It would be BEST to:
A. Agree to analogous estimating, as it is a form of expert judgment.
B. Suggest life cycle costing as a compromise.
C. Determine why the sponsor wants such an accurate estimate.
D. Try to convince the sponsor to allow expert judgment because it is typically more accurate.

A

Answer A
Explanation This is a tricky question. Determining why the sponsor wants such an accurate estimate sounds like a good idea at first. However, analogous estimates are less accurate than other forms of estimating, as they are prepared with a limited amount of detailed information. Reading every word of this choice helps eliminate it. In order to pick the best answer, you need to realize that analogous estimating is a form of expert judgment.

189
Q

07-27 You have just completed the initiating processes of a small project and are moving into project planning when a project stakeholder asks you for the project’s budget and cost baseline. What should you tell her?
A. The project budget can be found in the project charter, which has just been completed.
B. The project budget and baseline will not be finalized and accepted until the planning processes are completed.
C. The project management plan will not contain the project’s budget and baseline; this is a small project.
D. It is impossible to complete an estimate before the project management plan is created.

A

Answer B
Explanation The overall project budget may be included in the project charter but not the detailed costs. Even small projects should have a budget and schedule. It is not impossible to create a project budget before the project management plan is created. However, it is not wise to do so, as the budget will not be accurate. The project budget and baseline are not finalized and accepted until the planning processes are completed.

190
Q
07-28 The project manager is allocating overall cost estimates to individual activities to establish a baseline for measuring project performance. What process is this?
A. Cost Management
B. Estimate Costs
C. Determine Budget
D. Control Costs
A

Answer C
Explanation Cost Management is too general. The estimates are already created in this situation, so the answer is not Estimate Costs. The answer is not Control Costs, because the baseline has not yet been created. The work described is the Determine Budget process.

191
Q

07-29 Monitoring cost expended to date in order to detect variances from the plan occurs during:
A. The creation of the cost change management plan.
B. Recommending corrective actions.
C. Updating the cost baseline.
D. Project performance reviews.

A

Answer D
Explanation Recommending corrective actions and possible updates to the cost baseline result from project performance reviews; they are not concurrent with them. Monitoring costs is part of change control, but not part of creating the change control system. The correct choice is project performance reviews.

192
Q

07-30 A cost management plan contains a description of:
A. The project costs.
B. How resources are allocated.
C. The budgets and how they were calculated.
D. The WBS level at which earned value will be calculated.

A

Answer D
Explanation The exam will ask you what the management plans include, in -order to test whether you really understand them. The cost management plan identifies the WBS level at which earned value will be calculated.

193
Q

07-31 A manufacturing project has a schedule performance index (SPI) of 0.89 and a cost performance index (CPI) of 0.91. Generally, what is the BEST explanation for why this occurred?
A. The scope was changed.
B. A supplier went out of business and a new one needed to be found.
C. Additional equipment needed to be purchased.
D. A critical path activity took longer and needed more labor hours to complete.

A

Answer D
Explanation To answer this question, you must look for a choice that would take longer and cost more. Notice one of the choices says scope was changed, but it was not necessarily added to. If the change was to reduce the scope, it might also have reduced cost. Though it would take time to handle the issue of the need to find a new supplier, the impacted activity might not be on the critical path and thus might not affect time. Purchasing additional equipment definitely adds cost, but not necessarily time. A critical path activity taking longer and requiring more labor hours to complete would negatively affect both time and cost.

194
Q

07-32 Although the stakeholders thought there was enough money in the budget, halfway through the project the cost performance index (CPI) is 0.7. To determine the root cause, several stakeholders audit the project and discover the project cost budget was estimated analogously. Although the activity estimates add up to the project estimate, the stakeholders think something was missing in how the estimate was completed. Which of the following describes what was missing?
A. Estimated costs should be used to measure CPI.
B. SPI should be used, not CPI.
C. Bottom-up estimating should have been used.
D. Past history was not taken into account.

A

Answer C
Explanation Actual costs are used to measure CPI, and there is no reason to use SPI in this situation. Using past history is another way of saying “analogous.” The best way to estimate is bottom-up. Such estimating would have improved the overall quality of the estimate.

195
Q

07-33 Earned value measurement is an example of:
A. Performance reporting.
B. Planning control.
C. Ishikawa diagrams.
D. Integrating the project components into a whole.

A

Answer A
Explanation Earned value measurement is a great reporting tool. With it, you can show where you stand on budget and schedule, as well as provide forecasts for the rest of the project.

196
Q

07-34 Identified risks are:
A. An input to the Estimate Costs process.
B. An output of the Estimate Costs process.
C. Not related to the Estimate Costs process.
D. Both an input to and an output of the Estimate Costs process.

A

Answer D
Explanation Identified risks are listed in the risk register, an input to the Estimate Costs process. In completing the Estimate Costs process, additional risks may be uncovered. These are added to the risk register as project documents updates.

197
Q
07-35 Hie difference between the cost baseline and the cost budget can be BEST described as:
A. The management reserves.
B. The contingency reserves.
C. The project cost estimate.
D. The cost account.
A

Answer A
Explanation Cost accounts are included in the project cost estimate, and the contingency reserves are added to that to come up with the cost baseline. Thereafter, the management reserves are added to come up with the cost budget. The management reserves make up the difference between the cost baseline and the cost budget.

198
Q

07-36 You provide a project cost estimate for the project to the project sponsor. He is unhappy with the estimate, because he thinks the price should be lower. He asks you to cut 15 percent off the project estimate. What should you do?
A. Start the project and constantly look for cost savings.
B. Tell all the team members to cut 15 percent from their estimates.
C. Inform the sponsor of the activities to be cut.
D. Add additional resources with low hourly rates.

A

Answer C
Explanation This question is full of choices that are not correct project management actions. To answer the question, you must first realize that it is never appropriate for a project manager to just cut estimates across the board. You should have created a project estimate based on realistic work package estimates that do not include padding. Then, if costs must be decreased, you can look to cut quality, decrease risk, cut scope, or use cheaper resources (and at the same time closely monitor the impact of changes on the project schedule).
One of the worst things a project manager can do is to start a project knowing that the time or cost for the project is unrealistic. Did you notice the choice of adding additional resources? Even though they have low hourly rates, that would add cost. Evaluating, looking for alternatives, and then reporting the impact of the cost cutting to the sponsor is the best action to take.

199
Q

07-37 Cost risk means:
A. There are risks that will cost the project money.
B. The project is too risky from a cost perspective.
C. There is a risk that project costs could go higher than planned.
D. There is a risk that the cost of the project will be lower than planned.

A

Answer C
Explanation While it is true that risk will cost the project money, that is not the definition of cost risk. Stating that the project is too risky from a cost perspective assumes that the risk is too great to do the project. Cost risk is the risk that project costs could go higher than planned.

200
Q
07-38 A project manager needs to analyze the project costs to find ways to decrease costs. It would be BEST if the project manager looks at:
A. Variable costs and fixed costs.
B. Fixed costs and indirect costs.
C. Direct costs and variable costs.
D. Indirect costs and direct costs.
A

Answer C
Explanation Direct costs are directly attributable to the project, and variable costs are costs that vary with the amount of work accomplished. It is best to look at decreasing these costs on the project.

201
Q
08-01 When a product or service completely meets a customers requirements:
A. Quality is achieved.
B. The cost of quality is high.
C. The cost of quality is low.
D. The customer pays the minimum price.
A

Answer A
Explanation As a general rule, one cannot say that quality (as defined in the question) is either of high or low cost. It provides what the customer wanted, which may not be the lowest or highest cost. When a product or service completely meets a customers needs, quality is achieved.

202
Q
08-02 To what does the following definition refer? "The point where the benefits or revenue to be received from improving quality equals the incremental cost to achieve that quality."
A. Quality control analysis
B. Marginal analysis
C. Standard quality analysis
D. Conformance analysis
A

Answer B
Explanation This is the definition of marginal analysis. Know the term so you will be able to answer questions that deal with this concept. The other choices may sound good, but they are made-up terms.

203
Q
08-03- Who is ultimately responsible for quality management on the project?
A. The project engineer
B. The project manager
C. The quality manager
D. The team member
A

Answer B
Explanation Although each person working on the project should check his or her own work, the project manager ultimately has the responsibility for quality on the project as a whole.

204
Q

08-04 A project has faced major difficulties in the quality of its deliverables. Management now states that quality is the most important project constraint. If another problem with quality were to occur, what would be the BEST thing for the project manager to do?
A. Fix the problem as soon as possible.
B. Allow the schedule to slip by cutting cost.
C. Allow cost to increase by fixing the root cause of the problem.
D. Allow risk to increase by cutting cost.

A

Answer C
Explanation If a problem with quality were to occur again, many people would opt to fix the problem as soon as possible. It is proactive, but some other project constraint(s) must change to accommodate fixing the root cause of the problem. It may not be necessary to allow the schedule to slip, because the project manager might be able to compress the schedule in other areas. Cutting cost does not necessarily cause the schedule to slip, nor would that necessarily fix the problem at hand.
Allowing risk to increase by cutting cost is not the best choice, because a quality problem is most likely to create additional cost, rather than cut cost. Allowing the cost to increase by fixing the root cause of the problem addresses both finding the cause and the probable impact of dealing with the problem.

205
Q

08-05 A manager notices that a project manager is holding a meeting with some of the team and some
stakeholders to discuss the quality of the project. The project schedule has been compressed, and the CPI is 1.1. They have worked hard on the project, the team has been rewarded according to the reward system the project manager put in place, and there is a strong sense of team. The manager suggests that the project manager does not have enough time to hold meetings about quality when the schedule is so compressed. Which of the following BEST describes why the manager is wrong?
A. Improved quality leads to increased productivity, increased cost effectiveness, and decreased
cost risk.
B. Improved quality leads to increased productivity, decreased cost effectiveness, and increased
cost risk.
C. Improved quality leads to increased productivity, increased cost effectiveness, and increased
cost risk.
D. Improved quality leads to increased productivity, decreased cost effectiveness, and decreased
cost risk.

A

Answer A
Explanation Did you notice there is a lot of data not relevant to answering the question? Expect distracters to appear in many questions on the exam. Quality efforts should produce a decrease rather than an increase in cost risk as a result of less rework. Quality efforts should also provide increased cost effectiveness due to less rework. This leaves the best answer: “Improved quality leads to increased productivity, increased cost effectiveness, and decreased cost risk.”

206
Q

08-06 Quality is:
A. Meeting and exceeding the customers expectations.
B. Adding extras to make the customer happy.
C. The degree to which the project meets requirements.
D. Conformance to managements objectives.

A

Answer C
Explanation There can be a cost impact (or time, risk, etc.) of exceeding expectations or adding extras. Quality is the degree to which the project meets requirements.

207
Q
08-07 All the following are tools of Control Quality EXCEPT:
A. Inspection.
B. Cost of quality.
C. Pareto diagram.
D. Fishbone diagram.
A

Answer B
Explanation Inspection, Pareto diagrams, and fishbone diagrams are all tools that can be used in Control Quality. Cost of quality is part of Plan Quality Management, making sure the project is not spending too much to achieve a particular level of quality.

208
Q

08-08 Pareto diagrams help the project manager:
A. Focus on the most critical issues to improve quality.
B. Focus on stimulating thinking.
C. Explore a desired future outcome.
D. Determine if a process is out of control.

A

Answer A
Explanation Fishbone diagrams are often used to stimulate thinking and to explore a desired future outcome. Determining whether a process is out of control is a function of control charts. Only focusing on critical issues to improve quality relates to Pareto diagrams.

209
Q

08-09 A control chart helps the project manager:
A. Focus on the most critical issues to improve quality.
B. Focus on stimulating thinking.
C. Explore a desired future outcome.
D. Determine if a process is functioning within set limits.

A

Answer D
Explanation Focusing on the most critical issues to improve quality relates to Pareto diagrams. Stimulating thinking and exploring a desired future outcome relate to fishbone diagrams. Only determining if a process is functioning within set limits relates to control charts.

210
Q
08-10 Testing the entire population would:
A. Take too long.
B. Provide more information than wanted.
C. Be mutually exclusive.
D. Show many defects.
A

Answer A

Explanation The length of time it takes to test a whole population is one of the reasons to take a sample.

211
Q
08-11 All of the following are examples of the cost of nonconformance EXCEPT:
A. Rework.
B. Quality training.
C. Scrap.
D. Warranty costs.
A

Answer B
Explanation Quality training is a cost of conformance to quality. All the other choices are costs of nonconformance to quality.

212
Q

08-12 Standard deviation is a measure of how:
A. Far the estimate is from the highest estimate.
B. Far the measurement is from the mean.
C. Correct the sample is.
D. Much time remains in the project.

A

Answer B

Explanation Standard deviation is the measurement of a range around the mean.

213
Q

08-13 All of the following result from quality audits EXCEPT:
A. Determination of whether project activities comply with organizational policies.
B. Improved processes to increase productivity.
C. Creation of quality metrics.
D. Confirmation of the implementation of approved change requests.

A

Answer C
Explanation Quality metrics are an output of the Plan Quality Management process. They are an input to the Perform Quality Assurance process, the process in which quality audits take place.

214
Q

08-14 A control chart shows seven data points in a row on one side of the mean. What should be done?
A. Perform a design of experiments.
B. Adjust the chart to reflect the new mean.
C. Find an assignable cause.
D. Nothing. This is the rule of seven and can be ignored.

A

Answer C
Explanation The rule of seven applies here. If you have seven data points in a row on the same side of the mean, statistically the mean has shifted, calling for action to correct the problem.

215
Q
08-15 You are managing a project in a just in time environment. This will require more attention, because the amount of inventory in such an environment is generally:
A. 45 percent.
B. 10 percent.
C. 12 percent.
D. 0 percent.
A

Answer D
Explanation In a just in time environment, supplies are delivered when you need them and not before. Therefore, you have little or no inventory.

216
Q
08-16 There are several executing activities underway on your project. You are beginning to get concerned about the accuracy of the progress reporting your team members are doing. How could you verify whether there is a problem?
A. Quality audits
B. Risk quantification reports
C. Regression analysis
D. Monte Carlo analysis
A

Answer A
Explanation Quality audits are a necessary part of the Perform Quality Assurance process. They help you assess whether the processes are being followed correctly on the project.

217
Q
08-17 A project manager and team from a firm that designs railroad equipment are tasked to design a machine to load stone onto railroad cars. The design allows for 2 percent spillage, amounting to over two tons of spilled rock per day. In which of the following does the project manager document quality control, quality assurance, and quality improvement processes for this project?
A. Quality management plan
B. Quality policy
C. Control charts
D. Project management plan
A

Answer A
Explanation The quality policy and control charts are components of a quality management plan. Although the quality management plan is part of the project management plan, the most precise answer is the quality management plan.

218
Q

08-18 During a team meeting, the team adds a specific area of extra work to the project because they have determined it would benefit the customer. What is wrong in this situation?
A. The team is gold plating.
B. These efforts shouldn’t be done in meetings.
C. Nothing. This is how to meet and exceed customer expectations.
D. Nothing. The project manager is in control of the situation.

A

Answer A
Explanation This is an example of gold plating. You should provide ONLY what the customer asked for. The team does not know if their change will provide benefit to the customer. The team should focus their efforts on fulfilling the requirements.

219
Q
08-19 The project team has created a plan for how they will implement the quality policy. It addresses the organizational structure, responsibilities, procedures, and other information about plans for quality. If this plan changes during the project, WHICH of the following plans will also change?
A. Quality assurance plan
B. Quality management plan
C. Project management plan
D. Quality control plan
A

Answer C
Explanation The plan described is the quality management plan. Since the quality management plan is included in the project management plan, changing the quality management plan will also change the project management plan.

220
Q

08-20 You are a project manager for a major information systems project. Someone from the quality department comes to see you about beginning a quality audit of your project. The team, already under pressure to complete the project as soon as possible, objects to the audit. You should explain to the team that the purpose of a quality audit is:
A. To satisfy part of an ISO 9000 investigation.
B. To check if the customer is following the quality process.
C. To identify inefficient and ineffective policies.
D. To check the accuracy of costs submitted by the team.

