Practice questions Flashcards

1
Q

Each book on a certain shelf is labeled by a single category. For every 2 history books, there are 7 fantasy books and for every 3 fantasy books, there are 5 reference books. If the proportion of history to reference books is doubled, while the proportion of fantasy to reference books is maintained, which of the following could be the number of history books if there are fewer than 60 fantasy books on the shelf after the changes?

A

$24

H:F = 2:7
F:R = 3:5
In order to combine both ratio, make F consistent across two equations.  Therefore:
H:F = 6:21
F:R = 21:35
Thus - new ratio after combination:
H:F:R = 6:21:35
Next history component doubled:
H:F:R = 12:21:35
Since F can't be > 60 books, the only option is 21, or 42 books.  As such, History book is either 12 or 2x12 = 24. (answer key doesn't have 12)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

30 people in total attended an office party for a colleague’s birthday. The birthday cake was sliced into exactly 32 pieces, all of which were eaten. Did everyone who attended eat at least one slice of cake?

(1) One person ate exactly 2 slices of cake.
(2) One person ate exactly 3 slices of cake

A

(1) INSUFFICIENT: Since one person ate exactly 2 slices of cake, there are 30 slices for the remaining 29 people. It is possible, though not certain, that each of the remaining people ate at least one slice of cake.
(2) INSUFFICIENT: Similar to (1), there are 29 slices of cake remaining for the other 29 people. It is possible, but not certain, that everyone else had exactly one slice of cake.
(1) AND (2) SUFFICIENT: Combined we know that 2 of the people ate a combined 5 slices of cake. Thus there are only 27 slices remaining for the other 28 people, which is not enough for everyone to have his or her own slice of cake.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A family consisting of one mother, one father, two daughters and a son is taking a road trip in a sedan. The sedan has two front seats and three back seats. If one of the parents must drive and the two daughters refuse to sit next to each other, how many possible seating arrangements are there?

A

32

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the distance between x and y on the number line?

(1) |x| – |y| = 5
(2) |x| + |y| = 11

A

(1) Not sufficient. if x=7, y =2, then distance is 5, if x=7 and y=-2, then distance is 9.
(2) Not sufficient. if x=3, y=8, then distance is 5, if x=1, y=10, then distance is 9.
(1) +(2) combine statement and solve for |x| = 8, |y| = 3. therefore, when x=8, y=3, distance is 5, when x=8,y=-3, distance is 11. Not sufficient.

Answer would be E.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

If integer k is equal to the sum of all even multiples of 15 between 295 and 615, what is the greatest prime factor of k?

A

Step 1: since even number is multiple of 2, any even number of 15 must be divisible by 2 and 5 or 30. Therefore, the first number can be divided by 30 within 295 - 615 is 300, and the last number can be divided by 30 is 600.

Step 2 : determine how many terms within 300 and 600 inclusive. 300 is the 10th multiple of 30, and 600 is 20th multiple of 30, therefore, total terms are 20-10+1 = 11.

Step 3: because they are evenly spaced, sum = mean x term. mean = (first term + last term)/2 = 450. sum = 450 x 11

Step 4: find factors of 450 x 11 = 2x3x3x5x5x11. therefore largest prime is 11.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A list contains only integers. Are there more positive than negative integers in the list?

(1) The median of the numbers in the list is positive.
(2) The average (arithmetic mean) of the numbers in the list is positive.

A

E.
(1) NOT SUFFICIENT: Test numbers and try to disprove the question. For instance, the list 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 has a positive median (3) and contains more positive than negative integers. On the other hand, consider the list –3, –2, –1, 101, 102, 103 has a positive median (50), but does not contain more positive than negative integers.

(2) NOT SUFFICIENT: Test numbers and try to disprove the question. For instance, the list 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 has a positive median (3) and contains more positive than negative integers. On the other hand, consider –3, –2, –1, 101, 102, 103, has a positive average, but does not contain more positive than negative integers. (In fact, unlike statement 1, this statement can also be satisfied by a list containing fewer positive than negative numbers, e.g., –5, –4, –3, –2, –1, 100).

(1) AND (2) NOT SUFFICIENT:
As deduced above, the lists 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 does have more positive integers while the list –3, –2, –1, 101, 102, 103 does not have more positive integers. Both lists satisfy both statements, so even when used together, the statements are still insufficient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

If x is a positive integer, is x prime?

(1) x has the same number of factors as y2, where y is a positive integer greater than 2.
(2) x has the same number of factors as z, where z is a positive integer greater than 2.

A

A. Yes or No question.
(1) Sufficient - x can never be prime since y2 will never have 2 factors. Answer will always be no.

(2) Insufficient: If Z is prime, then x has two factors, if Z is not prime, x will have more than 2 factors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The number of antelope in a certain herd increases every year by a constant factor. If there are 500 antelope in the herd today, how many years will it take for the number of antelope to double?

(1) Ten years from now, there will be more than ten times the current number of antelope in the herd.
(2) If the herd were to grow in number at twice its current rate, there would be 980 antelope in the group in two years.

A

B.

The annual growth rate set as x. For example, if the population doubles each year, x = 2; if it grows by 50% each year, x = 1.5. Each year the population is multiplied by this factor of x. We can set up as follow:
Now =  500
1 year = 500x
2 years = 500x^2
N years = 500x^n

Question is asking the years that’d yield a population of 1000 or more, therefore, we are looking for n, thus:
500 x^n > 1000
x^n > 2, therefore, once we know the growth rate, we would be able to calculate n.
(1) Insufficient: 500x^10 > 5000
x^10 > 10, therefore, x can be 2 or x can be 1.5
(2) sufficient: 500x^2 = 980 you can solve for x for a value.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In the rectangular coordinate system, a line passes through the points (0,5) and (7,0). Which of the following points must the line also pass through?

A. (-14, 10)
B. (-7, 5)
C. (12, -4)
D. (14, -5)
E. (21, -9)
A

C.

Solve for the equation of y = mx +b
m = change y/change x => -5/7 and we know y = 5
therefore: y = -5/7x+5. Now we can plug the following equations to find the correct answer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

For any integer k > 1, the term “length of an integer” refers to the number of positive prime factors, not necessarily distinct, whose product is equal to k. For example, if k = 24, the length of k is equal to 4, since 24 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 3. If x and y are positive integers such that x > 1, y > 1, and x + 3 y

A

Consider extreme cases:
1. maximize x at smallest prime => 2^10 = 1,024 (too big) =>2^9 = 512 (yes). This leaves 487 for 3y => 162 = y =>2^8 = 256 (too big) => 2^7 = 128 (yes) Therefore 9+7 = 16 in length.

  1. maximize y at smallest prime => y = 332 => 2^8 = 256. which leaves maximum value for x = 231 => 2^7 = 128. Therefore 8+7 = 15 in length.

After comparing two conditions, 16 is the max lengths of the numbers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The ratio of boys to girls in Class A is 3 to 4. The ratio of boys to girls in Class B is 4 to 5. If the two classes were combined, the ratio of boys to girls in the combined class would be 17 to 22. If Class A has one more boy and two more girls than class B, how many girls are in Class A?

A. 8
B. 9
C. 10
D. 11
E. 12
A

E.

Class room A - B:G = 3x : 4x
Class room B - B:G = 3x -1 : 4x-2 = 4:5
Solve x = 3

3 x 4 = 12 girls in class room A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A number of oranges are to be distributed evenly among a number of baskets. Each basket will contain at least one orange. If there are 20 oranges to be distributed, what is the number of oranges per basket?

(1) If the number of baskets were halved and all other conditions remained the same, there would be twice as many oranges in every remaining basket.
(2) If the number of baskets were doubled, it would no longer be possible to place at least one orange in every basket.

A

To have oranges distributed evenly, the possibilities for number of baskets would be factor of 20, which are 1, 2, 4, 5, 10 or 20. Thus the question can be rephrased as “how many baskets are there?”

(1) INSUFFICIENT - number of baskets must be even - thus, could be 2, 4, 10 or 20.
(2) SUFFICIENT - we must have more than 10 baskets. since next number up is 20, we then must had 20 baskets so that when it doubled, no longer be possible to place at least one orange in every basket.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

If n is an integer between 10 and 100, is the tens digit of n even?

(1) The remainder when n is divided by 4 is equal to the remainder when n is divided by 5.
(2) The only prime factor of n is 3

A

(1) SUFFICIENT:
Test Cases
Investigate different possible values of n. The first case that jumps to mind is the case where n = (4)(5) = 20. In this case, the remainder is 0 when n is divided by either 4 or 5. This is true for 20, 40, 60, and 80. In all cases, the tens digit is even.

