Practice Questions Flashcards
(186 cards)
A 3-year old, indoor-only, male castrated Maine Coon cat is presented to you for acute-onset of hindlimb pain and paresis. Physical examination reveals a grade III left parasternal heart murmur and minimal movement in the hind legs. Femoral pulses are bilaterally absent, and the hindlimb toes are cold to the touch. The cat is tachypenic, but lung sounds are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Tetanus
B) Lymphoma of the spinal cord
C) Chlorpyrifos toxicity
D) Thrombus at the aortic bifurcation (saddle thrombus)
E) T3-L3 intervertebral disc disease
D) Thrombus at the aortic bifurcation (saddle thrombus)
Maine Coon cats are predisposed to development of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy at a young age. Consequently, left atrial enlargement predisposes to atrial thrombus formation, and these clots frequently lodge in the arterial supply to the hindlimbs. The trifurcation is where the aorta divides into the two external iliac arteries and the common origin of the internal iliac arteries. Classic findings due to a clot at the aortic trifurcation include posterior paresis/paralysis, hindlimb pain, cyanotic nailbeds, absent femoral pulses, and a firm leg musculature. Other signs of cardiac disease/failure (murmur or pulmonary edema) are often but not always evident at presentation.
Neither cord lesions, tetanus, nor toxicities should cause the vascular compromise evident on this cat’s physical exam.
When performing a subtotal colectomy on a feline patient, what blood vessel limits the amount of colon that you are able to remove?
A) Caudal mesenteric artery
B) Pudendal artery
C) Left colic artery
D) leocolic artery
ileocolic artery. The site for colonic resection is limited by tension on the ileocolic artery when trying to suture your new end of colon to the rectum. Sometimes the tension is too great and instead of a colocolic anastomosis, an ileocolic anastomosis must be performed. Essentially you are trying to connect a section of ascending colon to the rectum. Now that can be pretty far! Performing an ileocolic anastomosis is not ideal because you eliminate the ileocecal valve, and that may predispose the animal to bacterial overgrowth. The caudal mesenteric artery gives branches to the rectum and descending colon. The left colic artery also feeds the descending colon. The pudendal artery supplies the external genitalia. The ileocolic artery provides blood supply to the ascending and transverse colon.
4 year old mare has bilateral swelling and drainage of the mandibular lymph nodes. Rectal temperature is 101.8F (38.8 C). Which of the following is the most appropriate plan for this horse?
A) Culture the discharge for bacteria
B) Administer penicillin
C) Inform the state veterinarian
D) Administer corticosteroids
culture the discharge for bacteria. The most likely diagnosis for this horse is equine strangles. Strangles most commonly affects younger horses (<5 years of age), but can cause disease in any age horse. The etiologic agent of this disease is Streptococcus equi subsp. equi. Currently, the diagnostic test of choice to confirm equine strangles is bacterial culture, but recently there is a trend towards PCR testing on guttural pouch samples. While awaiting test results, the horse should be separated from any other horses, as strangles is highly contagious to other horses. Antibiotic therapy is controversial and thought to lengthen the course of disease rather than shorten it when given at this stage; also, it may possibly interfere with the natural immunity acquired from natural infection. Don’t forget to report positive cases of S. equi to the state veterinarian! As of March 2020, S.equi is a monitorable disease in the United States, meaning individual veterinary practitioners are not mandated to report Strangles to the USDA/APHIS. State veterinarians and laboratories include S. equi cases as part of their monthly disease reports to APHIS.
An eight-month-old male intact German shepherd dog is presented for poor weight gain, chronic diarrhea, and polyphagia.
Fasting serum trypsin-like immunoreactivity (TLI) measurement is <2.0 µgL (Normal = 5.7-45.2 µg/L).
What is the most likely cause of this dog’s clinical signs?
A - Inflammatory bowel disease
B - Acinar cell atrophy
C - Pituitary dwarfism
D - Acute pancreatitis
E - Small intestinal bacterial overgrowth
B - Acinar cell atrophy
Retained placenta and metritis can predispose to which one of the following secondary conditions in horses?
