Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Ultrasound Exam > Practice Questions > Flashcards

Practice Questions Flashcards

1
Q

_______ is defined as the reduction of ultrasound intensity and amplitude of a sound wave.
A) attenuation
B) absorption
C) reflection
D) refraction

A

A) attenuation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of these is not a way sound is attenuated as it travels through the tissue?
A) absorption
B) reflection
C) refraction
D) scattering

A

C) refraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

_______ is an increase in echo amplitude returning from regions lying beyond an object that causes little or no attenuation of the sound beam. The artifact results in a brighter than normal appearance.
A) shadowing
B) enhancement
C) reflection
D) refraction

A

B) enhancement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following abnormal findings in the breast is commonly associated with enhancement?
A) DCIS
B) LCIS
C) lipoma
D) cyst

A

D) cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

_______ is a reduction in echo amplitude distal to a strongly attenuating or reflecting structure. This artifact results in a less bright than normal appearance.
A) shadowing
B) enhancement
C) reflection
D) refraction

A

A) shadowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following abnormal findings in the breast is commonly associated with shadowing?
A) lipoma
B) fluid filled structures, most likely benign
C) simple cysts
D) dense solid masses, most likely cancers

A

D) dense solid masses, most likely cancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What should frame rate be set at to be considered “real time” scanning?
A) 5 frames per second
B) 8 frames per second
C) 10 frames per second
D) 15 frames per second

A

D) 15 frames per second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

_______ is the appearance of having no internal echoes on a sonographic image.
A) anechoic
B) hyperechoic
C) hypoechoic
D) echopaque

A

A) anechoic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following is/are synonyms of anechoic?
A) echolucent
B) sonolucent
C) echopaque
D) a & b

A

D) echolucent and sonolucent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

_______ is a region in a sonographic image where the echoes are not as bright as normal or are less bright than surrounding structures.
A) anechoic
B) hyperechoic
C) hypoechoic
D) echodense

A

C) hypoechoic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

_______ is a region on a sonographic image where the echoes are brighter than normal or brighter than surrounding structures.
A) anechoic
B) hyperechoic
C) hypoechoic
D) sonolucent

A

B) hyperechoic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following is/are synonym(s) for hyperechoic?
A) echodense
B) sonodense
C) sonopaque
D) all of the above

A

D) all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What transducer frequency range is critical in breast imaging?
A) 1.0-5.0 MHz
B) 7.0-15.0 MHz
C) 25.0-30.0 MHz
D) 40.0-50.0 MHz

A

B) 7.0-15 MHz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The higher frequency transducers yield superior axial and lateral resolution (detail.)
A) true
B) false

A

A) true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Increase transducer frequency _______ image detail.
A) decrease
B) increase
C) no change

A

B) increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Increase transducer frequency _______ penetration.
A) decrease
B) increase
C) no changes

A

A) decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Increase transducer frequency _______ wavelength.
A) shorter
B) longer
C) no change

A

A) shorter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When should a lower frequency probe be used in breast imaging?
A) to visualize superior structures
B) to visualize skin surface
C) to visualize structures near the pectoral muscle
D) a & b

A

C) to visualize structures near the pectoral muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What effect does a low frequency transducer have on wavelength?
A) none
B) shorter
C) longer

A

C) longer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Linear array transducers are optimal for breast imaging.
A) true
B) false

A

A) true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following in NOT true about linear array transducers for breast imaging?
A) produces a triangular image
B) allows direct contact while scanning
C) maintains perpendicularity with chest wall
D) best for needle guidance

A

A) produce a triangular image

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When would a lower frequency, curved array transducer be used in breast imaging?
A) when a mass is too large to fit the linear array
B) if the sound beam cannot penetrate deep in the breast tissues
C) never
D) a & b

A

D) when a mass is too large to fit the linear array and if the sound beam cannot penetrate deep in the breast tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When setting an appropriate depth, what landmark is routinely used in breast sonography?
A) pectoral muscle
B) between 3-6 cm
C) there is no set landmark
D) a & b

A

D) pectoral muscle and between 3-6 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the most frequently adjusted control on the ultrasound system?
A) receiver gain
B) output power
C) monitor brightness
D) none of the above

A

A) receiver gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

_______ is the amount of amplification applied to a returning echo.
A) output power
B) monitor brightness
C) transducer frequency
D) receiver gain

