Practice Questions Flashcards
Ainsworth’s contribution to attachment theory was based on the idea that:
Select one:
A.
there are no individual differences in how children respond to the Strange Situation Procedure.
B.
attachment behaviors of children are universal across cultures.
Incorrect
C.
differences in children’s attachment behaviors are the result of interpersonal interaction with caregivers
D.
distressing the infant has a negative effect on the development of healthy attachment patterns.
C
Ainsworth described different patterns in infants and caregivers, with an emphasis on the nature of the interaction between them. The quality of the relationship is central to her explanation of the infant attachment patterns.
Answer A: Ainsworth’s theory is based on the observation of individual differences in the behavior of both infants and caregivers.
Answer B:The influence of culture on attachment was not a focus of Ainsworth’s contribution to attachment theory. Whether attachment patterns are universal has been a subject of controversy. Some studies (e.g. Harwood et al, 1995) have observed differences in families in Japan or on a kibbutz. Behrens (2016, in Developmental Psychology and Culture) provides a review of the issues and concludes that further research is needed.
Answer D: Distressing the infant was a necessary aspect of the procedure for observing the attachment patterns, and was the motive behind creation of the Strange Situation. Since all the infants undergo distress in this procedure, this answer is counter to Ainsworth’s theory.
In the central nervous system ________ is involved in REM sleep, the regulation of the sleep-wake cycle, and learning and memory.
Select one:
A.
acetylcholine
B.
dopamine
Incorrect
C.
norepinephrine
D.
serotonin
A
Acetylcholine is the primary neurotransmitter found in the parasympathetic nervous system. It can be found in all motor neurons where it stimulates muscles to contract. Additionally, acetylcholine plays an important role in mental processes such as memory and cognition. Severe depletion of this transmitter is associated with Alzheimer’s disease.
Answer B: Dopamine is involved in several functions including personality, mood, memory, and sleep. Dopamine is also implicated in the regulation of movement and has been linked to several disorders with prominent motor symptoms including Tourette’s Disorder and Parkinson’s disease.
Answer C: Norepinephrine plays an important role in mood, attention, dreaming, learning, and certain autonomic functions.
Answer D: Serotonin is linked to mood, hunger, temperature regulation, sexual activity, arousal, sleep, aggression, and migraine headache. Elevated levels of serotonin contribute to schizophrenia.
Dr. Hyer, a psychologist who heads the personnel committee at a mental health facility, recommends that a psychologist who has an unresolved charge of sexual harassment against him not be considered for a promotion. In terms of ethical guidelines published by the American and Canadian Psychological Associations, Dr. Hyer _____.
Select one:
A.
has acted ethically since sexual harassment is explicitly prohibited by ethical guidelines
Incorrect
B.
acted ethically as long as he is willing to consider the psychologist for promotion if he is acquitted of the harassment charge
C.
has acted unethically by violating the ethical requirement that psychologists not deny promotions on the basis of pending sexual harassment charges
D.
has acted unprofessionally but has not violated ethical guidelines
C
This is one of the issues that is explicitly addressed by the Ethics Code. Standard 1.08 of the APA’s Ethics Code applies in this situation. It specifically prohibits denying a person employment or promotion “based solely upon their having made or their being the subject of an ethics complaint.” This prohibition does not necessarily, however, preclude such actions when a charge against an individual has been proven. This answer is also most consistent with Principle I.13 of the Canadian Code of Ethics for Psychologists.
Answer A: Unless the charge has been proven, denying promotion or employment under these circumstances is prohibited.
Answer B: This answer does not reflect the position of either the APA’s Ethics Code or the Canadian Code of Ethics.
Answer D: This answer fails to address the ethical issue specific to dealing with allegations that have not been proven.
A shortcoming of nonparametric tests is that they _____.
Select one:
A.
are less likely to detect a false null hypothesis than a parametric test
B.
are heavily influenced by homogeneous samples
C.
are set with a lower alpha than a parametric test
Incorrect
D.
have stronger assumptions regarding homoscedasticity
The correct answer is A.
Because nonparametric tests involve less precise data (i.e., nominal or ordinal data or data that violate assumptions of normality), they are less powerful. As a result, you’re less likely to detect a false null hypothesis with a nonparametric test than a parametric test.
Answer B: This is not a shortcoming of nonparametric tests. Nonparametric tests, such as the chi-square, are used to detect homogeneity so a researcher can make a decision on whether to use a parametric or nonparametric statistical test to analyze the data collected.
Answer C: Although a researcher is less likely to detect a false null hypothesis with a nonparametric test, setting the test with a lower alpha is not required.
Answer D: Assumptions of homoscedasticity are central to linear regression models. Nonparametric tests do not have stronger assumptions of homoscedasticity, but they are able to detect homoscedasticity.
APA may take action against a member after his or her conviction of _______.
Select one:
A.
a crime that was committed when the psychologist was acting in a professional role
B.
misdemeanor or felony
C.
felony
D.
a crime that involves harm to another person regardless of whether it is associated with the psychologist’s professional role
The correct answer is C.
The Ethics Code states, “…APA may take action against a member after his or her conviction of a felony, expulsion or suspension from an affiliated state psychological association, or suspension or loss of licensure.”
Answer A: The APA may take action in the event of a member’s felony conviction regardless of whether it was associated with a psychologist’s private conduct.
Answer B: The APA does not take action in the event of a misdemeanor.
