Practice Questions Flashcards
A 3-year old, indoor-only, male castrated Maine Coon cat is presented to you for acute-onset of hindlimb pain and paresis. Physical examination reveals a grade III left parasternal heart murmur and minimal movement in the hind legs. Femoral pulses are bilaterally absent, and the hindlimb toes are cold to the touch. The cat is tachypenic, but lung sounds are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Tetanus
B) Lymphoma of the spinal cord
C) Chlorpyrifos toxicity
D) Thrombus at the aortic bifurcation (saddle thrombus)
E) T3-L3 intervertebral disc disease
D) Thrombus at the aortic bifurcation (saddle thrombus)
Maine Coon cats are predisposed to development of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy at a young age. Consequently, left atrial enlargement predisposes to atrial thrombus formation, and these clots frequently lodge in the arterial supply to the hindlimbs. The trifurcation is where the aorta divides into the two external iliac arteries and the common origin of the internal iliac arteries. Classic findings due to a clot at the aortic trifurcation include posterior paresis/paralysis, hindlimb pain, cyanotic nailbeds, absent femoral pulses, and a firm leg musculature. Other signs of cardiac disease/failure (murmur or pulmonary edema) are often but not always evident at presentation.
Neither cord lesions, tetanus, nor toxicities should cause the vascular compromise evident on this cat’s physical exam.
When performing a subtotal colectomy on a feline patient, what blood vessel limits the amount of colon that you are able to remove?
A) Caudal mesenteric artery
B) Pudendal artery
C) Left colic artery
D) leocolic artery
ileocolic artery. The site for colonic resection is limited by tension on the ileocolic artery when trying to suture your new end of colon to the rectum. Sometimes the tension is too great and instead of a colocolic anastomosis, an ileocolic anastomosis must be performed. Essentially you are trying to connect a section of ascending colon to the rectum. Now that can be pretty far! Performing an ileocolic anastomosis is not ideal because you eliminate the ileocecal valve, and that may predispose the animal to bacterial overgrowth. The caudal mesenteric artery gives branches to the rectum and descending colon. The left colic artery also feeds the descending colon. The pudendal artery supplies the external genitalia. The ileocolic artery provides blood supply to the ascending and transverse colon.
4 year old mare has bilateral swelling and drainage of the mandibular lymph nodes. Rectal temperature is 101.8F (38.8 C). Which of the following is the most appropriate plan for this horse?
A) Culture the discharge for bacteria
B) Administer penicillin
C) Inform the state veterinarian
D) Administer corticosteroids
culture the discharge for bacteria. The most likely diagnosis for this horse is equine strangles. Strangles most commonly affects younger horses (<5 years of age), but can cause disease in any age horse. The etiologic agent of this disease is Streptococcus equi subsp. equi. Currently, the diagnostic test of choice to confirm equine strangles is bacterial culture, but recently there is a trend towards PCR testing on guttural pouch samples. While awaiting test results, the horse should be separated from any other horses, as strangles is highly contagious to other horses. Antibiotic therapy is controversial and thought to lengthen the course of disease rather than shorten it when given at this stage; also, it may possibly interfere with the natural immunity acquired from natural infection. Don’t forget to report positive cases of S. equi to the state veterinarian! As of March 2020, S.equi is a monitorable disease in the United States, meaning individual veterinary practitioners are not mandated to report Strangles to the USDA/APHIS. State veterinarians and laboratories include S. equi cases as part of their monthly disease reports to APHIS.
An eight-month-old male intact German shepherd dog is presented for poor weight gain, chronic diarrhea, and polyphagia.
Fasting serum trypsin-like immunoreactivity (TLI) measurement is <2.0 µgL (Normal = 5.7-45.2 µg/L).
What is the most likely cause of this dog’s clinical signs?
A - Inflammatory bowel disease
B - Acinar cell atrophy
C - Pituitary dwarfism
D - Acute pancreatitis
E - Small intestinal bacterial overgrowth
B - Acinar cell atrophy
Retained placenta and metritis can predispose to which one of the following secondary conditions in horses?