A - Contagious equine metritis
B - Laminitis
C - Postpartum dysgalactia syndrome
D - Colic
E - Cystic endometriosis
B - Laminitis
Under what conditions is a very sensitive test used?
A - Lethal disease; highly prevalent disease
B - Zoonoses; untreatable diseases
C - Rare disease; early diagnosis improves prognosis
D - Common disease; infectious diseases
E - Treatment does not affect prognosis; non-infectious diseases
E - Treatment does not affect prognosis; non-infectious diseases
When a foal is being treated with erythromycin (for Rhodococcus equi, for example), the mare is at risk of developing enterocolitis due to which one of the following organisms?
A - Clostridioides difficile (formerly Clostridium difficile)
B - Clostridium novyi
C - Rhodococcus equi
D - Escherichia coli
E - Lawsonia intracellularis (a.k.a. proliferative enteropathy)
A - Clostridioides difficile (formerly Clostridium difficile)
Damage to which tissues can cause increases in serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT) levels in dogs and cats?
A - Pancreas and intestine
B - Spleen and adrenals
C - Liver and muscle
D - Heart and kidneys
E - Red blood cells and brain
C - Liver and muscle
A stray dog is presented after being hit by a car.
The dog has hypotonic forelimbs and spastic paresis in the hinds. All four limbs have proprioceptive deficits and sensation loss-signs are worse in the forelimbs.
Where is the lesion?
A - Cervicothoracic: C6-T2
B - Cranial cervical: C1-C5
C - Cannot say without cutaneous trunci reflex results
D - Thoracolumbar T3-L3
E - Lumbosacral L4-S3
E - Lumbosacral L4-S3
One description of a typical heart sound is “lub-dub.”
What makes the first heart sound (S1) (i.e., the “lub”)?
A - Aortic and pulmonic valves shut and the mitral and tricuspid valves open
B - Atrial contraction
C - Closure of atrioventricular valves, opening of semilunar valves
D - End of rapid ventricular filling period
E - Rapid atrial and auricular expansion due to cranial and caudal vena cavae contraction
A - Aortic and pulmonic valves shut and the mitral and tricuspid valves open
A five-year-old female spayed Cocker Spaniel is presented with a drooping right ear and lip and drooling.
There is ptosis OD (right eye) but the remainder of the physical exam is unremarkable. She is otherwise bright, alert, and responsive.
What anatomic structure is damaged?
A - Facial nerve
B - Trigeminal nerve
C - Left side inner ear
D - Right side cranial cervical ganglion
E - Left side medulla, motor tract
A - Facial nerve
A one-year-old female spayed German Shepherd is presented for a two-week history of lameness.
Although the dog limps on the right foreleg as it enters the exam room, the owner reports that the dog was lame on the left hindleg last week.
On physical exam, the dog reacts painfully on palpation of the long bones of the right foreleg.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Value Normal
99.8°F (37.7°C) 99.5-102.5°F (37.2-39.2°C)
HR=100 bpm 80-120
RR=24 brpm 15-34
A - Osteosarcoma
B - Hypertrophic osteodystrophy
C - Panosteitis
D - Multiple cartilaginous exostoses
E - Hypertrophic osteopathy
C - Panosteitis
A six-year-old male neutered Yorkshire terrier is presented for routine examination. The owner has no current concerns.
Exam reveals a grade 3/6 left-sided systolic heart murmur. Pulse quality is strong and synchronous and there are no other abnormalities.
What is the most likely cause of the heart murmur?
A - Physiologic
B - Patent ductus arteriosus
C - Carnitine-deficient dilated cardiomyopathy
D - Aortic stenosis
E - Myxomatous mitral valve disease
E - Myxomatous mitral valve disease
A one-year-old female llama is presented with hyperkeratosis around the nose and mouth.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A - Dorsal nasal alopecia
B - Wry face
C - Dermatophilosis
D - Zinc-responsive dermatosis
E - Munge
E - Munge
Which canine parasite can cause cutaneous larva migrans in people?