Answer D: This answer is too vague and does not reflect the language contained in the Ethics Code.
A test developer would use Lord’s chi-square in order to:
Select one:
A.
compare the standard error of measurement for two different tests or test items
Incorrect
B.
predict the number of people who are likely to answer a test item correctly
C.
determine whether factors in a factor analysis are orthogonal or oblique
D.
evaluate the differential item functioning of an item included in a test
The correct answer is D.
In the context of item response theory, differential item functioning (DIF) is another name for item bias and is occurring when one group responds differently to an item than another group, even though both groups have similar levels of the latent trait (attribute) measured by the test. Lord’s chi-square is one of several statistical techniques used to evaluate DIF.
Answers A, B, and C: A test developer would use Lord’s chi-square in order to evaluate the differential item functioning of an item included in a test.
If your data analysis involves calculating an “effect size,” you are conducting which of the following?
Select one:
A.
Meta-analysis
B.
Path analysis
C.
Factor analysis
Incorrect
D.
Discriminant analysis
The correct answer is A.
Only one of the statistical techniques listed in the answers involves calculating an effect size, which is a measure of the magnitude of the relationship between two variables (e.g., a treatment and an outcome). Meta-analysis is used to combine the results of multiple studies. For example, a meta-analysis might be conducted to combine the results of several different studies that investigated the effects of cognitive therapy on depression. Use of this technique involves calculating an effect size for each study and then calculating a mean effect size for all of the studies.
Answer B: Path analysis is used to test hypotheses about the causal relationships among three or more variables.
Answer C: Factor analysis is a statistical technique used to reduce a large number of variables into fewer numbers of factors.
Answer D: A discriminant analysis involves using scores on two or more predictors to predict an individual’s membership in a criterion group (i.e., it is used when the criterion is measured on a nominal scale).
Which of the following are required for a DSM diagnosis of Antisocial Personality Disorder?
Select one:
A.
A pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others that began prior to age 15 plus a current age of 16 or older
B.
A pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others that began prior to age 15 plus a current age of 18 or older
Incorrect
C.
A pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others since age 14, a history of Conduct Disorder symptoms prior to age 14, plus a current age of 16 or older
D.
A pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others since age 15, a history of Conduct Disorder symptoms prior to age 15, plus a current age of 18 or older
The correct answer is D.
For the diagnosis of Antisocial Personality Disorder, the DSM requires a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others since age 15 with symptoms of Conduct Disorder prior to age 15 and a current age of 18 years or older.
Answers A, B, & C: While all of these answer choices contain partially accurate information, only choice D lists fully accurate criteria consistent with the DSM.
Spearman argued that performance on any cognitive task depends on:
Select one:
A.
crystallized intelligence and fluid intelligence
Incorrect
B.
convergent or divergent thinking
C.
g plus one or more specific factors unique to the task
D.
three levels of intelligence
The correct answer is C.
Based on his observation that various measures of intelligence correlate to some degree with each other, Spearman (1927) proposed a general intellectual factor (g) and argued that performance on any cognitive task depends on g plus one or more specific factors(s) unique to the task.
Answer A: This response refers to Horn and Cattell’s fluid and crystallized intelligence.
Answer B: This response refers to Guilford’s convergent and divergent thinking.
Answer D: This response refers to Carroll’s three-stratum theory.
The ____________ provides an explanation of IQ variance between siblings.
Select one:
A.
Flynn effect
B.
the Seattle Longitudinal Study
Incorrect
C.
the role of heredity
D.
confluence model
The correct answer is D.
Studies have found that there is a relationship between family size, birth order, and IQ, with children’s IQ scores decreasing from the child that is born first to the child that is born last. Zajonc’s confluence model explains the firstborn child’s advantage in terms of the changing intellectual environment in the family: In contrast to their younger siblings, firstborns do not initially have to share their parents’ attention, are exposed to more adult language, and are more likely to act as “tutors” for their brothers and sisters.
Answer A: The Flynn effect refers to the observed rise in intelligence over time in standardized intelligence test scores.
Answer B: The Seattle Longitudinal Study resulted in the findings that, at any given time, younger people are better educated than older people and are more likely to have had experiences (e.g., better nutrition and health care) that tend to increase scores on intelligence tests.
Answer C: The impact of heredity on intelligence can be expressed in terms of a heritability estimate, which indicates the proportion of variability in intelligence that is due to inherited factors versus the environment.
Social judgment theory is a theory that describes:
Select one:
A.
intelligence
B.
attitude change
C.
how stereotypes form
D.
equity in relationships
Sherif’s (1961) social judgment theory relates to attitude change, and suggests that persuasion is dependent on the extent to which the persuasive message differs from the position or attitude of the person receiving the message.
Answers A, C, and D: Social judgment theory is a theory about attitude change.
Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder is more common in males than in females among those aged:
Select one:
A.
8 to 12
B.
21 to 26
Incorrect
C.
35 to 40
D.
60 to 65
The correct answer is A.
The rates of OCD for males and females are about equal among adolescents and adults. However, because the onset of the disorder is earlier for males than for females, OCD is more prevalent among male children than female children.
Answers B, C, and D: Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder is more common in males than in females among those aged 8-12 years of age.
Sleeping immediately after studying on the night before your 8:00 a.m. exam would help minimize the effects of which of the following on your ability to recall information during the exam?
Select one:
A.
Cue-dependent forgetting
B.