A

D) receiver gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What patient factors influence changes in amplitude of the returning echoes?
A) breast size
B) breast thickness
C) tissue density
D) all of the above

A

D) breast size, thickness and tissue density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which two controls function as receiver gain?
A) overall gain and monitor brightness
B) TGC and monitor brightness
C) overall gain and TGC
D) pulse wave and overall gain

A

C) overall gain and TGC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Overall gain controls the level of brightness at various depths.
A) true
B) false

A

B) false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What does ALARA stand for?
A) as low as reasonably achievable
B) as low as reasonably available
C) as low as responsibly achievable
D) as low as responsibly available

A

A) as low as reasonably achievable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which control should be adjusted to limit patients’ exposure to ultrasound energy?
A) receiver gain
B) output power
C) TGC
D) none of the above

A

B) output power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Just like receiver gain, the output power secondarily controls the brightness of the ultrasound image.
A) true
B) false

A

A) true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

According to ALARA, which control should be adjusted if the image is too bright?
A) receiver gain
B) overall gain
C) TGC
D) output power

A

D) output power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

According to ALARA, which control should NOT be adjusted if the image is too dark?
A) receiver gain
B) overall gain
C) TGC
D) output power

A

D) output power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Elevation plane focus is pre set by the manufacturer.
A) true
B) false

A

A) true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

High frequency transducers provide _______ in the elevation plane.
A) shallow focus
B) deep focus
C) all of the above
D) none of the above

A

A) shallow focus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

A 10 MHz transducer has an elevation plane focal depth of approximately _______?
A) 15 cm
B) 10 cm
C) 1.5 cm
D) 1.0 cm

A

C) 1.5 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which is NOT a way Doppler can provide more information about a mass?
A) determines cystic vs solid
B) determines inflamed vs non-inflamed
C) determines complex cyst vs complicated cyst
D) determines soft vs hard

A

D) determines soft vs hard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

_______ is a decrease in echo amplitude distal to the edge of a structure.
A) posterior enhancement
B) edge shadowing
C) acoustic shadowing
D) reflection

A

B) edge shadowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Edge shadowing artifact is the result from _______ of the sound beam.
A) reflection
B) scatter
C) refraction
D) all of the above

A

C) refraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The pectoralis major muscle is more anterior to the pectoral is minor muscle.
A) true
B) false

A

A) true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Normal skin thickness is _______ thick.
A) 0.5-2.0 mm
B) 2.0-3.0 mm
C) 4.0-4.5 mm
D) 0.2-3.0 mm

A

A) 0.5-2.0 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How many collecting ducts converge at the nipple?
A) 5-10
B) 10-15
C) 15-20
D) 20-25

A

C) 15-20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What glands are sebaceous glands seen as small bumps on the surface of the areola?
A) mucinous glands
B) lactiferous glands
C) acini
D) Montgomery glands

A

D) Montgomery glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

All factors will increase the amount of fat in the breast EXCEPT.
A) advancing age
B) pregnancy
C) post radiation
D) obesity

A

C) post radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Where is the superficial fascia located?
A retromammary layer
B) premammary layer
C) dermal layer
D) subcutaneous layer

A

B) premammary layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Where is the deep layer of the fascia located?
A) retromammary layer
B) premammary layer
C) dermal layer
D) subcutaneous layer

A

A) retromammary layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the smallest functional unit of the breast?
A) Montgomery glands
B) acini
C) lobe
D) ductule

A

B) acini

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is considered the milk-producing gland?
A) Montgomery glands
B) acini
C) lobe
D) ductule

A

B) acini

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

There are _______ of acini in each breast.
A) thousands
B) millions
C) 15-20
D) hundreds

A

D) hundreds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

TDLU stands for terminal ductal lobular unit.
A) true
B) false

A

A) true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What structures make up the TDLU?
A) one lobule
B) 30 acini
C) terminal ducts
D) all of the above

A

D) one lobule, 30 acini and terminal ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Where do nearly all breast pathology originate?
A) TDLU
B) retromammary zone
C) nipple
D) axilla

A

A) TDLU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Which of the following are/is synonym for the mammary layer?
A) glandular layer
B) parenchymal layer
C) none of the above
D) both A & B