A - Contagious equine metritis
B - Laminitis
C - Postpartum dysgalactia syndrome
D - Colic
E - Cystic endometriosis
B - Laminitis
Under what conditions is a very sensitive test used?
A - Lethal disease; highly prevalent disease
B - Zoonoses; untreatable diseases
C - Rare disease; early diagnosis improves prognosis
D - Common disease; infectious diseases
E - Treatment does not affect prognosis; non-infectious diseases
E - Treatment does not affect prognosis; non-infectious diseases
When a foal is being treated with erythromycin (for Rhodococcus equi, for example), the mare is at risk of developing enterocolitis due to which one of the following organisms?
A - Clostridioides difficile (formerly Clostridium difficile)
B - Clostridium novyi
C - Rhodococcus equi
D - Escherichia coli
E - Lawsonia intracellularis (a.k.a. proliferative enteropathy)
A - Clostridioides difficile (formerly Clostridium difficile)
Damage to which tissues can cause increases in serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT) levels in dogs and cats?
A - Pancreas and intestine
B - Spleen and adrenals
C - Liver and muscle
D - Heart and kidneys
E - Red blood cells and brain
C - Liver and muscle
A stray dog is presented after being hit by a car.
The dog has hypotonic forelimbs and spastic paresis in the hinds. All four limbs have proprioceptive deficits and sensation loss-signs are worse in the forelimbs.
Where is the lesion?
A - Cervicothoracic: C6-T2
B - Cranial cervical: C1-C5
C - Cannot say without cutaneous trunci reflex results
D - Thoracolumbar T3-L3
E - Lumbosacral L4-S3
E - Lumbosacral L4-S3
One description of a typical heart sound is “lub-dub.”
What makes the first heart sound (S1) (i.e., the “lub”)?
A - Aortic and pulmonic valves shut and the mitral and tricuspid valves open
B - Atrial contraction
C - Closure of atrioventricular valves, opening of semilunar valves
D - End of rapid ventricular filling period
E - Rapid atrial and auricular expansion due to cranial and caudal vena cavae contraction
A - Aortic and pulmonic valves shut and the mitral and tricuspid valves open
A five-year-old female spayed Cocker Spaniel is presented with a drooping right ear and lip and drooling.
There is ptosis OD (right eye) but the remainder of the physical exam is unremarkable. She is otherwise bright, alert, and responsive.
What anatomic structure is damaged?
A - Facial nerve
B - Trigeminal nerve
C - Left side inner ear
D - Right side cranial cervical ganglion
E - Left side medulla, motor tract
A - Facial nerve
A one-year-old female spayed German Shepherd is presented for a two-week history of lameness.
Although the dog limps on the right foreleg as it enters the exam room, the owner reports that the dog was lame on the left hindleg last week.
On physical exam, the dog reacts painfully on palpation of the long bones of the right foreleg.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Value Normal
99.8°F (37.7°C) 99.5-102.5°F (37.2-39.2°C)
HR=100 bpm 80-120
RR=24 brpm 15-34
A - Osteosarcoma
B - Hypertrophic osteodystrophy
C - Panosteitis
D - Multiple cartilaginous exostoses
E - Hypertrophic osteopathy
C - Panosteitis
A six-year-old male neutered Yorkshire terrier is presented for routine examination. The owner has no current concerns.
Exam reveals a grade 3/6 left-sided systolic heart murmur. Pulse quality is strong and synchronous and there are no other abnormalities.
What is the most likely cause of the heart murmur?
A - Physiologic
B - Patent ductus arteriosus
C - Carnitine-deficient dilated cardiomyopathy
D - Aortic stenosis
E - Myxomatous mitral valve disease
E - Myxomatous mitral valve disease
A one-year-old female llama is presented with hyperkeratosis around the nose and mouth.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A - Dorsal nasal alopecia
B - Wry face
C - Dermatophilosis
D - Zinc-responsive dermatosis
E - Munge
E - Munge
Which canine parasite can cause cutaneous larva migrans in people?