A

Answer C
Explanation Perform Quality Assurance, of which an audit is part, focuses on processes,procedures, and standards. Though ISO 9000 is a standard, that is not the only reason an audit would be conducted. The seller cannot generally control or review the customer’s quality process. Checking the accuracy of costs submitted by the team is more representative of a cost audit than a quality audit, so that option cannot be the best choice. One purpose of a quality audit is to identify inefficient and ineffective policies.

221
Q

08-21 You are in the middle of a major new facility construction project. The structural steel is in place
and the heating conduits are going into place when a senior manager informs you that he is worried the project will not meet the quality standards. What should you do in this situation?
A. Assure senior management that during the Plan Quality Management process, it was
determined that the project would meet the quality standards.
B. Analogously estimate future results.
C. Form a quality assurance team.
D. Check the results from the last quality management plan.

A

Answer C
Explanation Assuring management that it was determined in planning that the project would meet quality standards is not productive, since it does not solve the problem. An analogous estimate looks at the past history of other projects. This would not be appropriate to determine
how the current project is going. The quality management plan does not provide results. A quality assurance team could help to determine whether the team is following the correct process to satisfy the relevant quality standards.

222
Q
08-22 You are asked to select tools and techniques to implement a quality assurance program to supplement existing quality control activities. Which of the following would NOT be appropriate for this purpose?
A. Quality audits
B. Statistical sampling
C. Pareto diagrams
D. Focus groups
A

Answer D
Explanation Focus groups are a tool of the Collect Requirements process, and would not be useful in the Perform Quality Assurance process.

223
Q

08-23 The new software installation project is in progress. The project manager is working with the
quality assurance department to improve stakeholders’ confidence that the project will satisfy the quality standards. Which of the following MUST they have before they start this process?
A. Quality problems
B. Quality improvement
C. Quality control measurements
D. Rework

A

Answer C
Explanation Though quality problems MAY lead to quality assurance efforts, they are not a MUST. Quality improvement is a result of Perform Quality Assurance, not an input. Rework (or defect repair) can be an output of Control Quality. That leaves only quality control measurements, which are inputs to the Perform Quality Assurance process.

224
Q

08-24 A project manager has just taken over the project from another project manager during project executing. The previous project manager created a project budget, determined communications requirements, and went on to complete work packages. What should the new project manager do NEXT?
A. Coordinate completion of work packages.
B. Identify quality standards.
C. Begin the Identify Risks process.
D. Execute the project management plan.

A

Answer B
Explanation Completion of work packages is done after project planning. Since the previous project manager did not finish planning, continuing to execute the project management plan should not be next. Identify Risks sounds like a good choice; however, identifying quality
standards occurs before the Identify Risks process. You may have misread the question and assumed communication planning was complete as well, but notice it only says that communication requirements have been determined. Communications planning still needs to be completed as well. Identify quality standards is the best answer, as planning must be completed on
the project.

225
Q

08-25 Design of experiments:
A. Identifies which variables will have the most influence on a quality outcome.
B. Identifies which variables will have the least influence on a quality outcome.
C. Determines what a quality outcome is.
D. Determines methods to be used for research and development.

A

Answer A
Explanation The design of experiments technique allows you to find those factors that have the most impact on quality. It allows the project manager to focus attention on the factors that are most important.

226
Q

08-26 At the end of a project, a project manager determines the project has added four areas of
functionality and three areas of performance. The customer has expressed satisfaction with the project. What does this mean in terms of the success of the project?
A. The project was an unqualified success.
B. The project was unsuccessful because it was gold plated.
C. The project was unsuccessful because the customer being happy means they would have paid
more for the work.
D. The project was successful because the team had a chance to learn new areas of functionality
and the customer was satisfied.

A

Answer B

Explanation Gold plating a project wastes time and probably cost. It makes the project unsuccessful.

227
Q
08-27 During project executing, a project team member informs the project manager that a work package has not met the quality metric, and that she believes it is not possible to meet it. The project manager meets with all concerned parties to analyze the situation. Which part of the quality management process is the project manager involved in?
A. Perform Quality Assurance
B. Project Control
C. Control Quality
D. Plan Quality Management
A

Answer C
Explanation Measuring is part of the Control Quality process. Did you select project control? The question asked which part of the quality management process the project manager is involved in, not which part of the project management process.

228
Q

08-28 The project manager notices that project activities being completed by one department are all taking slightly longer than planned. To date, none of the activities in the work packages have been on the critical path, nor have they affected the critical chain planning that has occurred. The project manager is bothered by the problem, since four of the next five critical path activities are
being completed by this department. After making three calls, the project manager is finally able to converse with the department manager to determine what is going on. The conversation is slow, because both speak different
native languages and they are trying to converse in French, a shared language. To make communication easier, the project manager frequently asks the department manager to repeat back what has been said.
The department manager communicates that his staff is following a company policy that requires two levels of testing. During the conversation, the department manager also makes a comment that leads the project manager to believe that the policy may include excessive work. This is the fourth time the project manager has heard such a comment. What is the BEST thing to do?
A. Create a better communications management plan that requires only one language to be the
universal language on the project and have translators readily available on a moment’s notice.
B. Contact someone else in the department who speaks the project managers native language
better to confirm the department manager’s opinion.
C. Find out if the upcoming activities should be reestimated.
D. Work on increasing the effectiveness of the performing organization by recommending
continuous improvement of the policy in question.

A

Answer D
Explanation Changing the communications management plan may not he needed on the project and it does not deal with the problem at hand, the policy that is slowing things down. Confirming the department managers opinion with someone else in the department is not the best choice,
as the project manager already has heard the opinion on many other occasions. It is already confirmed. Determining whether upcoming activities should be re-estimated is just being reactive. A good project manager will find the root cause and deal with that, even if it means attempting to
improve the company’s policies and processes. Yes, recommending improvement of the policy is the best answer. This is continuous improvement. Because there are several activities affected by the policy, it would best serve the project to get to the root cause of the problem and solve it.

229
Q
08-29 As the project manager, you are preparing your quality management plan. You are looking for a tool that can demonstrate the relationship between events and their resulting effects. You want to use this tool to depict the events that cause a negative effect on quality. Which of the following is the BEST choice for accomplishing your objective?
A. Histogram
B. Pareto diagram
C. Ishikawa diagram
D. Control chart
A

Answer C
Explanation All reports and diagrams are communications tools. This question asks you to pick the most appropriate quality tool to help communications. An Ishikawa diagram, also called a cause and effect diagram, is more appropriate than a Pareto diagram since you are trying to determine the causes. Once causes are known and you have data on occurrences, the data can be displayed in a Pareto diagram.

230
Q

08-30 Which of the following explains why quality is planned in and not inspected in?
A. It reduces quality and is less expensive.
B. It improves quality and is more expensive.
C. It reduces quality and is more expensive.
D. It improves quality and is less expensive.

A

Answer D
Explanation Look for the proactive approach. When we plan for quality, we define the appropriate level of quality needed, which will improve quality overall and will likely be less expensive over the long run. NOTE: You may spend more initially for identifying the right quality and doing the work to produce the planned quality, but you will save through reduced rework, waste, and scrap, and other such benefits.

231
Q

08-31 Work on a project is ongoing when the project manager overhears two workers arguing over what
a set of instructions means. The project manager investigates and discovers that the instructions for the construction of the concrete footings currently being poured were poorly translated between the different languages in use on the project. Which of the following is the BEST thing for the project manager to do FIRST?
A. Get the instructions translated by a more experienced party.
B. Look for quality impacts of the poor translation of the instructions for the footings.
C. Bring the issue to the attention of the team and ask them to look for other translation problems.
D. Inform the sponsor of the problem in the next project report.

A

Answer B
Explanation Although all of these choices are correct things to do, the question asks what to do first. What is the most immediate problem? Getting the instructions translated by a more experienced party could be done, but it does not address the immediate concern of the footings that have already been poured according to the poorly translated instructions. Asking the team to look for other translation issues is an excellent idea. However, it does not address the immediate problem. Informing the sponsor is also not taking action to solve the problem. Isn’t it most urgent to find out whether the concrete footings meet your project requirements? Are they adequate? Only the option of looking for quality impacts of the poor translation will help you determine that.

232
Q
09-01 All of the following are forms of power derived from the project manager's position EXCEPT:
A. Formal
B. Reward.
C. Penalty.
D. Expert.
A

Answer D
Explanation When someone is given the job of project manager, he or she will have formal, reward, and penalty power. But just having the position does not make the project manager either a technical or project management expert. Expert power has to be earned.

233
Q
09-02 The highest point of Maslow s hierarchy of needs is:
A. Physiological satisfaction.
B. Attainment of survival.
C. Need for association.
D. Esteem.
A

Answer D
Explanation This question is asking which of the FOLLOWING is the highest. Self-actualization is not listed, so the next best choice is esteem.

234
Q

09-03 The halo effect refers to the tendency to:
A. Promote from within.
B. Hire the best.
C. Move people into project management because they are good in their technical fields.
D. Move people into project management because they have had project management training.

A

Answer C
Explanation The halo effect refers to the tendency to move people into project management because they are good in their technical fields. Just because a person is good in a technical field does not mean he or she will also be a good project manager.

235
Q

09-04 The sponsor’s role on a project is BEST described as:
A. Helping to plan activities.
B. Helping to prevent unnecessary changes to project objectives.
C. Identifying unnecessary project constraints.
D. Helping to develop the project management plan.

A

Answer B
Explanation Although the sponsor may help plan some of the activities, it is not his or her exclusive duty. Some project constraints come from the sponsor, but they should be considered necessary. The project management plan is created by the team and approved by the sponsor and other management. Since the project objectives are stated in the project charter, and it is the sponsor who issues the project charter, helping to prevent unnecessary changes to project objectives is the correct answer.

236
Q
09-05 Which of the following conflict resolution techniques will generate the MOST lasting solution?
A. Forcing
B. Smoothing
C. Compromise
D. Problem solving
A

Answer D
Explanation Problem solving (also referred to as collaborating) normally takes more time, but it gets buy-in from everyone, generating a more lasting solution.

237
Q
09-06 The MOST common causes of conflict on a project are schedules, project priorities, and:
A. Personality.
B. Resources.
C. Cost.
D. Management.
A

Answer B
Explanation Know the top four sources of conflict on projects (schedules, project priorities, resources, and technical opinions) so you can answer questions such as this one. Don’t be fooled because “personality” is on the list. It is not a major cause of conflict.

238
Q
09-07 What conflict resolution technique is a project manager using when he says, "I cannot deal with this issue now!"
A. Problem solving
B. Forcing
C. Withdrawal
D. Compromising
A

Answer C

Explanation Delaying the issue is called withdrawal.

239
Q
09-08 What does a resource histogram show that a responsibility assignment matrix does not?
A. Time
B. Activities
C. Interrelationships
D. The person in charge of each activity
A

Answer A
Explanation The responsibility assignment matrix maps specific resources to the work packages from the WBS. On a resource histogram, the use of resources is shown individually or by groups over time.

240
Q
09-09 You have just been assigned as project manager for a large telecommunications project. This one year project is about halfway done. The project team consists of 5 sellers and 20 of your company's employees. You want to understand who is responsible for doing what on the project. Where would you find such information?
A. Responsibility assignment matrix
B. Resource histogram
C. Bar chart
D. Project organization chart
A

Answer A
Explanation The resource histogram shows the number of resources used in each time period. In its pure form, a bar chart shows only activity and calendar date. The organizational chart shows who reports to whom. The responsibility assignment matrix shows who will do the work.

241
Q
09-10 During project planning in a matrix organization, the project manager determines that additional human resources are needed. From whom would she request these resources?
A. The PMO manager
B. The functional manager
C. The team
D. The project sponsor
A

Answer B
Explanation In a matrix organization, power is shared between the functional manager and the project manager, so the project manager needs to negotiate with the functional manager for the resources.

242
Q

09-11 A project manager must publish a project schedule. Activities, start/end times, and resources are identified. What should the project manager do NEXT?
A. Distribute the project schedule according to the communications management plan.
B. Confirm the availability of the resources.
C. Refine the project management plan to reflect more accurate costing information.
D. Publish a bar chart illustrating the timeline.

A

Answer B

Explanation The project schedule remains preliminary until resource assignments are confirmed.

243
Q

09-12 During every project team meeting, the project manager asks each team member to describe the work he or she is doing, and the project manager assigns new activities to team members. The length of these meetings has increased because there are many different activities to assign. This could be happening for all the following reasons EXCEPT:
A. Lack of a WBS.
B. Lack of a responsibility assignment matrix.
C. Lack of resource leveling.
D. Lack of team involvement in project planning.

A

Answer C
Explanation The lack of a WBS, responsibility assignment matrix, or team involvement in planning could contribute to excessively long meetings to assign resources to activities. Resource leveling refers to maintaining the same number of resources on the project for each time period and would not impact the length of meetings.

244
Q
09-13 You are a project manager leading a cross-functional project team in a weak matrix environment. None of your project team members report to you functionally and you do not have the ability to directly reward their performance. The project is difficult, involving tight date constraints and challenging quality standards. Which of the following types of project management power will likely be the MOST effective in this circumstance?
A. Referent
B. Expert
C. Penalty
D. Formal
A

Answer B
Explanation Reward and expert are the best types of power to use in such a circumstance. Reward is not listed as a choice, and the question says the project manager has limited ability to reward the team members. Therefore, expert power is the correct answer.

245
Q

09-14 A team member is not performing well on the project because she is inexperienced in system development work. There is no one else available who is better qualified to do the work. What is the BEST solution for the project manager?
A. Consult with the functional manager to determine project completion incentives for the team member.
B. Obtain a new resource more skilled in development work.
C. Arrange for the team member to get training.
D. Allocate some of the project schedule reserve.

A

Answer C
Explanation The job of the project manager includes providing or obtaining project-specific training for team members. This kind of training may be a direct cost of the project.

246
Q

09-15 A project has several teams. Team C has repeatedly missed deadlines in the past. This has caused
team D to have to crash the critical path several times. As the team leader for team D, you should
meet with:
A. The leader of team C.
B. The project manager.
C. The project manager and management.
D. The project manager and the leader of team C.

A

Answer D
Explanation Those involved in the problem should resolve the problem. Having had to crash the critical path several times implies that team D has already tried to deal with this problem. In this case, the two team leaders need to meet. The extent of this situation requires the project managers involvement as well.

247
Q

09-16 The new project is exciting to both the project manager and the team. This is the project managers
first assignment as project manager. The team feels they will be able to complete work that has never been tried before. There are 29 people contributing to the product description, and the team consists of 9 experienced experts in their field.
Part of the way through planning, three highly skilled technical team members are disagreeing about the scope of two of the deliverables. One is pointing to the draft WBS and saying that two additional work packages should be added. Another is saying that a particular work package should not even be done. The third team member agrees with both of them. How should the project manager BEST deal with the conflict?
A. He should listen to the differences of opinion, determine the best choice, and implement that choice.
B. He should postpone further discussions, meet with each individual, and determine the best approach.
C. He should listen to the differences of opinion, encourage logical discussions, and facilitate an agreement.
D. He should help the team focus on agreeable aspects of their opinions and build unity by using relaxation techniques and common-focus team building.

A

Answer C
Explanation Do not get confused by the wordiness of the question. Ask yourself what is the best way to resolve any conflict, and you can get the answer. Most of the situation is a distracter. Problem solving (collaborating) and compromising are the two most important conflict resolution techniques. Conflict management is a key general management skill.

248
Q
09-17 The project is just starting out and consists of people from 14 different departments. The project charter was signed by one person and contains over 30 major requirements that must be met on the project. The sponsor has informed the project manager that the SPI must be kept between 0.95 and 1.1. A few minutes of investigation resulted in the identification of 34 stakeholders, and the schedule objectives on the project are constrained. The project manager has just been hired. Which of the following types of project management power will BEST help the project manager gain the cooperation of others?
A. Formal
B. Referent
C. Penalty
D. Expert
A

Answer A
Explanation Generally, the best forms of power are reward or expert. The project manager has not had time to become a recognized expert in the company and reward power is not included as a choice here. This leaves formal power as the only logical answer.