A

D) glandular layer and parenchymal layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

The axillary tail of Spence is the portion or glandular tissue that extends from what quadrant of each breast?
A) UIQ
B) UOQ
C) LIQ
D) LOQ

A

B) UOQ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

_______ is the functional tissue of the breast containing acini, TDLU, lobes, ducts, etc.
A) epithelial tissue
B) stromal tissue
C) erectile tissue
D) dermal tissue

A

A) epithelial tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

_______ is the supportive tissue or framework of the breast containing cooper’s ligaments, fat and connective tissue.
A) epithelial tissue
B) stromal tissue
C) erectile tissue
D) dermal tissue

A

B) stromal tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Several lobes make up one lobule.
A) true
B) false

A

B) false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Which is NOT a layer of the lactiferous duct?
A) epithelium
B) myoepithelium
C) basement membrane
D) collagen

A

D) collagen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Which layers’ function is to propel milk within the duct toward the nipple?
A) epithelium
B) myoepithelium
C) basement membrane
D) collagen

A

B) myoepithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What quadrant of the breast has the most glandular tissue?
A) UOQ
B) UIQ
C) LIQ
D) LOQ

A

A) UOQ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What quadrant has the most incidence of breast cancer?
A) UOQ
B) UIQ
C) LIQ
D) LOQ

A

A) UOQ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Where does the milk line extend from?
A) axilla to pubis
B) axilla to umbilicus
C) axilla to inguinal
D) axilla to parenchyma

A

C) axilla to inguinal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

_______ absence of one or both breasts.
A) amastia
B) polymastia
C) polythelia
D) amazia

A

A) amastia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

_______ absence of the nipple.
A) amastia
B) polymastia
C) athelia
D) amazia

A

C) athelia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

_______ accessory breast or more than two breasts.
A) amastia
B) polymastia
C) amazia
D) polythelia

A

B) polymastia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

_______ absence of the breast tissue with development of the nipple.
A) amastia
B) athelia
C) polythelia
D) amazia

A

D) amazia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

_______ accessory nipple.
A) amastia
B) polymastia
C) athelia
D) polythelia

A

D) polythelia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Which is the most common developmental anomaly of the breast?
A) amastia
B) polymastia
C) athelia
D) polythelia

A

D) polythelia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Which portion of the breast does the lateral thoracic artery supply?
A) lateral
B) medial
C) superior
D) inferior

A

A) lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Which portion of the breast does the internal mammary artery supply?
A) lateral
B) medial
C) superior
D) inferior

A

B) medial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Which portion of the breast does the intercostal artery supply?
A) lateral
B) medial
C) superior
D) inferior

A

D) inferior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Which portion of the breast does the thoracoacromial artery supply?
A) lateral
B) medial
C) superior
D) inferior

A

C) superior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Which are the 2 main arterial supplies of the breast?
A) lateral thoracic and internal mammary artery
B) thoracoacromial artery and intercostal artery
C) lateral thoracic and intercostal artery
D) thoracoacromial and internal mammary artery

A

A) lateral thoracic artery and internal mammary artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Which are the two secondary arterial supplies of the breast?
A) lateral thoracic artery and internal mammary artery
B) thoracoacromial artery and intercostal artery
C) lateral thoracic artery and intercostal artery
D) thoracoacromial artery and internal mammary artery

A

B) thoracoacromial artery and intercostal artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Which vein branches eventually carry blood to the superior vena cava?
A) superficial veins
B) carotid vein
C) pectoral vein
D) deep vein

A

D) deep vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Which vein branches lie just beneath the superficial fascia?
A) superficial veins
B) carotid vein
C) pectoral vein
D) deep vein

A

A) superficial vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Which of the following is included with the deep vein drainage?
A) lateral thoracic vein
B) internal mammary vein
C) axillary vein
D) subclavian vein
E) intercostal vein
F) all of the above

A

F) lateral thoracic, internal mammary, axillary, subclavian, and intercostal veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the most common route for breast cancer to metastasize?
A) bloodstream
B) hematogenous route
C) lymph node route
D) both A and B

A

D) bloodstream and hematogenous route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

How is bone metastasis from breast cancer thought to occur?
A) intercostal veins communicating with the vertebral vein
B) intercostal artery communicating with the vertebral vein
C) lymph nodes
D) breast cancer does not metastasize to the bones