A - Habronema spp.
B - Trichostrongylus spp.
C - Ancylostoma spp.
D - Spirocerca sp.
E - Trichuris spp.
C - Ancylostoma spp.
A female veterinarian is pregnant and her physician tests her serologically for toxoplasmosis.
IgM is negative.
IgG is positive.
What is the most appropriate interpretation?
A - Mother is safe, baby at risk
B - Both mother and baby are safe
C - Both mother and baby at risk
D - Mother at risk, baby is safe
E - Need to re-check in 2 weeks for rising titers
B - Both mother and baby are safe
Causes birth defect when bother is infected for the first time in her life while pregnant
During examination of a newborn male cria, adhesions between the free end of the penis and the prepuce are evident.
What is the most likely explanation?
A - Secondary to stress in utero, 5th month
B - Common congenital malformation of preputial ring, associated with phimosis
C - Normal finding
D - Failure of separation of preputial diverticulum
E - Sequella of hypospadias; Heritable
Normal findings in crias
A two-day-old calf has a GGT level of 500 times the adult upper reference range.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely interpretation?
A - Associated with neonatal cholestasis
B - Related to bone development
C - Caused by traumatic placental detachment
D - Suggestive of a congenital liver shunt
E - Due to colostrum absorption
E - Due to colostrum absorption
What recommendation should be given to the owner of a mare that has had Caslick’s vulvoplasty surgery?
A - Mare has a decreased risk for perineal laceration
B - Mare has a higher than normal risk for metritis
C - Mare should not be bred by a stallion
D - Higher risk of uterine torsion
E - Mare will need an episiotomy before foaling
E - Mare will need an episiotomy before foaling
When a sow is giving birth, what is the shortest time interval between passage of piglets that indicates dystocia?
A - 2 hours
B - 15 minutes
C - 4 hours
D - 1/2 hour
E - 1 hour
E - 1 hour
Which diseases are associated with a high anion gap (AG)?
A - Prostatic adenocarcinoma, pleural effusion, lymphangiectasia
B - Hypercalcemia of malignancy, hypoadrenocorticism, displaced abomasum
C - Eosinophilic enteritis, hypothyroidism, gastrinoma
D - Grain overload, ethylene glycol toxicity, renal failure
E - Diabetes mellitus, pancreatitis, chronic diarrhea
D - Grain overload, ethylene glycol toxicity, renal failure
What is the earliest stage post-breeding that an experienced practitioner can reliably rectally palpate fremitus in the uterine artery of the gravid uterine horn in a pregnant cow?
A - 60-75 days
B - 70-80 days
C - 90 -120 days
D - 120-150 days
E - 45-60 days
D - 120-150 days
A three-year-old white rat is presented with yellowing fur and a brownish, granular sebaceous secretion at the base of affected hair shafts.
What should the owner be told?
A - Normal age-related change
B - Common manifestation of chorioptic mange
C - Probable ringworm, resolves spontaneously with sunlight exposure
D - Staph dermatitis, responsive to antiseptic shampoo
E - Moisture-related dermatitis, cage needs more frequent cleaning
A - Normal age-related change
A six-year-old male neutered Doberman pinscher is presented for a one-week history of coughing, depression, and exercise intolerance.
Exam reveals tachycardia with an irregularly irregular heart rhythm and pulse deficits.
Once the dog is stabilized which initial diagnostic step is most appropriate?
A - Abdominal focused assessment with sonography for triage, trauma, and tracking rapid (AFAST) for hemoabdomen
B - CBC to identify anemia
C - Thoracic radiographs to evaluate for congestive heart failure
D - Ultrasound for pericardial effusion
E - Bronchoscopy for airway assessment
C - Thoracic radiographs to evaluate for congestive heart failure
Several litters of 2 to 3 day old pigs have recently died rapidly with hemorrhagic enteritis. Post mortem lesions include mucosal hemorrhage, necrosis and emphysema in the small intestines. What pathogen is most likely to cause these signs?