249
Q

09-18 A project manager is trying to settle a dispute between two team members. One says the systems should be integrated before testing, and the other maintains each system should be tested before integration. The project involves over 30 people, and 12 systems need to be integrated. The sponsor is demanding that integration happen on time. What is the BEST statement the project manager can make to resolve the conflict?
A. Do it my way.
B. Lets calm down and get the job done.
C. Lets deal with this again next week after we all calm down.
D. Lets do limited testing before integration and finish testing after integration.

A

Answer D
Explanation Doing limited testing before integration and finishing testing after integration is an example of compromising. This is the best way for the project manager to resolve the conflict in this situation.

250
Q
09-19 A project is in the middle of the executing effort when a stakeholder suggests a major new change. This change will cause the third major overhaul of the project. At the same time, the project manager discovers that a major work package was not completed because a team member s boss moved him to another project that had a higher priority. Which of the following is the BEST person for the project manager to address these issues with?
A. The team
B. Senior management
C. The customer
D. The sponsor
A

Answer D
Explanation It is the sponsor’s role to prevent unnecessary changes and to set priorities among projects. The situation described in this question implies that such work is not being done and the project manager must therefore go to the root of the problem: the sponsor.

251
Q
09-20 What theory proposes that employees' efforts will lead to effective performance and the employees will be rewarded for accomplishments?
A. Conditional reinforcement
B. Maslows hierarchy
C. McGregors
D. Expectancy
A

Answer D
Explanation Expectancy theory states that employees who believe their efforts will lead to effective performance and who expect to be rewarded for their accomplishments will stay productive as rewards meet their expectations.

252
Q

09-21 The installation project has a CPI of 1.03 and an SPI of 1.0. There are 14 team members, and each team member had input into the final project management plan. The customer has accepted the three deliverables completed so far without complaint, and the responsibility assignment matrix has not changed since the project began. The project is being completed in a matrix environment and there are no contracts needed for the project.
Although the sponsor is happy with the status of the project, one of the team members is always complaining about how much time his project work is taking. Which of the following would be the BEST thing for the project manager to do?
A. Review the reward system for the project.
B. Try to improve schedule performance of the project.
C. Meet with the customer to try to extend the schedule.
D. Gain formal acceptance in writing from the customer.

A

Answer A
Explanation Improving schedule performance relates to getting the project completed sooner. Although it would seem to be a good idea to improve schedule performance, this project’s performance is fine. The schedule has been approved as it is. It would be better for the project manager to spend more time controlling the project to make sure it finishes according to plan
than to improve schedule performance.
If you chose attempting to extend the schedule, look at the SPI. There is nothing wrong with the schedule performance of the project that would require an extension.
Gaining formal acceptance from the customer will need to be done, as it provides an opportunity for the team to check if everything is going well. This action will not affect the team member’s dissatisfaction, however.
The only real problem presented in this situation is that the team member is complaining. If you read the situation completely, you will notice that the team member was involved and approved the project management plan, including his own involvement in the project. Since the responsibility assignment matrix has not changed, the team member has not even been assigned different duties since the project began. There must be something else causing the team member to complain. The project manager should investigate and find out if the reward system is ineffective.

253
Q

09-22 The project has been challenging to manage. Everyone has been on edge due to pressure to complete the project on time. Unfortunately, the tension has grown to the point where team meetings have become shouting matches and little work is accomplished during the meetings. One team member asks to be excused from future team meetings, as all the shouting upsets him. Meanwhile, the sponsor has expressed interest in attending future team meetings in order to better understand how the project is going and the issues involved in completing the project, and the customer has started discussions about adding scope to the project. In this situation, it would be BEST for the project manager to:
A. Ask the sponsor if the information needed could be sent in a report rather than have her
attend the meetings.
B. Inform the team member who asked to be excused from the meetings of the value of
communication in such meetings.
C. Involve the team in creating ground rules for the meetings.
D. Hold a team-building exercise that involves all the team members.

A

Answer C
Explanation Here is a situation where all four choices could be done, but there is one BEST answer. Asking the sponsor if the information could be sent in a report does not solve the root cause of the problem described. Informing the team member of the value of communication in meetings merely dismisses the concerns of the team member and might cause anger. A team building exercise would take planning and so could not be done right away. Remember, the sponsor might be attending the next meeting and at least one team member might not attend because of past problems. The best thing to do would be to set up new ground rules governing team behavior and then plan a team-building exercise.

254
Q

09-23 Project performance appraisals are different from team performance assessments in that project performance appraisals focus on:
A. How an individual team member is performing on the project.
B. An evaluation of the project team’s effectiveness.
C. A team-building effort.
D. Reducing the staff turnover rate.

A

Answer A
Explanation Questions like this can drive people crazy on the exam because it is easy to get confused. The best thing to do is to look at the two terms used here (project performance appraisals and team performance assessments) and review in your mind what each means
BEFORE looking at the choices. Team performance assessments evaluate the project teams effectiveness as a whole. Project performance appraisals deal with how each team member is performing on the project.

255
Q

09-24 A project manager had a complex problem to solve and facilitated a team decision about what needed to be done. A few months later, the problem resurfaced. What did the project manager MOST likely NOT do?
A. Perform proper risk analysis
B. Confirm the decision solved the problem
C. Have the project sponsor validate the decision
D. Use an Ishikawa diagram

A

Answer B
Explanation Notice the phrasing of this question, “most likely NOT do.” Expect to see questions worded on the exam in ways that can cause you to misinterpret them. You will also see questions about things we forget to do in the real world. “Who has time,” you might say, “to determine if each problem is really solved?” One could respond with, “Who has time not to do this? Who has time to deal with the same problem twice?” The final steps of problem solving include: implement a decision, review it, and confirm that the decision solved the problem.

256
Q

09-25 The project cost performance index (CPI) is 1.02, the benefit cost ratio is 1.7, and the latest round of performance reviews identified few needed adjustments. The project team was colocated in a new building when the project started. Everyone commented on how excited they were to have all new facilities. The sponsor is providing adequate support for the project, and few unidentified risks have occurred. In an attempt to improve performance, the project manager spends part of the project budget on new chairs for the team members and adds the term “senior” to each team member’s job title.
Which of the following is the MOST correct thing that can be said of this project or the project manager?
A. The project manager has misunderstood Herzberg’s theory.
B. The project is slowly spending more money than it should. The project manager should begin to watch cost more carefully.
C. The performance review should be handled better to find more adjustments.
D. The project manager should use good judgment to determine which variances are important.

A

Answer A
Explanation The option of the project manager watching cost more closely includes the concept of cost to trick you into selecting it if you are unsure of the real answer. There is no indication that the costs are trending in any particular direction. There is no reason to think that performance reviews should turn up more adjustments. The project manager should always use good judgment but nothing in this question talks about judgment regarding variances, so this cannot be the best choice. In this situation, the project manager is making great working conditions better by buying new chairs and enhancing the team members’ titles. According to Herzberg’s theory, fixing bad working conditions will help motivate the team, but making good ones better will not improve motivation. The project manager needs to focus on the motivating agents and not the hygiene factors.

257
Q
09-26 You just found out that a major subcontractor for your project consistently provides deliverables late. The subcontractor approaches you and asks you to continue accepting late deliverables in exchange for a decrease in project costs. This offer is an example of:
A. Confronting.
B. Compromise.
C. Smoothing.
D. Forcing.
A

Answer B

Explanation Both parties are giving up something. This is a compromise.

258
Q
09-27 The management theory that states that people can direct their own efforts is:
A. Theory Y.
B. Herzberg's theory.
C. Maslow's hierarchy.
D. Theory X.
A

Answer A
Explanation Theory Y is the belief that people can direct their own efforts. Know the difference between Theory X and Theory Y for the exam.

259
Q
09-28 During the first half of the project, five team members left for other projects without being replaced, two team members went on vacation without informing you, and other team members expressed uncertainty about the work they were to complete. In this situation, it is BEST if you create a \_\_\_ for the second half of the project.
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Resource histogram
C. Staffing management plan
D. Responsibility assignment matrix
A

Answer C
Explanation The resource histogram shows the resources used per time period, but would provide limited benefit in this situation. The responsibility assignment matrix cross-references resources with the activities or work packages they are to accomplish, but it does not show when they will be required to do their work. The staffing management plan describes when resources will be brought onto and taken off the project, and would provide the most benefit for this project.

260
Q

09-29 The project manager is looking at the projects resource needs and lessons learned from past projects. This information causes the project manager to be concerned about the ability to acquire enough resources for the project in six months. Which of the following would be the LEAST effective preventive action?
A. Make sure functional managers have a copy of the resource histogram.
B. Show the sponsor the data, and explain the project manager’s concern.
C. Determine metrics to use as an early warning sign that resources will not be available.
D. Ask functional managers for their opinions.

A

Answer A
Explanation Sending data without pointing out the issue does not mean the communication will be adequately decoded by the recipient. The other choices describe more effective communication in this instance.

261
Q

09-30 A large project is underway when one of the team members reviews the project status report. He sees the project is currently running late. As he looks at the report further, he notices the delay will cause one of his activities to be scheduled during a time he will be out of the country and cannot work on the activity. This is of great concern to the team member because he is very committed to the success of the project and he does not want to be the cause of the project being further delayed. What is the BEST thing for him to do?
A. Contact the project manager immediately to provide the project manager with his schedule.
B. Include the information in his next report.
C. Request that the issue be added to the project issue log.
D. Recommend preventive action.

A

Answer D
Explanation Notice that this question asks what the team member should do. It is important for the project manager to understand the team members role and possibly even instruct team members on how to work on projects and what is expected of them. Providing the project manager with his schedule, including the information in a report, and requesting that the issue be added to the issue log have one thing in common. They involve the team member asking the project manager to do something. In reality, it may very well be the team member who will come up with a solution (such as decreasing the scope of the activity, fast tracking, or specific suggestions about changes to predecessor activities). Therefore, recommending preventive action is the best choice for the team member. Note that recommended corrective or preventive actions can come from the team or stakeholders in addition to the project manager.

262
Q

09-31 There have been many work packages completed successfully on the project, and the sponsor has made some recommendations for improvements. The project is on schedule to meet an aggressive deadline when the successor activity to a critical path activity suffers a major setback. The activity has 14 days of float and is being completed by four people. There are two other team members with the skill set to assist the troubled activity, if needed.
The project manager receives a call that three other team members are attempting to be removed from the project because they do not feel the project can be successful. When the project manager pursues this, he discovers that those team members have issues that have not been addressed. Which of the following is the BEST thing to do to improve the project?
A. Have the team members immediately assist the troubled activity.
B. Investigate why the project schedule is aggressive.
C. See who can replace the three team members.
D. Create an issue log.

A

Answer D
Explanation Sometimes complex problems are caused by not doing simple things. The data in the first paragraph, once you read the choices, is completely extraneous. The troubled activity has float and so does not need immediate attention. It may not be necessary for additional team members to assist the troubled activity, but none of the choices suggest investigating whether the amount of float is enough to cover any delay caused by the trouble. Rather, the choices take you in different directions.
Investigating why the schedule is so aggressive should have been done before the project began. Replacing team members does not solve the root cause of the problem. Could there be something the project manager is doing wrong, or could be doing that he is not, that would solve the problem without losing resources? Wouldn’t it be more effective to discover the root cause of those team members’ concerns so the problem does not surface again later? The creation of an issue log will let the troubled team members know their concerns have been heard, are noted, and will be resolved. This might be enough to stop them from leaving and avoid the resultant project delays and confusion if new team members must be added.

263
Q
10-01 A project manager has a problem with a team member's performance. What is BEST form of communication for addressing this problem?
A. Formal written communication
B. Formal verbal communication
C. Informal written communication
D. Informal verbal communication
A

Answer D
Explanation The best choice is informal verbal communication. This does not mean you do not keep records of the problem, but it is best to start this discussion informally. If informal communication does not solve the problem, formal written communication is the next choice.

264
Q
10-02 Extensive use of \_\_\_ communication is most likely to aid in solving complex problems.
A. Formal verbal
B. Informal written
C. Formal written
D. Nonverbal
A

Answer C
Explanation Formal written communication allows your words to be documented, and they will go to everyone in the same form. When there are complex problems, you want everyone to receive the same information.

265
Q
10-03 The MOST likely result of communication blockers is that:
A. The project is delayed.
B. The trust level is enhanced.
C. Conflict occurs.
D. Senior management is displeased.
A

Answer C

Explanation The major result of communication blockers and miscommunication as a whole is conflict.

266
Q
10-04 Communications are often enhanced when the sender the receiver.
A. Speaks up to
B. Uses gestures when speaking to
C. Speaks slowly to
D. Shows concern for the perspective of
A

Answer D
Explanation An understanding of the receivers perspective allows the sender to direct the communication to meet the receivers needs.

267
Q

10-05 Formal written correspondence with the customer is required when:
A. Defects are detected.
B. The customer requests additional work not covered under contract.
C. The project has a schedule slippage that includes changes to the critical path.
D. The project has cost overruns.

A

Answer B
Explanation Everything we do is more formal in a procurement environment than in other project activities. Therefore, formal written communication is required when the customer requests work not covered under the contract.

268
Q

10-06 When a project manager is engaged in negotiations, nonverbal communication skills are of:
A. Little importance.
B. Major importance.
C. Importance only when cost and schedule objectives are involved.
D. Importance to ensure he wins the negotiation.

A

Answer B
Explanation Nonverbal communication carries a significant portion of the message you send. With so much at stake, nonverbal communication is of major importance

269
Q
10-07 A large, one-year telecommunications project is about halfway done when you take the place of the previous project manager. The project involves three different sellers and a project team of 30 people. You would like to see the projects communications requirements and what technology is being used to aid in project communications. Where will you find this information?
A. The stakeholder management plan
B. The information distribution plan
C. The bar chart
D. The communications management plan
A

Answer D

Explanation This information is found in the communications management plan.

270
Q

10-08 Changes to some project deliverables have been documented in the project management plan. These changes, and other project information, have been distributed according to the communications management plan. One stakeholder expressed surprise to the project manager upon hearing of a documented change to a project deliverable. All stakeholders received the communication providing notification of the change. What should the project manager do?
A. Determine why the stakeholder did not receive the information and let him know when it was
published.
B. Ask the functional manager why the stakeholder did not understand his responsibility.
C. Review the communications management plan and make revisions if necessary.
D. Address the situation in the next steering committee meeting so others do not miss published
changes.

A

Answer C
Explanation The question states that all stakeholders received the information, so the issue is not that this stakeholder did not receive it. The problem presented here illustrates that there is something missing in the communications management plan. The best answer is to review the communications management plan in order to prevent future problems and to find any instances of similar problems.

271
Q
10-09 Communication is key to the success of a project. As the project manager, you had three stakeholders with whom you needed to communicate. Therefore, you had six channels of communication. A new stakeholder has been added with whom you also need to communicate. How many communication channels do you have now?
A. 7
B. 10
C. 12
D. 16
A

Answer B
Explanation Did you realize the project manager is part of the communication channels? Therefore, there are actually four stakeholders to begin with and six channels of communication. The question is asking how many total channels of communication you have with a team of five people. The formula is [N x (N-l)]/2 or (5 x 4)/2 = 10.

272
Q

10-10 Two people are arguing about what needs to be done to complete a work package. In addition to the words being spoken, if the project manager wants to know what is going on, she should pay MOST attention to:
A. What is being said and when.
B. What is being said, who is saying it, and the time of day.
C. Physical mannerisms and when during the schedule this discussion is taking place.
D. The pitch and tone of the voices, and physical mannerisms.

A

Answer D
Explanation Remember that nonverbal communication represents a major part of all communication. The choice including paralinguai communication (pitch and tone), as well as physical mannerisms, is the best choice.

273
Q
10-11 A project manager has a project team consisting of people in four countries. The project is very important to the company, and the project manager is concerned about its success. The length of the project schedule is acceptable. What type of communication should he use?
A. Informal verbal communication
B. Formal written communication
C. Formal verbal communication
D. Informal written communication
A

Answer B
Explanation Because of the differences in culture and the distance between team members, formal written communication is needed.