Trace decay
Incorrect
C.
Retroactive interference
D.
Proactive interference
The correct answer is C.
Retroactive interference occurs when recently learned information interferes with the ability to recall previously learned information. Sleeping between learning information and being tested on that information would eliminate retroactive interference.
Answer A: Cue-dependent forgetting refers to the inability to recall information due to inadequate retrieval cues.
Answer B: Trace decay theory predicts that memory traces fade over time.
Answer D: Proactive interference occurs when previously learned information interferes with the ability to recall more recently learned information.
The DSM-5 provides three tools to help clinicians consider and understand the importance of cultural diagnosing and planning treatment. This tool set includes all of the following except:
Select one:
A.
the Cultural Formulation Interview
Incorrect
B.
Cultural concepts of distress
C.
Cultural measures of distress
D.
the Outline for Cultural Formulation
The correct answer is C.
The DSM-5 provides three tools to help clinicians consider and understand the impact of a client’s cultural background on diagnosis and treatment: the Outline for Cultural Formulation, the Cultural Formulation Interview, and Cultural concepts of distress. Cultural measures of distress is a made up term.
Answer A: The Cultural Formulation Interview (CFI) is a semi-structured interview consisting of 16 questions designed to obtain information on the client’s views regarding the social/cultural context of his/her presenting problems.
Answer B:The DSM-5 defines cultural concepts of distress as the “ways that cultural groups experience, understand, and communicate suffering, behavioral problems, or troubling thoughts and emotions.
Answer D: The Outline for Cultural Formulation provides guidelines for assessing four factors: the client’s cultural identity; the client’s cultural conceptualization of distress; the psychosocial stressors and cultural factors that impact the client’s vulnerability and resilience; and cultural factors relevant to the relationship between the client and therapist.
The primary goal of interpersonal therapy is:
Select one:
A.
symptom reduction
B.
solutions to problems
C.
to facilitate behavior change
D.
to enhance the client’s intrinsic motivation
The correct answer is A.
Interpersonal therapy focuses on current social relationships and its primary goals are symptom reduction and improved interpersonal functioning.
Answer B: Solution-focused therapists believe that understanding the etiology of problem (maladaptive) behavior is irrelevant and focus, instead, on solutions to problems.
Answer C: The transtheoretical model focuses on factors that facilitate behavior change.
Answer D: The primary goal of motivational interviewing is to enhance the client’s intrinsic motivation to alter his/her behavior by helping the client examine and resolve his/her ambivalence about changing.
A working mother who has been reassured by her husband and friends many times that she is a “great mother” states that she is a “terrible mother” after she forgets to wash her daughter’s baseball uniform the night before an important game. Aaron Beck would consider the mother’s conclusion to be an example of which of the following?
Select one:
A.
Personalization
B.
Arbitrary inference
C.
Selective abstraction
D.
Dichotomous thinking
The correct answer is B.
All four answer choices are terms that Beck describes as cognitive distortions. Arbitrary interference involves drawing a specific conclusion without supporting evidence or in the face of contradictory evidence.
Answer A: Personalization occurs when a person attributes external events to him/herself without evidence supporting such a causal connection.
Answer C: Selective abstraction occurs when a person interprets a situation on the basis of a single detail taken out of context (e.g., a jealous husband thinks his wife is having an affair with the neighbor when he sees her pat the neighbor on the back).
Answer D: Dichotomous thinking involves categorizing an experience in terms of one of two extremes (e.g., “If I do this, everything will be perfect; if I don’t, everything will be terrible”).
All of the following interventions are recommended for stuttering except:
Select one:
A.
using exposure to reduce fear of verbal communication
B.
reducing psychological stress at home
C.
removing pressures to communicate verbally
Incorrect
D.
habit reversal training
The correct answer is A.
Stuttering is clinically diagnosed as Childhood-Onset Fluency Disorder. While exposure therapy is typically regarded as one of the most effective treatments for phobias, research has not supported the effectiveness of such treatment with the alleviation of stuttering. Rather, it has been found that the symptoms of this disorder become worse when there is special pressure to communicate.
Answer B: This has been found to be one of the most effective interventions for reducing stuttering among children.
Answer C: This is recommended as symptoms often worsen when such conditions are present.
Answer D: This is recommended for older children and adults who continue to struggle with stuttering.
Group polarization has occurred when:
Select one:
A.
group members are split in their solution to a problem
Incorrect
B.
group members make riskier decisions as a group than they would have as individuals
C.
group members make either riskier or more conservative decisions as a group than they would have as individuals
D.
group members are encouraged to think alike and all dissent is discouraged
The correct answer is C.
Group polarization refers to the tendency for a group’s decision to be more extreme (polarized) that the decisions that individual members would have made alone. This is an accurate description of group polarization.
Answer A: This is not an accurate description of group polarization.
Answer B: This describes the “risky shift” phenomenon.
Answer D: This sounds more like groupthink.
An assumption underlying item response theory is that the standard error of measurement:
Select one:
A.
is larger for shorter tests than for longer tests
B.
is larger for examinees with average ability
C.
is larger for examinees with very high or very low ability
D.
is not affected by the test length or the ability level of the examinees
The correct answer is C.
