Practice Questions Flashcards

1
Q

When using a drill, what is the first thing you must do?

A

Ensure the hole to be drilled is within the drills capacity

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2
Q

What safety gear must be worn with a grinder?

A

Eye or face protection

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3
Q

What size is the most common saw blade found in maint activities?

A

8 inch

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4
Q

How fast must a saw blade be moving before it contacts the material to be cut?

A

Full speed

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5
Q

What variation in pounds of pressure can become dangerous with an impact wrench?

A

5 Pounds of pressure

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6
Q

What is the most common type of sling used for lifting?

A

Wire rope

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7
Q

Hoist hooks must be replaced when what criteria is met?

A

15 percent excess in throat or 10 degree twist from plane

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8
Q

What meter is a 4 wire Kelvin digital ohmmeter used to test AIM-9 and AIM-120?

A

AMTEC 620

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9
Q

The maximum load for a MHU-141 is?

A

5,500 LBS

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10
Q

The steering system on an MHU-141 has a turning radius of how many inches?

A

200 Inches

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11
Q

The maximum load for a MHU-110 is?

A

15,000 LBS

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12
Q

The parking brakes on a 110 are applied to which wheels?

A

Four inboard rear

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13
Q

How many roller and chock assemblies are supplied with a 110?

A

20 rollers and 40 chocks

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14
Q

The maximum load for a MHU-226 is?

A

12,000 LBS

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15
Q

What ensures that HCU-6 pallets transfer smoothly to the aircraft?

A

An adjustable ramp

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16
Q

What can be used to secure pallets on a trailer?

A

MB-1 chains or tie-down straps

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17
Q

Moving muns from one base to another, or between organizational levels are considered?

A

Logistical movements

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18
Q

What kind of movement supports base ops?

A

Operational

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19
Q

What transport module has a 30 magazine capacity?

A

ALE-50

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20
Q

How often should positive locking on transport mods be checked?

A

After loading, unloading, and periodically between stops

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21
Q

Which lift truck has a manually extendable wheelbase?

A

MHU-83

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22
Q

What is the purpose of the transport beams?

A

To provide additional support and relieve hydraulic pressure from the arms

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23
Q

How many pounds can the MJ-1 lift?

A

3,000

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24
Q

How many pounds can the MHU-83 lift?

A

7,000

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25
Q

When using an MHU-83 with fork adapters, what changes with its capacities?

A

It can only lift 6000 LBS now

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26
Q

What happens when you release the pedal on a hydrostatic drive?

A

The unit coasts to a stop very quickly

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27
Q

How many cubic of air per foot is needed to produce 100 psi for the MC-7 air compressor?

A

125

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28
Q

How long can an MC-7 run without refueling?

A

8 Hours

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29
Q

What is the maximum towing capacity for a bobtail, and at what speed?

A

40,000 LBS at 15 MPH

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30
Q

How many pounds can the MB-4 tow tractor push/pull?

A

140,000

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31
Q

What position should the differential lever be in while towing on dry road surfaces?

A

Unlocked

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32
Q

What range in a tractor should be selected while going down grades?

A

Low range

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33
Q

What is the purpose of the Johnson bar?

A

To test the brakes

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34
Q

What should you not do while backing a trailer?

A

Turn toward passenger side

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35
Q

What is the deepest water an rough-terrain forklift can traverse?

A

5 feet

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36
Q

What is the max speed of a forklift while operating around aircraft?

A

5 MPH

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37
Q

When can unfused weapons be transported on the tines of a forklift?

A

When the bomb body is strong enough to prevent damage, and long enough to be transported safely

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38
Q

When can powered equipment be stored in the same building as muns?

A

When it is fire resistant and the equipment is essential during day-to-day operations

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39
Q

What trailers can transport the MAC?

A

110 and 226

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40
Q

What is the TO for the MAC?

A

35D2-17-1

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41
Q

Which weapons replaceable assembly has no moving parts?

A

The storage container

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42
Q

Which weapons replaceable assembly merges ammo from all three bays in the container into a single stream?

A

Transfer unit

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43
Q

Which weapons replaceable assembly contains the flex drive?