A

A) intercostal veins communicating with the vertebral vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Where are the intramammary lymph nodes found?
A) breast parenchyma
B) axilla
C) inferior to the pectoral muscle
D) none of the above

A

A) breast parenchyma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Which is the correct flow pattern for the intramammary lymph nodes?
A) areola, periareolar plexus, superficial system, outer lymphatic chains
B) outer lymphatic chains, areola, periareolar plexus, superficial system
C) outer lymphatic chains, superficial system, periareolar plexus, areola
D) areola, superficial system, periareolar plexus, outer lymphatic chains

A

A) areola, periareolar plexus, superficial system, outer lymphatic chains

82
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the axillary lymph node chain?
A) external mammary group
B) scapular group
C) internal mammary group
D) central group
E) axillary group
F) subclavicular group
G) interpectoral group

A

C) internal mammary group

83
Q

What is another name for Rotter’s nodes?
A) axillary group
B) central group
C) subclavicular group
D) interpectoral group

A

D) interpectoral group

84
Q

What level of lymph node placement is considered the deepest?
A) level 1
B) level 2
C) level 3
D) level 4

A

C) level 3

85
Q

Level 1 nodes lie _______ to the pectoral is minor muscle.
A) lateral
B) posterior
C) medial
D) superior

A

A) lateral

86
Q

Level 2 nodes lie _______ to the pectoralis minor muscle.
A) lateral
B) posterior
C) medial
D) superior

A

B) posterior

87
Q

Level 3 nodes lie _______ to the pectoralis minor muscle.
A) lateral
B) posterior
C) medial
D) superior

A

C) medial

88
Q

Where does 75% of lymph drainage occur?
A) internal mammary nodes
B) intercostal nodes
C) supraclavicular nodes
D) axillary nodes

A

D) axillary nodes

89
Q

Where does the other 25% of lymph drainage occur?
A) internal mammary nodes
B) intercostal nodes
C) supraclavicular nodes
D) flow to the opposite breast
E) flow to the diaphragm
F) all of the above

A

F) internal mammary nodes, intercostal nodes, supraclavicular nodes, flow to the opposite breast, flow to the diagram

90
Q

Estrogen stimulates changes in what type of tissue?
A) glandular
B) fat
C) stromal
D) both B and C

A

D) fat and stromal

91
Q

Progesterone stimulates changes in what type of tissue?
A) glandular
B) TDLU
C) stromal
D) both A and B

A

D) glandular and TDLU

92
Q

Which hormone dominates after birth to stimulate milk production?
A) progesterone
B) estrogen
C) prolactin
D) lactogen

A

C) prolactin

93
Q

_______ means to roll inward, shrivel or invert.
A) traction
B) involution
C) regeneration

A

B) involution

94
Q

Involution typically occurs during _______.
A) perimenopause
B) puberty
C) pregnancy
D) 6 weeks gestation

A

A) perimenopause

95
Q

All of the following are occasions when glandular tissue may increase EXCEPT:
A) HRT
B) weight gain
C) weight loss
D) puberty

A

B) weight gain

96
Q

ACS suggests BSE should be performed _______ by women of all ages.
A) monthly
B) yearly
C) daily
D) quarterly

A

A) monthly

97
Q

ACS suggests CBE should be performed _______ for women 20-40.
A) yearly
B) once every 5 years
C) once every 3 years
D) never

A

C) once every 3 years

98
Q

ACS suggests baseline mammograms start at age _______ and yearly at age _______.
A) 35-40; 40
B) 30-35; 40
C) 35-45; 45
D) 30-35; 45

A

A) 35-40; 40

99
Q

How are breast cancers best detected in young women?
A) mammograms
B) BSE
C) CBE
D) both B and C

A

D) BSE a and CBE

100
Q

MQSA stands for Mammography Quality Standards Act.
A) true
B) false

A

A) true

101
Q

_______ is a useful sonographic tool which combines multiple scan lines from different angles to create a smoother, more realistic image.
A) sonoCT
B) spatial compounding
C) compounding image
D) all of the above

A

D) sonoCT, spatial compounding, and compounding image

102
Q

Advantages when using sonoCT include:
A) clearer cysts
B) reduced speckle
C) reduction in enhancement artifact
D) both A and B