Item response theory (IRT) differs from classical test theory in terms of several assumptions. Classical test theory is based on the assumption that the standard error of measurement is a constant that applies to all examinees, regardless of their level of ability. In contrast, IRT is based on the assumption that the standard error of measurement (SEM) increases at the extremes of a distribution - i.e., the SEM is larger for individuals with very high or low ability than for those with average ability. See R. J. Gregory, Psychological testing: History, principles, and applications, Boston, Pearson Education Group, 2004.
Answers A, B, and D: An assumption underlying item response theory is that the standard error of measurement is larger for examinees with very high or very low ability.
: Pope et al. (1993) found that which therapists were more likely to engage in sexual relationships with their clients?
Select one:
A.
Male therapists ages 30-32
Incorrect
B.
Female therapists ages 30-32
C.
Male therapists ages 42-44
D.
Female therapists ages 42-44.
The correct answer is C.
Pope et al.’s study found that male therapists were more likely to engage in sexual relationships with their clients than female therapists. Knowing this should help you narrow down your answer from the available choices. The average age for these male therapists who engaged in a sexual relationship was 42-44. Typically, the female client was younger and between the ages of 30 and 33.
Answer A: This answer is incorrect, because older male therapists were more likely to engage in a sexual relationship with their client.
Answer B: This answer is incorrect. Male therapists were reported as more likely to pursue a sexual relationship with a client.
Answer D: This answer is incorrect. It could be ruled out by knowing that male therapists were more likely than female therapists to pursue a relationship with a client.
Which of the following aspects of the central nervous system is least well-developed at birth?
Select one:
A.
Diencephalon
B.
Midbrain
C.
Cerebral cortex
D.
Cerebellum
The correct answer is C.
The brain develops both before and after birth in an orderly sequence. At birth, the infant’s brain is about one-fourth the size of an adult brain. The cortex is not well-developed at birth, which suggests that newborn behaviors are primarily reflexive (i.e., mediated by the lower centers of the brain). Some areas of the cortex (e.g., those involved in problem-solving, self-concept, and planning) do not fully develop until adolescence or early adulthood.
Answer A: The diencephalon consists of the thalamus and hypothalamus and is sufficiently well-developed at birth to allow for critical functions that are necessary for life.
Answer B: Like the diencephalon, the midbrain is relatively well-developed at birth.
Answer D: The cerebellum is involved in motor coordination, and the motor areas of the brain develop prior to the areas governing the higher cognitive functions.
Cluster analysis would be most useful for _____.
Select one:
A.
developing a classification scheme for individuals with various combinations of depressive symptoms
B.
testing causal hypotheses about the factors that underlie the development of depression
C.
identifying the optimal combination of tests to use to predict an individual’s risk for developing major depressive disorder
Incorrect
D.
systematically recording behavioral data while observing individuals with depressive symptoms
The correct answer is A.
Cluster analysis is used to “cluster” or categorize individuals and can be either exploratory or confirmatory. In the first case, the goal is to identify clusters of people or other variables; in the latter, the goal is to confirm a pre-existing classification scheme. Of the situations described in the answers, this one is best suited for cluster analysis, which is useful for confirming or developing a classification scheme.
Answer B: Structural equation modeling is a multivariate technique used to test causal hypotheses about the relationships among a set of factors.
Answer C: Cluster analysis would not be useful for this purpose.
Answer D: This is a data collection method used to record behavioral observations, whereas, cluster analysis is a type of statistical analysis and is not used to record behavioral observations.
You saw a family in therapy for several months but they terminated when the husband and wife decided to get a divorce. Now, two months later, you are being asked to conduct an evaluation of the husband for a custody hearing. Your best course of action is to:
Select one:
A.
do so but avoid making a recommendation without evaluating all members of the family
B.
do so only with the consent of both parents
C.
do so only if you believe you can remain unbiased
D.
not conduct the evaluation
The correct answer is D.
This issue is addressed by ethical guidelines that require psychologists to avoid multiple relationships. This issue is addressed, for example, in Guideline 7 of the Guidelines for Child Custody Evaluations in Family Law Proceedings, which states that “psychologists strive to avoid conflicts of interest and multiple relationships in conducting evaluations.”
Answers A, B, C: While these options are not definitively unethical, considering the potential for bias, the most ethical choice would be to forego conducting the evaluation altogether.
According to Hersey and Blanchard’s (1974) situational leadership model, a ________ leader is most effective for an employee who is low in ability and high in motivation.
Select one:
A.
telling
B.
selling
C.
delegating
D.
participating
The correct answer is B.
Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership model distinguishes between the four leadership styles listed in the answers to this question and proposes that the best style is the one that matches the employee’s ability and motivation. A selling leader is best for employees who are low in ability but high in motivation.
Answer A: A telling leader is best for employees who are low in both ability and motivation.
Answer C: A delegating leader is best for employees who are high in both ability and motivation.
Answer D: A participating leader is best for employees who are high in ability but low in motivation.
The idea of a “midlife crisis”:
Select one:
A.
has not been supported by recent longitudinal studies
B.
was observed by Levinson across genders
C.
is countered by evidence that middle-aged samples have low rates of depression
D.
was first proposed by Erickson (as the central idea in Erickson’s description of the stagnation of middle adulthood)
The correct answer is A.
Recent longitudinal studies have shown that life satisfaction appears to be stable through midlife, a finding that counters the idea of a midlife crisis (see Galambos, Fang, Krahn, Johnson and Lachman, 2015 in Developmental Psychology).
Answer B: Levinson’s sample was exclusively male, making this answer false.
