Practice Questions Flashcards

1
Q

A female patient states that she is trying to get pregnant and had unprotected intercourse on day 14 of her usual 28-day menstrual cycle. However, the pregnancy test was negative three days later. Appropriate management would be do:

a. Order an ultrasound
b. Prescribe progesterone
c. Repeat the test in a week
d. Order a serum pregnancy test

A

c. repeat the test in a week

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2
Q

The human zygote consists of:

a. 46 chromosomes from each parent
b. 2 pairs of sex chromosomes
c. 23 chromosomes
d. 23 pairs of chromosomes

A

d. 23 pairs of chromosomes

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3
Q

A patient comes in for her first antepartum visit. When asked the date of her last menstrual period, she indicates that she had not had one since she has been nursing her six-month-old daughter. You diagnose that she is pregnant. How would you determine the estimated date of birth?

a. Determine when she expected to get her period and calculate from there
b. Document quickening and extrapolate from there
c. Send her to the fetal assessment unit for an ultrasound
d. Get a good sexual history and and use last coitus as the basis for calculation

A

c. Send her to the fetal assessment unit for an ultrasound

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4
Q

A primigravida comes in for a visit at 34 weeks stating that she has “a lot of vaginal discharge” but no other symptoms or problems. On exam, you see a white, odorless discharge of moderate quantity. The next step would be to:

a. Treat for candida
b. Evaluate for trichomoniasis
c. Reassure her that this is normal
d. Send a vaginal culture.

A

c. reassure her that this is normal

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5
Q

A pregnant woman who is 5 ft 3 in has a pre-pregnancy weight of 115 lb. Which of the following represents the most appropriate weight for her by the end of her pregnancy?

a. 120 lb
b. 125 lb
c. 145 lb
d. 165 lb

A

c. 145 lb

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6
Q

A patient who is 11 weeks pregnant calls you from the ER to say that she sustained a laceration and they want to give her a tetanus booster. You would tell her that:

a. all vaccinations are contraindicated in pregnancy
b. it is not a problem because she does not need the tetanus booster
c. the tetanus booster can be given in pregnancy if needed
d. She should wait until the 3rd trimester

A

c. the tetanus booster can be given in pregnancy if needed

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7
Q

A 24 year old primigravida presents for her initial visit and asks how the fetus has genes from both her husband and herself. Your response is based on which of the following?

a. Mitosis occurs, producing half the number of chromosomes
b. Meiosis occurs, producing half the number of chromosomes
c. The egg is a somatic cell
d. Sperm is a somatic cell

A

b. Meiosis occurs, producing half the number of chromosomes

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8
Q

A female patient presents at 32 weeks gestation with vaginal bleeding for the past 6 hours, back pain, and irregular abdominal cramping pain. Exam reveals diffuse abdominal tenderness and increased uterine tone. You suspect:

a. Marginal placenta previa
b. Placental abruption
c. Preterm labor
d. Pyelonephritis

A

b. placental abruption

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9
Q

Dating of pregnancy by ultrasound is most accurate in the first trimester using:

a. crown rump length
b. Head circumference
abdominal circumference
d. Femur length

A

a. Crown rump length

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10
Q

The effect of pregnancy on the cardiovascular system is most clearly seen in:

a. Lower diastolic pressure in the 3rd trimester
b. 10% cardiac volume increase that peaks in mid-pregnancy
c. Resting pulse increase of 10-15 beats in the 1st trimester
d. Slight decrease in cardiac output in the 2nd trimester

A

b. 10% cardiac volume increase that peaks in mid-pregnancy

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11
Q

The APRN’s discussion about circumcision with the infant’s parents should acknowledge that:

a. There are no medical benefits to circumcision
b. The risks of circumcision, while rare, are potentially serious
c. Research has proven that circumcision has a negative impact on long-term psychological and sexual functioning
d. Although there may be some modest benefit in reducing potential urinary tract and sexually transmitted infections, decisions about circumcision are largely based on personal, cultural, and religious considerations

A

d. Although there may be some modest benefit in reducing potential urinary tract and sexually transmitted infections, decisions about circumcision are largely based on personal, cultural, and religious considerations

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12
Q

At her 6 week postpartum visit, the patient asks her provider about sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). In discussing SIDS with the patient, the provider states that:

a. SIDS almost never occurs after 6 weeks of age
b. SIDS is extremely rare, affecting less than 2 in 100,000 babies
c. The exact cause of SIDS is unknown
d. Infants should be put to sleep in a prone or side-lying position

A

c. The exact cause of SIDS is unknown

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13
Q

Which of the following is true about newborn metabolic disorders?

a. Federal law mandates testing for phenylketonuria, glactosemia, and cystic fibrosis
b. For early discharge, neonates, screening at 8 hours of life is acceptably reliable
c. Most are characterized by enzyme deficiency, resulting in toxic accumulation of metabolites
d. Breastfeeding is strongly recommended for infants with galactosemia

A

c. Most are characterized by enzyme deficiency, resulting in toxic accumulation of metabolites

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14
Q

A primigravida asks about the value of childbirth preparation classes during a second-trimester visit. You tell her that the evidence indicates that they are associated with:

a. Reduce use of analgesics/anesthesia during labor
b. Improved parenting skills
c. Decreased cesarean rates
d. Less use of IVs in labor

A

a. Reduce use of analgesics/anesthesia during labor

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15
Q

Diabetes screening recommendations during pregnancy for the woman who is obese include:

a. Fasting blood glucose each trimester
b. Testing hemoglobin A1c in the first trimester
c. Routine screening early in pregnancy and at 24-28 weeks
d. The same as for normal weight women

A

c. Routine screening early in pregnancy and at 24-28 weeks

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16
Q

Blood monitoring for a woman with gestational diabetes should be done:

a. Once a week, at the same time each week
b. Twice a day: one hour after the smallest and largest meal of the day
c. 4 times a day: fasting and 1 or 2 hours after each meal
d. 3 times a day: one hour before each meal

A

c. 4 times a day: fasting and 1 or 2 hours after each meal

17
Q

The screening test for group B streptococcus requires that the specimen should be obtained from the:

a. Ectocervical and vaginal side walls
b. Ectocervix and endocervical os
c. Endocervical os and rectum
d. Vaginal introitus and rectum

A

d. Vaginal introitus and rectum

18
Q

At the 32 week visit, a patient asks you to tell her what you are looking for or feeling when doing her abdominal exam with Leopold’s maneuvers. You respond that you are:

a. Determining the placement of the placenta
b. Finding which direction the fetus is lying
c. Evaluate the size of the uterus
d. Evaluating adequacy of fetal growth

A

b. Finding which direction the fetus is lying

19
Q

An appropriate screening test for the 18 week visit includes:

a. Gestational diabetes testing
c. Chlamydia and gonorrhea tests
c. CBC or hematocrit
d. Quad screen

A

d. Quad screen

20
Q

A patient’s (G2P1001) initial visit reveals a health pregnant woman. Her urinalysis and culture sensitivity (C&S) report indicates a colony count of greater than 100,000 organisms/ml. The plan includes:

a. Refer her to a urologist to evaluate for underlying renal disease
b. Encourage fluids and repeat C&S in 2 weeks
c. Initiate treatment with antibiotics
d. Advice her to contact you if she has any UTI symptoms

A

d. Advice her to contact you if she has any UTI symptoms