A) Enterotoxigenic E. coli
B) Clostridium perfringens type C
C) Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
D) Glaesserella parasuis
E) Salmonella choleraesuis
B) Clostridium perfringens type C
Closure of the eyes is mediated by cranial nerve ____ and opening the eyes is mediated by CN ____.
A) III, VII
B) VII, V
C) V, VII
D) V, III
E) VII, III
E) VII, III
When performing a subtotal colectomy on a feline patient, what blood vessel limits the amount of colon that you are able to remove?
A) Ileocolic artery
B) Pudendal artery
C) Caudal mesenteric artery
D) Left colic artery
A) Ileocolic artery
A 4 year old mare has bilateral swelling and drainage of the mandibular lymph nodes. Rectal temperature is 101.8F (38.8 C). Which of the following is the most appropriate plan for this horse?
A) Culture the discharge for bacteria
B) Inform the state veterinarian
C) Administer penicillin
D) Administer corticosteroids
A) Culture the discharge for bacteria
A 3-year old, indoor-only, male castrated Maine Coon cat is presented to you for acute-onset of hindlimb pain and paresis. Physical examination reveals a grade III left parasternal heart murmur and minimal movement in the hind legs. Femoral pulses are bilaterally absent, and the hindlimb toes are cold to the touch. The cat is tachypenic, but lung sounds are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Chlorpyrifos toxicity
B) T3-L3 intervertebral disc disease
C) Tetanus
D) Thrombus at the aortic bifurcation (saddle thrombus)
E) Lymphoma of the spinal cord
D) Thrombus at the aortic bifurcation (saddle thrombus)
A horse is suspected of having the muscle disease rhabdomyolysis, and you are seeking a laboratory test to help confirm the diagnosis. Of the following, which test would likely be the most helpful?
A) Gamma glutamyl transferase (GGT)
B) Creatine kinase (CK)
C) Anion gap
D) Ionized phosphate
E) Sorbitol dehydrogenase (SDH)
B) Creatine kinase (CK)
A 4-year old female spayed mixed Chihuahua presented to the emergency service at approximately 5am this morning after presumptively being attacked by a coyote. The patient has a flail chest and it is questionable if there is direct communication between the thoracic cavity and the environment (it was difficult to examine the dog due to her fractious nature). Exploration of the wound was performed, and once anesthetized, it was apparent she had a pneumothorax. The patient must be ventilated, as there is no vacuum present in the chest for lung expansion to occur. What pressure should the anesthetist not exceed if manually bagging the patient during anesthesia?
A) 12cm H2O
B) 20cm H2O
C) 24cm H2O
D) 8cm H2O
B) 20cm H20
Pressures above 20cm H20 may result in barotrauma. In an otherwise healthy patient it is not recommended to exceed this pressure. In patients with chronic atelectasis, anesthetists will be much more apprehensive about over ventilating or ventilating the lungs too quickly, as acute expansion can trigger re-expansion pulmonary edema, which may then lead to acute respiratory distress syndrome and death.
Which of these is the most common cause of seizures in the adult ferret?
A) Hypocalcemia
B) Idiopathic epilepsy
C) Intracranial neoplasia
D) Hepatic encephalopathy
E) Hypoglycemia
E) Hypoglycemia
The correct answer is hypoglycemia. Hypoglycemia secondary to insulinoma is the most common cause of seizures in the adult ferret. Keep in mind, a prolonged seizure can actually cause hypoglycemia, so the finding of low blood glucose in a seizuring ferret does not necessarily confirm a diagnosis of insulinoma. Idiopathic epilepsy has not been reported in ferrets. Hypocalcemia and hepatic encephalopathy can cause seizures, but are not as commonly reported as hypoglycemia.
A client calls and says her cat was chewing on her lily plant two days ago and is now acting very sick. You tell her to bring the cat in immediately so that you can perform which of the following?