Answer C: Rates of depression and serious psychological distress are highest in midlife. See Brody, Pratt & Hughes, 2018, National Center for Health Statistics Brief No. 303).
Answer D: Erickson’s idea of generativity refers to a drive to leave a legacy that will outlast the individual. It emphasizes having an effect on others, rather than the egocentric behavior described by a midlife crisis.
Which item is not a requirement for determining test appropriateness?
Select one:
A.
Examiner qualifications
B.
Examinee characteristics
C.
Test edition
D.
Test characteristics
The correct answer is C.
Factors to consider when evaluating the appropriateness of a psychological test for a particular examinee or situation include the qualifications of the examiner and characteristics of the examinee and the test. While test edition should be considered, as test characteristics are updated with each new edition, this is not the BEST answer.
Answer A: Examiner qualifications are required considerations for determining test appropriateness.
Answer B: Examinee characteristics are required considerations for determining test appropriateness.
Answer D: Test characteristics are required considerations for determining test appropriateness.
Older adults often experience an advanced sleep phase which means that they:
Select one:
A.
have trouble falling asleep at night and wake up later in the morning.
B.
get sleepier in the evening and wake up earlier in the morning.
C.
begin a sleep period with REM (versus non-REM) sleep.
Incorrect
D.
begin a sleep period with Stage 3 sleep.
The correct answer is B.
Sleep patterns vary with age. Older adults experience an advanced sleep phase, which refers to a shift in the timing of sleep that involves getting sleepier earlier in the evening and waking up earlier in the morning.
Answer A: Although some older adults have difficulty falling asleep, the advanced sleep phase referred to in the question is a timing shift which involves waking up earlier in the morning.
Answer C: REM sleep is stage 5 in the sleep cycle, and individuals must go through the first four stages of non-REM sleep until they reach REM sleep.
Answer D: Individuals progress through the stages of the sleep cycle in sequential order, although they may spend more or less time in each stage.
Who was among the first researchers to propose the existence of a neural circuit that mediates the experience and expression of emotion?
Select one:
A.
Sperry
Incorrect
B.
Fechner
C.
Papez
D.
Penfield
The correct answer is C.
Papez concluded that destruction of certain interconnected regions in the brain has an adverse impact on emotional experience and expression. These regions include the mammillary bodies, anterior thalamus, cingulate cortex, hippocampus, and fornix. The circuit referred to in this question is known as Papez’s circuit.
Answer A: Sperry conducted research on split-brain patients.
Answer B: Fechner developed Fechner’s Law, which is one of several laws used to explain the relationship between sensation and perception.
Answer D: Penfield found that stimulation of certain brain areas produced certain movements, while stimulation of other areas produced certain sensations.
In a research study, participants were given vague descriptions of themselves that were supposedly based on their handwriting analysis. Actually, all participants had received the same randomly derived description. When asked about the accuracy of the description, most participants agreed that it was “highly accurate.” These results support the predictions of which of the following:
Select one:
A.
self-serving bias
Incorrect
B.
looking-glass self
C.
Barnum effect
D.
Zeigarnik effect
The correct answer is C.
The “Barnum effect” predicts that people tend to accept vague or general descriptions of themselves as accurate descriptions. It has been used to explain why people believe that astrological predictions or descriptions are accurate.
Answer A: The self-serving bias is the tendency to take credit for our successes but blame external events for our failures.
Answer B: The looking-glass self predicts that people learn about themselves by imagining how others perceive them.
Answer D: The Zeigarnik effect refers to the tendency to recall goals or tasks that have not been completed more readily (often automatically and in an intrusive way) than those that have been completed.
Leon Festinger’s (1954) social comparison theory centers on the idea that there is a need among people to establish:
Select one:
A.
accurate self-evaluations
B.
enlightenment
C.
self-actualization
D.
social connection
The correct answer is A.
Festinger’s (1954) social comparison theory centers on the ideas that people have a need to have accurate self-evaluations. We evaluate our beliefs and abilities by comparing them to others, thus enhancing certainty in these areas.
Answers B, C, and D: These answers do not reflect the essence of social comparison theory.
Dr. Huang is a psychology professor who maintains an active private practice. Her doctoral students appreciate the fact that Dr. Huang uses timely examples from her practice to illustrate clinical content she teaches. Dr. Huang is careful to provide pseudonyms that mask the identity of her patients in class. Dr. Huang has acted _______________.
Select one:
A.
ethically, given she does not reveal the identity of her patients
Incorrect
B.
unethically, because faculty should not use real-life examples of patients in their classroom instruction
C.
ethically, provided she does not use examples in her undergraduate courses, thereby limiting the sharing of patient information in doctoral courses
D.
unethically; masking patient names is not sufficient
The correct answer is D.
Standard 4.07 prohibits psychologists from using confidential, information about their clients unless they have taken reasonable steps to remove all personally identifiable information. Simply using a pseudonym is not sufficient, when other details have not been changed.
Answer A: Simply using a different name for the client is not sufficient to mask their identity.
Answer B: Faculty may use examples if they sufficiently protect a client’s identity or obtain client permission.
Answer C: Psychologists must protect their client’s confidentiality and mask their identity regardless of whether they are teaching undergraduate or doctoral students.
Damage to the right hippocampus is most likely to cause:
Select one:
A.
deficits in spatial memory
B.
psychic blindness
C.
interruption of the normal sleep-wake cycle
D.
deficits in procedural memory
The correct answer is A.