A

Conveyor

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44
Q

What is the max number of rounds the UALS can hold?

A

2,100

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45
Q

Which part of the UALS allows loading into the aircraft?

A

Interface unit

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46
Q

What is not counted by the UALS during down/upload?

A

Damaged rounds

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47
Q

What does the bypass mode on the UALS allow?

A

The system to cycle without loading any items

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48
Q

What is the UALS inspection cycle?

A

Every 30 days while in use, and annually while in storage

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49
Q

Which device on the UALS prevents accidentally loading spent cartridges?

A

Empty space preclusion device

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50
Q

What tool is used when cycling the UALS manually?

A

1/2 inch speed wrench

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51
Q

Which 30mm ALS services the GPU-5/A gun pod?

A

GFU-8/E

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52
Q

Which part of the MAC can be used to raise the gantry to full height?

A

The ICB

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53
Q

What is the space requirement for the MAC?

A

50 x 100 FT

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54
Q

What component of the MAC is disassembled last?

A

Gantry

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55
Q

Which TO contains tie down procedures?

A

11-1-38

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56
Q

What does not apply to muns in transit?

A

Quantity distance

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57
Q

When can explosives be transported in POVs?

A

Never

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58
Q

When can explosive laden vehicles be left unattended?

A

During electrical storms

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59
Q

What may be omitted from explosive laden vehicles on base?

A

Placards for 1.4, compatibility group letters, placards if trying to avoid hostile attention

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60
Q

If a conflict is found in the 11-1-38, what do you use?

A

The written portion

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61
Q

What chapter of the 38 covers MHU-141 configurations?

A

Chapter 1

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62
Q

What is used to keep the 141 stable while loading?

A

Stabilizer jack

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63
Q

What are added to 40FT trailers to facilitate support of rounded muns?

A

Wooden rails

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64
Q

How many CGU-1 tie down straps can replace one MB-1 chain?

A

2

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65
Q

How often are couriers certified?

A

Annually

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66
Q

Which AF IMT is used to transfer missile warheads?

A

AF IMT 514

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67
Q

What is the most efficient psi for tools?

A

90 psi

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68
Q

Which publication covers general lifting procedures?

A

AFOSH 91-46

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69
Q

What is the function of the AN/PSM-37?

A

Measures electrical current for troubleshooting circuits

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70
Q

What is the max voltage the AN/PSM-37 can test?

A

1,000v alone, 5,000v with test prod

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71
Q

What is the max current the AN/PSM-37 can test?

A

1 amp, or 10 with a shunt

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72
Q

What is the max resistance the AN/PSM-37 can test?

A

100 mega ohms

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73
Q

What is the max capacity of a pair of rail extenders?

A

3,000 lbs

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74
Q

What is the nuclear load of an MHU-226?

A

8,000 lbs

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75
Q

What are the 3 types of trailers?

A

Vans, flatbed, rollerized

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76
Q

What is the actual length of a 40 ft trailer?

A

51 ft

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77
Q

What TO provides guidance for loading HCU-6/E pallets?

A

11N-45-51-B

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78
Q

What is the capacity of the BDU-33/MK-106 module?

A

40 or 80 rds

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79
Q

How many 2.75 in rockets can a RM transport?

A

60

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80
Q

What is the capacity difference between the ALE-40 and ALE-50?

A

the ALE-40 hold 40 chaff and flare mags and the ALE-50 holds 30 decoy modules

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81
Q

What must you do while unloading a module?

A

Use both hands for handling, one munition at a time

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82
Q

Which wheels are steerable on a lift truck?

A

Rear

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83
Q

What is the top speed of the MJ-1?

A

18 mph

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84
Q

Which pub lists the ppe required for operating an air compressor?

A

AFOSH 91-501

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85
Q

What is the turning radius of a bobtail?

A

22 feet

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86
Q

What is the towing capacity of the MB-4 tug?

A

140,000 lbs

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87
Q

What are the two tactical forklifts?

A

Rough terrain and all terrain

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88
Q

What should you do before shutting a forklift down?

A

let the engine run at half speed for 4-5 minutes

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89
Q

How far from combustible material should a lift be parked?