A

D) clearer cysts and reduced speckle artifact

103
Q

Disadvantages when using spatial compounding:
A) reduction in enhancement
B) reduction in shadowing
C) possible blurring
D) all of the above

A

D) reduction in enhancement, reduction in shadowing, and possible blurring

104
Q

If a solid mass is discovered on sonographic examination what scan plane becomes important?
A) radial
B) antiradial
C) transverse
D) both A and B

A

A) radial

105
Q

What is the ideal thickness for a stand-off pad?
A) 3mm
B) 10 mm
C) 1cm
D) both B and C

A

D) 10 mm or 1cm

106
Q

What would be the elevation plane focus of a 10 MHz transducer?
A) 15 mm
B) 1.5 cm
C) 0.5 cm
D) 5 cm

A

B) 1.5 cm

107
Q

What would be the elevation plane focus of a 10 MHz transducer when using a 1 cm stand-off pad?
A) 15 mm
B) 1.5 cm
C) 0.5 cm
D) 5 cm

A

C) 0.5 cm

108
Q

What tissue has the echogenicity all other tissue is compared to?
A) fat
B) skin
C) glandular
D) dermal

A

A) fat

109
Q

Which of the following is considered hyperechoic?
A) skin
B) cooper’s ligaments
C) dense fibroglandular tissue
D) ribs
E) all of the above

A

E) skin, cooper’s ligaments, dense fibroglandular tissue, and ribs

110
Q

Which of the following is considered hypoechoic with hyperechoic striations?
A) skin
B) sense fibroglandular tissue
C) ribs
D) pectoralis muscle

A

D) pectoralis muscle

111
Q

What is the echogenecity of a simple cyst?
A) hyperechoic
B) hypoechoic
C) anechoic
D) isoechoic

A

C) anechoic

112
Q

What is the echogenecity of a calcification?
A) hyperechoic
B) hypoechoic
C) anechoic
D) isoechoic

A

A) hyperechoic

113
Q

What is the echogenecity of most malignant tumors?
A) hyperechoic
B) hypoechoic
C) anechoic
D) isoechoic

A

B) hypoechoic

114
Q

What is the echogenecity of most benign tumors?
A) mildly hyperechoic
B) mildly hypoechoic
C) isoechoic
D) all of the above

A

D) mildly hyperechoic, mildly hypoechoic, or isoechoic

115
Q

From anterior to posterior, the normal fibrous planes seen on sonography are:
A) skin, subQ fat, mammary layer, retro mammary layer, pectoralis muscle, chest wall
B) chest wall, pectoralis muscle, retromammary later, mammary layer, subQ fat, skin
C) skin, retromammary layer, subQ fat, mammary layer, pectoralis muscle, chest wall
D) chest wall, retromammary later, subQ fat, mammary layer, pectoralis muscle, skin

A

A) skin, subQ fat, mammary layer, retromammary layer, pectoralis muscle, chest wall

116
Q

Benign diseases will cross fibrosis planes.
A) true
B) false

A

B) false

117
Q

The Fremitus maneuver is helpful in demonstrating ill-defined borders.
A) true
B) false

A

A) true

118
Q

Which is the orientation of a benign tumor?
A) wider than tall
B) long axis parallel to skin
C) horizontally
D) all of the above

A

D) wider than tall, long axis parallel to skin, and horizontally

119
Q

Which is the orientation of a malignant tumor?
A) taller than wide
B) long axis perpendicular to skin
C) vertical
D) all of the above

A

D) taller than wide, long axis perpendicular to skin, and vertical

120
Q

Which artifact most likely represents a benign tumor?
A) acoustic enhancement
B) edge shadowing
C) posterior shadowing
D) both A and B

A

D) acoustic enhancement and edge shadowing

121
Q

Which artifact most likely represents a malignant tumor?
A) acoustic enhancement
B) edge shadowing
C) posterior shadowing
D) both A and B

A

C) posterior shadowing

122
Q

_______ is the extension of a tumor into a duct coursing toward the nipple (single duct.)
A) duct extension
B) branch pattern
C) radial extension
D) both A & C

A

D) duct extension and radial extension

123
Q

_______ is the extension of a tumor into a duct coursing away from a nipple (multiple ducts.)
A) duct extension
B) branch pattern
C) radial extension
D) both B and C