The hippocampus is vital to learning and memory. The right hippocampus is involved in memory for nonverbal information, including spatial and temporal memory. For example, in a study of cabdrivers, PET scans revealed that the right hippocampus was responsible for the drivers’ ability to form and recall complex routes.
Answer B: Psychic blindness is a symptom of Kluver-Bucy syndrome, which is caused by damage to the amygdala and temporal lobes.
Answer C: Research has not linked the hippocampus to the sleep-wake cycle. The reticular activating system regulates arousal and sleep-wake transitions.
Answer D: The hippocampus plays a role in declarative memory but does not appear to be responsible for the formation of procedural memories.
A psychologist has found to have violated the APA Ethics Code. In this instance, they are __________.
Select one:
A.
legally liable in a court action
B.
legally liable only when the violation involves breach of contract
Incorrect
C.
legally liable in both court actions and in cases where there is breach of contract
D.
not automatically liable for court actions or breach of contract
The correct answer is D.
The APA Ethics Code states, “Whether a psychologist has violated the Ethics Code standards does not by itself determine whether the psychologist is legally liable in a court action, whether a contract is enforceable, or whether other legal consequences occur.”
Answer A: A psychologist who violates ethical standards is not automatically legally liable in court.
Answer B: A psychologist who violates ethical standards is not automatically legally liable in the event of contract breach.
Answer C: This answer is incorrect. Legal liability does not automatically stem from ethical violations.
According to Elkind, adolescent egocentrism can be broken down into two types of social thinking: the personal fable and the _____.
Select one:
A.
invulnerability aspect
B.
imaginary audience
Correct
C.
imposter phenomenon
D.
renewed egocentrism
The correct answer is B.
Imaginary audience is the belief that one is always the center of attention or that all eyes are on them.
Answer A: The invulnerability aspect is one of the sub-characteristics of the personal fable with the other being feelings of uniqueness.
Answer C: The imposter phenomena occurs in high achievers who have difficulty internalizing and accepting their success. They often attribute their accomplishments to luck rather than to ability.
Answer D: Renewed egocentrism marks the beginning of adolescence and the formal operational stage. This is where the adolescent turns their focus inward on themselves and their experience.
The view that depression is the result of exposure to an aversive event, coupled with the tendency to attribute negative events to personal, global, and stable factors, is consistent with:
Select one:
A.
the reformulated learned helplessness model
Correct
B.
the fundamental attribution bias
C.
the behavioral model
D.
Rehm’s self-control model
The correct answer is A.
Abramson et al.’s (1978) reformulated version of the learned helplessness model added attributions for negative events to the original model. According to the reformulated version, people who are depressed tend to blame themselves for negative events, believe that negative events will always happen to them, and think that negativity will affect all aspects of their lives.
Answer B: The fundamental attribution bias refers to the tendency to attribute the behavior of others to dispositional factors.
Answer C: Lewinsohn’s (1974) behavioral model is based on operant conditioning and focuses on the consequence of behavior. Lewinsohn described depression as being primarily the result of a low rate of response-contingent reinforcement.
Answer D: Rehm’s self-control model views depression as being the result of problems related to self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement.
An individual presents to the emergency room for evaluation and is experiencing difficulty recognizing family members, demonstrates anterograde memory impairments for new faces, and impairments in interpreting facial expressions. The individual’s visual perception is within normal limits, they have intact attention and language abilities, and substance use is ruled out. Which of the following conditions best describes the individual’s presentation?
Select one:
A.
Anterograde amnesia
Incorrect
B.
Prosopagnosia
C.
Agnosia
D.
Anosognosia
The correct answer is B.
Prosopagnosia is a condition in which individuals experience difficulty with recognizing a familiar face, processing facial expressions, and learning new faces. They experience both retrograde and anterograde problems with respect to facial recognition despite normal visual perception.
Answer A: Anterograde amnesia is the loss of ability to form new memories. An individual with this condition will forget new information, events, and people. Although individuals with prosopagnosia experience anterograde memory impairments with respect to new people, they have intact abilities to form new memories.
Answer C: Agnosia is a general term for the loss of ability to recognize a specific stimulus such as objects, people, smells, etc. Given the answer choices, prosopagnosia is the better answer as it specifically addresses the individual’s presentation.
Answer D: Anosognosia describes an individual’s lack of insight or awareness of their disability or the nature of their own illness.
A person with anosognosia will:
Select one:
A.
be unable to recognize parts of her own body
Incorrect
B.
be unable to recognize familiar faces
C.
deny the paralysis in her left leg
D.
report an area of blindness in her left visual field
The correct answer is C.
Anosognosia is one of several types of agnosia. All agnosias are characterized by a failure of recognition that is NOT due to a sensory deficit or verbal or intellectual impairment. Anosognosia involves a failure to recognize one’s own neurological symptoms (e.g., paralysis). It often accompanies asomatognosia.
Answer A: This is called asomatognosia and is due to damage to the somatosensory cortex. It usually involves the left side of the body.
Answer B: Prosopagnosia is the inability to recognize familiar faces.
Answer D: This is called a scotoma and is due to damage to the primary visual cortex.
According to ____________, symbolic play offers young children opportunities to engage in activities that are developmentally more advanced than they could successfully perform in reality on their own.
Select one:
A.
J. H. Flavell
B.
E. Gibson
C.
L. Vygotsky
D.