A

10 feet

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90
Q

What aircraft does the LALS service?

A

F-15, F-16, F-22

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91
Q

What are the 4 modes a LALS can be divided into?

A

Replenishment, transport, servicing, stowage

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92
Q

What are the 5 weapon receptacle assys on the LALS?

A

Storage container, transfer unit assy, conveyor, trailer, pneumatic system

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93
Q

What TO covers the UALS?

A

35D30-4-15-1

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94
Q

What are the two 30mm assys used by the air force?

A

GFU-7/E and GFU-10/E

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95
Q

What container houses 30mm LTCs?

A

CNU-309/E

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96
Q

What is the purpose of the restraint strap?

A

To keep bombs from turning while torque is applied

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97
Q

What regulates shipments of explosives in the US?

A

CFR-49

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98
Q

What website provides information on proper placarding?

A

JHCS

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99
Q

At the lowest level in the chain of command, who is allowed to interpret 11-1-38?

A

Muns flight chief

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100
Q

What test equipment requires nuclear certification?

A

Any device that is used to test a warhead or weapon

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101
Q

What are the tolerances for cable load binders?

A

85.75 to 87 inches

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102
Q

What TO authorizes using two CGU-1/B’s in place of one MB-1 tie down?

A

11N-45-51C

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103
Q

How does the DOD ship weapons?

A

By truck or Air

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104
Q

What aircraft are normally used for shipments?

A

C-17 or C-130

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105
Q

What is an SST/SGT?

A

A specialized trailer for transport of nuclear weapons in the continental US

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106
Q

What is any movement inside the WSA?

A

Intra-area movement

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107
Q

What is any movement outside the WSA?

A

Outside WSA movement

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108
Q

What does the term “breakout” mean?

A

Removing weapons from a structure

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109
Q

What explosive is used to compare other explosives?

A

TNT

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110
Q

What describes the tendency of a substance to produce vapors?

A

Volatility

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111
Q

If an explosive does not react with its container or another explosive, what is it called?

A

Natural compatibility

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112
Q

What are the basic components of an explosive train?

A

Primer, booster, detonator, delay, bursting charge

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113
Q

What are the two ways a detonator can be activated?

A

Primer or impulse

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114
Q

What exp train causes det on impact?

A

Super quick

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115
Q

What are the 4 factors that control visibility of pyrotechnics?

A

Candlepower, color, weather, ambient light

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116
Q

What are the two effects of signals?

A

Light and smoke

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117
Q

How long does an AN-Mk6 mod 3 burn?

A

Approx 40 minutes

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118
Q

What candle power is the AN-Mk6 mod 3 rated at?

A

3,000

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119
Q

What day/night signal can be used one handed?

A

MK124 Mod 0

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120
Q

How many flares does the A/P 25S-1 contain?

A

7

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121
Q

At what height and how long does the A/P 25S-1 burn?

A

5 seconds at 300 ft

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122
Q

How long does the A/P 25S-5A burn?

A

9 seconds

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123
Q

What is the max height the M127A1 will reach, and at what candle power?

A

650-700 feet at 50,000 candlepower

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124
Q

What are the 5 assys of the M131 ground illumination signal?

A

Launcher, igniter, delay, parachute, illuminant

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125
Q

What ppe is required for handling MK50 mod 0 flares?

A

Butyl gloves and a protective mask

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126
Q

What are the 3 types of grenades?

A

Service, practice, training

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127
Q

What is the explosive filler for the M26 grenade?

A

Comp B

128
Q

What is the filler agent for an M34 grenade?

A

15 oz of WP and a detonator

129
Q

What grenades are used with the M1A2 grenade projection adapter?

A

Fragmentation

130
Q

What grenades are used with the M2A1 grenade projection adapter?

A

Chemical

131
Q

What compound is used to treat the floors for storage of chemical grenades?

A

Sodium silicate

132
Q

How many ball bearings are in an M18A1 mine?

A

700

133
Q

What is the effective kill range, dangerous range, and back blast range of an M18A1?

A

100 meters, 250 meters, 16 meters

134
Q

If a deficiency is found when inspecting muns, what TO gives guidance on reporting?