274
Q

10-12 The project team meeting is not going well Many attendees are talking at the same time, there are people who are not participating, and many topics are being discussed at random. Which of the following rules for effective meetings is NOT being adhered to?
A. Demonstrate courtesy and consideration of each other, and control who is allowed to speak.
B. Schedule meetings in advance.
C. Have a purpose for the meeting, with the right people in attendance.
D. Create and publish an agenda and a set of rules for controlling the meeting.

A

Answer D
Explanation Courtesy and consideration is not a “rule” for effective meetings. Since there is no indication that the meeting was not scheduled in advance or that there isn’t a purpose, these cannot be the best answers. “Discussed at random” implies no agenda. If an agenda is issued beforehand, people will follow the outline and should not need random discussions.

275
Q
10-13 You have just been assigned as project manager for a large manufacturing project. This one-year project is about halfway done. It involves 5 different sellers and 20 members of your company on the project team. You want to quickiy review where the project now stands. Which of the following reports would be the MOST helpful in finding such information?
A. Work status
B. Progress
C. Forecast
D. Communications
A

Answer B
Explanation The key word is quickly. The status report is too detailed for a quick look. The forecast report only looks into the future. The progress report summarizes project status, and would be the most helpful for a quick review.

276
Q

10-14 A team member is visiting the manufacturing plant of one of the suppliers. Which of the following is the MOST important thing to be done in any telephone calls the project manager might make to the team member?
A. Ask the team member to repeat back what the project manager says.
B. Review the list of contact information for all stakeholders.
C. Ask the team member to look for change requests.
D. Review the upcoming meeting schedule.

A

Answer A
Explanation Questions like this drive people crazy. There are many choices that are reasonably correct. Look for the most immediate need. Here, the team member is in a manufacturing environment. That means communications will most likely be blocked by noise. It is best for the project manager to ask the team member to repeat back what he says, to ensure the team member correctly heard what the project manager communicated.

277
Q

10-15 A project manager overhears a conversation between two stakeholders who are discussing how unhappy they are with the impacts of the project on their own departments. Stakeholder A asks if the project is on time, and stakeholder B replies that the SPI is 1.05. Stakeholder A asks if the project manager for the project knows of stakeholder B’s concern. Stakeholder B responds that he is not sure. What is the BEST thing for the project manager to do?
A. Make sure the stakeholders see that the project manager overheard. Then ask them to direct any questions to the project manager in writing.
B. Make a presentation to all the stakeholders regarding the status of the project.
C. Send both stakeholders a copy of the issue log and ask for additional comments.
D. Arrange a meeting with both stakeholders to allow them to voice any concerns they may have.

A

Answer D
Explanation This is another question with more than one right answer. Would asking for something in writing be the best way to communicate? In this particular situation, asking for the concern to be in writing might alienate the stakeholders. The issue log is where the issue should be listed, but the situation does not say if the project manager knows what the stakeholders’ concern is. Therefore, using the issue log cannot be the best choice. Why not make a presentation to all the stakeholders regarding the status of the project? The project manager already knows stakeholders A and B have the concern, not all the stakeholders. This problem would likely require informal verbal communication to discover the real problem. Arranging a meeting with the concerned stakeholders is therefore the best choice.

278
Q

10-16 During the middle of the project, things have been going well. The work authorization system has allowed people to know when to start work, and the issue log has helped keep track of stakeholders’ concerns. The sponsor has expressed his appreciation for the team members’ efforts by hosting a milestone party. The project manager gets a call from a team member saying the results from the completion of her activity’s predecessor are two days late. Which of the following reasons would BEST describe why this occurred?
A. The project manager was focusing on the sponsor’s needs.
B. Functional management was not included in the communications management plan.
C. The successor activities should have been watched, not the predecessors.
D. The right people were not invited to the milestone party.

A

Answer B
Explanation Since there is no information about the sponsor or his needs in this situation, focusing on his needs cannot be best. The statement that successor activities should have been watched, rather than the predecessors, is not a correct statement. A project manager should watch both predecessor and successor activities. Attendance at the party and the issue at hand (the late results) are not related. Often forgotten in communications management plans are the bosses of team members (functional management in a matrix organization). Including the bosses of team members in communications planning, requirements gathering, risk management, and other areas of project management helps make the project better. In addition, it helps the functional managers manage their resources effectively. If the functional manager of the team member assigned to the predecessor activity had been included in the project planning processes, he would have known when the team member was needed to do work for the project and the impact, if any, of delay. The communications management plan should also have included a method to communicate potential delays.

279
Q

10-17 A project manager has just been assigned a team that comes from many countries including Brazil, Japan, the United States, and Britain. What is her BEST tool for success?
A. The responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
B. The teleconference
C. Team communication with the WBS
D. Communication and well-developed people skills

A

Answer D
Explanation Working with people from different cultures with different cultural values and beliefs necessitates an understanding of both basic definitions and areas of cultural impact. As project managers, we need to have good communication skills and a willingness to adapt to other cultures.

280
Q

10-18 The project has 13 team members and affects more than 15 departments in the organization. Because the project is 20 percent complete to date and the team has had successful performance reports from five of the affected departments, the project manager holds a party to celebrate. The project manager invites key stakeholders from all of the departments to the party, in order to give those providing good reviews an informal opportunity to communicate good things to those departments that have not yet been affected by the project. At the party, the project manager walks around to try to discover any relevant information that would help her make the project even more successful. She happens to hear a manager of one of the departments talking about setting up more regular meetings on the project.
The BEST thing for the project manager to do would be to FIRST:
A. Record the effectiveness of the party in the project lessons learned.
B. Review the effectiveness of the project’s communications management plan.
C. Hold a meeting of all the stakeholders to discuss their concerns.
D. Make sure the manager has a copy of the communications management plan so he is reminded that such concerns should be sent to the project manager.

A

Answer B
Explanation Many of these choices could be done, but ask yourself, “What is the most effective thing to do?” The party may well generate lessons learned, and recording them would certainly be a good idea, but the question asked what to do first. There is a more immediate issue - the manager. Meeting with all the stakeholders could be useful, but there is only one stakeholder, the manager, who definitely has an issue. Besides, a good project manager would be holding regular meetings with the stakeholders already. Making sure the manager has a copy of the communications management plan might be a good idea, as the manager apparently is not communicating with the project manager. However, this would not be enough to ensure the manager does communicate.
The manager is, in effect, saying he is not getting the information he needs. His lack of needed information is causing him to suggest more meetings. However, too many meetings are a problem on projects. A great project manager does not just add meetings, but solves the real problem in the best way.
A goal of communications management is to get information to those who need it. The project manager may decide to adjust her communications management process by changing the format of a report, or sending existing reports to the manager with the issue, rather than adding meetings. Therefore, the correct choice is to review the methods of providing project information to the stakeholders.

281
Q

10-19 The requirements of many stakeholders were not approved for inclusion in your project. Therefore, you had a difficult time gaining formal approval of the project management plan. The stakeholders argued and held up the project while they held meeting after meeting about their requirements. The project was finally approved and work began six months ago. All of the following would be good preventive actions to implement EXCEPT:
A. Keep a file of what requirements were not included in the project.
B. Make sure the change control process is not used as a vehicle to add the requirements back into the project.
C. Maintain an issue log.
D. Hold meetings with the stakeholders to go over the work that will not be added to the project.

A

Answer D
Explanation This issue should be over, but since there were so many meetings and arguments about the requirements being removed, it is unlikely the issue will be dropped by the stakeholders. However, as it has not come up again and the project was started six months ago, spending time in a meeting is excessive. The other choices are easier, have less impact on the project, and are therefore things that could be done.

282
Q

10-20 The project manager is expecting a deliverable to be submitted by e-mail from a team member today. At the end of the day, the project manager contacts the team member to notify him that it has not been received. The team member apologizes and explains that he was not able to e-mail the deliverable, and it was sent through the mail instead. The team member goes on to remind the project manager that he had informed the project manager, during a phone conversation that this would occur. “Was that the conversation we had when I told you I could not hear you well due to poor cell phone coverage?” asks the project manager. “Yes,” replies the team member. What could have been done to avoid this problem?
A. Paralingual communication
B. Adding to the issue log after the phone call
C. Better attention to determining communications requirements
D. Feedback during the communication

A

Answer D
Explanation The pitch and tone of voice (paralingual communication) is not relevant here, as the project manager could not even hear all that was being said. There were no issues recognized after the conversation, so none could be added to the issue log. This issue is not related to communications requirements, so that choice cannot be best. Saying, “I am not sure I properly heard what you said,”
during the conversation or repeating the message back to the team member would have prevented this problem. Giving and requesting feedback during the communication is the best option.

283
Q
10-21 If a project manager wants to report on the actual project results versus planned results, she should use a:
A. Trend report.
B. Forecasting report.
C. Status report.
D. Variance report.
A

Answer D
Explanation This situation describes the need to “compare.” A trend report shows performance over time. A forecasting report looks only to the future. A status report is generally static (relating to a moment in time). The only choice that compares project results is a variance analysis.

284
Q
10-22 Which of the following aspects of leadership is MOST important for a project manager?
A. Communication
B. Team building
C. Technical expertise
D. Project control
A

Answer A
Explanation As project managers can spend 90 percent of their time communicating, the correct choice must be communication.

285
Q
11-01 All of the following are factors in the assessment of project risk EXCEPT:
A. Risk events.
B. Risk probability.
C. Amount at stake.
D. Insurance premiums.
A

Answer D
Explanation Insurance premiums are not factors in assessing project risk. They come into play when you determine which risk response strategy you will use.

286
Q
11-02 If a project has a 60 percent chance of a US $100,000 profit and a 40 percent chance of a US $100,000 loss, the expected monetary value (EMV) for the project is:
A. $100,000 profit.
B. $60,000 loss.
C. $20,000 profit.
D. $40,000 loss.
A

Answer C
Explanation Expected monetary value is calculated by EMV = probability x impact. We need to calculate both positive and negative values and then add them:
0.6 x $100,000 = $60,000
0.4 x ($100,000) = ($40,000)
Expected monetary value = $60,000 - $40,000 = $20,000 profit

287
Q

11-03 Assuming that the ends of a range of estimates are +/- 3 sigma from the mean, which of the following range estimates involves the LEAST risk?
A. 30 days, plus or minus 5 days
B. 22 to 30 days
C. Optimistic = 26 days, most likely = 30 days, pessimistic = 33 days
D. Mean of 28 days

A

Answer C
Explanation This one drove you crazy, didn’t it? Reread the question! A mean of 28 days is not a range estimate, and so must be eliminated as a possible answer. When you look at the ranges of each of the other choices, you will see that 30 days, plus or minus 5 days = a range of 10 days. The range of 22 to 30 days = a range of 8 days. An optimistic estimate of 26 days, most likely estimate of 30 days, and pessimistic estimate of 33 days represents a range of 7 days. The estimate with the smallest range is the least risky, and therefore the correct choice. Did you realize the words +/- 3 sigma are extraneous? Practice reading questions that are wordy and have extraneous data.

288
Q

11-04 Which of the following risk events is MOST likely to interfere with attaining a project’s schedule objective?
A. Delays in obtaining required approvals
B. Substantial increases in the cost of purchased materials
C. Contract disputes that generate claims for increased payments
D. Slippage of the planned post-implementation review meeting

A

Answer A
Explanation Cost increases and contract disputes for payments will not necessarily interfere with schedule. If a “post-implementation” review meeting slips, it may not interfere with the project schedule. Delays in obtaining required approvals is the only choice that always causes a time delay, and is therefore the most likely to threaten the project schedule.

289
Q
11-05 If a risk has a 20 percent chance of happening in a given month, and the project is expected to last five months, what is the probability that this risk event will occur during the fourth month of the project?
A. Less than 1 percent
B. 20 percent
C. 60 percent
D. 80 percent
A

Answer B
Explanation No calculation is needed. If there is a 20 percent chance in any one month, the chance in the fourth month must therefore be 20 percent.

290
Q
11-06 If a risk event has a 90 percent chance of occurring, and the consequences will be US $10,000, what does US $9,000 represent?
A. Risk value
B. Present value
C. Expected monetary value
D. Contingency budget
A

Answer C
Explanation Expected monetary value is calculated by multiplying the probability times the impact. In this case, EMV = 0.9 x $10,000 = $9,000.

291
Q

11-07 Most of the risks will be identified during which risk management processes?
A. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis and Identify Risks
B. Identify Risks and Control Risks
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis and Control Risks
D. Identify Risks and Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

A

Answer B
Explanation This is a tricky question. Although risks can be identified at any time throughout the project, most risks are identified during the Identify Risks process. Newly emerging risks are identified in the Control Risks process.

292
Q

11-08 What should be done with risks on the watch list?
A. Document them for historical use on other projects.
B. Document them and revisit during project monitoring and controlling.
C. Document them and set them aside because they are already covered in your contingency plans.
D. Document them and give them to the customer.

A

Answer B
Explanation Risks change throughout the project. You need to review risks at intervals during the project to ensure noncritical risks on the watch list have not become critical.

293
Q
11-09 All of the following are ALWAYS inputs to the risk management process EXCEPT:
A. Historical information.
B. Lessons learned.
C. Work breakdown structure.
D. Project status reports.
A

Answer D
Explanation Project status reports can be an input to risk management. However, when completing risk management for the first time, you would not have project status reports. Therefore, project status reports are not always an input to risk management.

294
Q

11-10 Risk tolerances are determined in order to help:
A. The team rank the project risks.
B. The project manager estimate the project.
C. The team schedule the project.
D. Management know how other managers will act on the project.

A

Answer A
Explanation If you know the tolerances of the stakeholders, you can determine how they might react to different situations and risk events. You use this information to help assign levels of risk on each work package or activity.

295
Q

11-11 All of the following are common results of risk management EXCEPT:
A. Contract terms and conditions are created.
B. The project management plan is changed.
C. The communications management plan is changed.
D. The project charter is changed.

A

Answer D
Explanation A contract is a tool to transfer risks. The project management plan could change to include a modified WBS and new work packages related to mitigating risk. The communications management plan could change as a way to address a risk. A change to the charter is a fundamental change to the project and may require a major adjustment to all aspects of the project management plan. It is not a common result of risk management efforts.

296
Q
11-12 Purchasing insurance is BEST considered an example of risk:
A. Mitigation.
B. Transfer.
C. Acceptance.
D. Avoidance.
A

Answer B
Explanation To mitigate risk, we either reduce the probability of the event happening or reduce its impact. Acceptance of risk means doing nothing (if it happens, it happens, or contingency plans are created). Avoidance of risk means we change the way we will execute the project so the risk is no longer a factor. Transference is passing the risk off to another party. Many people think of using insurance as a way of decreasing impact. However, purchasing insurance transfers the risk to another party.

297
Q
11-13 You are finding it difficult to evaluate the exact cost impact of risks. You should evaluate on a(n):
A. Quantitative basis.
B. Numerical basis.
C. Qualitative basis.
D. Econometric basis.
A

Answer C
Explanation If you cannot determine an exact cost impact of the event, use qualitative estimates such as Low, Medium, High, etc.

298
Q

11-14 Outputs of the Plan Risk Responses process include:
A. Residual risks, fallback plans, and contingency reserves.
B. Risk triggers, contracts, and a risk list.
C. Secondary risks, process updates, and risk owners.
D. Contingency plans, project management plan updates, and sensitivity analysis.

A

Answer A
Explanation A risk list, process updates, and sensitivity analysis are not outputs of the Plan Risk Responses process. Residual risks, fallback plans, and contingency reserves are all outputs of the Plan Risk Responses process, making this the correct answer.

299
Q
11-15 Workarounds are determined during which risk management process?
A. Identify Risks
B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
C. Plan Risk Responses
D. Control Risks
A

Answer D
Explanation A workaround refers to determining how to handle a risk that has occurred but was not included in the risk register. The project must be in the Control Risks process if risks have occurred.

300
Q
11-16 During which risk management process is a determination to transfer a risk made?
A. Identify Risks
B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
C. Plan Risk Responses
D. Control Risks
A

Answer C
Explanation Transference is a risk response strategy. Risk response strategies are determined in the Plan Risk Responses process.