Would other possible values work? Yes! For example, if n = 21, then the remainder is 1 when divided by either 4 or 5. If n = 22, the remainder is 2 when divided by either 4 or 5. This pattern holds up until n = 24, where the remainder is 0 when divided by 4, but the remainder is 4 when divided by 5.

The pattern begins again at 40, 60, and 80. The statement is valid for values of n from 20 through 23, 40 through 43, 60 through 63, and 80 through 83. In every case, the number has an even tens digit, so the statement is sufficient.

(2) SUFFICIENT: According to this statement, n is a power of 3. The only such powers between 10 and 100 are 3^3 = 27 and 3^4 = 81. Both of these values have an even tens digit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

If a and b are the digits of the two-digit positive integer X, what is the remainder when X is divided by 9?

(1) a + b = 11
(2) X + 7 is divisible by 9

A

(1) SUFFICIENT - test numbers
When a = 5 and b = 6, 56 divided by 9 has a remainder of 56 – 54 = 2
When a = 7 and b = 4, 74 divided by 9 has a remainder of 74 – 72 = 2

(2) SUFFICIENT - test numbers
If X + 7 = 27, then X = 20, which has a remainder of 2 when divided by 9
If X + 7 = 18, then X = 11, which has a remainder of 2 when divided by 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Given that a is the average (arithmetic mean) of the first nine positive multiples of six and b is the median of the first twelve positive multiples of six, what is the ratio of a to b?

A. 3:4
B. 10:13
C. 5:6
D. 13:10
E. 4:3
A

D.

a = {6, 12, 18, 24, 30, 36, 42, 48, 54} Since is evenly spaced, average = mean => 30

b = {6, 12, 18, 24, 30, 36, 42, 48, 54, 60, 66, 72} since is evenly spaced, average = mean => 39

therefore: a:b = 30 : 39 => 10 : 13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Line A is drawn on a rectangular coordinate plane. If the coordinate pairs (3, 2) and (-1, -2) lie on line A, which of the following coordinate pairs does NOT lie on a line that is perpendicular to line A?

A. (5, 8) and (4, 9)
B. (3, -1) and (4, -2)
C. (-1, 6) and (-4, 9)
D. (2, 5) and (-3, 2)
E. (7, 1) and (6, 2)
A

Solve for slope of line A (3,2) and (-1,2) = 1

Find line that is perpendicular to Line A is to have slope of -1. Solve the answers and only D doesn’t have a slope of -1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Florida’s Gainesville-Hawthorne State Trail, a mixed-use recreation trail paved over an old rail bed, is a curious paradox: it IS NOT ONLY COMPLETELY MAN-MADE BUT ALSO DESIGNED EXCLUSIVELY FOR HUMAN USE, YET IS classified as a state park.

B. not only is completely man-made but also exclusively designed for human use, yet it is
C. is completely man-made but also exclusively designed for human use, yet
D. is completely man-made but also has been designed exclusively for human use, yet is
E. is not only completely man-made but also is exclusively designed for human use, yet

A

A is correct - grammatically parallel: it is man-made and it is designed. The two main clauses, is not only… and is classified…, are separated by yet and are properly parallel. The verb IS is required, though, to show that the second clause is parallel to the entire first clause.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Some public health advocates have become concerned that directly advertising prescription drugs to consumers is likely to cause some patients to pursue certain medications that may be inappropriate for their individual health situation. However, marketing to consumers should not be limited as long as physicians also continue to be educated about such medications, because a physician’s prescription is still required in order for patients to obtain these drugs.

Which of the following facts would most directly address the concern articulated by the public health advocates?

A. After a certain number of years, prescription drugs lose patent protection and other companies can then manufacture and market generic forms of the drugs.

B. Consumers can now find technical drug information on the Internet, information that previously would have been available only to physicians.

C. Physicians are also exposed to prescription drug advertisements that are directed toward consumers.

D. Physicians are not susceptible to pressure from patients in determining appropriate courses of treatment.

E. Fewer than 15% of patients are likely to remember and ask by name for specific drugs that they see advertised in magazines or on television.

A

The public health advocates are concerned that patients are exposed to advertisements about prescription drugs, and may pursue these drugs even though the drugs may not be clinically appropriate. It is argued that, because physicians must prescribe the drugs in question, patient pursuit of these prescription drugs is irrelevant. However, patients who pursue and request particular prescription drugs may be able to encourage or induce a physician to prescribe drugs that he or she might not have prescribed otherwise.in the absence of such encouragement.

(D) CORRECT. This answer choice directly addresses the public health advocates’ concern by establishing that physicians are not susceptible to patient pressure in prescribing inappropriate drugs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Antoine: The alarming fact is that among children aged 19 years and younger, the number taking antipsychotic medicines soared 73 percent in the last four years. That is greater than the increase in the number of adults taking antipsychotic medicines during the same period.

Lucy: But the use of antipsychotic drugs by adults is considered normal at the current rate of 11 adults per 1,000 taking the drugs. In contrast, the number of children on antipsychotic medication last year was 6.6 per 1,000 children.

Lucy’s argument relies on the assumption that ______.

A. normal levels of antipsychotic drug use are rarely exceeded.

B. the percentage of adults taking antipsychotic medication is always higher than the percentage of children on such medication.

C. the use of antipsychotic medication in children is no different from the use of such medications in adults.

D. Antoine is not consciously distorting the statistics he presents.

E. a rapid increase in the number of children taking antipsychotic drugs generates more fear of random violence by adolescents than does knowledge of the absolute number of children on such medications.

A

Antoine is alarmed that the number of children on antipsychotic medication has increased by 73 percent. Lucy begins her reply with “but,” indicating that she is about to counter either Antoine’s facts or his alarm; she accepts his facts but addresses his alarm. If the number of children taking antipsychotic medication is still within the normal range, the rate at which the total number has increased is not cause for alarm. Lucy uses information about adult use of such drugs to imply that the lower rate of antipsychotic drug use in children must also be normal.

C is correct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Though it is now universally accepted that William Shakespeare was a real, historical person – which was once considered questionable – some still suspect him not to have written all of the works attributed as his own. (whole sentence is underlined)

A. Though it is now universally accepted that William Shakespeare was a real, historical person – which was once considered questionable – some still suspect him not to have written all of the works attributed as his own.

B. Though William Shakespeare is now universally accepted to be a real, historical person – once considered as questionable – some still suspect him not to have written all of the works attributed to be his own.

C. William Shakespeare – now universally accepted as a real, historical person, though even this fact was once considered questionable – who is still suspected, by some, not to have written all of the works attributed to him.

D. Though it is now universally accepted that William Shakespeare was a real, historical person – a fact that was once considered questionable – he is still suspected, by some, of not having written all of the works attributed to him.

E. Some still suspect that William Shakespeare did not write all of the works attributed as his own, although it is now universally accepted that he was a real, historical person – a fact that was once considered questionable.

A

A. Which was modifying a person - Wrong.

B. idiom error “accepted to be”, “attributed to be”, “considered as” and “suspected not to have”.

C. The main part of the sentence – not the part between the dashes – is not a complete sentence.

D. Correct - All of the idiom errors in the original sentence have been corrected: “accepted”, “considered”, “suspected”, and “attributed” are all used in properly idiomatic forms.

E. This choice preserves the incorrect idiomatic usage of “attributed as…” from the original. In addition, the placement of the modifier at the end of this sentence makes it unclear exactly which fact was once considered questionable; this appositive could conceivably refer either to “it is now universally accepted that he was a real, historical person” (the intended referent) or to “some still suspect that William Shakespeare did not write all of the works attributed as his own”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The ability to analyze genomes — sequences of DNA — has grown more and more sophisticated. Scientists are able to examine the biological past in finer detail and with greater accuracy. A new analysis of the genetic links between early humans and chimpanzees has led to a hypothesis that the two species diverged more recently than previous estimates indicated. This gives credence to a very startling new theory: the ancestors of humans and chimpanzees might have hybridized to produce the lineage from which modern humans eventually developed.

What can be inferred from the statements above?

A. Hybridized species combine the best of both lineages.

B. Political and religious pressures will affect the course of future research.

C. Future research will enable scientists to determine the exact characteristics of this hybrid ancestor of modern man.

D. Earlier genome analysis established genetic links between early humans and chimpanzees.

E. Human DNA is more complex than that of chimpanzees.

A

The statements indicate that DNA analysis has become more sophisticated and thus produced better results. The passage comments on a “new analysis” and “a very startling new theory” about the origins of modern man and chimpanzees. An appropriate inference would focus on what must follow from those statements.

(D) CORRECT. The passage states that a “new analysis of the genetic links between early humans and chimpanzees has led to a hypothesis that the two species diverged more recently than previous estimates indicated.” The fact that this is a “new” analysis suggests that prior analysis had already established the links; also, since the new theory has altered the time frame for the divergence, it follows that some genetic link and subsequent divergence was already ascertained.