A

00-35D-54

135
Q

What are the time markers on time fuse?

A

Single band is 1 minute, double band is 5 minutes

136
Q

What is the rate of deterioration of det cord?

A

20,000 to 21,000 fps

137
Q

What is a M112 demo block?

A

1.25 lb block of C4 that is Mylar wrapped and has an adhesive strip on the back

138
Q

What makes military dynamite different from commercial dynamite?

A

Military dynamite doesn’t have nitroglycerin, and it doesn’t sweat or freeze

139
Q

What is an M60 igniter used for?

A

Igniting time fuse

140
Q

What does the M1 clip do?

A

Holds det cord together

141
Q

What is a flash vented squib used for?

A

Igniting pyrotechnics or incendiary compositions

142
Q

What affects rate of deterioration?

A

Degree of confinement and loading density

143
Q

What length of firing wire is issued?

A

500 ft

144
Q

What is the difference between the ATU-35A/B and the ATU-35B/B?

A

The ATU-35B/B will not allow reinstallation of the safety cotter pin once it is retracted

145
Q

Where can an M904 be installed and with what adapter?

A

Nose with T45 booster

146
Q

Where can an M905 be installed and with what adapter?

A

Tail with T46 booster

147
Q

What tail assembly are the FMU-54 fuzes used with

A

AIR

148
Q

How many boosters are needed for nose and tail installation of an FMU-81?

A

Nose needs 4, tail needs only 1

149
Q

Where does the FMU-139 get its power?

A

FZU-48B

150
Q

Where does the FMU-139 get its power?

A

FZU-32

151
Q

Where does the FMU-152 get its power?

A

FZU-55

152
Q

What is special about the FMU-152?

A

It allows real time changes to be made by the pilot

153
Q

How many knots are required to activate and FZU-32?

A

133

154
Q

What is the only hazard associated with the DSU-33?

A

Thermal battery

155
Q

What fuzes does the DSU-33 work with?

A

FMU-39 and FMU-152

156
Q

What is the HOB of the DSU-33?

A

20 feet

157
Q

What is the HOF for the FZU-39/B?

A

300-3,000 feet

158
Q

What is the HOB of the FMU-113/B?

A

15 feet

159
Q

What boosters does the FMU-113/B use?

A

FZU-2/B

160
Q

What safety device is normally installed at time of manufacture?

A

Safety blocks

161
Q

Which fuze is used by both the Air Force and the Navy?

A

FMU-139

162
Q

Approx how much weight in the M117 is explosive?

A

45%

163
Q

What are the two fin assys for the M117?

A

MAU-103 and BSU-93/B

164
Q

Which spotting charge should be used if there is a danger of wildfire?

A

CXU-3A/B

165
Q

What are the two spotting charges used for practice bombs?

A

CXU-3A/B and MK4 Mod 3

166
Q

What SUU is used for the CBU-87?

A

SUU-65/B

167
Q

What submunitions are in a CBU-87?

A

202 BLU-97 bomblets

168
Q

What fuze does a CBU-87 use?

A

FZU-39/B

169
Q

What is the difference between BLU-97/B and BLU-97A/B submunitions?

A

The BLU-97A/B has an all mechanical secondary firing system

170
Q

What SUU is used for the CBU-89?

A

SUU-64

171
Q

What is the difference between CBU-89 and CBU-87?

A

The CBU-89 does not have canted fins, an explosive bolt, or the same SUU

172
Q

What bomblets does the CBU-89 carry?

A

72 BLU-91/B antitank and 22 BLU-92/B anti-personnel mines

173
Q

How long does it take to arm the BLU-91 and BLU-92 submunitions?

A

Approx 2 minutes

174
Q

How far do the triplines extend from a BLU-92/B?

A

40 feet

175
Q

What SUU is used for the CBU-97?

A

SUU-66

176
Q

What submunitions are in a CBU-97?

A

10 BLU-108/B

177
Q

How many targets can a CBU-97 destroy?

A

Up to 40

178
Q

What can be added to a CBU to give it guidance?

A

WCMD tail kit

179
Q

What is the oldest cannon round in use by the Air Force?