J. Piaget
The correct answer is C.
Symbolic (make-believe) play refers to play in which one object represents another (e.g., a doll represents a baby). For Vygotsky, symbolic play provides a “zone of proximal development” that enables a child to practice behaviors in a situation that requires less precision and accuracy than would be required in reality.
Answer A: Flavell is probably best known for his research on children’s ability to distinguish between appearance and reality.
Answer B: Eleanor and James Gibson are best known for their research on perceptual development in infants.
Answer D: Piaget viewed symbolic play as an opportunity to practice representational schemes.
Cultural idioms of distress are:
Select one:
A.
the explanatory models that members of a culture use to explain the meaning and causes of symptoms, illness, and distress
Incorrect
B.
clusters of symptoms and attributions that co-occur among individuals from a particular culture and are recognized by members of that culture as coherent patterns of experience
C.
phrases used by members of different cultures to express distress and provide shared ways for talking about personal and social concerns
D.
ways that cultural groups experience, understand, and communicate suffering, behavioral problems, or troubling thoughts and emotions
The correct answer is C.
Cultural idioms of distress are used by members of different cultures to express distress and provide shared ways for talking about personal and social concerns.
Answer A: This is the definition of cultural explanations.
Answer B: This is the definition of cultural syndromes.
Answer D: This is the definition of cultural concepts of distress.
Cultural idioms of distress are:
Select one:
A.
the explanatory models that members of a culture use to explain the meaning and causes of symptoms, illness, and distress
Incorrect
B.
clusters of symptoms and attributions that co-occur among individuals from a particular culture and are recognized by members of that culture as coherent patterns of experience
C.
phrases used by members of different cultures to express distress and provide shared ways for talking about personal and social concerns
D.
ways that cultural groups experience, understand, and communicate suffering, behavioral problems, or troubling thoughts and emotions
The correct answer is C.
Cultural idioms of distress are used by members of different cultures to express distress and provide shared ways for talking about personal and social concerns.
Answer A: This is the definition of cultural explanations.
Answer B: This is the definition of cultural syndromes.
Answer D: This is the definition of cultural concepts of distress.
Which situation is most likely to be informed by the Tarasoff decision?
Select one:
A.
A client says his brother talks about killing his neighbor.
B.
A client confesses to you he killed a co-worker 8 years ago.
Incorrect
C.
A client says she is thinking about overdosing on pills.
D.
A client tells you he is thinking of poisoning his brother.
The correct answer is D.
The Tarasoff decision refers to a psychologist’s duty to protect an intended victim. If a client says he is thinking of poisoning his brother, the psychologist should act to protect the brother.
Answer A: This answer is incorrect. Tarasoff does not apply in this case.
Answer B: Tarasoff does not apply to past situations.
Answer C: Tarasoff does not apply to self-harm or suicide cases.
Reaction range refers to:
Select one:
A.
confluence of genotype and environmental influence
B.
the degree to which an individual seeks experience consistent with their genotype
C.
the degree to which environment can determine expression of a genetic trait
D.
the relative importance of the different types of genotype-environment changes
The correct answer is C.
The degree to which the environment can determine the expression of a genetic trait is called the reaction range. Genes set the boundaries within which traits can operate, and the environment interacts with the genes to determine where in that range the trait is expressed.
Answer A: A confluence of genotype and environmental influence is called a passive-genotype environment correlation. For example, parents pass on genotypes to their children, as well as provide home environments that correlate with their genotypes. A child’s temperament may be a result of both of these influences.
Answer B: When an individual seeks experience consistent with their genotype, this is called niche-picking. For example, a child with an extroverted orientation may seek out social experiences that encourage that behavior.
Answer D: Reaction range refers to the degree to which an individual seeks experience consistent with their genotype.
Coprolalia involves:
Select one:
A.
repeating other’s vocalizations
B.
mimicking others movements
Incorrect
C.
mimicking other’s facial expressions
D.
repeating socially undesirable words
The correct answer is D.
Coprolalia involves repeating socially undesirable words.
Answer A: This is the definition of echolalia.
Answer B: This defines echokinesis.
Answer C: This does not describe coprolalia.
When an action potential occurs, a state of:
Select one:
A.
depolarization is created as negatively charged ions enter the cell.
B.
depolarization is created as positively charged ions enter the cell.
C.
polarization is created as negatively charged ions enter the cell.
Incorrect
D.
polarization is created as positively charged ions enter the cell.
The correct answer is B.
An action potential is the electrical impulse that travels through a neuron. An action potential is generated by the movement of positively charged sodium ions into the cell, which creates a state of depolarization (i.e., the interior of the cell becomes less negative).
Answer A: An action potential is generated by the movement of positively charged ions, not negatively charged ions.
Answers C & D: An actional potential involves a state of depolarization, or the loss of resting potential, not polarization.
When developing an achievement test, it is important to keep in mind that an average difficulty index of ____ will help ensure that scores on the test are normally distributed and that discrimination between examinees with high and low ability will be maximized.
Select one:
A.
“1.0”
Incorrect
B.
“0.50”
C.
“0.10”
D.
“0”
The correct answer is B.
The item difficulty index ranges from 0 (which occurs when no one answers the item correctly) to 1.0 (which occurs when everyone answers the item correctly). An item difficulty level of .50 indicates an item of moderate difficulty because 50% of examinees in the sample answer the item correctly. For most tests, an average item difficulty of .50 is preferred because it helps scores on the test to be normally distributed and to discriminate between examinees with high and low ability.