Choice (C) is too extreme.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Universal preschool is a misguided use of public funds. This early academic focus will undermine the social, emotional, and mental development associated with a carefree early childhood. Furthermore, the economic burden on the state to fund such an ambitious undertaking will be overwhelming in both the short-term and long-term, since the state has no way to offset the program’s costs.

Which of the following, if true, most weakens the idea that universal preschool will be an economic burden on the state?

A. Students who attend preschool are more likely to complete high school than students who do not attend preschool.

B. Preschool educated children fare much better in kindergarten than do children without preschool.

C. Part of the high cost of universal preschool stems from its requirement that preschool teachers must have a bachelor’s degree and a teaching credential.

D.The taxes necessary to fund universal preschool can come from a variety of sources, including property taxes and bond measures.

E. Students who attend preschool are less likely to require special education, an expensive public service.

A

The argument posits that universal preschool is a poor idea for children and an overwhelming economic burden for the state. In order to weaken the idea that preschool is an economic burden, the answer choice must demonstrate that preschool somehow directly allows the state to save money in another capacity.

(A) This choice demonstrates an academic benefit of preschool, but not an economic benefit.

(B) Similar to answer choice A, this choice strictly refers to an academic benefit of preschool.

(C) This choice provides a partial explanation of why preschool is so expensive, but does not weaken the idea that preschool will be an economic burden on the state.

(D) This choice simply indicates that the funding for preschool can come from a variety of sources, but in no way undermines the economic burden that preschool imposes.

(E) CORRECT. This choice indicates that special education, an expensive public service, will be made less necessary by the introduction of universal preschool. Thus, spending money on preschool now will save money later.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Amtown’s public schools are supported primarily by town property taxes. The town plans to eliminate the property tax and support schools with a new four-percent sales tax on all retail items sold in town. Four percent of current retail sales is substantially less than the amount currently collected through property taxes, but town planners believe that adopting this plan will not have a negative impact on the funds available for the town’s public schools because ______.

Which of the following most logically completes the argument?

A. a new shopping center that will draw shoppers from neighboring towns will open this year in Amtown

B. many Amtown residents are planning to leave town due to high property taxes

C. a number of parents who currently send their children to Amtown’s public schools do not pay property taxes.

D. the sales tax in neighboring towns is much higher than four percent

E. Amtown was recently featured in a magazine as one of the top 10 weekend getaways from a nearby city.

A

The argument describes a sales tax plan that is expected to bring in the same amount of money as the current property tax, despite the fact that current sales tax revenues are lower than current property tax revenues. The correct answer will include information that will involve the sales tax bringing in more money than is presently the case.

(A) CORRECT. If a new shopping center is opening in Amtown, the retail sales in the town, and the receipts from the sales tax, would be expected to rise. This would potentially enable the sales tax to generate at least as much money as the current property tax.

(B) The fact that some residents might leave Amtown is irrelevant.

(C) The fact that some parents do not pay property taxes is irrelevant to the sales tax plan generating as much money for the public schools as the current property tax.

(D) Higher taxes in surrounding areas might encourage individuals to shop at Amtown. However, this phenomenon would already be factored into current sales tax receipts, which are less than the current property tax.

(E) It could be argued that this magazine profile would increase immediate tourism in Amtown, and thus sales tax receipts. However, any economic impact would depend upon a direct link between the magazine article, increased visitors, and money spent by those visitors, all of which must be assumed. Additionally, a magazine article is unlikely to have a sustainable effect over a long period of time, which is necessary for the sales tax to provide funds equivalent to those provided by the current property tax.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Opponents of the proposed water desalination plant cite the environmental impact and the tremendous cost AS BEING REASONS NOT TO approve the plan.

A. as being reasons not to

B. to be reasons not to

C. as if they were reasons not to

D. for reasons that they should not

E. as reasons not to

A

The idiom “x is cited as y” can also be phrased “cite x as y,” as in this sentence. However, the original sentence incorrectly introduces the unnecessary verb “being.”

(B) This choice does not use the correct idiom “cite x as y,” instead introducing the unidiomatic form “cite x to be y.”

(C) & (D) This choice does not use the correct idiom “cite x as y,” instead introducing the unidiomatic form “cite x as if they were y.” In addition, the phrase “as if they were” properly refers only to hypothetical situations rather than the concrete example in this sentence. (D) In addition, the phrasing “that they should not” is unnecessarily more wordy than “not to.”

(E) CORRECT. This choice uses the correct idiom “cite x as y.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Under a new clean air proposal, the government has decided to tighten controls on the release of certain toxic chemicals, including benzene, formaldehyde, and other carcinogens, by chemical plants. The stated purpose of this proposal is to reduce cancers caused by air pollution. Yet, the chemical industry, rather than the government, is responsible for monitoring the implementation of the proposal. If the past actions of certain polluters in the chemical industry are any indication of future behavior, the net result of the new proposal will be an increase, rather than a decrease, in carcinogens released into the air.

The author is arguing that ____.

A. no chemical companies can be trusted to follow the clean air proposal

B. the chemical industry is responsible for releasing the majority of carcinogens into the air

C. allowing self-monitoring for the new clean air proposal will result in the opposite of its intended consequence

D. to ensure effective implementation, the government should always monitor the execution of its proposals

E. benzene and formaldehyde are two of the most hazardous cancer-causing chemicals

A

The government is attempting to limit the release of carcinogens by chemical plants, but it is permitting the chemical industry itself to monitor the plan’s implementation. The author believes this to be an unacceptable proposal, since the past behavior of certain chemical companies indicates that they will increase their emissions of toxic carcinogens.

(A) The author states only that certain chemical companies cannot be trusted; saying that no company can be trusted is too extreme.

(B) The argument states that the chemical industry does release certain carcinogens but does not suggest that it releases the majority of carcinogens.

(C) CORRECT. This statement properly identifies the author’s argument that the net result of the plan will be an increase of toxic carcinogens into the air.

(D) The argument is about a certain proposal in a specific industry; it is too far reaching to argue that the author believes the government should always monitor all of its proposals.

(E) This is not the point of the argument. Moreover, it is never suggested that these chemicals are more hazardous than other cancer-causing chemicals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Scientists have discovered a new species of butterfly that lives only in a small region of Central America and is active only at night. During the day, it rests in treetops, where its green color matches the foliage perfectly. Therefore, the scientists must have discovered the butterfly at night.

The argument depends on which of the following assumptions?

A. The newly discovered butterfly is not related to any other species of butterfly.

B. There is no way for the scientists to detect the butterfly during the day.

C. No other butterfly species lives in this region of Central America.

D. The foliage in the butterfly’s habitat is completely green.

E. The butterfly cannot survive in areas outside of Central America

A

The conclusion of the argument is that “the scientists must have discovered the butterfly at night.” Why? Because the butterfly’s color matches the green of the foliage, and the butterfly is active only at night. We are asked to find an assumption that is necessary for the argument to work.

(A) Whether the butterfly is related to any other butterflies is irrelevant as to when it was discovered.

(B) CORRECT. In order for this argument to work, one has to assume that there is no way for the scientists to detect the butterfly during the day, despite its camouflage. If there is a way for the scientists to detect the butterfly during the day, the conclusion is no longer logical.

(C) Whether there are other butterflies in the area is irrelevant as to when it was discovered.

(D) Whether the foliage is completely green or partially green is irrelevant as to when it was discovered.

(E) Whether the butterfly can survive in other areas is irrelevant as to when it was discovered.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The artwork of Vincent Van Gogh, mostly paintings executed in bright colors with loose, expressive brushstrokes and drawings done in pen and ink, will be shown for the first time in minor museums where THEY CAN BE APPRECIATED BY PEOPLE WHO A TRIP TO A MAJOR CITY MAY BE TOO EXPENSIVE FOR.

A. they can be appreciated by people who a trip to a major city may be too expensive for

B. they can be appreciated by people for whom a trip to a major city may be too expensive

C. people who a trip to a major city is too expensive for can appreciate it

D. it can be appreciated by people for whom a trip to a major city may be too expensive

E. it can be appreciated by people who a trip to a major city may be too expensive for

A

The antecedent of the pronoun “they” is “artwork”. But “they” is plural and “artwork” singular, so we need to find a choice that changes “they” to “it”. Moreover, “people who a trip to a major city may be too expensive for” is incorrect. It should be “people for whom…” (Why??)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

If r and q are integers, what is the value of (5^r)(3^(q+1))?

(1) (5^r)(3^q) = 729
(2) r + q = 6

A

Simplify the question stem:
(5^r)(3^1)(3^q) => This question is really asking what is (5^r)(3^q)

(1) Sufficient
(2) not sufficient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

If Polygon X has fewer than 9 sides, how many sides does Polygon X have?