A

20mm

180
Q

What fuze does 20mm HEI ammunition use?

A

M505

181
Q

What is bore safe?

A

A safety feature that prevents initiation while the projectile is still in the barrel of the cannon

182
Q

What is the arming distance of the M505 fuze?

A

10-35 feet from the muzzle of the cannon

183
Q

What TO can be consulted for color coding of ammunition?

A

11A-1-53

184
Q

What container is used for 20mm, and how much can it hold?

A

M548 container can hold 200/250 cartridges, but functionally they hold one linked belt of 100

185
Q

What cannon on the AC-130 uses 25mm?

A

GAU-12

186
Q

What type of primers do 25mm use?

A

percussion

187
Q

What fuze does the 25mm HEI round use?

A

M505

188
Q

What are 25mm rounds packed in, and how many are in a container?

A

CNU-405/E, 80 to 100 rounds

189
Q

What fuze does 30mm HEI ammunition use?

A

M505A3

190
Q

What are 20mm cases made from?

A

Brass, older cases have been made from steel

191
Q

What are 25mm cases made from?

A

Steel

192
Q

What are 30mm cases made from?

A

Aluminum

193
Q

What is the difference between the Honeywell and Aerojet projectiles?

A

The Honeywell projectile only has one rotating band

194
Q

What container is used to store 30mm 36 rounds at a time?

A

M548

195
Q

What container can hold 600 linked 30mm rounds?

A

CNU-309

196
Q

What cannon uses 40mm on the AC-130 aircraft?

A

M2A1

197
Q

What fuze doe the 40mm HEI round use?

A

FMU-54/B point detonating fuze

198
Q

How is 40mm ammunition packaged?

A

4 4 round MK4, 5, or 6 clips are loaded into a MK1 ammunition box

199
Q

How much does a fully loaded MK1 box weigh?

A

116 lbs

200
Q

What cannon on the AC-130 is used to fire 105mm?

A

M102

201
Q

What makes Air Force 105mm rounds different from conventional 105mm?

A

The AF needs the rounds to be crimped at the factory, meaning the powder charge cannot be changed

202
Q

What fuze does the PGU-44/B HEI round use?

A

FMU-153/B PDF

203
Q

What fuze does the PGU-45/B frag round use?

A

FMU-160/B Radar proximity

204
Q

What is the HOB on the PGU-45/B, and how many fragments does it produce?

A

15 feet, 13,000

205
Q

What fuze does the PGU-43/B TP round use?

A

M739A1

206
Q

What is used to clear jams in the 105mm cannon?

A

105mm clearing cartridge

207
Q

What is the maximum number of MJU-7 flares that an MJU-12 can hold?

A

15

208
Q

What countermeasure consists of a towed decoy?

A

AN/ALE-50

209
Q

What is the maximum number of decoys that can be carried on a B-1B?

A

8

210
Q

What is done to chaff to maximize its effectiveness?

A

It is cut into different sized strips to match a broad amount of RF signals

211
Q

What is the candlepower for aircraft parachute flares?

A

60,000 to 2,000,000

212
Q

What is the average burning time of a LUU-1/B?

A

30 minutes

213
Q

What color of light does a LUU-5/B produce?

A

Green

214
Q

How man LUU flares can a SUU-25 hold?

A

8

215
Q

Which impulse cart is used on the SUU-25?

A

ARD 863-1

216
Q

Which impulse cart initiates the MJU-7/B?

A

BBU-36/B

217
Q

Which impulse cart initiates the RR-170 chaff cartridge?

A

BBU-35/B

218
Q

What light does a LUU-19 emit?

A

Near infrared

219
Q

Which direction does the SUU-25E/A eject?

A

Rearward

220
Q

What speed are SUU’s ejected by impulse carts?

A

65 fps

221
Q

What are the 4 types of tracking energy used in missiles?

A

Light, electroptical, radar, GPS-INS

222
Q

What are the 3 sources that produce tracking energy?

A

Active, passive, semi-active

223
Q

Which guidance system allows for fire and forget capability?

A

Active

224
Q

Which guidance system does the target produce the energy?