A) BUN and creatinine levels
B) ALT, AST, GGT, and total bilirubin levels
C) Induce emesis and administer activated charcoal
D) Abdominal radiographs to diagnose intestinal obstruction
A) BUN and creatinine levels
Lily plant toxicosis is extremely serious and can cause rapid and fatal acute renal failure in cats. If ingestion is suspected, decontamination and aggressive fluid therapy, and monitoring of renal values are recommended immediately.
In this case, since 2 days have passed, inducing emesis and administering activated charcoal would not be helpful. What you can do is check renal values (BUN and creatinine) and treat for acute renal failure.
Ruling out an intestinal obstruction in a cat with this history is reasonable but not the best of the choices given.
A 2-year old female DSH cat presents for weight loss, anorexia, dyspnea, and lethargy. She was previously treated with antibiotics but is still febrile on physical exam. You detect pleural effusion and notice that the abdomen is distended. On CBC there is a non-regenerative anemia, neutrophilia, and lymphopenia. On chemistry there is hyperproteinemia and a slight elevation in liver enzymes. What is your primary differential?
A) Feline leukemia virus
B) Feline infectious peritonitis
C) Feline calicivirus
D) Feline immunodeficiency virus
The correct answer is FIP. This poor cat is infected with the dreaded wet form of feline infectious peritonitis. Good job if you nailed it!
If you think about the pathogenesis of the virus, then these clinical signs make a lot of sense. With FIP, the classical lesion is pyogranulomatous vasculitis due to antigen-antibody complexes depositing in the venular endothelium, which results in pleural and peritoneal effusion. The CBC findings are common for FIP but not too specific. In greater than 50% of cats with the wet form of FIP, there will be hyperproteinemia. In greater than 70% of cats with the dry form of FIP there is hyperproteinemia.
A horse presents to you for chronic, recurrent laminitis and skin disease. You notice on your exam that the horse has a particularly thick, long, wavy, and matted coat. The owner mentioned that this developed many months ago. What is a likely diagnosis?
A) Hypothyroidism
B) Pheochromocytoma
C) Cushing’s disease (Pituitary Pars Intermedia Dysfunction)
D) Diabetes insipidus
The correct answer is Cushing’s disease. The coat condition described is what horses with glucocorticoid excess develop; it is referred to as hirsutism. They will also be predisposed to infections including laminitis and skin diseases such as Dermatophilus. They are also frequently polyuric, polydipsic, and polyphagic.
You are asked to examine some feeder pigs that have stopped eating yesterday. The group is lying down and seems lethargic. They have fevers of 105-106F (40.6 -41.1 C), firm dry feces, and the skin has rhomboid-shaped red blotches scattered on it. What treatment should be recommended?
A) Gentamicin
B) Penicillin
C) Metronidazole
D) Streptomycin
E) Chloramphenicol
Erysipelas is susceptible to penicillins, as well as tetracyclines (usually), lincomycin and tylosin. Chloramphenicol and nitroimidazoles (including metronidazole) are not approved for food animal use.
A 4-year old male Manx cat presents to you because the owners found an empty, opened pill vial in the bathroom and the cat vomited. On physical exam, you note ptyalism and facial edema. The cat’s mucous membranes are pale and slightly icteric. You perform a blood smear and detect Heinz bodies in erythrocytes. The cat’s packed cell volume (PCV) is 26% (30-45%). The owners provide you a list of the medications in the medicine cabinet which are acetaminophen (Tylenol), finasteride (Propecia), enalapril (Vasotec), and omeprazole (Prilosec).
What treatments should you institute for this cat?
A) Acetylcysteine and S-adenosylmethionine
B) Emesis and methylene blue
C) Prednisone and amoxicillin
D) Activated charcoal and whole blood transfusion
A) Acetylcysteine and S-adenosylmethionine
Acetaminophen toxicity in cats usually occurs when owners administer the drug, unaware of its significant potential toxicity in cats. In this case, the cat’s clinical signs are most consistent with acetaminophen toxicity based on the Heinz body anemia that is present. Cats can die from oxidative damage and methemoglobinemia within 1-2 days of ingestion. It may also be associated with hepatotoxicity in cats, although this is seen more frequently in dogs.