(1) The sum of the interior angles of Polygon X is divisible by 16.
(2) The sum of the interior angles of Polygon X is divisible by 15.

A

(1) Sufficient - Using the relationship 180(n – 2) = (sum of interior angles), we could calculate the sum of the interior angles for all the polygons that have fewer than 9 sides.
Notice that each interior angle sum is a multiple of 180. Statement 1 tells us that the sum of the interior angles is divisible by 16. We can see from the above that each possible sum will consist of 180 multiplied by some integer.

The prime factorization of 180 is (2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 5). The prime factorization of 16 is (2 × 2 × 2 × 2). Therefore, two of the 2’s that make up 16 can come from the 180, but the other two 2’s will have to come from the integer that is multiplied by 180. Therefore, the difference (n – 2) must be a multiple of 2 × 2, or 4. Our possibilities for (n – 2) are:

3 sides: 180(3 – 2) or 180 × 1
4 sides: 180(4 – 2) or 180 × 2
5 sides: 180(5 – 2) or 180 × 3
6 sides: 180(6 – 2) or 180 × 4

Only the polygon with 6 sides has a difference (n – 2) that is a multiple of 4.

(2) INSUFFICIENT: Statement (2) tells us that the sum of the interior angles of Polygon X is divisible by 15. Therefore, the prime factorization of the sum of the interior angles will include 3 × 5. Following the same procedure as above, we realize that both 3 and 5 are included in the prime factorization of 180. As a result, every one of the possibilities can be divided by 15 regardless of the number of sides.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A student committee that must consist of 5 members is to be formed from a pool of 8 candidates. How many different committees are possible?

A

The total number of possible five-person committees that can be created from a group of 8 candidates will be equal to the number of possible anagrams that can be formed from the word YYYYYNNN = 8! / (5!3!) = 56. Therefore, there are a total of 56 possible committees.

31
Q

List S includes elements {8, 2, 11, x, 3, y} and has a mean of 7 and a median of 5.5. If x

A

For any list, the sum of the elements equals the mean times the number of elements. In this case, the mean is 7 and the number of elements is 6, so the sum of the elements equals 42.

42 = 8 + 2 + 11 + x + 3 + y
42 = 24 + x + y
18 = x + y

Now consider that the median is 5.5. Letting x = 1 and y = 17 such that they sum to 18, we can arrange the values in increasing order as follows:

x, 2, 3, 8, 11, y

Since 3 and 8 are the middle values, the median equals 5.5 as required. The question asks for the maximal value of x, so let’s increase x as far as possible without changing the median. As x increases to 3 (and y decreases to 15), the middle values of 3 and 8 don’t change, so the median remains at 5.5. However, as x increases beyond 3, the median also increases, so the maximal value of x that leaves the median at 5.5 is 3.

The correct answer is D.

32
Q

A candy wholesaler needs to quickly sell some candy bars that are nearing their expiration date, so he reduced the price of the candy bars. By what percent did he reduce the price of the candy bars?

(1) The price of a candy bar was reduced by 36 cents.
(2) If a candy retailer purchases a case of 144 candy bars from the wholesaler, she will save $51.84 as a result of the price reduction.

A

(1) INSUFFICIENT: Just knowing the price change is insufficient, because we still don’t know anything about the original price.

(2) INSUFFICIENT: This statement tells us that the price reduction for a case of 144 candy bars is $51.84. To calculate the cost reduction for each candy bar, divide the savings by 144:
$51.84/case) ÷ (144 candy bars/case) = $0.36/candy bar.
Thus, statement (2) gives us information identical to statement (1), and is insufficient for the same reason given above.

(1) & (2) = INSUFFICIENT.

E.

33
Q

Last year, the five employees of Company X took an average of 16 vacation days each. What was the average number of vacation days taken by the same employees this year?

(1) Three employees had a 50% increase in their number of vacation days, and two employees had a 50% decrease.
(2) Three employees had 10 more vacation days each, and two employees had 5 fewer vacation days each.

A

The average number of vacation days taken this year can be calculated by dividing the total number of vacation days by the number of employees. Since we know the total number of employees, we can rephrase the question as:

How many total vacation days did the employees of Company X take this year?

(1) INSUFFICIENT: Since we don’t know the specific details of how many vacation days each employee took the year before, we cannot determine the actual numbers that a 50% increase or a 50% decrease represent.
(2) SUFFICIENT: f three employees took 10 more vacation days each, and two employees took 5 fewer vacation days each, then we can calculate how the number of vacation days taken this year differs from the number taken last year:

(10 more days/employee)(3 employees) – (5 fewer days/employee)(2 employees) = 30 days – 10 days = 20 days additional and (5 employees)(16 days/employee) = 80 days were taken last year. Total 100 days in this year.

34
Q

If a , b, and c are integers and ab^2/c is a positive even integer, which of the following must be true?
I. ab is even
II. ab > 0
III. c is even

A

If ab^2 were odd, the quotient would never be divisible by 2, regardless of what c is. To prove this try to divide an odd number by any integer to come up with an even number; you can’t. If ab^2 is even, either a is even or b is even.

Only Statement I is true.

35
Q

If S is the infinite sequence S 1 = 6, S 2 = 12, …, S n = S n-1 + 6,…, what is the sum of all terms in the set {S 13, S 14, …, S 28}?

A. 1,800

B. 1,845

C. 1,890

D. 1,968

E. 2,016

A

For sequence S, any value S n equals 6 n. Therefore, the problem can be restated as determining the sum of all multiples of 6 between 78 (S 13) and 168 (S 28), inclusive. The direct but time-consuming approach would be to manually add the terms: 78 + 84 = 162; 162 + 90 = 252; and so forth.

The solution can be found more efficiently by identifying the median of the set and multiplying by the number of terms. Because this set includes an even number of terms, the median equals the average of the two ‘middle’ terms, S 20 and S 21, or (120 + 126)/2 = 123. Given that there are 16 terms in the set, the answer is 16(123) = 1,968.

Or there are 28 terms total, and each number is 6n, unit digit would be 8x6 =_8. the only answer with unit digit 8 is D.

36
Q

In a room filled with 7 people, 4 people have exactly 1 sibling in the room and 3 people have exactly 2 siblings in the room. If two individuals are selected from the room at random, what is the probability that those two individuals are NOT siblings?

A

We are told that 4 people have exactly 1 sibling. This would account for 2 sibling relationships (e.g. AB and CD). We are also told that 3 people have exactly 2 siblings. This would account for another 3 sibling relationships (e.g. EF, EG, and FG). Thus, there are 5 total sibling relationships in the group.

Additionally, there are (7 x 6)/2 = 21 different ways to chose two people from the room.

Therefore, the probability that any 2 individuals in the group are siblings is 5/21. The probability that any 2 individuals in the group are NOT siblings = 1 – 5/21 = 16/21.

37
Q

What is the distance between Harry’s home and his office?

(1) Harry’s average speed on his commute to work this Monday was 30 miles per hour.
(2) If Harry’s average speed on his commute to work this Monday had been twice as fast, his trip would have been 15 minutes shorter.

A

(1) INSUFFICIENT: we don’t know anything about the time required for his commute.
D = RT = (30 mph) ( T)
D cannot be calculated because T is unknown.

(2) INSUFFICIENT: If Harry had traveled twice as fast, he would have gotten to work in half the time, which according to this statement would have saved him 15 minutes. Therefore, his actual commute took 30 minutes. So we learn his commute time from this statement, but don’t know anything about his actual speed.
D = RT = ( R) (1/2 hour)
D cannot be calculated because R is unknown.

(1) AND (2) SUFFICIENT: From statement (1) we learned that Harry’s rate was 30 mph. From Statement (2) we learned that Harry’s commute time was 30 minutes. Therefore, we can use the rate formula to determine the distance Harry traveled.
D = RT = (30 mph) (1/2 hour) = 15 miles

38
Q

Miguel is mixing up a salad dressing. Regardless of the number of servings, the recipe requires that 5/8 of the finished dressing mix be olive oil, 1/4 vinegar, and the remainder an even mixture of salt, pepper and sugar. If Miguel accidentally doubles the vinegar and forgets the sugar altogether, what proportion of the botched dressing will be olive oil?

A
Use smart number 24.
5/8 × 24 = 15 cups of olive oil 
1/4 × 24 = 6 cups of vinegar 
1/24 × 24 = 1 cup of salt 
1/24 × 24 = 1 cup of sugar 
1/24 × 24 = 1 cup of pepper

Miguel accidentally doubled the vinegar and omitted the sugar. The composition of his bad salad dressing would therefore be

15 cups of olive oil
12 cups of vinegar
1 cup of salt
1 cup of pepper

The total number of cups in the bad dressing equals 29. Olive oil comprises 15/29 of the final mix

39
Q

At any given time, approximately fifteen percent of all homes in Florida are on the market. In Texas, however, only seven percent of all homes are on the market at any given time. Therefore, one will have a wider selection of homes to choose from if one looks for a home in Florida rather than in Texas.