A - Habronema spp.
B - Trichostrongylus spp.
C - Ancylostoma spp.
D - Spirocerca sp.
E - Trichuris spp.
C - Ancylostoma spp.
A female veterinarian is pregnant and her physician tests her serologically for toxoplasmosis.
IgM is negative.
IgG is positive.
What is the most appropriate interpretation?
A - Mother is safe, baby at risk
B - Both mother and baby are safe
C - Both mother and baby at risk
D - Mother at risk, baby is safe
E - Need to re-check in 2 weeks for rising titers
B - Both mother and baby are safe
Causes birth defect when bother is infected for the first time in her life while pregnant
During examination of a newborn male cria, adhesions between the free end of the penis and the prepuce are evident.
What is the most likely explanation?
A - Secondary to stress in utero, 5th month
B - Common congenital malformation of preputial ring, associated with phimosis
C - Normal finding
D - Failure of separation of preputial diverticulum
E - Sequella of hypospadias; Heritable
Normal findings in crias
A two-day-old calf has a GGT level of 500 times the adult upper reference range.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely interpretation?
A - Associated with neonatal cholestasis
B - Related to bone development
C - Caused by traumatic placental detachment
D - Suggestive of a congenital liver shunt
E - Due to colostrum absorption
E - Due to colostrum absorption
What recommendation should be given to the owner of a mare that has had Caslick’s vulvoplasty surgery?
A - Mare has a decreased risk for perineal laceration
B - Mare has a higher than normal risk for metritis
C - Mare should not be bred by a stallion
D - Higher risk of uterine torsion
E - Mare will need an episiotomy before foaling
E - Mare will need an episiotomy before foaling
When a sow is giving birth, what is the shortest time interval between passage of piglets that indicates dystocia?
A - 2 hours
B - 15 minutes
C - 4 hours
D - 1/2 hour
E - 1 hour
E - 1 hour
Which diseases are associated with a high anion gap (AG)?
A - Prostatic adenocarcinoma, pleural effusion, lymphangiectasia
B - Hypercalcemia of malignancy, hypoadrenocorticism, displaced abomasum
C - Eosinophilic enteritis, hypothyroidism, gastrinoma
D - Grain overload, ethylene glycol toxicity, renal failure
E - Diabetes mellitus, pancreatitis, chronic diarrhea
D - Grain overload, ethylene glycol toxicity, renal failure
What is the earliest stage post-breeding that an experienced practitioner can reliably rectally palpate fremitus in the uterine artery of the gravid uterine horn in a pregnant cow?
A - 60-75 days
B - 70-80 days
C - 90 -120 days
D - 120-150 days
E - 45-60 days
D - 120-150 days
A three-year-old white rat is presented with yellowing fur and a brownish, granular sebaceous secretion at the base of affected hair shafts.
What should the owner be told?
A - Normal age-related change
B - Common manifestation of chorioptic mange
C - Probable ringworm, resolves spontaneously with sunlight exposure
D - Staph dermatitis, responsive to antiseptic shampoo
E - Moisture-related dermatitis, cage needs more frequent cleaning
A - Normal age-related change
A six-year-old male neutered Doberman pinscher is presented for a one-week history of coughing, depression, and exercise intolerance.
Exam reveals tachycardia with an irregularly irregular heart rhythm and pulse deficits.
Once the dog is stabilized which initial diagnostic step is most appropriate?
A - Abdominal focused assessment with sonography for triage, trauma, and tracking rapid (AFAST) for hemoabdomen
B - CBC to identify anemia
C - Thoracic radiographs to evaluate for congestive heart failure
D - Ultrasound for pericardial effusion
E - Bronchoscopy for airway assessment
C - Thoracic radiographs to evaluate for congestive heart failure