Answer A: An item’s difficulty index of 1.0 means that 100% of examinees answer the item correctly. This means that the scores on the test will not be normally distributed and there will not be a discrimination between learners with high and low ability.
Answer B: An item difficulty level of .10 indicates a difficult item, because only 10% of examinees answer the item correctly. This also means that the scores on the test will not be normally distributed and there will not be a discrimination between learners with high and low ability.
Answer D: An item difficulty level of 0 means that no examinees answer this item correct, and would therefore lead to scores that are not distributed normally and would not discriminate among examinees’ ability level.
When a psychologist encounters a conflict between ethical and legal requirements, psychologists should resolve it in a way that _______________.
Select one:
A.
preserves the ethical foundations of the profession
Incorrect
B.
is in keeping with basic principles of human rights
C.
adheres to legal standards
D.
is in keeping with accepted practices
The correct answer is B.
In the Introduction of the APA Ethics Code, psychologists are advised that when there is a conflict between ethical and legal requirements, psychologists must resolve it in a way that is “in keeping with basic principles of human rights.”
Answer A: This answer is incorrect as it is incomplete. It is important to understand that the code advises psychologists to weigh human rights when faced with a conflict between ethical and legal responsibilities.
Answer C: This answer is incorrect. It fails to include language specific to the Ethics Code.
Answer D: This answer is too vague.
Which of the following would most likely maximize the magnitude of a test’s reliability coefficient?
Select one:
A.
Increase the length of the test and increase the homogeneity of the examinees with regard to the attribute measured by the test
B.
Decrease the length of the test and increase the homogeneity of the examinees with regard to the attribute measured by the test
Incorrect
C.
Increase the length of the test and increase the heterogeneity of the examinees with regard to the attribute measured by the test
D.
Decrease the length of the test and increase the heterogeneity of the examinees with regard to the attribute measured by the test
The correct answer is C.
Longer tests tend to be more reliable (assuming that the added items are similar in terms of quality and content to the original items). In addition, the reliability coefficient (like all correlation coefficients) is larger when the range of scores is unrestricted, which occurs when examinees are heterogeneous with regard to the attribute being measured by the test.
Answers A, B, and D: Increasing the length of a test and increasing the heterogeneity of the examinees with regard to the attribute measured by a test will most likely maximize the magnitude of a test’s reliability coefficient.
When a therapist overlooks a client’s career difficulties because the client is going through a divorce, this is referred to as:
Select one:
A.
diagnostic overshadowing
B.
career overshadowing
C.
vocational overshadowing
D.
diagnostic overlooking
The correct answer is C.
Vocational overshadowing occurs when a professional overlooks a client’s vocational problems because the client has a co-existing personal problem.
Answer A: Diagnostic overshadowing was originally used to describe the tendency of health professionals to attribute all of a person’s psychiatric symptoms to his or her intellectual disabilities.
Answer B: This is a “made up” term.
Answer D: Diagnostic overlooking is not an actual clinical term.
Damage to the postcentral gyrus is most likely to impair which of the following?
Select one:
A.
sense of touch
B.
motor coordination
Incorrect
C.
vision
D.
executive cognitive functions
The correct answer is A.
The postcentral gyrus contains the primary somatosensory cortex, which mediates touch and other skin and muscle sensations for the contralateral (opposite) side of the body.
Answer B: The cerebellum is involved in motor coordination.
Answer C: The occipital lobe contains the visual cortex, which is responsible for visual perception, recognition, and memory.
Answer D: The prefrontal cortex is involved in executive cognitive functions.
Echokinesis involves:
Select one:
A.
imitating someone else’s movements
B.
repeating the sounds someone else makes
C.
repeating socially undesirable words
D.
imitating the sounds and movements that other’s make
The correct answer is A.
Echokinesis involves imitating someone else’s movements.
Answer B: This sounds more like echolalia.
Answer C: This defines Coprolalia.
Answer D: Echokinesis does not involve mimicking sound.
Due to improved treatments for acute lymphocytic leukemia, at least 50% of children with this condition now have a normal life expectancy. Research investigating the cognitive impact of treatments for this disorder - that is, CNS chemotherapy and irradiation - has found that:
Select one:
A.
CNS chemotherapy and irradiation are both associated with neurocognitive deficits.
B.
CNS chemotherapy is associated with neurocognitive deficits but irradiation is not.
C.
CNS irradiation is associated with neurocognitive deficits but chemotherapy is not.
D.
any apparent negative impact of either treatment on neurocognitive functioning is actually due to the disease.
The correct answer is A.
The research in this area is not entirely consistent, but it does appear that CNS chemotherapy and irradiation treatments for children with cancer do have some negative effects on their cognitive functioning, especially in terms of academic performance. [See, e.g., R. T. Brown and A. Madan-Sevain, Cognitive, neuropsychological, and academic sequelae in children with leukemia, Journal of Learning Disabilities, 26(2), 74-90, 1993.].
Answer B: Research does not show that CNS chemotherapy is associated with neurocognitive deficits but irradiation is not. See explanation for answer A.
Answer C: Research does not show that CNS irradiation is associated with neurocognitive deficits but chemotherapy is not. See explanation for answer A.
Answer D: Research does not show that any apparent negative impact of either treatment on neurocognitive functioning is actually due to the disease. See explanation for answer A.