Recall that cats are particularly sensitive to acetaminophen because they have decreased glucuronyl transferase activity which conjugates acetaminophen to glucuronic acid for excretion. As a result, 50-60 mg (a single tablet) may be fatal for a 4-5 kg cat.
Treatment should consist of toxin removal if possible by inducing emesis in some cases. As the cat in this case is already vomiting, this may not be necessary. Activated charcoal is controversial and should only be given if ingestion occurred within hours and should be administered very carefully in cats due to the risk of aspiration.
The specific antidote is acetylcysteine which binds to some of the reactive metabolites of acetaminophen and increases the availability and synthesis of glutathione. Other treatments may include S-Adenosylmethionine (SAMe) which has hepatoprotective and antioxidant properties. Cimetidine can be given to inhibit the p450 oxidase in the liver and limit formation of toxic metabolites. Ascorbic acid can also be used as an adjunct treatment to bind toxic metabolites. In cats with signs of hypoxemia from severe hemolytic anemia (PCV <20%), a transfusion and further supportive care may be warranted.
What is the potential udder fate of goats infected with caprine arthritis encephalomyelitis virus?
A) Hardbag
B) Bluebag
C) Gangrene
D) The udder is not affected
A) Hardbag
CAEV is a retrovirus and when it affects the udder it will cause fibrosis and result in a firm udder with agalactia. Treatment is ineffective and the goat should be culled. The disease is usually subclinical but can cause arthritis in adults and encephalitis in kids.
A pregnant mare was brought out to your barn for observation in anticipation of parturition. After several hours of restless behavior, several gallons of allantoic fluid rush out from the vulva. Which of the following would you expect to happen next for a normal parturition?
A) The red, velvety, chorioallantoic membrane emerges from the vulva
B) The hind legs of the foal emerge from the vulva
C) The thin, white, glistening amniotic membrane emerges from the vulva
D) The placenta is expelled from the vulva
C) The thin, white, glistening amniotic membrane emerges from the vulva
This case description is consistent with stage I of labor in the horse. The first stage of foaling typically lasts 30 minutes to 4 hours. During this stage, mares act restless and may exhibit signs similar to colic such as flank watching, pawing, and constantly getting up and down. When the chorioallantois ruptures (“water breaks”), there may be several gallons of allantoic fluid that come out. Usually, within about 5 minutes, the second stage of labor begins and the foals feet and nose appear at the vulva, covered in the white, thin, glistening amnion. If a red, velvety, membrane is seen, this is the chorioallantois which indicates premature placental separation which can impair oxygen delivery to the fetus and can result in death of the foal. Usually, the muzzle will emerge from the amnion by the time the foal’s hips pass through the pelvis but if not, the amnion can be gently broken and removed. Usually, the umbilical cord breaks naturally when the mare stands or foal begins to rise. Then, within 30 minutes to 3 hours after foaling, the placenta should be expelled.
A 2-year old male neutered cat presents to you depressed, hypersalivating, and ataxic with muscle tremors. The owner reports that a pyrethrin-based spot-on formulation for flea control belonging to their Golden Retriever was accidentally applied on the cat earlier today. Which of the following drugs will you use to treat the cat’s clinical signs?
A) 2-PAM
B) Methocarbamol
C) Acepromazine
D) Amoxicillin
E) Atropine
B) Methocarbamol
Pyrethrins alter the activity of the sodium ion channels of nerves, which prolongs the period of sodium conductance. This increases the length of depolarization resulting in repetitive nerve firing. Cats are particularly sensitive to pyrethrin-containing products and can develop clinical signs within hours after administration. Affected animals should be bathed to remove remaining product. Minor clinical signs such as hypersalivation and ear twitching are usually self-limiting and do not require treatment. Control of marked tremors or seizures can be achieved with methocarbamol (Robaxin).
What is the primary mode of transmission of West Nile Virus (WNV) between birds?