A

Passive

225
Q

Which guidance system comes from energy reflected off an outside source?

A

Semi-active

226
Q

What are the 3 types of rocket motors in AF pgm’s?

A

Dual, high, medium

227
Q

What test set is used to test all LGB GCUs and CCGs?

A

TTU-373

228
Q

Which WP of TO 11K10-2-7 or 11K20-2-7 is used for testing LGBs?

A

080 00

229
Q

What test set is being used to replace the aging TTU-373?

A

TTU-595

230
Q

What was designed as a efficient handling, loading, and storage system for the GBU-39?

A

BRU-61

231
Q

How many GBU-39’s can the BRU-61 hold?

A

4

232
Q

What container is designed to hold one GBU-39?

A

CNU-659/E

233
Q

How is testing done through a CNU-659/E?

A

An in container BIT cable

234
Q

What container is designed to hold a fully loaded BRU-61 carriage?

A

CNU-660/E

235
Q

What is required to move an empty BRU-61?

A

CNU-660/E

236
Q

What is the inspection period on GBU-39’s?

A

Bi-annually

237
Q

What munition test set was designed to take place on many for maximum war fighter flexibility

A

AN/GYQ-79 CMBRE

238
Q

What does box one of the AN/GYQ-79 contain?

A

Test adapter unit

239
Q

What does box two of the AN/GYQ-79 contain?

A

Controller unit

240
Q

What does box three of the AN/GYQ-79 contain?

A

Accessory unit

241
Q

What component of the CMBRE test set is a self contained, ruggedized computer that is IBM compatible?

A

Digital computer system assembly (DCSA)

242
Q

How many GBU configurations exist?

A

28

243
Q

How many fins are fixed on a tail assy?

A

1

244
Q

When does an ATA fuze detonate?

A

When it senses the target moving further away

245
Q

When a control system adjust proportionately to the flight path of the target, what is it called?

A

Proportional navigation

246
Q

What provides an interface between the BRU-61 and the AN/GYQ-79?

A

ADU-890

247
Q

What test set is used in conjunction with the CMBRE to test AIM-120’s and AIM-9X’s?

A

ADU-891

248
Q

What is the targeting pod used to supplement AGM-65’s?

A

LANTIRN

249
Q

What test kit is used to check EO guidance on AGM-65’s?

A

AN/DSM-129

250
Q

What test kit is used on AGM-65’s when they are removed from aircraft?

A

AN/DSM-157

251
Q

What is an IR test kit that can be used for the AGM-65D, G, and K?

A

SM-787/DSM

252
Q

What AGM is designed to destroy radar installations?

A

AGM-88 HARM

253
Q

What test set is used for the AGM-88 HARM?

A

AN/GSM-396

254
Q

What is the NEW of an AGM-88?

A

42 lbs PBXN-107

255
Q

What AGM is frequently used on RPA’s?

A

AGM-114 Hellfire

256
Q

Which AGM-114 uses a thermoberic filler?

A

AGM-114N

257
Q

What are AGM-114’s stored in?

A

CNU-317 container

258
Q

How many gallons of fuel does the AGM-158 JASSM hold?

A

40 gallons of JP-10

259
Q

What guidance does the JASSM use?

A

GPS aided INS with optional IR

260
Q

What warhead does the JASSM carry?

A

WDU-42/B 1000 lbs

261
Q

What fuze does the AGM-158 use?

A

FMU-156/B

262
Q

What container is an AGM-158 stored in?

A

CNU-614/E

263
Q

What gasses are used to cool the sensors on an AIM-9M?

A

Argon (9 hours) or Nitrogen (5.5 hours) via TMU-72/B

264
Q

What is the effective range of an AIM-9M?

A

2-11 miles

265
Q

What is the TMU-72/B charged to?

A

5100+/-100 PSIG

266
Q

What test set is used for AIM-9M missiles?

A

TS-4044/D

267
Q

What is used to fill the TMU-72A/B tanks?

A

GCU-30/E

268
Q

What test set is used for the AIM-9X?

A

AN/GYQ-79 CMBRE

269
Q

What test set is used for the AIM-120 missile?