A

D) branch pattern and radial extension

124
Q

What shape or margin is almost exclusively malignant?
A) irregular
B) spiculation
C) ill-defined
D) angular

A

B) spiculation

125
Q

Simple cysts generally occur in women between the ages of _______ and _______.
A) 15-30
B) 30-45
C) 35-50
D) 60-70

A

C) 35-50

126
Q

Cysts are clearly differentiated from solid tumors on mammography.
A) true
B) false

A

B) false

127
Q

Which of the following would not cause an artifact within a simple cyst?
A) improper TGC
B) overall gain too low
C) improper focal position
D) superficial location
E) small cyst size
F) deep location

A

B) overall gain too low

128
Q

What is the most common solid tumor of the breast?
A) fibroadenoma
B) simple cyst
C) lipoma
D) DCIS

A

A) fibroadenoma

129
Q

What is the most common cause of bloody nipple discharge?
A) lipoma
B) intraductal papilloma
C) fibroadenoma
D) PASH

A

B) intraductal papilloma

130
Q

What is the “Swiss cheese” disease?
A) lipoma
B) fibroadenoma
C) juvenile papillomatosis
D) papilloma

A

C) juvenile papillomatosis

131
Q

What is another name for fibroadenolipoma?
A) hamartoma
B) papilloma
C) breast within a breast
D) both A and C

A

D) hamartoma and breast within a breast

132
Q

What is the most common form of mastitis?
A) lactational
B) puerperal
C) periductal
D) both A and B

A

D) lactational and puerperal

133
Q

What type of mastitis is non breast feeding?
A) lactational
B) puerperal
C) non-puerperal
D) both A and B

A

C) non-puerperal

134
Q

Which of the following is NOT a typical sonographic appearance for mastitis?
A) decrease in echogenicity of subcutaneous fat and parenchymal layer
B) shadowing due to cellulitis
C) blurred tissue planes
D) skin thickening
E) possible dilated ducts
F) increase Doppler signal

A

A) decrease in echogenicity of subcutaneous fat and parenchymal layer

135
Q

Which of the following is NOT a typical sonographic appearance of an abscess?
A) complex, predominantly cystic mass
B) thick irregular borders
C) acoustic shadowing
D) localized skin thickening

A

C) acoustic shadowing

136
Q

Which of the following is a type of non lactating mastitis?
A) plasma cell
B) periductal
C) puerperal
D) both A and B

A

D) plasma cell and periductal

137
Q

_______ is bilateral milk discharge from a non-lactating and non-pregnant female.
A) galactocele
B) galactorrhea
C) PASH
D) none of the above

A

B) galactorrhea

138
Q

Which is NOT a type of discharge associated with a tumor?
A) serous
B) serosanguineous
C) milky
D) watery

A

C) milky

139
Q

Serous discharge is what color?
A) clear, yellow
B) clear, pale yellow
C) pink (both serous and bloody fluid)
D) red (bloody)

A

A) clear, yellow

140
Q

Sanguineous discharge is what color?
A) clear, yellow
B) clear, pale yellow
C) pink (both serous and bloody)
D) red (bloody)

A

D) red (bloody)

141
Q

Serosanguineous discharge is what color?
A) clear, yellow
B) clear, pale yellow
C) pink (serous and bloody)
D) red (bloody)

A

C) pink (serous and bloody)

142
Q

Watery discharge is what color?
A) clear, yellow
B) clear, pale yellow
C) pink (serous and bloody)
D) red (bloody)

A

B) clear, pale yellow

143
Q

Fat necrosis is only caused by trauma to the breast.
A) true
B) false

A

B) false

144
Q

Fat necrosis can be found in obese women with fatty, pendulous breasts.
A) true
B) false

A

A) true

145
Q

What type of cysts are often associated with fat necrosis?
A) simple
B) oil
C) complicated
D) complex

A

B) oil

146
Q

_______ is the benign enlargement of a breast lobule due to hyperplasia of the epithelial and stromal tissues.
A) Mondor’s disease
B) PASH
C) radial scar
D) sclerosing adenoids

A

D) sclerosing adenosis

147
Q

_______ is a scar formation caused by ductal epithelium invading surrounding stromal tissue. It may present as spiculated on imaging.
A) Mondor’s disease
B) PASH
C) radial scar
D) sclerosing adenoids