A) Via feces
B) Via saliva
C) Via Cnemidocoptes mites
D) Via mosquitoes
E) Via placenta
Mosquito vectors are the primary mode of transmission for WNV between birds and other hosts (horses, humans). There are infrequent documented cases of the disease being spread by feces or saliva. No mites have been documented to transmit the disease. Birds do not have a placenta.
A 4-year old female ferret presents with a history of an enlarged vulva and truncal alopecia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Hypothyroidism
B) Sertoli cell tumor
C) Insulinoma
D) Adrenal tumor
D) Adrenal tumor
The correct answer is adrenal tumor. These tumors are very common in middle-aged ferrets and usually secrete estradiol. Common clinical signs are hair loss, enlarged vulva, pruritus, and behavior changes. Diagnosis is made by clinical signs, ultrasound, and measurement of serum estradiol levels. Treatment is adrenalectomy.
A 2-year old male castrated mixed breed dog presents for an altered gait after being hit by a car. On physical exam, the thoracic limbs had decreased biceps and triceps reflexes and decreased muscle tone. The pelvic limbs had hyper-reflexive patellar and gastrocnemius reflexes and increased muscle tone. Where is the spinal cord lesion?
A) C6-T2
B) L4-S3
C) T3-L3
D) C1-C5
The correct answer is C6-T2. In a dog, the spinal cord is divided into the four regions listed above. Upper motor neuron signs include hyper-reflexia of spinal reflexes and increased muscle tone. Lower motor neuron signs include decreased or absent spinal reflexes and decreased muscle tone. A lesion between the C6-T2 spinal cord segments would result in lower motor neuron signs in the thoracic limbs and upper motor neuron signs in the pelvic limbs, as described in the patient in the question.
A lesion between C1-C5 spinal cord segments would manifest as upper motor neuron signs in the thoracic and pelvic limbs. Lesions between T3-L3 spinal cord segments would not affect the thoracic limbs, but would manifest as upper motor neuron signs in the pelvic limbs. Lesions between L4-S3 spinal cord segments would result in normal thoracic limbs and lower motor neuron signs in the pelvic limbs.
In September in the Southeastern U.S., a two-year-old Angus heifer died the previous night. She had a three-week history of poor appetite, unthriftiness, and diarrhea.
Several other younger cows in this herd also look unthrifty and have diarrhea. The cattle are vaccinated yearly and dewormed twice a year with pour-on moxidectin.
Necropsy reveals that the abomasum is edematous and covered in small umbilicated nodules, 1-2 mm in diameter (cobblestone appearance).
What is the most correct action to take next?
A - Treat affected cows with 2 classes of dewormer
B - Vaccinate against Clostridium perfringens C and D with a multivalent bacterin
C - Medicate for liver flukes
D - Provide free-choice monensin and thiamine-supplemented feed
E - Provide loose trace mineral salt to the entire group
A - Treat affected cows with 2 classes of dewormer
Type II ostertagiasis
Pentobarbital is the principal active ingredient in euthanasia solutions.
What is the mechanism of action for pentobarbital to cause death?
A - Oxygen depletion
B - CNS depression
C - Liver failure
D - Cardiac arrest
E - Severe, rapid drop in blood pressure
B - CNS depression
A 5-year old male castrated Mastiff presents for left pelvic limb lameness. The medial aspects of both stifles are thickened. Manipulation of the left stifle reveals cranial motion of the tibia relative to the femur and a clicking sound from the joint on flexion and extension. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Left cranial cruciate ligament rupture with no meniscal cartilage tear
B) Left caudal cruciate ligament rupture with no meniscal cartilage tear
C) Left cranial cruciate ligament rupture with meniscal cartilage tear
D) Left luxating patella
C) Left cranial cruciate ligament rupture with meniscal cartilage tear
The correct answer is left cranial cruciate ligament rupture with meniscal cartilage tear. The cranial motion of the tibia and medial thickening of the joint (also known as medial buttress) is consistent with the commonly torn cranial cruciate ligament. The clicking heard on flexion and extension is consistent with damaged medial meniscus cartilage found in the stifle.