A

TS-4108/G

270
Q

What test set can be used in place of the DSM-99 and DSM-100?

A

AN/DSM-157

271
Q

What is the AGM-88’s effective range?

A

30 miles

272
Q

What keeps the AIM-120’s motor from becoming propulsive?

A

TIVS

273
Q

What is the weight of the warhead in an AIM-120?

A

15 lbs

274
Q

What is the range of saw blades for a circular saw?

A

4-14 inches

275
Q

What are the minimum and maximum frame adjustments for the MHU-83?

A

70 in, 140 in

276
Q

What is the maximum reach of the VR forklift at 45 degrees?

A

15 ft

277
Q

What is the max load of a LALS?

A

2100

278
Q

What is the maximum number of rounds the UALS can hold?

A

2100

279
Q

What order must an MHU-110 be loaded and unloaded?

A

Front loaded first and unloaded last

280
Q

What mode of transport does the DoD use when transporting nuclear weapons?

A

Air or truck

281
Q

What are the 3 types of AF grenades?

A

Service, practice, and smoke

282
Q

When is sealing wire removed from the M904 fuze?

A

Prior to takeoff

283
Q

With electrical fuzes, what is used in place of arming wire?

A

BFD

284
Q

What fuze only has one safety device installed through the safety release shaft?

A

FMU-124

285
Q

What component is used to adapt an M series bomb nose fuze well?

A

Adapter booster

286
Q

What keeps a M905A3 fuze in an unarmed position until fired?

A

A lock ring

287
Q

What Fuze does the PGU-9 C/B use?

A

FMU-154/B

288
Q

How many different KMU tail units are there?

A

18

289
Q

What are the power requirements for the CMBRE?

A

115 VAC, 3 phase, 400 Hz

290
Q

In what section of the AGM-114 are the wings located?

A

Propulsion section

291
Q

What tester is used for the testing of solid fuel RM igniter bridge wire circuitry?

A

101-5BFG

292
Q

What forklift is best for AUR missiles?

A

Swingmast

293
Q

How far from explosives must a forklift be parked?

A

10 ft

294
Q

What loading system is used to service the GPU-5 gun pod?

A

GFU-10

295
Q

How much deflection should a properly tightened MB-1 chain have?

A

No more than 3/4 of an inch

296
Q

What is the range of rates of deterioration of explosives?

A

3,200 fps to 28,000

297
Q

What is required to move heavy mortars?

A

Trucks or tracked mortar carriers

298
Q

In electrical fuzes, what replaces the arming vanes of a mechanical fuze?

A

Electric charging assy

299
Q

What denotes that a M904 fuze is armed?

A

Full red or black A on red background

300
Q

What fuzes are tail only?

A

M905, FMU-54, FMU-152

301
Q

What conical fin does the M117 use?

A

MAU-103

302
Q

What M series bomb is the BLU-126 identical to?

A

MK82

303
Q

What does the SD-206 IR flare do?

A

Simulates a flare for training

304
Q

What is the candle power range for parachute flares?

A

60,000 to 2,000,000 candlepower

305
Q

How many flares can a SUU-25 hold?

A

8

306
Q

How many GBU variants exist currently?

A

28

307
Q

What does a JDAM consist of?

A

Tail assy, aerosurfaces, and an umbilical cover

308
Q

What are the differences in the KMU sets?

A

Guidance software and physical interfaces

309
Q

What is the overall weight of the CNU-614 container?

A

1120 lbs

310
Q

What are the components of a basic explosive train?

A

Detonator, booster, bursting charge

311
Q

What is the one difference between a 20mm and 25mm round?

A

The 25mm has an igniter booster

312
Q

What explosive is used in the 105mm HE round?

A

Comp B

313
Q

What impulse cart is used for the MJU-7/B flare?

A

BBU-36/B

314
Q

What section of a guided bomb is referred to as the AFG?

A

Control section

315
Q

What is not a benefit of off-axis delivery in a JDAM?

A

Increased range

316
Q

What is the standoff range of the SDB?

A

40 nautical miles

317
Q

What test set performs the AIM-9X ibit?

A

TS-4044