301
Q

11-17 A project manager has just finished the risk response plan for a US $387,000 engineering project. Which of the following should he probably do NEXT?
A. Determine the overall risk rating of the project.
B. Begin to analyze the risks that show up in the project drawings.
C. Add work packages to the project work breakdown structure.
D. Hold a project risk reassessment.

A

Answer C
Explanation This situation is occurring during project planning. Planning must be completed before moving on. Determining the risk rating of the project is done during Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, and should have already been done. Project risk reassessment occurs during Control Risks, the next step in the risk management process after Plan Risk Responses. But the question does not ask what is next in the risk management process, just what is next. Adding work packages to the WBS, as part of iterations, comes next in project planning.

302
Q

11-18 A project manager analyzed the quality of risk data and asked various stakeholders to determine the probability and impact of a number of risks. He is about to move to the next process of risk management. Based on this information, what has the project manager forgotten to do?
A. Evaluate trends in risk analysis.
B. Identify triggers.
C. Provide a standardized risk rating matrix.
D. Create a fallback plan.

A

Answer C
Explanation The project manager is in the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process. This process includes risk data quality assessment and probability and impact matrix development. It appears the project manager has not yet completed the matrix, which is used to sort risks based on their probability and impact ratings. Trend analysis, the identification of triggers, and development of fallback plans will occur later in risk management.

303
Q
11-19 A project manager has assembled the project team. They have identified 56 risks on the project, determined what would trigger the risks, rated them on a risk rating matrix, tested their assumptions, and assessed the quality of the data used. The team is continuing to move through the risk management process. What has the project manager forgotten to do?
A. Simulation
B. Risk mitigation
C. Overall risk ranking for the project
D. Involve other stakeholders
A

Answer D
Explanation The process the project manager has used so far is fine, except the input of other stakeholders is needed in order to identify more risks.

304
Q

11-20 You are a project manager for the construction of a major new manufacturing plant that has never been done before. The project cost is estimated at US $30,000,000 and will make use of three sellers. Once begun, the project cannot be cancelled, as there will be a large expenditure on plant and equipment. As the project manager, it is MOST important to carefully:
A. Review all cost proposals from the sellers.
B. Examine the budget reserves.
C. Complete the project charter.
D. Perform an identification of risks.

A

Answer D
Explanation A review of cost proposals could be done, but it is not a pressing issue based on the situation provided. Examining the budget reserves could also be done, but not until risk planning is completed. It is always important to carefully complete a project charter, but there are other issues needing detailed attention in this situation. Since this project has never been done before, and there will be a large cost outlay, it would be best for the project manager to spend more time on risk management. Risk identification is the most proactive response and will have the greatest positive impact on the project.

305
Q

11-21 Your team has come up with 434 risks and 16 major causes of those risks. The project is the last in a series of projects that the team has worked on together. The sponsor is very supportive, and a lot of time was invested in making sure the project work was complete and signed off by all key stakeholders.
During project planning, the team cannot come up with an effective way to mitigate or insure against a risk. It is not work that can be outsourced, nor can it be deleted. What would be the BEST solution?
A. Accept the risk.
B. Continue to investigate ways to mitigate the risk.
C. Look for ways to avoid the risk.
D. Look for ways to transfer the risk.

A

Answer A
Explanation This question relates real-world situations to risk types. Did you realize that the entire first paragraph is extraneous? Based on the question, you cannot remove the work to avoid it, nor can you insure or outsource it to transfer the risk. This leaves acceptance as the only correct choice.

306
Q

11-22 A project manager is quantifying risk for her project. Several of her experts are off-site, but wish to be included. How can this be done?
A. Use Monte Carlo analysis using the Internet as a tool.
B. Apply the critical path method.
C. Determine options for recommended corrective action.
D. Use the Delphi technique.

A

Answer D
Explanation The Delphi technique is commonly used to obtain expert opinions on technical issues, the necessary project or product scope, or the risks.

307
Q

11-23 An experienced project manager has just begun working for a large information technology integrator. Her manager provides her with a draft project charter and immediately asks her to provide an analysis of the risks on the project. Which of the following would BEST help in this effort?
A. An article from PM Network magazine
B. Her project scope statement from the project planning process
C. Her resource plan from the project planning process
D. A conversation with a team member from a similar project that failed in the past

A

Answer D
Explanation Did you realize this situation is taking place during project initiating? The scope statement and resource plan are created in project planning, and so are not yet available. Therefore, we are left with deciding if the magazine article or a conversation with a team member who worked on a similar project provides the greater value. Since the information gained in conversing with the team member provides input more specific to your organization, it is the best choice.

308
Q

11-24 You have been appointed as the manager of a new, large, and complex project. Because this project is business-critical and very visible, senior management has told you to analyze the project’s risks and prepare response strategies for them as soon as possible. The organization has risk management procedures that are seldom used or followed, and has had a history of handling risks badly. The project’s first milestone is in two weeks. In preparing the risk response plan, input from which of the following is generally LEAST important?
A. Project team members
B. Project sponsor
C. Individuals responsible for risk management policies and templates
D. Key stakeholders

A

Answer B
Explanation Team members will have knowledge of the project and the product of the project and will thus have a lot to contribute to risk responses. Those responsible for risk templates will be able to provide the templates from past projects (historical records) and therefore will be very important. Key stakeholders will know more about the technical working of the project to help plan “What are we going to do about it?” so they are not likely to be the least important. The sponsor may have the least knowledge of what will work to solve the problems. Sponsors need to be involved in the project and help identify risks. They may even approve the response plans created by others, but they would not generally be major contributors to response plans.

309
Q

11-25 You were in the middle of a two-year project to deploy new technology to field offices across the country. A hurricane caused power outages just when the upgrade was near completion. When the power was restored, all of the project reports and historical data were lost with no way of retrieving them. What should have been done to prevent this problem?
A. Purchase insurance.
B. Plan for a reserve fund.
C. Monitor the weather and have a contingency plan.
D. Schedule the installation outside of the hurricane season.

A

Answer C
Explanation The risk is the loss of data due to a power outage. Purchasing insurance is not related to preventing the problem. It transfers the risk. Creating a reserve fund is acceptance of the risk, and would help address the cost factors after the power failure, but would not reduce the probability or impact of it. Avoiding the hurricane by scheduling the installation at a different time reduces the power outage risk, but could have a large negative impact on the project schedule and so is not the best choice. The better choice of the options is to monitor the weather and know when to implement the contingency plan.

310
Q

11-26 A system development project is nearing project closing when a previously unidentified risk is discovered. This could potentially affect the projects overall ability to deliver. What should be done NEXT?
A. Alert the project sponsor of potential impacts to cost, scope, or schedule.
B. Qualify the risk.
C. Mitigate this risk by developing a risk response plan.
D. Develop a workaround.

A

Answer B
Explanation A workaround is an unplanned response to an event that is occurring. This risk discussed in the question has been identified, but it is not occurring at this time, so there is no need to take the action of creating a workaround. You need to analyze the problem before talking to the sponsor. You cannot mitigate the risk until you qualify it. Qualifying the risk will help you determine how to proceed.

311
Q

11-27 The cost performance index (CPI) of a project is 0.6 and the schedule performance index (SPI) is 0.71. The project has 625 work packages and is being completed over a four-year period. The team members are very inexperienced and the project received little support for proper planning. Which of the following is the BEST thing to do?
A. Update risk identification and analysis.
B. Spend more time improving the cost estimates.
C. Remove as many work packages as possible.
D. Reorganize the responsibility assignment matrix.

A

Answer A
Explanation This project has deviated so far from the baseline that updated risk identification and risk analysis should be performed.

312
Q

11-28 While preparing your risk responses, you identify additional risks. What should you do?
A. Add reserves to the project to accommodate the new risks and notify management.
B. Document the risk items and calculate the expected monetary value based on the probability and impact of the occurrences.
C. Determine the risk events and the associated costs, then add the cost to the project budget as a reserve.
D. Add a 10 percent contingency to the project budget and notify the customer.

A

Answer B
Explanation When new risks are identified, they should go through the risk management process. You need to determine the probability and impact of the risks and then try to diminish them through the Plan Risk Responses process. Only after these efforts should you consider adding reserves for time and/or cost. Any reserves should be based on a detailed analysis of risk. Calculating the expected monetary value of the risks is an important part of the risk management process, and the best choice presented here.

313
Q

11-29 During project executing, a team member identifies a risk that is not in the risk register. What should you do?
A. Get further information on how the team member identified the risk, because you already performed a detailed analysis and did not identify this risk.
B. Disregard the risk, because risks were identified during project planning.
C. Inform the customer about the risk.
D. Analyze the risk.

A

Answer D
Explanation First, you want to determine what the risk entails and the impact to the project, then determine what actions you will take regarding the risk.

314
Q

11-30 During project executing, a major problem occurs that was not included in the risk register. What should you do FIRST?
A. Create a workaround.
B. Reevaluate the Identify Risks process.
C. Look for any unexpected effects of the problem.
D. Tell management.

A

Answer A
Explanation Following the right process is part of professional and social responsibility. Because an unidentified problem or risk occurred, it is important to reevaluate the Identify Risks process as well as to look for unexpected effects of the problem. However, they are not your first choices. You might need to inform management, but this is reactive, not proactive, and not the first thing you should do. Since this is a problem that has occurred, rather than a problem that has just been identified, the first thing you must do is address the risk by creating a workaround.

315
Q

11-31 Which of the following is a chief characteristic of the Delphi technique?
A. Extrapolation from historical records from previous projects
B. Expert opinion
C. Analytical hierarchy process
D. Bottom-up approach

A

Answer B
Explanation The Delphi technique uses experts and builds consensus; therefore, expert opinion is the chief characteristic.

316
Q

11-32 A project has had some problems, but now seems under control. In the last few months, almost all the reserve has been used up and most of the negative impacts of events that had been predicted have occurred. There are only four activities left, and two of them are on the critical path.
Management now informs the project manager that it would be in the performing organization’s best interest to finish the project two weeks earlier than scheduled, in order to receive an additional profit. In response, the project manager sends out a request for proposal for some work that the team was going to do, hoping to find another company that might be able to do the work faster. The project manager can BEST be said to be attempting to work with:
A. Reserve.
B. Opportunities.
C. Scope validation.
D. Threats.

A

Answer B
Explanation The wording of this question can be confusing. Scope validation involves meeting with the customer to gain formal acceptance, so that cannot be the best choice. Reserve is mentioned in the situation, but the use of reserves is not the primary concern. The project manager is working to make a positive impact on the project more likely to occur. Therefore, he is working with an opportunity. This may include analyzing the appropriateness of using management reserves to cover the cost of the opportunity.

317
Q

11-33 Monte Carlo analysis is used to:
A. Get an indication of the risk involved in the project.
B. Estimate an activity’s length.
C. Simulate possible quality issues on the project.
D. Prove to management that extra staff is needed.

A

Answer A
Explanation A Monte Carlo analysis could indicate that an estimate for an activity needs to change, but not what the activity estimate should be. Monte Carlo is a simulation, but it does not specifically address quality. It does not deal directly with staff or resource needs either. Project risk can be assessed using Monte Carlo analysis. By considering the inputs to the weighted estimates and the network diagram, you can obtain a better overview of the overall project risk.

318
Q

11-34 A project team is creating a project management plan when management asks them to identify project risks and provide some form of qualitative output as soon as possible. What should the project team provide?
A. Prioritized list of project risks
B. Risk triggers
C. Contingency reserves
D. Probability of achieving the time and cost objectives

A

Answer A
Explanation This question essentially asks, “What is an output of Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis?” The probability of achieving time and cost objectives is determined during the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process. Risk triggers and contingency reserves are parts of the Plan Risk Responses process. A prioritized list of risks is an output of Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.

319
Q

11-35 A project manager is creating a risk response plan. However, every time a risk response is suggested, another risk is identified that is caused by the response. Which of the following is the BEST thing for the project manager to do?
A. Document the new risks and continue the Plan Risk Responses process.
B. Make sure the project work is better understood.
C. Spend more time making sure the risk responses are clearly defined.
D. Get more people involved in the Identify Risks process, since risks have been missed.

A

Answer A
Explanation Did you realize this question describes secondary risks? Identifying secondary risks is an important part of completing the Plan Risk Responses process. With that in mind, the best thing to do is to document the newly identified risks and continue the Plan Risk Responses process.

320
Q
11-36 A watch list is an output of which risk management process?
A. Plan Risk Responses
B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
D. Plan Risk Management
A

Answer C
Explanation A watch list is made up of low-priority risks that, in the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process, were determined to be of too low priority or low impact to move further in the risk management process.

321
Q

11-37 During the Identify Risks process, a project manager and stakeholders used various methods to identify risks and then created a long list of those risks. The project manager then made sure all the risks were understood and that triggers had been identified. Later, in the Plan Risk Responses process, he took all the risks identified by the stakeholders and determined ways to mitigate them. What has he done wrong?
A. The project manager should have waited until the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process to get the stakeholders involved.
B. More people should have been involved in the Plan Risk Responses process.
C. The project manager should have created workarounds.
D. Triggers should not be identified until the Identify Risks process.

A

Answer B
Explanation Stakeholders should be included in the Identify Risks process. Some triggers may be identified in the Identify Risks process, but they are generally identified and added to the risk register in the Plan Risk Responses process. Workarounds are created as unidentified risk events occur. The project managers error was not including others in the Plan Risk Responses process. Plan Risk Responses must include the involvement of all risk owners and possibly other stakeholders.

322
Q
11-38 Which of the following MUST be an agenda item at all team meetings?
A. Discussion of project risks
B. Status of current activities
C. Identification of new activities
D. Review of project problems
A

Answer A

Explanation Risk is so important that it must be discussed at all team meetings.

323
Q

12-01 Once signed, a contract is legally binding unless:
A. One party is unable to perform.
B. One party is unable to finance its part of the work.
C. It is in violation of applicable law.
D. It is declared null and void by either party’s legal counsel.

A

Answer C
Explanation Once signed, a contract is binding. Generally, the inability to perform or get
financing, or one party’s belief that the contract is null and void does not change the fact that the
contract is binding. If, however, both sides agree to terminate the contract, the contract can move
into the Close Procurements process.

324
Q

12-02 With a clear procurement statement of work, a seller completes work as specified, but the buyer is
not pleased with the results. The contract is considered to be:
A. Null and void.
B. Incomplete.
C. Complete.
D. Waived.

A

Answer C
Explanation If the seller completes the work specified in the procurement statement of work, the
contract is considered complete. That does not mean the same thing as the procurement being
closed. The Close Procurements process must still occur. However, in this situation, the contract
work is completed.

325
Q

12-03 All of the following statements concerning procurement documents are incorrect EXCEPT:
A. Well-designed procurement documents can simplify comparison of responses.
B. Procurement documents must be rigorous with no flexibility to allow consideration of seller
suggestions.
C. In general, procurement documents should not include selection criteria.
D. Well-designed procurement documents do not include a procurement statement of work.

A

Answer A
Explanation Often the seller is required to inform the buyer of anything that is missing or
unclear in the procurement documents. It is in the buyers best interest to discover missing
items, since it will save the buyer money and trouble to correct the problem early. Procurement
documents must contain terms and conditions and selection criteria, as well as documentation
of all the work that is to be done (which includes the procurement statement of work). This is
so the seller can price the project and know what is most important to the buyer. Well-designed
procurement documents can simplify comparison of responses. This is an important point and is
the best answer.

326
Q

12-04 A project manager for the seller is told by her management that the project should do whatever
possible to be awarded incentive money. The primary objective of incentive clauses in a contract is to:
A. Reduce costs for the buyer.
B. Help the seller control costs.
C. Synchronize objectives.
D. Reduce risk for the seller by shifting risk to the buyer.

A

Answer C
Explanation Incentives are meant to bring the objectives of the seller in line with those of the
buyer, so both are progressing toward the same objective.

327
Q

12-05 All the following statements about change control are incorrect EXCEPT:
A. A fixed-price contract will minimize the need for change control.
B. Changes seldom provide real benefits to the project.
C. Contracts should include procedures to accommodate changes.
D. More detailed specifications eliminate the causes of changes.

A

Answer C
Explanation There are always good ideas (changes) that can add benefit to the project, regardless
of the contract type. Although detailed specifications may reduce the need for changes, they do
not eliminate the causes. Contracts should include procedures to accommodate changes.