You see an 8-month old kitten with the effusive form of feline infectious peritonitis and perform euthanasia. The kitten was having severe diarrhea around the house when it became ill. The owner has a 2 year old cat at home and wants to know what this cat’s prognosis is since it has been exposed to the sick kitten. Currently this cat is clinically healthy. What do you tell her?
A) Feline infectious peritonitis is not contagious and because her other cat died of FIP does not mean this cat will succumb to the disease
B) Place the cat on L-lysine to prevent or suppress any infection with FIP
C) You recommend a coronavirus titer to determine it the cat is actively infected
Perform a PCR on the cat’s feces to see if the virus is being shed
E) Her other cat may develop symptoms within the next two weeks because FIP is highly contagious
A) Feline infectious peritonitis is not contagious and because her other cat died of FIP does not mean this cat will succumb to the disease
Feline infectious peritonitis is not a contagious disease. It is a disease that is caused by a mutation of feline enteric coronavirus. It is unknown why in some patients this virus mutates and causes the FIP syndrome. It is most likely to occur in young or immunocompromised cats. Her other cat is not necessarily going to get FIP just from exposure. In fact, the majority of the cat population has been exposed to the feline enteric coronavirus.
You diagnose a dog with mites. Which of the following mites is not contagious to other dogs?
A) Sarcoptes spp.
B) Psoroptes spp.
C) Cheyletiella spp.
D) Demodex spp.
D) Demodex spp.
The correct answer is Demodex. Demodex mites are a natural inhabitant of skin. Clinical signs of a Demodex infection usually occur in puppies or immune-suppressed animals. The other mites listed are considered contagious.
What is the most common neoplasia seen in the equine stomach?
A) Gastric adenocarcinoma
B) Lymphosarcoma
C) Mesothelioma
D) Squamous cell carcinoma
D) Squamous cell carcinoma
Which of these drugs has the greatest potential for causing acute renal failure in the horse?
A) Neomycin
B) Diphenhydramine
C) Dexamethasone
D) Oxytetracycline
E) Xylazine
A) Neomycin
Aminoglycosides are one of the most common causes of renal tubular nephrosis and acute renal failure. Of the aminoglycosides, neomycin is probably the most nephrotoxic, followed by gentamicin, amikacin, and streptomycin. The other big class of nephrotoxic drugs is non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.
Which of these is an adrenergic vasopressor in dogs?
A) Hydralazine
B) Glycopyrrolate
C) Atropine
D) Dopamine
D) dopamine
Adrenergic vasopressors are frequently used to treat hypotension during anesthesia. Drugs in this category are dopamine, dobutamine, ephedrine, phenylephrine, and norepinephrine. Atropine and glycopyrrolate are anticholinergic drugs. Hydralazine is a vasodilator used to treat hypertension.
A 10-year old male castrated cat that you have previously diagnosed with hyperthyroidism presents to you for acute onset of blindness. You perform an ophthalmic exam and note retinal hemorrhage. What diagnostic test should you perform first?
A) Serum BUN and creatinine
B) Coagulation times
C) Free T4 levels by equilibrium dialysis
D) Total T4 levels
E) Blood pressure
E) blood pressure
Cats with hyperthyroidism are likely to develop hypertension. If this is severe enough (>180-200 mmHg systolic), they can be at risk for acute retinal detachment or hemorrhage resulting in blindness. Prompt resolution of the hypertension is critical to prevent further damage to the eye and other organs.
Which of these nerve blocks is used to examine the eyes of a horse?
A) Trigeminal nerve block
B) Oculomotor nerve block
C) Auriculopalpebral nerve block
D) Corneal nerve block
C) auriculopalpebral nerve block
Blocking this branch of cranial nerve VII (facial nerve) disrupts the motor innervation to the orbicularis oculi, which is the muscle that closes the eye. In the horse, this muscle is very strong and can prevent a thorough ocular exam. To perform this block, lidocaine is injected subcutaneously at the caudal aspect of the zygomatic arch where the nerve is palpable. Because this is a motor nerve, the eye will not be able to close as well, but there is no anesthesia of the tissue.