Which of the following, if true, would most seriously strengthen the argument above?

A. Homes in Florida tend to be less expensive than those in Texas.

B. Mortgages are easier to obtain for homes in Florida than for homes in Texas.

C. The construction industry in Texas has reported significant growth over the past year.

D. The cost of constructing new homes in Texas is higher than in Florida.

E. The total number of homes in Florida is three times greater than the total number in Texas

A

The conclusion is that “one will have a wider selection of homes to choose from if one looks for a home in Florida rather than in Texas.” Why? Because 15% of all homes in Florida are on the market whereas only 7% of all homes in Texas are on the market. This argument confuses percentages with specific numbers. It is possible that 15% of the number of homes in Florida is actually smaller than 7% of the number of homes in Texas. If the number of homes in both states were the same, or if the number of homes in Florida were greater than the number in Texas, the argument would be stronger.

(E) CORRECT. This choice tells us that the absolute number of homes in Florida is greater than in Texas. Therefore, 15% of the homes in Florida must represent a larger number of homes than does 7% of the homes in Texas, thus strengthening the argument.

40
Q

Ensuring that children consume less sugar is among the most effective ways to curb childhood obesity. Recently, with this goal in mind, school officials have begun to replace high calorie sugary drinks in school vending machines with bottled water, unsweetened fruit juices, and sugar free sodas. Since students spend so much time in school, officials reason that removing access to sugary drinks during school hours will cause a dramatic reduction in the intake of sugar.

Which of the following, if true, most undermines the school officials’ plan?
A. Unsweetened fruit juices contain more sugar than does bottled water.
B. Many students have access to sugary drinks both before and after school.
C. Sugar free sodas contain artificial sweeteners that some medical officials link to headaches and other health concerns.
D. Sugary snack foods comprise the majority of sales in school vending machines.
E. The average school-aged child consumes two twenty-ounce sugary drinks every day.

A

The argument explains that school officials plan to limit the sugar intake of students in school by replacing sugary drinks with less sugary drinks in school vending machines. To undermine this plan, the correct answer must demonstrate that that the consumption of sugar by students will not be dramatically reduced.

(D) CORRECT. If most of the sugar that students consume in school comes from snack foods rather than drinks, replacing the drinks with healthier alternatives will do little to curb the intake of sugar.

41
Q

The health commissioner said that the government had implemented strict measures to eradicate the contaminated food and, despite the recent illnesses, it will try to prevent the outbreak from recurring in the future.

A. it will try

B. that it tried

C. it had tried

D. it would have tried

E. that it would try

A

In the original sentence, the verb “had implemented” is in the past perfect tense, indicating that this event occurred at some point before the commissioner spoke. The verb “will try”, however, is in the simple future. When the future is indicated from the point of view of the past, the simple future is not used. Instead, the conditional is required. For example, “The man said that he would buy a new car” is preferable to “The man said that he will buy a new car.” We need to find a conditional verb. Moreover, the pronoun “it” begins a new clause and thus requires repetition of “that” in order to make clear, using parallel structure, that this new clause is still something that the commissioner said. For example, “The man said that he would buy a new car and that he would drive it everywhere” is preferable to “The man said that he would buy a new car and he would drive it everywhere.”

E.

42
Q

Although there has been great scientific debate for decades over global warming, most scientists now agree that human activity is causing the Earth’s temperature to rise. Though predictions vary, many global warming experts believe that average global temperatures will rise between three and eight degrees Fahrenheit during the next century. Such an increase would cause an alarming rise in sea levels, displacing millions of people by destroying major population centers along the world’s coastlines.

Which of the following is an assumption in support of the argument’s conclusion?
A. New technological developments in the next century will not divert rising seas from the world’s coastal cities.
B. Individuals will not become more aware of the steps they can take to reduce the emission of greenhouse gases.
C. Rising sea levels similarly affect all coastal population centers.
D. Some global warming experts predict a greater than eight degree Fahrenheit increase in global temperatures during the next century.
E. Human activity is the sole cause of increasing global temperatures

A

The argument concludes that rising sea levels caused by global warming will destroy major coastal population centers and displace millions of people. Any assumption in support of this conclusion would have to corroborate that these events will definitively take place.

(A) CORRECT. If new technological developments in the next century allow people to divert rising seas from the world’s cities (i.e., population centers), cities will not be destroyed and millions of people will not be displaced. Thus, a necessary assumption is that these technologies will not be developed.

43
Q

Researchers have discovered a new species of sparrow THAT LIVES ONLY IN CYPRESS GROVES, ALMOST WHOLLY DEPENDENT ON THE BERRIES OF A CERTAIN TYPE OF VINE THAT GROWS ON CYPRESS TREES AND WHOSE COLORING IS COMPLETELY DIFFERENT FROM all other sparrows.

A

INCORRECT.The original sentence intends to identify a sparrow by the fact that it lives in cypress groves, eats certain berries, and has certain coloring. All these facts about the sparrow must be presented in parallel form. However, in the original sentence, these facts are presented in different forms. We need to find a choice that presents them all in parallel fashion. Moreover, “whose coloring is different from all other sparrows” is incorrect. The sparrow’s coloring is different from the coloring of other sparrows, not from the sparrows themselves. We need to find a choice that makes this clear.
(B) that lives only in cypress groves, is almost wholly dependent on the berries of a certain type of vine that grows on cypress trees, and has coloring completely different from that of

44
Q

Sales at a local sandwich shop have been declining steadily since a health food restaurant opened its doors for business on the same block three months ago. The owner of the sandwich shop concludes that the best way to raise sales back to prior levels is to offer special sandwich prices that compete with the low prices at the health food restaurant.

Which of the following assumptions helps to justify the owner’s conclusion?

A. Local consumers prefer the food at the sandwich shop to the food at the health food restaurant.

B. Sales at the sandwich shop reached an all-time high six months ago.

C. The sandwich shop’s prices are currently higher than those of a similar shop located in a neighboring town.

D. The sandwich shop does not currently offer any healthful food items.

E. The health food restaurant is running its special prices as a temporary promotion and will be raising its prices at the end of the year.

A

The sandwich shop owner concludes that making his prices more competitive with the health food restaurant’s prices is the best way to counteract his declining sales. Since the validity of this conclusion depends on the assumption that pricing is the root cause of the declining sales, an assumption that explicitly defines the relationship between price and sales, or an assumption that eliminates an alternate cause for the declining sales, will help justify the owner’s logic.

(A) CORRECT. This assumption eliminates the possibility that the sandwich shop is losing business because people actually prefer the food at the health food restaurant to the food at the sandwich shop. This gives more credibility to the argument that the decline in sales is a result of pricing.

Rule of thumb - you don’t want to select a choice that compare with other market or another town..etc. (such as choice C.)

45
Q

(Weight loss programs that guarantee results mislead their customers). No program can ensure that someone who follows it will lose weight. These programs prey upon unhappy and insecure people who are often driven more by emotion than by reason. (Moreover, many people who lose weight while on a program eventually regain the weight within a year). So while the programs’ claims may be true for a short period, customers will be disappointed in the long run.

The two portions in boldface play which of the following roles?

A. The first is a generalization; the second is a consequence of that generalization.

B. The first is the author’s position; the second is a consideration in support of that position.

C. The first is an opinion under examination; the second is evidence weighing against that opinion.

D. The first is an assertion that the author questions; the second is evidence in support of that assertion.

E. The first is evidence in support of the author’s main point; the second is the author’s main point.

A

The conclusion of this argument is the first sentence: “Weight loss programs that guarantee results mislead their customers.” The rest of the text is evidence in support of that conclusion. The correct answer will identify the first boldface portion as the conclusion, and the second boldface portion as evidence in support of the conclusion.

(B) CORRECT. The first boldface portion is the author’s position, or conclusion. The second boldface portion is a consideration in support of the position stated in the first boldface portion.

46
Q

Over the past 5 years, Company X has posted double-digit growth in annual revenues, combined with a substantial improvement in operating margins. Since this growth is likely to persist in the future, the stock of Company X will soon experience dramatic appreciation.

The argument above is based on which of the following assumptions?

A. Company X has a large market share in its industry.

B. Prior to the last 5 years, Company X had experienced similarly dramatic growth in sales associated with stable or improving operating margins.

C. The growth of Company X is likely to persist in the future.

D. The current price of the stock of Company X does not fully reflect the promising growth prospects of the firm.

E. The stock of Company X will outperform other stocks in the same industry.

A

The argument concludes that the stock of the firm will experience rapid growth. The basis for this claim is that the firm has shown strong historical performance that is likely to continue in the future. The stock will appreciate dramatically in the future as a result only if it has not already appreciated in anticipation of the company’s expected growth.

(D) CORRECT. If this assumption were not true, i.e. if the current stock price already reflects future growth prospects, then the premise that the company will experience high growth is certainly insufficient to warrant future stock price appreciation, since all of this growth would already be reflected in the current price. It is necessary to assume that the current price of Company X stock does not yet reflect the promising growth prospects of the firm, allowing the possibility that the stock price will rise further.

47
Q

Though once powerful political forces, labor unions have lost much of their influence, which has resulted in a political climate that some analysts claim to favor management.

A. which has resulted in a political climate that some analysts claim to favor

B. resulting in a political climate that some analysts claim favors

C. which has resulted in a political climate that some analysts claim that favors

D. resulting in a political climate that some analysts claim to be in favor of

E. which has resulted in a political climate that has been claimed by some analysts to favor

A

The original sentence contains several errors. First, the relative pronoun “which” cannot be used to modify the action of the preceding clause, as it does here (“which has resulted in…”). Instead, it must be used to modify the immediately preceding noun only. In this case, that noun is “influence,” which cannot be described as resulting in a “political climate.” It is the loss of that influence that has resulted in the “political climate” described in the sentence, not the influence itself. Second, “that some analysts claim to favor management” is incorrect. If we remove “some analysts claim” from the sentence, we are left with “a political climate that…to favor management.” This is incorrect. We need “to favor” to agree with “a political climate that.”

(B) CORRECT. This choice corrects the relative pronoun error by replacing “which has resulted” with “resulting.” Moreover, “favors” agrees with “a political climate that…”

48
Q

A researcher studying corporate executives found that they tend to have “take charge” personalities, with the predominant traits of assertiveness, decisiveness, and self-confidence. The researcher concluded that people who are more “take charge” than the average person are more likely to become corporate executives.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the researcher’s conclusion?

A. Holding the job of a corporate executive causes people to develop “take charge” personality traits.

B. When working on charitable or community projects, corporate executives often use their ability to make decisions and lead people to make those projects successful.

C. Some people who are not executives have stronger “take charge” personalities than some people who currently serve as corporate executives.

D. Many people who aspire to become executives exhibit different management styles in their current jobs.

E. The executives that the researcher studied were often unsuccessful when they tried to manage their family activities as they do their business activities.

A

Consider how the researcher reached the conclusion that having a more “take charge” personality makes a person more likely to become a corporate executive. Only one justification is given for this proposed cause and effect: the observation that a “take charge” personality tends to be observed in people who are corporate executives. However, it could be the case that the cause and effect relationship flows in the opposite direction than that proposed in the argument, as it is possible that a person first becomes a corporate executive and then develops a more “take charge” personality as a result.

(A) CORRECT. If a “take charge” personality is observed in people who are corporate executives because the job itself causes those traits to emerge, then the researcher’s conclusion that the personality traits lead to the job would be weakened.

(C) The fact that some non-executives have stronger “take charge” personalities than some people who are corporate executives does not substantially weaken the argument, as the existence of people who embody the extremes of a “take charge” personality does not disprove that those with a “take charge” personality are more likely to move into the role of corporate executive. Moreover, the personalities of non-executives are not relevant as counterexamples to the researcher’s argument about executives.

49
Q

Federal government financing is AN ESSENTIAL KEY IN the survival of the interstate rail system.

A

The original sentence contains the redundant phrase “essential key” where “essential” would suffice. In addition, the phrase “essential . . . in the survival” is unidiomatic. The proper idiom is “essential for the survival.”

ESSENTIAL FOR

50
Q

To prevent overcrowding, last month the town zoning board limited the number of new buildings that can be constructed in the town in any given year. The board claims that doing so will preserve open spaces and lessen the strain on municipal resources such as schools and garbage disposal. Critics of the changes argue that the plan will harm the community or, at the very least, will fail in its purpose.

Which of the following most supports the claims of the critics of the plan?

A. Other towns have had mixed success with similar zoning plans.

B. No new schools have been built in the town in ten years.

C. Property taxes in the town are higher than in neighboring towns.

D. Under the new plan, developers may still erect apartment buildings.

E. The nearest garbage dump is several miles away from the town.

A

This argument discusses a plan with the stated goal “to prevent overcrowding.” Two points of view are represented in the argument: one is that of the town zoning board, the originators of the plan, and the other is that of critics of the plan. The question asks for information that would most support the claims of the critics of the plan. Conversely, the correct answer would most weaken the logic of the town zoning board.

(D) CORRECT. The argument states that “the town zoning board limited the number of new buildings that can be constructed in the town in any given year.” The goal of this plan is to prevent overcrowding, but only does so indirectly: the town zoning board plan limits the number of new buildings, not the number of new town residents. Either an apartment building or a single family house would only count as one new building, yet the apartment building could draw many more new residents to the town than would the single family house. This plan might not be the best way to achieve the stated goal, and thus this statement supports the claims of the critics of the plan.

All other choices are irrelevant.

51
Q

Child development specialists have observed that adolescents who receive large weekly allowances tend to spend money on items considered frivolous by their parents whereas adolescents who receive small weekly allowances do not. Thus, in order to ensure that their children do not spend money on frivolous items, parents should not give their children large weekly allowances.

Which of the following pieces of information would be most useful in evaluating the validity of the conclusion above?

A. The average amount of money received by adolescents who receive large weekly allowances

B. Any differences among parents in the standard used to judge an item as frivolous

C. The educational background of the child development specialists who made this observation

D. The difference between the average annual income of families in which the parents give their children large weekly allowances and that of families in which the parents give their children small weekly allowances

E. The percentage of adolescents who receive no weekly allowance

A

The conclusion of the passage is that parents can ensure that their children will not spend money on frivolous items by limiting their children’s allowances. This claim is based on the observed difference between the spending habits of children who receive large allowances and those of children who receive small allowances. The argument assumes that the high dollar amount of the allowance – as opposed to some other unobserved factor – is directly linked to the fact that children spend the money on items their parents consider frivolous. Information that provides data about any other factor that might be the cause of the children’s spending behavior would help to evaluate the validity of the conclusion.

(B) CORRECT. One alternative to the conclusion of the passage is that the standard used to judge an item as frivolous was much lower for parents who gave their children large weekly allowances than for parents who gave their children small weekly allowances. If for example, the former group of parents considered all movie tickets to be frivolous, while the latter did not, then this fact (and not the difference in allowance money) might explain the difference observed by the child development specialists. Thus, information about any differences among parents in the standard used to judge an item as frivolous would be extremely relevant in evaluating the validity of the conclusion of the passage.

52
Q

Although amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, or ALS, TYPICALLY CAUSES DEATH WITHIN 3 TO 5 YEARS OF THE ONSET OF SYMPTOMS, ON AVERAGE, THE FAMOUS PHYSICIST STEPHEN HAWKING HAS DEFIED THE ODDS, IN CONTRAST, by living more than 40 years after his initial diagnosis.

A

The original sentence contains two instances of redundant wording. First, we have “typically causes death within 3 to 5 years of the onset of symptoms, on average…” “Typically” and “on average” are both supplying the same information and are, therefore, redundant. In addition, the word “although” at the beginning of the sentence indicates that a contrast will appear later in the sentence. In the second half, we also have “in contrast,” which supplies the same information as “although.” Again, this is redundant.

(B) typically causes death within 3 to 5 years of the onset of symptoms, the famous physicist Stephen Hawking has defied the odds

53
Q

If a, b, c, d and e are non-negative integers and p = (2^a)(3^b) and q = (2^c)(3^d)(5^e), is p/q a terminating decimal?

(1) a > c
(2) b > d

A

B
For fraction p/q to be a terminating decimal, the numerator must be an integer and the denominator must be an integer that can be expressed in the form of (2^x)(5^y) where x and y are integers. (Any integer divided by a power of 2 or 5 will result in a terminating decimal.)

The numerator p, (2^a)(3^b), is definitely an integer since a and b are defined as integers in the question.

The denominator q, (2^c)(3^d)(5^e), could be rewritten in the form of (2^x)(5^y) if we could somehow eliminate the expression 3^d. This could happen if the power of 3 in the numerator (b) is greater than the power of 3 in the denominator (d), thereby canceling out the expression 3^d. Thus, we could rephrase this question as, is b > d?

54
Q

In a certain class of students, 25% received A’s on the final exam and 2/3 of these students received A’s in the class as a whole. If 15 students in the class received A’s on the final exam but did not receive an A in the class, how many students did not receive an A on the final exam?