328
Q

12-06 A routine audit of a cost-reimbursable (CR) contract determines that overcharges are being made.
If the contract does not specify corrective action, the buyer should:
A. Continue to make project payments.
B. Halt payments until the problem is corrected.
C. Void the contract and start legal action to recover overpayments.
D. Change the contract to require more frequent audits.

A

Answer A
Explanation Halting all payments would be a breach of contract on the buyer s part. Voiding the
contract and beginning legal action is too severe and cannot be done unilaterally. Changing the
contract to require more frequent audits does not solve the problem presented. A choice that said,
“Halt payments on the disputed amount” would probably be the best answer, but it is not offered.
The best choice available is to continue to make the payments.

329
Q
12-07 The primary objective of contract negotiations is to:
A. Get the most from the other side.
B. Protect the relationship.
C. Get the highest monetary return.
D. Define objectives and stick to them
A

Answer B
Explanation As a project manager, you want to develop a good relationship during negotiations
that will last throughout the project. Negotiations are not about getting the most from the other
side (win-lose), as such actions will not create a good relationship. That doesn’t mean the buyer
sacrifices doing what is best for the organization.

330
Q

12-08 A seller is working on a cost- reimbursable (CR) contract when the buyer decides he would like to
expand the scope of services and change to a fixed-price (FP) contract. All of the following are the
seller’s options EXCEPT:
A. Completing the original work on a cost-reimbursable basis and then negotiating a fixed price
for the additional work.
B. Completing the original work and rejecting the additional work.
C. Negotiating a fixed-price contract that includes the work.
D. Starting over with a new contract.

A

Answer D
Explanation The seller can try to negotiate change or simply continue the original contract and
refuse requests to complete additional work, but the seller cannot unilaterally decide to start over
with a new contract. Both parties have to agree to this option through negotiations.

331
Q
12-09 All of the following MUST be present to have a contract EXCEPT:
A. A procurement statement of work.
B. Acceptance.
C. The address of the seller.
D. Buyers' signatures.
A

Answer C
Explanation Many people miss the fact that a contract includes a procurement statement of
work. To have a contract, you must also have acceptance. One set of signatures is not enough; you
must have sign-off (i.e., acceptance) from both parties, not just from the buyer. The address of the
seller is not required, and therefore is the exception.

332
Q

12-10 Which of the following BEST describes the project manager’s role in the procurement process?
A. The project manager has only minor involvement.
B. The project manager should be the negotiator.
C. The project manager should provide an understanding of the risks of the project.
D. The project manager should tell the contract manager how the contracting process should be
handled.

A

Answer C
Explanation The project manager knows the project risks. He or she needs to make sure
provisions are included in the contract to address these risks.

333
Q

12-11 Which of the following activities occurs during the Plan Procurement Management process?
A. Make-or-buy decisions
B. Answering sellers’ questions about the bid documents
C. Advertising
D. Proposal evaluation

A

Answer A
Explanation Answering sellers’ questions, advertising, and proposal evaluation occur during the
Conduct Procurements process. Make-or-buy decisions are made earlier, in the Plan Procurement
Management process.

334
Q

12-12 Which of the following is the BEST thing for a project manager to do in the Conduct
Procurements process?
A. Evaluate risks.
B. Select a contract type.
C. Perform market research.
D. Answer sellers’ questions about the procurement documents.

A

Answer D
Explanation Risk analysis is done before the Conduct Procurements process begins, as
procurement is a risk mitigation and transference tool. Selecting a contract type is part of
Plan Procurement Management. Market research is also performed in the Plan Procurement
Management process, to enable selection of the appropriate sellers for the needs of the project.
During the Conduct Procurements process, the project manager answers questions submitted by
prospective sellers.

335
Q

12-13 The sponsor is worried about the seller deriving extra profit on the cost plus fixed fee (CPFF)
contract. Each month he requires the project manager to submit CPI calculations and an analysis
of the cost to complete. The project manager explains to the sponsor that extra profits should NOT
be a worry on this project because:
A. The team is making sure the seller does not cut scope.
B. All costs invoiced are being audited.
C. There can only be a maximum 10 percent increase if there is an unexpected cost overrun.
D. The fee is only received by the seller when the project is completed.

A

Answer B
Explanation Cutting scope decreases profits on this type of contract, so that would not be a way
for the seller to generate extra profits. CPFF contracts generally do not limit fee increases, and
the fee in a CPFF contract is usually paid out on a continuous basis during the life of the project.
One of the ways to change the profit in a cost plus fixed fee contract is to invoice for items not
chargeable to the project. Therefore, all invoiced costs should be audited.

336
Q

12-14 In a fixed-price (FP) contract, the fee or profit is:
A. Unknown.
B. Part of the negotiation involved in paying every invoice.
C. Applied as a line item to every invoice.
D. Determined with the other party at the end of the project.

A

Answer A
Explanation The fee or profit is known to the seller, but this question is asked from the buyers
perspective. The buyer does not know what profit the seller included in the contract.

337
Q

12-15 A project performed under a cost-reimbursable contract has finally entered the Close
Procurements process. What MUST the buyer remember to do?
A. Decrease the risk rating of the project.
B. Audit seller’s cost submittals.
C. Evaluate the fee she is paying.
D. Make sure the seller is not adding resources.

A

Answer B
Explanation Although a reserve might be decreased for the project overall when one of its
procurements enters closure, the risk rating of the project is generally not affected. Evaluation of
the fee should have been done during the Conduct Procurements process. Making sure the seller
does not add resources may be a concern during the Control Procurements process, but it is not
common during Close Procurements. Auditing the seller’s cost submittals is a required aspect of
the Close Procurements process.

338
Q

12-16 The sponsor and the project manager are discussing what type of contract the project manager
plans to use on the project. The sponsor points out that the performing organization spent a lot of
money hiring a design team to come up with the design. The project manager is concerned that the
risk for the buyer be as small as possible. An advantage of a fixed-price contract for the buyer is:
A. Cost risk is lower.
B. Cost risk is higher.
C. There is little risk.
D. Risk is shared by all parties.

A

Answer A
Explanation If you had trouble with this one, you need to remember that the questions are asked
from the buyer’s perspective unless otherwise noted. The seller has the most cost risk in a fixed -price contract, and the buyers risk is lower.

339
Q

12-17 As part of the records management system, you are trying to make sure all records from the
procurement are documented and indexed. Which of the following do you NOT have to worry about?
A. Proposal
B. Procurement statement of work
C. Terms and conditions
D. Negotiation process

A

Answer D
Explanation To answer this question, you need to know what a records management system
is and that it would not be used to keep track of negotiations. The negotiation process is not a
document. The proposal, procurement statement of work, and the contract terms and conditions
are all records that need to be documented and indexed.

340
Q

12-18 You are in the middle of a complex negotiation when the other party says, “We need to finish
in one hour because I have to catch my plane.” That person is using which of the following
negotiation strategies?
A. Good guy, bad guy
B. Delay
C. Deadline
1). Extreme demands

A

Answer C

Explanation Putting a time limit on the negotiation is an example of a deadline negotiation strategy.

341
Q
12-19 Which of the following is an advantage of centralized contracting?
A. Increased expertise
B. Easier access
C. No home for the procurement manager
D. More loyalty to the project
A

Answer A
Explanation Centralized contracting usually means it is more difficult to get access to the
procurement manager, and the procurement manager has less loyalty to the project. The fact
that the procurement manager has no home when he or she is not working on a project is a
disadvantage of decentralized contracting. Increased expertise of the procurement manager is an
advantage of centralized contracting.

342
Q
12-20 With which type of contract is the seller MOST concerned about project scope?
A. Fixed price
B. Cost plus fixed fee
C. Time and material
D. Purchase order
A

Answer A
Explanation In a fixed-price contract, the seller has the cost risk and therefore wants to
completely understand the procurement statement of work before bidding.

343
Q

12-21 Your company has an emergency and needs contracted work done as soon as possible. Under
these circumstances, which of the following would be the MOST helpful to add to the contract?
A. A clear procurement statement of work
B. Requirements as to which subcontractors can be used
C. Incentives
D. A force majeure clause

A

Answer C
Explanation If you follow the proper project management process, you ALWAYS have good
definition of scope (in this case, the procurement statement of work). In this situation, both good
scope definition and incentives are required. Along with good scope definition, you need the seller
to share your need for speed. Incentives bring the sellers objectives in line with the buyer’s and
thus would be the MOST helpful. Good scope definition alone does not ensure speed.

344
Q

12-22 During which procurement processes does procurement negotiation occur?
A. Plan Procurement Management and Close Procurements
B. Control Procurements and Close Procurements
C. Conduct Procurements and Control Procurements
D. Conduct Procurements and Close Procurements

A

Answer D
Explanation Negotiation occurs during the Conduct Procurements process as part of the effort
to create a contract or agreement that is approved by both the buyer and the seller. Negotiation
also occurs in the Close Procurements process to settle any outstanding disputes.

345
Q

12-23 The project team is arguing about the prospective sellers who have submitted proposals. One team
member argues for a certain seller while another team member wants the project awarded to a
different seller. What part of the procurement process is the team in?
A. Plan Procurement Management
B. Control Procurements
C. Negotiate Contracts
D. Conduct Procurements

A

Answer D

Explanation Selected sellers are an output of the Conduct Procurements process.

346
Q
12-24 A project manager is in the middle of creating a request for proposal (RFP). What part of the
procurement process is he in?
A. Conduct Procurements
B. Plan Procurement Management
C. Administer Procurements
D. Make-or Buy Analysis
A

Answer B
Explanation The procurement documents are created during the Plan Procurement Management
process. The request for proposal is one of those documents, so the project manager is in the Plan
Procurement Management process.

347
Q

12-25 Your program manager has come to you, the project manager, for help with a bid for her newest
project. You want to protect your company from financial risk, and you have limited scope
definition. What is the BEST type of contract to choose?
A. Fixed price (FP)
B. Cost plus percentage of cost (CPPC)
C. Time and material (T&M)
D. Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF)

A

Answer D
Explanation Of the options given, the only contract that limits fees for large projects with limited
scope definition is cost plus fixed fee.

348
Q

12-26 Negotiations between two parties are becoming complex, so Party A makes some notes that
both parties sign. However, when the work is being done, Party B claims they are not required
to provide an item they both agreed to during negotiations, because it was not included in the
subsequent contract. In this case, party B is:
A. Incorrect, because both parties must comply with what they agreed on.
B. Correct, because there was an offer.
C. Generally correct, because both parties are only required to perform what is in the contract.
D. Generally incorrect, because all agreements must be upheld.

A

Answer C

Explanation Party B is only required to deliver what is defined in the contract.

349
Q

12-27 Your project has just been fast tracked and you are looking to quickly bring in a subcontractor to
complete networking. There is no time to issue a request for proposal (RFP), so you choose to use
a company you have used many times before for software development. A PRIMARY concern in
this situation is:
A. Collusion between subcontractors.
B. The subcontractor’s qualifications.
C. The subcontractor’s evaluation criteria.
D. Holding a bidder conference.

A

Answer B
Explanation Although you have used this contractor before, how can you be sure the company is
qualified to do the new work, since it is not exactly like the previous work? This is the risk you are
taking.

350
Q

12-28 The project manager and project sponsor are discussing the project costs and whether it is better
to have their own company do part of the project or hire another company to do the work. If they
asked for your opinion, you might say it would be better to do the work yourself if:
A. There is a lot of proprietary data.
B. You have the expertise but you do not have the available manpower.
C. You do not need control over the work.
D. Your company resources are limited.

A

Answer A
Explanation It is generally better to do the work yourself if using an outside company means you
have to turn over proprietary data to the other company.

351
Q

12-29 After much excitement and hard work, the procurement statement of work for the project is
completed. Even after gaining agreement that the procurement statement of work is complete, the
project manager is still unsure of whether it actually addresses all the buyer’s needs. The project
manager is about to attend the bidder conference. He asks you for advice on what to do during the
session. Which of the following is the BEST advice you can give him?
A. You do not need to attend this session. The procurement manager will hold it.
B. Make sure you negotiate project scope.
C. Make sure you give all the sellers the opportunity to ask questions.
D. Let the project sponsor handle the meeting so you can be the good guy in the negotiation session.

A

Answer C
Explanation The project manager should attend the bidder conference, although the procurement
manager may lead it. Did you select negotiating scope? Sellers may ask questions about scope
during the conference, but negotiations occur after the seller is selected. Allowing ample
opportunity for all of the prospective sellers to ask questions is one of the many challenges of a
bidder conference. They may not want to ask questions while their competitors are in the room.

352
Q

12-30 A seller is awarded a contract to build a pipeline. The contract terms and conditions require a
work plan to be issued for the buyers approval prior to commencing work, but the seller fails to
provide one. Which of the following is the BEST thing for the buyer’s project manager to do?
A. File a letter of intent.
B. Develop the work plan and issue it to the seller to move things along.
C. Issue a default letter.
D. Issue a stop work order to the seller until a work plan is prepared.

A

Answer C
Explanation When a seller does not perform according to the contract terms and conditions,
they have defaulted and the project manager must take action. You might prefer a choice to
investigate the default by contacting the seller and asking what is going on, but that choice is
not available here. You must send the formal written notice as soon as you become aware of the
default so that you do not give up any right to receive the work plan in the future. You can contact
the seller for a discussion as the second thing you do. Therefore, the best choice is to let the
seller know they are in default. The default notification letter will instruct the seller to meet the
performance requirement.

353
Q

12-31 Close Procurements is different from Close Project or Phase in that Close Procurements:
A. Occurs before Close Project or Phase.
B. Is the only one to involve the customer.
C. Includes the return of property.
D. May be done more than once for each contract.

A

Answer A
Explanation The customer may be involved in lessons learned and procurement audits, and
would certainly be involved in formal acceptance. Both Close Procurements and Close Project or
Phase involve the return of property. Close Procurements is done once for each procurement, at
the end of the contract. All procurements are closed before the project is closed.

354
Q

12-32 You have just started work on a procurement when management decides to terminate the
contract. What should you do FIRST?
A. Go back to the Plan Procurement Management process.
B. Go back to the Conduct Procurements process.
C. Finish the Control Procurements process.
D. Go to the Close Procurements process.

A

Answer D
Explanation If the contract is terminated, the procurement needs to enter closure. The results
of the procurement and its documentation are archived as historical records in the Close
Procurements process.

355
Q

12-33 The project team is arguing about the prospective sellers who have submitted proposals. One team
member argues for a certain seller while another team member wants the project to be awarded to
a different seller. The BEST thing the project manager should remind the team to focus on in order
to make a selection is the:
A. Procurement documents.
B. Procurement audits.
C. Source selection criteria.
D. Procurement management plan.

A

Answer C
Explanation The source selection criteria is the primary tool for evaluating potential sellers and
should be used by the team in order to make a selection.

356
Q

12-34 The performing organization is trying to decide whether to split the procurement department
and assign procurement responsibilities to departments directly responsible for the projects.
A procurement professional might not want this split to occur because he or she would lose ___
in a decentralized contracting environment.
A. Standardized company project management practices
B. Loyalty to the project
C. Experience
D. Access to others with similar expertise

A

Answer D
Explanation The change would not impact the organizations overall project management
practices, only procurement. Loyalty to the project would be gained, not lost, in a decentralized
environment, as the procurement manager is part of the project team. In a decentralized
procurement environment, there is less focus on maintaining the skill or expertise of the
contracting function, and access to other procurement professionals with comparable expertise
would be reduced.

357
Q

12-35 Your project team member delivers a project deliverable to the buyer. However, the buyer
refuses the deliverable, stating it does not meet the requirement on page 300 of the technical
specifications. You review the document and find that you agree. What is the BEST thing to do?
A. Explain that the contract is wrong and should be changed.
B. Issue a change order.
C. Review the requirements and meet with the responsible team member to review the WBS
dictionary.
D. Call a meeting of the team to review the requirement on page 300.

A

Answer C
Explanation This question is written from the perspective of the seller. The contract could
be wrong, or the customer could be wrong, but this should have been discovered earlier if
proper project management was followed. A seller cannot issue a change order (although they
could request one). Did you select calling a meeting of the team? If so, remember that project
management is not about making every decision with ALL the team members. The best choice
involves reviewing the requirements documentation and meeting with the appropriate team
member. If such a problem has arisen, it could mean something was wrong in the WBS dictionary
or in how the team member completed the work.

358
Q
12-36 What type of contract do you NOT want to use if you do not have enough labor to audit invoices?
A. Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF)
B. Time & material (T&M)
C. Fixed price (FP)
D. Fixed price incentive fee (FPIF)
A

Answer C
Explanation This question is written from the perspective of the seller. The contract could
be wrong, or the customer could be wrong, but this should have been discovered earlier if
proper project management was followed. A seller cannot issue a change order (although they
could request one). Did you select calling a meeting of the team? If so, remember that project
management is not about making every decision with ALL the team members. The best choice
involves reviewing the requirements documentation and meeting with the appropriate team
member. If such a problem has arisen, it could mean something was wrong in the WBS dictionary
or in how the team member completed the work.

359
Q

12-37 A new project manager is about to begin creating the procurement statement of work. One stakeholder wants to add many items to the procurement statement of work. Another stakeholder only wants to describe the functional requirements. The project is important for the project manager’s company, but a seller will do the work. How would you advise the project manager?
A. The procurement statement of work should be general to allow the seller to make their own decisions.
B. The procurement statement of work should be general to allow for clarification later.
C. The procurement statement of work should be detailed to allow for clarification later.
D. The procurement statement of work should be as detailed as necessary for the type of project.

A

Answer D
Explanation When the seller has more expertise than the buyer, the procurement statement of
work should describe performance or function rather than a complete list of work. In any case, the
procurement statement of work should be as detailed as possible.

360
Q
13-01 When do stakeholders have the MOST influence on a project?
A. At the beginning of the project
B. In the middle of the project
C. At the end of the project
D. Throughout the project
A

Answer A
Explanation Stakeholders have an impact throughout the project, but they must be identified
and involved at the beginning of the project, in order to determine their requirements and
expectations. If this effort is not done early, the results may be expensive changes and/or
dissatisfaction later in the project.

361
Q

13-02 The project has been going well, except for the number of changes being made. The product of
the project is being installed into seven different departments within the company and will greatly
improve departmental performance when operational. The team has selected the appropriate
processes for use on the project. The project manager is a technical expert as well as having been
trained in communications and managing people. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause
of the project problems?
A. The project manager was not trained in understanding the company environment.
B. The project should have more management oversight since it will result in such great benefits
to the company.
C. The project should have used more of the project management processes.
D. Some stakeholders were not identified.

A

Answer D
Explanation Once again, it is important to look for the choice that would solve the real problem.
There is no reason to think that training, management oversight, and a need for more processes
are factors contributing to the number of changes. The root cause is that stakeholders were
missed and, as a result, their requirements were not found. Those stakeholders are now requesting
changes to accommodate their needs.

362
Q

13-03 Stakeholders can be identified in which project management process groups?
A. Initiating, planning, executing, and monitoring and controlling
B. Initiating and planning
C. Planning and monitoring and controlling
D. Monitoring and controlling and closing

A

Answer A
Explanation Stakeholders can be identified throughout the project. However, the earlier
stakeholders are identified, the better for the project. If all of the stakeholders’ needs and
requirements are taken into account before plans are finalized and project work is begun, fewer
changes will be needed later in the project, when they will be more costly.

363
Q

13-04 A particular stakeholder has a reputation for requesting many changes on projects. What is the
BEST approach a project manager can take at the beginning of the project to manage this situation?
A. Say “No” to the stakeholder a few times to dissuade him from submitting more changes.
B. Get the stakeholder involved in the project as early as possible.
C. Talk to the stakeholder’s boss to find ways of directing the stakeholder’s activities to another
project.
D. Ask that the stakeholder not be included in the stakeholder listing.

A

Answer B
Explanation The project manager cannot avoid the stakeholder, because he has a stake in the
project. The project manager can say “No,” but this does not solve the root cause of the problem.
There may be some good ideas within those change requests. The only choice that deals with the
problem is getting the stakeholder involved in the project as soon as possible.
Changes generally arise due to lack of input at the beginning of the project. If the project manager
begins effective communication with this stakeholder early, there is a much better chance his changes
will be discovered during the planning process, when they will have less of an impact on the project.

364
Q

13-05 Which of the following statements BEST describes how stakeholders are involved on a project?
A. They help to determine the project schedule, deliverables, and requirements.
B. They help to determine the project constraints and product deliverables.
C. They help to determine the resource needs and resource constraints on the project.
D. They approve the project charter, help provide assumptions, and create the management plans.

A

Answer B
Explanation The project manager determines the project schedule through schedule
development. The team and other stakeholders provide the inputs. Since it is also the project
manager’s role to determine resource needs and create management plans, the choices including
those roles cannot be best. The project sponsor approves the project charter, not the stakeholders.
Stakeholders do, however, help in determining project constraints and product deliverables.
Notice how tricky questions can be if you do not read them correctly! Watch for this in other
questions, and pay close attention to the differences in wording.

365
Q
13-06 All of the following are parts of the teams stakeholder management effort EXCEPT:
A. Determining stakeholders' needs.
B. Identifying stakeholders.
C. Giving stakeholders extras.
D. Managing stakeholders' expectations.
A

Answer C
Explanation Giving stakeholders extras is known as gold plating. This is not effective stakeholder
or quality management.

366
Q

13-07 You have been assigned to manage the development of an organizations new website. The site
will be highly complex and interactive, and neither your project team nor the client has much
experience with this type of website development.
The timeline is extremely aggressive. Any delay will be costly for both your firm and the client.
You have a project sponsor and have achieved agreement and sign-off on both the project charter
and the project management plan. Client personnel have been kept fully informed of the project’s
progress through status reports and regular meetings. The project is on schedule and within
budget, and a final perfunctory review has been scheduled.
Suddenly you hear that the entire effort may be cancelled because the product being developed is
totally unacceptable. What is the MOST likely cause of this situation?
A. A key stakeholder was not adequately involved in the project.
B. The project charter and project management plan were not thoroughly explained to or
adequately reviewed by the client.
C. Communications arrangements were inadequate and did not provide the required information
to interested parties.
D. The project sponsor failed to provide adequate support for the project.

A

Answer A
Explanation A single high-level executive can end an entire project if he or she is not satisfied
with the results, even if that person has, by choice, been only tangentially involved in the project.
It is critical to ensure that all of the final decision makers have been identified early in a project in
order to ensure that their concerns are addressed.

367
Q

13-08 A project manager wants to more extensively involve the stakeholders on the project. Which of the
following would be the BEST way to accomplish this?
A. Have the stakeholders periodically review the list of project requirements.
B. Invite the stakeholders to attend project status meetings.
C. Send status reports to the stakeholders.
D. Update the stakeholders on the status of all project changes.

A

Answer A
Explanation It seems like all of these are good ideas, but having the stakeholders review the list
of project requirements helps discover errors and changes, and could therefore be considered the
best choice to keep stakeholders involved on the project.

368
Q

13-09 A stakeholders engagement assessment matrix can be used to identify:
A. Communication gaps.
B. Additional stakeholders.
C. Key relationships between stakeholders.
D. Skill levels of stakeholders.

A

Answer A
Explanation The stakeholders engagement assessment matrix can be used to compare the actual
engagement levels of individual stakeholders to the planned levels of engagement. Any discrepancies
can be analyzed, and communications to adjust the engagement levels can be implemented.

369
Q

13-10 The role of each stakeholder is determined by:
A. The stakeholder and the sponsor.
B. The project manager and the sponsor.
C. The team and the project manager.
D. The project manager and the stakeholder.

A

Answer D
Explanation The role of each stakeholder is determined by the project manager and the
stakeholder. It is important that stakeholders have input into what they will be contributing to the
project. The role of the project manager is NOT to tell people what to do!

370
Q

13-11 You are the project manager for a large installation project when you realize there are over 200
potential stakeholders on the project. Which of the following would be the BEST course of action
for you to take?
A. Eliminate some stakeholders.
B. Find an effective way to gather the needs of all stakeholders.
C. Contact your manager, and ask which stakeholders are most important.
D. Gather the needs of all the most influential stakeholders.

A

Answer B
Explanation You need to consider the needs of all your stakeholders as early as possible, to create
a better organized project and to minimize changes later.

371
Q

13-12 Information in the stakeholder register should be:
A. Accessible only to the project manager.
B. Available to the project manager and PMO staff.
C. Available to all stakeholders and team members.
D. Shared with others at the discretion of the project manager.

A

Answer D
Explanation Remember that the stakeholder register includes the project manager’s impression
of stakeholders’ capabilities and attitudes, and possibly challenges related to working with them.
Such notes may not be intended, or appropriate, for all to see. Therefore, the stakeholder register
should be shared with others at the discretion of the project manager.

372
Q

13-13 The project manager is trying to recall a stakeholder’s preferred communication method. Where
can she find that information?
A. RAC1 chart
B. Stakeholders engagement assessment matrix
C. Stakeholder management plan
D. Human resource management plan

A

Answer C
Explanation Stakeholders’ individual communication requirements are documented in the
stakeholder management plan.

373
Q

13-14 All of the following are responsibilities of the project manager EXCEPT:
A. Carefully select the appropriate stakeholders for the project.
B. Get stakeholders’ sign-off that the requirements are finalized.
C. Figure out when stakeholders will be involved in the project and how extensively.
D. Ask stakeholders to let you know about problems in project communications and
relationships.

A

Answer A
Explanation The project manager does not have the option of selecting stakeholders. By definition,
stakeholders are people or organizations whose interests may be positively or negatively impacted
by the project or its product, as well as anyone who can exert positive or negative influence over the
project. All stakeholders must be identified and managed to ensure project success.

374
Q
13-15 The key objective of stakeholder management is:
A. Communication.
B. Coordination.
| C. Satisfaction.
D. Relationships.
A

Answer C
Explanation While communication, coordination, and development of relationships are parts
of stakeholder management, collectively they contribute to the main objective of this processstakeholder
satisfaction.

375
Q

13-16 As project manager, you are unable to allocate as much time to interact with your stakeholders as
you would like. Which of the following stakeholders will you make it a priority to get to know?
A. The stakeholder who is an expert on the product of the project, but is not interested in
implementing it in his department.
B. The manager of the department that will use the product of the project. She is known
to be resistant to change.
C. The project sponsor, with whom you have successfully worked on many projects.
D. The department employee who is unfamiliar with the product of the project, but open to the
positive impacts he believes the product will have on his work environment.

A

Answer B
Explanation As the department manager, this person is a key stakeholder, and wields a lot of
influence over other stakeholders in her department. The fact that she is resistant to change
indicates she will need some personal reassurance from the project manager, or she may exert her
influence to derail the project.

376
Q
13-17 A stakeholders belief about or mental picture of the future is a(n):
A. Requirement.
B. Heuristic.
C. Expectation.
D. Constraint
A

Answer C
Explanation. Expectations are not as direct or straightforward as requirements. Nonetheless,
they are important to recognize and address to ensure stakeholder satisfaction with the project.
Therefore, the project manager must do additional work to uncover the expectations of stakeholders.

377
Q
13-18 The degree to which a particular stakeholder may be able to positively or negatively affect a project
is his or her:
A. Level of engagement.
B. Level of interest.
C. Level of commitment.
D. Level of influence.
A

Answer D
Explanation The question is referring to level of influence. Each stakeholder’s level of influence
may be based on status within the organization, seniority, or other factors. The level of influence
of each stakeholder should be identified and managed throughout the project.

378
Q

13-19 The stakeholder register is an input to which of the following processes?
A. Plan Risk Management and Collect Requirements
B. Perform Integrated Change Control and Plan Communications Management
C. Plan Quality Management and Perform Quality Assurance
D. Identify Risks and Develop Project Charter

A

Answer A
Explanation Of the answer choices listed, the stakeholder register is an input to Collect
Requirements, Plan Quality Management, Plan Communications Management, Plan Risk
Management, and Identify Risks. Be sure you understand why it is important in each of these
processes.

379
Q

13-20 A project manager on a multinational website implementation project is at a party and talks to
friends who will be heavy users of this new website when the project is complete and the site is
rolled out. They describe some annoying aspects of the current website. The project manager takes
this feedback to the sponsor, and encourages design and scope changes. Which of the following
BEST describes what the project manager has done?
A. Scope validation
B. Integrated change control
C. Stakeholder analysis
D. Scope planning

A

Answer C
Explanation Scope validation is a control function related to gaining customer acceptance.
Integrated change control relates to looking for multiple impacts of changes. Scope planning
creates a scope management plan. The project manager has performed stakeholder analysis by
learning stakeholder requirements, and making recommendations to fulfill those requirements.

380
Q

14-01 A project manager is being considered for a particular project that will deal exclusively with global
virtual teams. He only has experience with local teams. What should he do when discussing the
opportunity with the sponsor?
A. Since he has managed many projects and teams, it does not make any difference that the new
project involves global virtual teams. He should tell the sponsor he has the relevant experience.
B. He should avoid any conversation regarding the types of teams involved so the sponsor does
not know he lacks experience in this area.
C. The project manager should point out to the sponsor that he has not had experience with
global virtual teams, but discuss why he thinks he is a good fit for the project anyway.
D. The project manager should point out to the sponsor that he has not had experience with
global virtual teams and therefore must decline the assignment.

A

Answer C
Explanation There are many issues that will be different in this project than those the project
manager has experience with. It is unethical to overtly or indirectly mislead the sponsor about
his qualifications. On the other hand, the project manager may have so many skills that would
benefit the project that his lack of experience with global teams might not be a major problem.
The project manager must make sure the sponsor is aware of the gaps in his qualifications, so the
sponsor has the correct information on which to base his decision.

381
Q

14-02 A project manager gathered data to perform earned value calculations on his project. He used the
results to report to management that the project is under budget and on schedule. After reporting
this information, he discovered the base figures he used in the calculations were incorrect, as they
came from an old copy of the project file that had not been updated. What should he do now?
A. He should contact management to make them aware of the error, give the correct information,
and explain how he made the mistake.
B. He should contact management and tell them to expect some changes in the next reporting
period, and that things are starting to look gloomy.
C. He should use the correct figures to calculate the information when it is time for the next
report and ignore the fact that he reported incorrect information.
D. He should tell management that the data he received from team members was incorrect and
thus the report was not accurate.

A

Answer A
Explanation Although things may be gloomy, this is not a new development, since the report was based on old data. It is unethical for the project manager not to admit his mistake, or to blame someone else for his error. The ethical thing to do is to acknowledge and take responsibility for
the error.

382
Q

14-03 A project manager is working with a vendor on a project when she learns one of the sellers has
bribed a subcontractor to work on this project instead of fulfilling previous commitments to other
projects. What should she do?
A. She should report the offense to management and the project managers of the affected projects.
B. She should not do anything because this is the vendor’s problem. The project manager herself
didn’t do anything wrong.
C. She should report this to other subcontractors so they know they could get more money from
the vendor.
D. She should resign from the project so as to remove herself from this type of activity, but keep it
to herself rather than cause problems.

A

Answer A
Explanation It is the responsibility of the project manager to report unethical behavior to management and those affected. Not reporting this knowledge to the appropriate people is unethical.

383
Q

14-04 You are in the middle of a new product development project for your publicly traded company
when you discover the previous project manager made a US $3,000,000 payment that was not
approved in accordance with your company policies. Luckily, the project cost performance index
(CPI) is 1.2. What should you do?
A. Contact your manager.
B. Put the payment in an escrow account.
C. Bury the cost in the largest cost center available.
D. Ignore the payment.

A

Answer A
Explanation Putting the payment in an escrow account or burying the cost hides it. Ignoring the payment is not an option. Project managers must deal with potentially unethical situations like the situation described. This payment must be brought to the attention of the project managers manager.

384
Q

14-05 While staffing a project in another country, the project leader from that country comes to you
v/ith a suggested team consisting of members of the project leader’s family. Your FIRST course of
action should be to:
A. Inquire if hiring through family lines is common practice in the project leader’s country.
B. Review the resumes of the individuals to see if they are qualified.
C. Ask the project leader to provide additional names of people unrelated to him/her.
D. Use a different project leader to prevent problems later in the project.