A

C) radial scar

148
Q

_______ is a rare thrombophlebitis of superficial veins of the breast.
A) Mondor’s disease
B) PASH
C) radial scar
D) sclerosing adenosis

A

A) Mondor’s disease

149
Q

One of the following is NOT a cause of Mondor’s disease.
A) blunt trauma to the chest
B) repetitive exercise
C) aspiration or biopsy
D) tuberculosis

A

D) tuberculosis

150
Q

What should be used to best evaluate Mondor’s disease?
A) stand-off pad
B) Doppler
C) harmonics
D) power Doppler

A

A) stand-off pad

151
Q

Precocious puberty is puberty beginning before what age?
A) 10
B) 15
C) 8
D) 9

A

C) 8

152
Q

What is the most common clinical sign of breast cancer?
A) new lump
B) nipple discharge
C) focal pain
D) skin thickening

A

A) new lump

153
Q

_______ of Brest cancers originate in the duct?
A) 25%
B) 30%
C) 45%
D) 90%

A

D) 90%

154
Q

What anatomical unit do most cancers arise from?
A) TDLU
B) stromal tissue
C) Montgomery Glands
D) dermal tissue

A

A) TDLU

155
Q

What is the most common cancer in women?
A) breast
B) lung
C) liver
D) skin

A

A) breast

156
Q

What is the number one leading cause of death due to cancer?
A) breast
B) lung
C) liver
D) skin

A

B) lung

157
Q

_______ in _______ women will develop breast cancer.
A) 1 in 100
B) 1 in 10
C) 1 in 8
D) 1 in 5

A

C) 1 in 8

158
Q

What is the second leading cause of death due to cancer?
A) breast
B) lung
C) liver
D) skin

A

A) breast

159
Q

List these ethnic groups from highway to lowest risk to develop breast cancer:
A) white, Hispanic, Native American, black, Asian
B) Native American, white, Hispanic, black, Asian
C) white, black, Hispanic, Asian, Native American
D) black, white, Hispanic, Asian, Native American

A

C) white, black, Hispanic, Asian, Native American

160
Q

What ethnic group has the highest mortality rate for breast cancer?
A) white
B) black
C) Native American
D) Hispanic

A

B) black

161
Q

What is the most significant factor associated with breast cancer?
A) age
B) gender
C) white ethnicity
D) family history

A

B) gender

162
Q

What is the 2nd most significant factor associated with breast cancer?
A) age
B) gender
C) white ethnicity
D) family history

A

A) age

163
Q

_______ of breast cancers are found in women over the age of 50.
A) 33%
B) 45 %
C) 90%
D) 77%

A

D) 77%

164
Q

_______ of breast cancers are found in women less than 30 y.o.
A) 1%
B) 5%
C) 30%
D) 0.3%

A

B) 5%

165
Q

The BRCA mutation counts for _______ of all breast cancers.
A) 1-5%
B) 5-10%
C) 10-15%
D) 15-20%

A

B) 5-10%

166
Q

Obesity is a risk factor for breast cancer.
A) true
B) false

A

A) true

167
Q

_______ is the most common NON-invasive breast cancer.
A) DCIS
B) LCIS
C) IDC
D) ILC

A

A) DCIS

168
Q

_______ is the 2nd most common type of breast cancer.
A) DCIS
B) LCIS
C) IDC
D) ILC

A

A) DCIS

169
Q

How is DCIS best diagnosed?
A) ultrasound
B) mammography
C) clinically
D) MRI

A

B) mammography

170
Q

What radiography sign is common for DCIS?
A) macrocalcifications
B) microcalcifications
C) spiculated mass
D) asymmetry

A

B) microcalcifications

171
Q

What are the two types of DCIS?
A) non-comedo and comedo
B) non-lactating and lactating
C) non-infiltrating and infiltrating
D) none of the above

A

A) non-comedo and comedo

172
Q

Which of the two types of DCIS aid considered low-grade? high grade?
A) non-lactating; lactating
B) non-infiltrating; infiltrating
C) non-comedo; comedo