A

If 2/3 of 25% people who got an A on the exam also got an A in the class, then 1/3 of the 25% people who received A’s on the exam did not get an A in the class. We know that 15 students in the class match this description.

Let s be the number of students in the class. 1/3 of 25% of s is equal to 15 students:

(1/3)(25% s) = 15
s = 180
students did not receive A on the final - 180 x (1-/4) = 135.

55
Q

In a sequence of terms in which each term is three times the previous term, what is the fourth term?

(1) The first term is 3.
(2) The second-to-last term is 310.

A

(1) SUFFICIENT: If we know the first term S1 = 3, the second term S2 = (3)(3) = 9.
The third term S3 = (3)(9) = 27
The fourth term S4 = (3)(27) = 81

(2) INSUFFICIENT: We can use this information to find the last term and previous terms, however, we don’t know how many terms there are between the second-to-last term and the fourth term.

56
Q

What is the minimal value of function f(x)?

(1) f(0) = 16
(2) f(x) = (x – 4)^2

A

(1) INSUFFICIENT: This statement tells us the value of function f(x) for just one value of x. We have no information about other possible values of this function.

(2) SUFFICIENT: This statement provides the equation of the function, which enables us to compute its smallest value. Note that the value of (x – 4)^2 will always be non-negative (i.e., positive or zero), since the square of any number is always greater than or equal to zero. Therefore, the minimal value of this function is equal to zero. This value will be achieved when
x – 4 = 0, i.e. when x = 4.

57
Q

If ( x # y) represents the remainder that results when the positive integer x is divided by the positive integer y, what is the sum of all the possible values of y such that (16 # y) = 1?

A

23

The definition given tells us that when x is divided by y a remainder of ( x # y) results. Consequently, when 16 is divided by y a remainder of (16 # y) results. Since (16 # y) = 1, we can conclude that when 16 is divided by y a remainder of 1 results.

Therefore, in determining the possible values of y, we must find all the integers that will divide into 16 and leave a remainder of 1. These integers are 3 , 5, and 15. The sum of these integers is 23.

58
Q

From a drawer containing black, blue and gray solid-color socks, including at least three socks of each color, how many matched pairs can be removed?

(1) The drawer contains 11 socks.
(2) The drawer contains an equal number of black and gray socks.

A

This problem cannot be solved through formula. Given that the drawer contains at least three socks of each color, we know that at least one matched pair of each color can be removed. From the first nine socks, we can therefore make three pairs, leaving three ‘orphans.’ To think through the problem, it is useful to conceptualize removing those nine socks from the drawer. We will need additional information about any socks left in the drawer to solve the problem.

(1) INSUFFICIENT: Once those first nine socks have been removed, only two socks remain, but we do not have sufficient information about the color of the two socks to solve the problem. If the two remaining socks are a matched pair, we can add this final pair to the first three. This scenario results in four pairs and three orphans. However, if the final two socks are mismatched, each will make a new pair with one of the original three orphans, resulting in five pairs and one orphan.
(2) INSUFFICIENT: This statement gives no information about how many socks are in the drawer.
(1) AND (2) INSUFFICIENT: Given that the drawer contains 11 socks and that there are an equal number of black and gray socks, there are two possible scenarios. Three black, three gray, and five blue socks would yield four pairs total. Four black, four gray, and three blue socks would yield five pairs total.

59
Q

How many factors does 36 2 have?

A

36^2=(2^23^2)^2=2^43^4 and according to above it’ll have (4+1)(4+1)=25 different positve factros, including 1 and 36^2 itself.

60
Q

The next number in a certain sequence is defined by multiplying the previous term by some positive constant k, where k ≠ 1. How many of the first nine terms in this sequence are greater than 1?

(1) The ninth term in this sequence is 81.
(2) The fifth term in this sequence is 1.

A

Rephrase the question as:
an+1 = kan
Note that if the positive constant k is greater than 1, the sequence will be increasing, and if the positive constant k is less than 1, the sequence will be decreasing. Note that k cannot equal 1, 0, or any negative number.

(1) INSUFFICIENT: The ninth term is 81. Consider the possible cases for k: k > 1 and k 1 and k 1, then the sequence will be increasing, meaning the terms one through four must be less than 1 and the terms six through nine must be greater than 1. In this case, again, a total of 4 terms will be greater than 1. Because 4 out of the 9 terms are greater than 1 regardless of the value of k, this statement is sufficient.

(

61
Q

Jim and Renee will play one game of Rock, Paper, Scissors. In this game, each will select and show a hand sign for one of the three items. Rock beats Scissors, Scissors beat Paper, and Paper beats Rock. Assuming that both Jim and Renee have an equal chance of choosing any one of the hand signs, what is the probability that Jim will win?

A

No matter what sign Jim throws, there is one sign Renee could throw that would beat it, one that would tie, and one that would lose. Renee is equally likely to throw any one of the three signs. Therefore, the probability that Jim will win is 1/3.

For example, Jim could throw a Rock sign. He will win only if Renee throws a Scissors sign. There is a one in three chance that Renee will do so.

In fact:
Probability that Renee will win = 1/3
Probability of a tie = 1/3
Probability that Jim will win = 1/3

62
Q

Keats Library purchases a number of new books, all in the category of biography; the library does not acquire any other books. With the addition of the new biographies, the biography collection of the library amounts to 37.5% of the new total number of books in the library. If prior to the purchase, only 20% of the books in Keats Library were biographies, by what percent has the number of biographies in the library increased?

A

If the biographies originally represented 20% of the total books, then let’s say that there were 20 biographies originally out of a total of 100 books. The next part is a little more complicated and we need to use a variable to start. When x new biographies are added to the mix, the new fraction is 37.5% or 3/8:

(20+x) /(100+x) = 3/8
x= 28

If the library started with 20 biographies and added 28 new ones, then the percentage increase is:
Difference/original = 28/20 = 140%

63
Q

It takes Amy between 6 and 7 minutes to grill a steak, and she can only grill one steak at a time. She does not need to take breaks between steaks. Can Amy finish grilling all the steaks needed for her party before her guests arrive?

(1) Amy needs to grill four steaks for her party.
(2) Amy’s guests will arrive in 25 to 30 minutes.

A

We’re given the information that one steak takes between 6 and 7 minutes to grill.

(1) INSUFFICIENT: If Amy needs to grill four steaks, it will take her between (4)(6) = 24 minutes and (4)(7) = 28 minutes, but we don’t know when her guests will arrive.
(2) INSUFFICIENT: We don’t know how many steaks Amy needs to grill.
(1) AND (2) INSUFFICIENT: Amy will take between 24 and 28 minutes to grill the steaks and her guests will arrive in between 25 and 30 minutes, so we cannot answer the question definitively.

The correct answer is E.

64
Q

In response to the increasing cost of producing energy through traditional means, such as combustion, many utility companies have begun investing in renewable energy sources, chiefly wind and solar power, hoping someday to rely on them completely and thus lower energy costs. The utility companies claim that although these sources require significant initial capital investment, they will provide stable energy supplies at low cost. As a result, these sources will be less risky for the utilities than nonrenewable sources, such as gas, oil, and coal, whose prices can fluctuate dramatically according to availability.

The claim of the utility companies presupposes which of the following?

A. The public will embrace the development of wind and solar power.

B. No new deposits of gas, oil, and coal will be discovered in the near future.

C. Weather patterns are consistent and predictable.

D. The necessary technology for conversion to wind and solar power is not more expensive than the technology needed to create energy through combustion.

E. Obtaining energy from nonrenewable sources, such as gas, oil and coal, cannot be made less risky.

A

(C)

The conclusion of the argument is that renewable sources of energy, chiefly solar and wind, will be less risky for certain utilities than nonrenewable sources, such as oil and gas. The basis for this claim is that the renewable sources will provide stable, low-cost supplies of energy, whereas the prices for nonrenewable sources will fluctuate according to availability. We are asked to find an assumption underlying this argument. In order for this argument to be valid, it must in fact be true that these renewable sources of energy will provide stable, low-cost supplies.

65
Q

Recent studies have found that teenagers who listen regularly to the heavy-metal band Suicidal Intentions are ten times as likely to attempt suicide as are other teenagers. It can therefore be concluded that the band’s lyrics inspire teenagers to attempt suicide.

Which of the following, if true, most weakens the conclusion of the passage?

A. Teenagers, especially males, commit suicide at much higher rates than do people in any other age group.

B. Among teenagers who listen regularly to the band, only a small minority have attempted suicide.

C. The band’s lyrics, which reflect existential despair and nihilism, attract teenagers who have considered attempting suicide.

D. One of the members of the band has himself attempted suicide on three different occasions.

E. Relatively few of the band’s regular listeners are teenagers.

A

This passage cites a correlation found, among teenagers, between listening to the band and attempting suicide; the conclusion postulates a causal connection between these two phenomena. Correlation does not imply causation; any evidence that the causality runs the other way, or is absent, will weaken the conclusion of the passage.

(c) is CORRECT.

66
Q

Many banks have a drive-through automated teller machine, built into the wall flanking the driver’s side of a narrow aisle. Even though blind people obviously do not drive, these machines nonetheless invariably feature Braille – the system of raised dots used by the blind for reading and writing – in addition to the standard letters and numerals on their control panels.

Which of the following, if true, does the most to explain the situation described?
A. In most automobiles, the rear windows on the driver’s side only roll down about halfway.

B. Moderately visually impaired people who are still allowed to drive typically do not use Braille to read or write.

C. Blind people can often read Braille just as quickly and accurately as sighted people can read regular writing.

D. The embossing technique used to form the raised dots does not typically add much to the overall cost of the automated teller machine.

E. In order to maximize profits per unit, manufacturers produce only a single model of automated teller machine.

A

(1) Identify the Question Type
We are asked to “explain the situation described,” so this is an Explain the Discrepancy question. We need to find a valid reason why the banks install machines equipped with Braille in the drive-through lanes. The correct answer, when added to the original argument, will eliminate the “that’s surprising!” aspect of the argument; instead, with the information in the correct answer, the full argument will actually make sense. Perhaps blind people still use these machines somehow, even though they’re not driving the vehicles?

One of the biggest traps on Discrepancy questions is choosing an answer that highlights or exacerbates the discrepancy. We’re not trying to show that the discrepancy exists; rather, we’re trying to show that there is not a discrepancy at all (once we have the new information contained in the correct answer).

E) CORRECT. If the manufacturers produce only a single model of machine, then the banks must install the same model everywhere they decide to place an automated teller machine. Thus, even though drive-through customers will not use the Braille feature, the banks will still have to install the machines with Braille because no other machines are available.

67
Q

According to Italy’s top anti-Mafia prosecutor, THE AILING MOBSTER CAME TO TAKE REFUGE IN CORLEONE, A TOWN FAMOUS BECAUSE OF THE “THE GODFATHER” AND NEAR TO THOSE HE MOST TRUSTED.

A

The original sentence is correct. “Famous because of ‘The Godfather’“and “near to those he most trusted” correctly modify “a town,” which modifies Corleone. Noun modifiers must be next to the nouns that they describe. This choice contains no other errors.

68
Q

The governor’s team of advisors, including her education and political strategists, HAS NOT BEEN AVAILABLE FOR COMMENT SINCE THE RELEASE OF HER CONTROVERSIAL EDUCATION REFORM PROPOSAL.

A

The singular subject in the original sentence, “the governor’s team,” needs to agree with the singular verb phrase “has not been.” Also, there is a difference in meaning between “controversial education reform proposal” and “Proposal on controversial education reform.” It is the proposal that is controversial, not education reform.

69
Q

Though Frank Lloyd Wright is best remembered today BECAUSE OF BOLD DESIGNS LIKE THE GUGGENHEIM MUSEUM in New York City, most of his buildings were intended to blend into their surroundings.

A

First, the phrase “remembered because of” is unidiomatic; the correct idiomatic construction is “remembered for.” Second, “like” is incorrect because the Guggenheim is a specific example and the use of “such as” would be more appropriate to introduce examples. Third, the sentence incorrectly suggests that “the Guggenheim Museum” is a “design.” More properly, the sentence should discuss the design “for” the
museum.

should be - “for bold designs such as the one for the Guggenheim Museum”

70
Q

If, in a tennis tournament, a match reaches a fifth-set tiebreak, the lower-ranked player always loses the tiebreak (and, therefore, the match). If Rafael, the second-ranked player, wins a tournament by beating Roger, the top-ranked player, then the match must not have included a fifth-set tiebreak. Which of the following arguments most closely mimics the reasoning used in the above argument?

A. If a woman with a family history of twins gets pregnant three times, she will have one set of twins. Jennifer, who falls into this category, had two sets of twins, so she must not have gotten pregnant exactly three times.

A

Answer A is correct.

In this case, if A happens, then B will definitely happen. If not B, then must not be A.

71
Q

The Civil Service Act of 1883, also known as the Pendleton Act, which created a professional corps of administrators, was passed after a disappointed office-seeker assassinated President James A. Garfield. For a hundred years, this system anchored American government service to competence rather than corruption. The best way to preserve this state in the new millennium is to maintain the Pendleton Act as it is.

Which of the following would be most useful to evaluate the argument’s conclusion?
A. The methods that the Swiss and British governments have used to prevent corruption in government service for the past one hundred years

B. The current level of job satisfaction among government office-seekers and office-holders

C. The levels of competence and corruption in American government service between 1950 and the present

D. The number of Presidents assassinated since the passage of the Pendleton Act

E. The percentage of office-holders fired or convicted on charges stemming from corruption during the first hundred years of the Pendleton Act

A

This argument concludes that the best way to have good governance in the future is to preserve the Pendleton Act. It bases that claim on the record of the first hundred years under that Act. The argument assumes that American government service is still uncorrupted and that no better way exists to preserve that state.

(C) CORRECT. This would confirm or deny the assumption that American government service is currently not corrupt. The argument only claims that this was so for the first hundred years after the passage of the Pendleton Act. There is no information about the level of corruption for the gap in time from 1983 to the present.

72
Q

Independent contractors pay higher TAXES AND PAID LESS CONSISTENTLY THAN ARE STATUTORY EMPLOYEES, BUT THEY, UNLIKE STATUTORY EMPLOYEES, ARE FREELY ALLOWED TO perform the same type of work for multiple businesses.

A

he sentence describes several differences between the situation of independent contractors and that of statutory employees. The first two observations depict the situation of independent contractors as less favorable than that of statutory employees, but the reverse is true of the final observation; therefore, the sentence must properly express the contrast between the first two observations and the last one. Additionally, the first two observations—each of which describes a relative disadvantage faced by independent contractors—should be written in parallel.

Should be “taxes and are paid less consistently than statutory employees; unlike statutory employees, though, independent contractors are free to”.

73
Q

A recent research study of undergraduate students analyzed the effects of music on human emotions. Each of the 200 participants attended at least 1 two-hour concert of classical music per week over the course of 12 weeks of their spring semester. At the end of the experiment, all of the students filled out a questionnaire assessing their emotional state. Based on the results of the questionnaires, all of the 10 students who attended the greatest number of concerts reported lower stress levels and higher satisfaction with their lives. Also, most of the 20 students who attended the fewest number of concerts reported below-average levels of emotional comfort.

Which of the following must be true based on the evidence presented above?

A. Most of the 200 participants improved their emotional state and lowered their stress levels.

B. During each week of the experiment, the participants spent at least 2 hours less on their academic work as a result of concert attendance.

C. Listening to classical music for at least 2 hours per week improves the emotional well-being of the majority of young adults.

D. More than 6 participants attended at least 14 concerts during the course of the experiment.

E. At least some of the students participated in the study in order to gain free access to classical concerts.

A

The argument above provides a detailed description of a research study. Note that the question stem contains only factual information and does not have a conclusion. Our task is to provide the most probable conclusion for this argument, i.e. the one that must be true based on the provided evidence. When looking for the most probable conclusion, remember not to make any additional assumptions and choose the answer that directly follows from premises stated in the argument.

Be careful to common trap C.

(D) is correct since the statement is must be true using math equations.

74
Q

The number of new cases of tuberculosis diagnosed in Country X increased dramatically this year. The country’s news media have speculated that the sharp increase in new cases is the result of the tuberculosis outbreak that occurred in neighboring Country Y last year. Health officials in Country X have therefore proposed that all visitors from Country Y must submit to a medical examination before entering Country X.

Which of the following, if true, most strongly suggests that the proposed medical examinations will NOT help curb the spread of tuberculosis in Country X?
A. Country Z, which also neighbors Country Y, has not experienced an increase in cases of tuberculosis.

B. Current medical technology is not capable of detecting all carriers of tuberculosis.

C. Country X does not have the resources to examine all visitors from Country Y.

D. Tuberculosis is not spread through human contact.

E. Citizens of Country Y will not travel to Country X if the proposal is implemented.

A

Because of the speculation that the tuberculosis outbreak in Country X was the result of an outbreak of tuberculosis in Country Y, health officials in Country X have proposed requiring all visitors from Country Y to undergo a medical examination. We are asked to find a choice that suggests that this proposal will not have the desired effect of curbing the spread of tuberculosis in Country X.

(D) CORRECT. This suggests that the visitors from Country Y are not the source of the disease. Thus, testing them would likely do little to curb the spread of the disease.