A

Answer A
Explanation Ask yourself, what is the root problem? Your first action would be to find out whether
working with family members is a common practice in that country, as there is nothing inherently
illegal in this activity. Then, you would review qualifications. You may find it is not necessary to ask
the project leader to provide additional names, or to consider using a different project leader.

385
Q

14-06 When checking the calendar of a team member to schedule a meeting, you see she has scheduled a
meeting with a key stakeholder that you were not informed of. The BEST approach would be to:
A. Avoid mentioning it to the team member but continue to watch her activities.
B. Notify your boss about the problem.
C. Address the concern with the team members boss.
D. Address the concern with the team member.

A

Answer D
Explanation Not mentioning the issue to the team member is withdrawal. Notifying your boss or
the team members boss would not be appropriate until you learn the root cause of the problem.
Always look for the choice that deals with and solves the problem. In this case, the best course of
action is to address your concern with the team member directly.

386
Q

14-07 Your team member is three days late with a report. Five minutes before the meeting where the
topic of the report is to be discussed, she hands you the report. You notice some serious errors in
it. What should you do?
A. Cancel the meeting and reschedule when the report is fixed.
B. Go to the meeting and tell the other attendees there are errors in the report.
C. Allow the team member to do the presentation and remain silent as the other attendees find
the errors.
D. Cancel the meeting and rewrite the report yourself.

A

Answer A
Explanation Allowing the team member to deliver the inaccurate report is penalizing and
embarrassing her. The only choice that does not involve decreasing the team members morale or
wasting the time of the other attendees is to cancel the meeting, and reschedule when you and the
team member have identified and addressed the root cause of the problem with the report.

387
Q

14-08 A manager has responsibility for a project that has the support of a senior manager. From the
beginning, you have disagreed with the manager as to how the project should proceed and what the
deliverables should be. You and she have disagreed over many issues in the past. Your department
has been tasked with providing some key work packages for the project. What should you do?
A. Provide the manager with what she needs.
B. Inform your manager of your concerns to get her support.
C. Sit down with the manager at the beginning of the project and attempt to describe why you
object to the project, and discover a way to solve the problem.
D. Ask to be removed from the project.

A

Answer A
Explanation We assume that proper project management was followed and your opinion was
considered during project initiating. Therefore, you need to provide the work as approved by
management.

388
Q

14-09 A large, complex construction project in a foreign country requires coordination to move needed
equipment through crowded city streets. To ensure the equipment is transported successfully, your
contact in that country informs you that you will have to pay the local police a fee for coordinating
traffic. What should you do?
A. Do not pay the fee because it is a bribe.
B. Eliminate the work.
C. Pay the fee.
D. Do not pay the fee if it is not part of the project estimate.

A

Answer C

Explanation This is a legitimate fee for special accommodations. It is therefore not a bribe.

389
Q

14-10 A major negotiation with a potential subcontractor is scheduled for tomorrow when you discover
there is a good chance the project will be cancelled. What should you do?
A. Do not spend too much time preparing for the negotiations.
B. Cut the negotiations short.
C. Only negotiate major items.
D. Postpone the negotiations.

A

Answer D
Explanation Postponing the negotiations is the most ethical choice and demonstrates good faith.
Why spend time in negotiations if it may be wasted time?

390
Q

14-11 You’ve been assigned to take over managing a project that should be half complete according to the
schedule. After an extensive evaluation, you discover the project is running far behind schedule, and
the project will probably take twice the time originally estimated by the previous project manager.
However, the sponsor has been told the project is on schedule. What is the BEST course of action?
A. Try to restructure the schedule to meet the project deadline.
B. Report your assessment to the sponsor.
C. Turn the project back to the previous project manager.
D. Move forward with the schedule as planned by the previous project manager and report at the
first missed milestone.

A

Answer B
Explanation It is not possible to turn the project back to the previous project manager, as the
previous project manager may have left the company, or he may be busy with new projects. That
is a form of withdrawal. Moving ahead without addressing the situation also withdraws from
the problem, and withdrawal is not the best choice. There are two problems described here; the
project is behind schedule, and the sponsor does not know it. There seem to be two possible right
answers: restructuring the schedule, and reporting the situation to the sponsor. You should work
to get the project on schedule. However, looking only at restructuring the schedule excludes other
possibilities, such as cutting scope, which might more effectively deal with the schedule problem.
You do not know if the project completion date is critical. What if the sponsor would agree to
change the due date? The best choice in this situation is to inform the sponsor of the revised
completion time estimate, and discuss options.

391
Q

14-12 You are halfway through a major network rollout. There are 300 locations in the United States
with another 20 in England. A software seller has just released a major software upgrade for some
of the equipment being installed. The upgrade would provide the customer with functionality
they requested, which was not available at the time the project began. What is the BEST course of
action under these circumstances?
A. Continue as planned; your customer has not requested a change.
B. Inform the customer of the upgrade and the impacts to the project’s timeline and functionality
if the upgrade is implemented.
C. Implement the change and adjust the schedule as necessary because this supports the
customer’s original request.
D. Implement the change on the remaining sites and continue with the schedule.

A

Answer B
Explanation Professional and social responsibility includes looking after the customer s best
interests. Therefore, ignoring the newly available upgrade cannot be best. In this case, the schedule
and scope are already approved and all changes must go through the integrated change control
process. Therefore, implementing the change on any of the sites without following the process is
not acceptable. The best option is to inform the customer of the available upgrade and the impacts
to the projects timeline and functionality if the upgrade is implemented.

392
Q

14-13 You are a project manager for one of many projects in a large and important program. At a high level
status meeting, you note that another project manager has reported her project on schedule.
Looking back on your project over the last few weeks, you remember many deliverables from the
other project that arrived late. What should you do?
A. Meet with the program manager.
B. Develop a risk control plan.
C. Discuss the issue with your boss.
D. Meet with the other project manager.

A

Answer D
Explanation You should confront the situation by discussing it with the other project manager.
You can then find out if the other project is really on schedule and thereby confirm or deny your
information. Meeting with the program manager or with your boss would be the next step if
meeting with the other project manager validates your concern. You might also develop a risk
response plan to deal with the risk to your project. First, though, you need to meet with the other
project manager regarding those late deliverables.

393
Q

14-14 You have always been asked by your management to cut your project cost estimates by 10 percent
after you have submitted them. The scope of your new project is unclear and there are over 30
stakeholders. Management expects a 25 percent reduction in downtime as a result of the project.
Which of the following is the BEST course of action in this situation?
A. Replan to achieve a 35 percent improvement in downtime.
B. Reduce the estimate and note the change in the risk response plan.
C. Provide an accurate estimate of the actual costs and be able to support it.
D. Meet with the team to identify where you can find 10 percent savings.

A

Answer C
Explanation This is a common problem on projects. If your estimates are accurate, you are
ethically bound to stand by them. Management’s only option to cut cost is to support the project
manager in looking for alternatives related to all project constraints.

394
Q

14-15 You are in the middle of a project when you discover that a software seller for your project is
having major difficulty keeping employees due to a labor dispute. Many other projects in your
company are also using the company’s services. What should you do?
A. Attempt to keep the required people on your project.
B. Tell the other project managers in your company about the labor problem.
C. Contact the company and advise that you will cancel the company’s work on your project
unless the labor dispute is settled.
D. Cease doing business with the company.

A

Answer B
Explanation Attempting to keep the required people on your project puts your interests over
those of your company, so it cannot be the best choice. There is no indication that the labor dispute
has caused any problems, so there is no need to cancel this work or to cease doing business with the
company. The best choice would be to inform others in your company about the labor dispute.

395
Q

14-16 All of the following are responsibilities of a project manager EXCEPT:
A. Maintain the confidentiality of the customer’s confidential information.
B. Determine the legality of company procedures.
C. Ensure that a conflict of interest does not compromise the legitimate interest of the customer.
D. Provide accurate and truthful representations in cost estimates.

A

Answer B
Explanation The project manager is neither empowered nor competent to determine the legality
of company procedures. The other choices all represent responsibilities of the project manager.

396
Q

14-17 Although your company is not the lowest bidder for a project, the client has come to expect good
performance from your company and wants to award the contract to you. To win the contract,
the client asks you to eliminate your project management costs. The client says your company has
good project processes, and project controls unnecessarily inflate your costs. What should you do
under these circumstances?
A. Eliminate your project management costs and rely on experience.
B. Remove costs associated with project team communications, meetings, and customer reviews.
C. Remove meeting costs but not the project manager’s salary.
D. Describe the costs incurred on past projects that did not use project management.

A

Answer D
Explanation Describing the costs on past projects incurred due to project management processes
not being used addresses the real problem by giving the client information they may not have. An
alternate choice is to explain that project management and its associated costs are reasons for the
company’s past performance and success. Project management activities are not optional.

397
Q

14-18 You are the project manager for one part of a new program in your organization. You are four
months into a three-year project when your project team makes significant discoveries on your
project. What is the BEST thing to do?
A. Make certain the discoveries are included in the project lessons learned.
B. Make certain the discoveries are reported in the monthly status report.
C. Make certain you mention the discoveries at the senior management meeting in two months.
D. Make certain you tell the other project managers involved in this program about the
discoveries at the weekly meeting.

A

Answer I)
Explanation The sooner such discoveries are made known to other project managers, the better
you can improve the capabilities of colleagues in your company. It is part of a project manager’s
professional and social responsibility to build such capabilities. After you’ve updated the other
project managers, you can then document the discoveries in the project lessons learned and the
status report, especially if that report has a wider distribution.

398
Q

14-19 You have just discovered an error in the implementation plan that will prevent you from meeting a
milestone date. The BEST thing you can do is:
A. Develop options to meet the milestone date.
B. Change the milestone date.
C. Remove any discussion about dates in the project status report.
D. Educate the team about the need to meet milestones.

A

Answer A
Explanation Educating the team on the importance of milestones is not addressing the real
problem. Changing the milestone date is unethical. Avoiding mention of the due date in the status
report violates the rule to report honestly. Only developing and reporting options to meet the
milestone date solves the problem.

399
Q

14-20 While testing the strength of concrete poured on your project, you discover that over 35 percent of the
concrete does not meet your company’s quality standards. You feel certain the concrete will function
as it is, and you don’t think the concrete needs to meet the quality level specified. What should you do?
A. Change the quality standards to meet the level achieved.
B. State in your reports that the concrete simply “meets our quality needs.”
C. Ensure the remaining concrete meets the standard.
D. Report the lesser quality level and try to find a solution.

A

Answer D
Explanation Changing the quality standards or stating that the concrete “meets our quality
needs” would be unethical. Ensuring that the remaining concrete meets the existing quality
standards withdraws from the problem and is therefore not the best solution. The only possible
choice is to report the lesser quality level. That choice would involve quality and other experts to
find a resolution.

400
Q

14-21 You are the project manager for a new international project, and your project team includes
people from four countries. Most of the team members have not worked on similar projects
before, but the project has strong support from senior management. What is the BEST thing to do
to ensure that cultural differences do not interfere with the project?
A. Spend a little more time creating the work breakdown structure and making sure it is
complete.
B. As the project manager, make sure you choose your words carefully whenever you
communicate.
C. Ask one person at each team meeting to describe something unique about their culture.
D. Keep communication short and to the point.

A

Answer C
Explanation Since this is an issue involving everyone, everyone should be involved in the
solution. Spending extra time with the team on creating the WBS is generally a good idea, but
it does not specifically address cultural issues. The best choice is to ask one person at each team
meeting to describe something unique about their culture. This will lead to better understanding
among people of different cultures, and help to avoid potential culture-related problems.

401
Q

14-22 A project has a tight budget when you begin negotiating with a seller for a piece of equipment. The
seller has told you the equipment price is fixed. Your manager has told you to negotiate the cost
with the seller. What is your BEST course of action?
A. Make a good faith effort to find a way to decrease the cost.
B. Postpone negotiations until you can convince your manager to change his mind.
C. Hold the negotiations, but only negotiate other aspects of the project.
D. Cancel the negotiations.

A

Answer A
Explanation There is always a way to decrease costs on the project. The best choice is to attempt
to find a way to decrease the cost.

402
Q

14-23 A PMP-certified project manager is contacted by PMI and asked to provide information regarding
another project manager who has been reported to be involved in unethical activities. The PMPcertified
project manager knows his information would support the accusations, and the other
project manager in question is a friend. He decides the best thing to do would be to not respond,
and therefore neither confirm nor deny the accusations. Is this the right thing to do?
A. Yes. It is safe to just ignore the request and stay out of it.
B. No. If he knows something, he is required by PMI’s Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct
to cooperate.
C. No. It would be better to deny the charges against his friend to maintain the relationship.
D. Yes. It is expected that project managers will support each other in the field.

A

Answer B
Explanation Ignoring the request from PMI and lying for the project manager do not support PMI’s
request for information and are unethical actions. PMI’s Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct
requires PMP-certified project managers to report unethical behavior and violations of the code. The
PNIP- certified project manager is obligated to cooperate with PMI in collecting information.

403
Q

14-24 A project manager discovers a defect in a deliverable that is due to the customer under contract
today. The project manager knows the customer does not have the technical understanding to
notice the defect. The deliverable meets the contract requirements, but it does not meet the project
manager’s quality standard. What should the project manager do in this situation?
A. Issue the deliverable and get formal acceptance from the customer.
B. Note the problem in the lessons learned so future projects do not encounter the same problem.
C. Discuss the issue with the customer.
D. Inform the customer that the deliverable will be late.

A

Answer C
Explanation Issuing the deliverable as it is does not protect the best interests of the customer.
Simply noting the issue in lessons learned does not solve the problem. Informing the customer
that the deliverable will be late will cause a default of contract. Although the deliverable meets the
contractual requirements, it is best to bring the problem to the customer’s attention so an option
that does no harm can be found.

404
Q

14-25 Your company wants to open a plant in a country where the law stipulates that women can earn
only 50 percent of what men earn. Under these circumstances, what should you recommend to
your company?
A. Do not open the plant.
B. Meet with government officials and try to get a waiver that equalizes the pay rate between men
and women.
C. Do not hire women.
D. Provide the women you hire with extra work to increase their salary.

A

Answer A
Explanation Working under these rules would be a clear violation of the fundamental right to
non discriminating treatment. You should recommend that your company not open the plant in
that location.

405
Q

14-26 Three students from another country are working as interns on a project. The project manager
has arranged for some games to play as team-building activities to help create a close-knit sense
of team with the group members. At the event where the activities are taking place, the three
students refuse to participate, claiming the behavior involved is unacceptable in their country and
they would be very uncomfortable participating. What should the project manager do?
A. He should tell the students they need to become familiar with how things are done in this
country and they must participate.
B. He should excuse the students from playing and arrange to discuss with them alternative
team-building activities they would be more comfortable with.
C. He should report the students to their functional manager and request they be removed from
the project since their attitude will have a negative impact on the project.
D. He should tell the students they are excused from the activities and to not attend any teambuilding
activities in the future.

A

Answer B
Explanation Insisting that the team members participate is forcing them to do something that
is unacceptable in their culture. Requesting their removal from the project penalizes the team
members for expressing their cultural preferences, which is not a valid reason to remove them.
Excluding them from all future team building does not show respect for their culture, and would
have a negative impact on the project. Excusing them from playing, and discussing alternative
activities for the whole team with which they would be more comfortable is best because it
demonstrates respect for cultural differences.

406
Q

14-27 You are finalizing the monthly project status report due now to your manager when you discover that several project team members are not reporting actual hours spent on project activities. This results in skewed project statistics. What is the MOST appropriate action to take?
A. Discuss the impacts of these actions with team members.
B. Report the team members’ actions to their functional managers.
C. Continue reporting information as presented to you.
D. Provide accurate and truthful representations in all project reports.

A

Answer D
Explanation The project manager’s responsibility is to provide truthful project information. He
or she should thereafter discuss the impacts of their actions with the team members. If that does
not work, the next step is to report the team members’ behavior to their functional managers. In
the meantime, the project manager must report the status as accurately as possible.