A

C) non-comedo; comedo

173
Q

Non-comedo DCIS accounts for _______ of all DCIS.
A) 40%
B) 50%
C) 60%
D) 70%

A

A) 40%

174
Q

Comedo DCIS accounts for _______ of all DCIS.
A) 40%
B) 50%
C) 60%
D) 70%

A

C) 60%

175
Q

LCIS always presents as a palpable mass.
A) true
B) false

A

B) false

176
Q

Microcalcifications are common with LCIS.
A) true
b) false

A

B) false

177
Q

What is the best way to diagnose LCIS?
A) mammography
B) incidental finding
C) MRI
D) sonography

A

B) incidental finding

178
Q

Which of the following is NOT a clinical sign for IDC?
A) palpable mass
B) hard texture
C) mobile
D) skin dimpling/retraction

A

C) mobile

179
Q

What is the most frequently missed breast cancer?
A) DCIS
B) LCIS
C) IDC
D) ILC

A

D) ILC

180
Q

ILC a accounts for _______ of all breast cancers.
A) 5-10%
B) 8-15%
C) 20-25%
D) 0.3%

A

B) 8-15%

181
Q

What cancer is frequently mistaken for a benign fibroadenoma?
A) medullary
B) DCIS
C) phyllodes
D) colloid

A

A) medullary

182
Q

Which carcinoma is most frequently diagnosed in women under the age of 35?
A) medullary
B) DCIS
C) colloid
D) mucinous

A

A) medullary

183
Q

Which tumor contains a gelatin-like substance?
A) medullary
B) colloid
C) mucinous
D) both Band C

A

D) colloid and mucinous

184
Q

Which group of women is most likely diagnosed with papillary carcinoma?
A) pre-menopausal
B) post-menopausal
C) postpartum
D) lactating

A

B) post-menopausal

185
Q

Which disease effects the nipple and areola by forming scaly, crusty, irritated skin?
A) colloid
B) paget’s
C) PASH
D) mastitis

A

B) paget’s

186
Q

Which breast cancer has the peau d’orange clinical sign?
A) paget’s
B) mastitis
C) inflammatory
D) DCIS

A

C) inflammatory

187
Q

_______ 2 or more cancers found within the same ductal system, same quadrant or with 5 cm distance.
A) multi centric
B) multi focal

A

B) multi focal

188
Q

_______ 2 or more cancers found in separate quadrants, in both breasts or greater than 5cm apart.
A) multi centric
B) multi focal

A

A) multi centric

189
Q

What are the 2 most common types of breast cancer in men?
A) DCIS
B) IDC
C) ILC
D) both A and B

A

D) DCIS a and IDC

190
Q

Which carcinoma arises from the stromal or connective tissues?
A) paget’s
B) PASH
C) papillary
D) phyllodes

A

D) phyllodes

191
Q

Which tumor had a “leaf like” appearance?
A) phyllodes
B) papillary
C) paget’s
D) PASH

A

A) phyllodes

192
Q

Which of the following is NOT a way breast cancer is metastasized?
A) lymphatic system
B) bloodstream
C) direct invasion
D) biopsy tract

A

D) biopsy tract

193
Q

What is the most common route for breast cancer to metastasize?
A) lymphatic system
B) bloodstream
C) direct invasion
D) biopsy tract

A

B) bloodstream

194
Q

What is the most common primary carcinoma that metastasizes to the breast?
A) melanoma
B) lymphoma
C) lung
D) ovarian

A

A) melanoma

195
Q

Which of the following in NOT one of the echogentic lines seen along the anterior surface of a normal breast implant?
A) fibrous tissue
B) pectoralis muscle
C) entrance echo of the implant shell
Exiting echo of the implant shell

A

B) pectoralis muscle

196
Q

Speed error is a common artifact with what type of implants?
A) silicone
B) saline

A

A) silicone

197
Q

_______ is a rupture of the implant she’ll but the fibrous capsule remains intact.
A) intracapsular
B) extracapsular

A

A) intracapsular

198
Q

_______ is a rupture of the implant she’ll and the fibrous capsule.
A) intracapsular
B) extracapsular

A

B) extracapsular

199
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A) stepladder sign is seen on sonography; intracapsular
B) linguini sign is seen on MRI; intracapsular
C) snowstorm is seen on sonography; intracapsular

A

C) snowstorm is seen on sonography; intracapsular

200
Q

The transducer should be parallel with the needle during biopsies.
A) true
B) false

A

A) true

Ultrasound Exam (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions