Practice Question Flashcards
A developer has created an application based on customer requirements. The customer needs to run the application with the minimum downtime.
Which design approach regarding high-availability applications, Recovery Time Objective, and Recovery Point Objective
must be taken?
A. Active/passive results in lower RTO and RPO. For RPO, data synchronization between the two data centers must be timely to allow seamless request flow.
B. Active/passive results in lower RTO and RPO. For RPO, data synchronization between the two data centers does not need to be timely to allow seamless request flow.
C. Active/active results in lower RTO and RPO. For RPO, data synchronization between the two data centers does not need to be timely to allow seamless request flow.
D. Active/active results in lower RTO and RPO. For RPO, data synchronization between the two data centers must be timely to allow seamless request flow.
D. Active/active results in lower RTO and RPO. For RPO, data synchronization between the two data centers must be timely to allow seamless request flow.
Active/Active Configuration:
High Availability: In an active/active setup, multiple instances of the application are running simultaneously across different data centers or availability zones. This configuration ensures that if one instance or data center fails, the other instances continue to serve requests without interruption, resulting in lower downtime.
Lower RTO: Since both data centers are actively handling traffic, the system can continue to operate with minimal recovery time if one data center fails. This leads to a lower Recovery Time Objective (RTO).
Lower RPO: In an active/active setup, data is typically synchronized in real-time or near real-time between the data centers. This minimizes the amount of data that could be lost in the event of a failure, leading to a lower Recovery Point Objective (RPO).
Timely Data Synchronization: For the RPO to be low, data synchronization between the active instances must be timely. This ensures that all data centers have the most up-to-date information, allowing for seamless request flow even if one data center goes down.
A cloud native project is being worked on in which all source code and dependencies are written in Python, Ruby, and/or
JavaScnpt. A change in code triggers a notification to the CI/CD tool to run the CI/ CD pipeline.
Which step should be omitted from the pipeline?
A. Deploy the code to one or more environments, such as staging and/or production.
B. Build one of more containers that package up code and all its dependencies.
C. Compile code.
D. Run automated tests to validate the code.
C. Compile code.
Python, Ruby, and JavaScript are interpreted languages, which means they do not require a compilation step before execution. This is different from compiled languages like Java or C++, where source code must be compiled into executable binaries before running.
Other steps in the pipeline such as deploying the code to environments, building containers, and running automated tests are essential for ensuring that the application runs correctly, is packaged with all necessary dependencies, and meets quality standards.
Which two statements are considered best practices according to the 12-factor app methodology for application design?
(Choose two.)
A. Application code writes its event stream to stdout.
B. Application log streams are archived in multiple replicated databases.
C. Application log streams are sent to log indexing and analysis systems.
D. Application code writes its event stream to specific log files.
E. Log files are aggregated into a single file on individual nodes.
A. Application code writes its event stream to stdout.
-The 12-factor methodology suggests that applications should write logs as an unbuffered stream of events to stdout. This allows the environment to handle the storage, indexing, and analysis of logs.
C. Application log streams are sent to log indexing and analysis systems.
-The 12-factor methodology recommends that logs be treated as event streams that can be sent to log indexing and analysis systems for further processing and monitoring. This ensures that logs are centralized and can be analyzed and searched effectively.
An organization manages a large cloud-deployed application that employs a microservices architecture. No notable issues
occur with downtime because the services of this application are redundantly deployed over three or more data center
regions. However, several times a week reports are received about application slowness. The container orchestration logs
show faults in a variety of containers that cause them to fail and then spin up brand new.
Which action must be taken to improve the resiliency design of the application while maintaining current scale?
A. Update the base image of the containers.
B. Test the execution of the application with another cloud services platform.
C. Increase the number of containers running per service.
D. Add consistent “try/catch(exception)” clauses to the code.
D. Add consistent “try/catch(exception)” clauses to the code.
-Adding proper error handling through “try/catch(exception)” clauses can significantly improve the resiliency of the application by allowing it to gracefully handle errors and exceptions without causing the container to crash. This reduces the likelihood of faults that cause containers to fail and restart, leading to improved stability and performance.
How should a web application be designed to work on a platform where up to 1000 requests per second can be served?
A. Use algorithms like random early detection to deny excessive requests.
B. Set a per-user limit (for example, 5 requests/minute/user) and deny the requests from the users who have reached the limit.
C. Only 1000 user connections are allowed; further connections are denied so that all connected users can be served.
D. All requests are saved and processed one by one so that all users can be served eventually.
B. Set a per-user limit (for example, 5 requests/minute/user) and deny the requests from the users who have reached the limit.
Explanation:
Rate Limiting (Per-User Limits): Setting a per-user rate limit is a common and effective strategy for managing high traffic. This ensures that no single user can overwhelm the system with too many requests, thereby preventing abuse and ensuring fair usage for all users.
Prevents Overloading: By limiting the number of requests each user can make within a specific time frame (e.g., 5 requests per minute), you help maintain the application’s performance and availability even under high load conditions.
Fairness and Security: This approach also helps to prevent denial-of-service attacks and ensures that all users have a fair opportunity to access the service.
An organization manages a large cloud-deployed application that employs a microservices architecture across multiple data
centers. Reports have been received about application slowness. The container orchestration logs show that faults have been raised in a variety of containers that caused them to fail and then spin up brand new instances. Which two actions can improve the design of the application to identify the faults? (Choose two.)
A. Automatically pull out the container that fails the most over a time period.
B. Implement a tagging methodology that follows the application execution from service to service.
C. Add logging on exception and provide immediate notification.
D. Do a write to the datastore every time there is an application failure.
E. Implement an SNMP logging system with alerts in case a network link is slow.
B. Implement a tagging methodology that follows the application execution from service to service.
C. Add logging on exception and provide immediate notification.
Explanation:
B. Implement a tagging methodology that follows the application execution from service to service:
Distributed Tracing: Implementing a tagging or tracing methodology allows you to track the flow of requests through different services in a microservices architecture. This helps in identifying the exact point of failure or performance bottlenecks across the different services. Tools like Jaeger or Zipkin are often used for this purpose.
C. Add logging on exception and provide immediate notification:
Enhanced Logging and Alerting: Adding logging on exceptions and setting up immediate notifications ensures that faults are captured in real-time. This helps in quickly diagnosing issues when they occur and reducing the time to resolve them. Properly structured logs are essential for understanding the context of failures.
Which two situations are flagged by software tools designed for dependency checking in continuous integration
environments, such as OWASP? (Choose two.)
A. publicly disclosed vulnerabilities related to the included dependencies
B. mismatches in coding styles and conventions in the included dependencies
C. incompatible licenses in the included dependencies
D. test case failures introduced by bugs in the included dependencies
E. buffer overflows to occur as the result of a combination of the included dependencies
A. Publicly disclosed vulnerabilities related to the included dependencies
C. Incompatible licenses in the included dependencies
Explanation:
A. Publicly disclosed vulnerabilities related to the included dependencies:
Dependency checking tools are primarily used to identify known security vulnerabilities in the libraries and packages that your application depends on. These tools cross-reference the dependencies with databases of known vulnerabilities (such as the National Vulnerability Database) to alert you if any of the dependencies are compromised.
C. Incompatible licenses in the included dependencies:
These tools can also scan the licenses of the dependencies to ensure that they are compatible with the project’s licensing terms. Incompatible licenses might impose restrictions that could legally conflict with how the software is distributed or used, making this a critical aspect of dependency management.
A network operations team is using the cloud to automate some of their managed customer and branch locations. They
require that all of their tooling be ephemeral by design and that the entire automation environment can be recreated without manual commands. Automation code and configuration state will be stored in git for change control and versioning. The engineering high-level plan is to use VMs in a cloud-provider environment, then configure open source tooling onto these VMs to poll, test, and configure the remote devices, as well as deploy the tooling itself.
Which configuration management and/or automation tooling is needed for this solution?
A. Ansible
B. Ansible and Terraform
C. NSO
D. Terraform
E. Ansible and NSO
B. Ansible and Terraform
Explanation:
Ansible:
Ansible is a powerful automation tool that is well-suited for configuration management, application deployment, task automation, and IT orchestration. It can be used to configure the remote devices and deploy the open-source tooling on the VMs.
Ansible is also agentless, meaning it can manage systems over SSH without needing any agent installed on the managed nodes, which aligns well with the need for ephemeral, easy-to-recreate environments.
Terraform:
Terraform is an infrastructure-as-code (IaC) tool that allows you to define and provision data center infrastructure using a declarative configuration language. In this scenario, Terraform would be used to automate the provisioning of VMs in the cloud-provider environment.
Terraform’s ability to store the entire infrastructure configuration in code, which can be versioned in git, makes it an ideal choice for creating and managing ephemeral environments that can be recreated without manual intervention.
An application is hosted on Google Kubernetes Engine. A new JavaScript module is created to work with the existing
application.
Which task is mandatory to make the code ready to deploy?
A. Create a Dockerfile for the code base.
B. Rewrite the code in Python.
C. Build a wrapper for the code to “containerize” it.
D. Rebase the code from the upstream git repo.
A. Create a Dockerfile for the code base.
Explanation:
Google Kubernetes Engine (GKE): GKE is a managed Kubernetes service, and it typically runs containerized applications. To deploy a new JavaScript module to GKE, the code needs to be packaged as a container image.
Dockerfile: A Dockerfile is a script that contains a series of instructions on how to build a Docker image for your application. The Dockerfile will specify the base image (e.g., a Node.js image for JavaScript), copy the necessary files into the container, install dependencies, and define how the application should be run.
Which database type should be used with highly structured data and provides support for ACID transactions?
A. time series
B. document
C. graph
D. relational
D. Relational
Explanation:
Relational databases are designed to handle highly structured data and support ACID (Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability) transactions. They organize data into tables with predefined schemas, where each table contains rows and columns. Relational databases are widely used for applications that require strict consistency and transactional integrity.
ACID transactions ensure that database operations are processed reliably, maintaining data integrity even in the case of failures or errors. This is critical for applications like financial systems, where precise and consistent data handling is required.
Where should distributed load balancing occur in a horizontally scalable architecture?
A. firewall-side/policy load balancing
B. network-side/central load balancing
C. service-side/remote load balancing
D. client-side/local load balancing
D. client-side/local load balancing
Explanation:
Client-side/local load balancing occurs at the client’s end, where the client is responsible for distributing requests across multiple servers or instances of a service. In a horizontally scalable architecture, this approach can be very efficient because it allows the client to directly interact with the various service instances, reducing the need for centralized load balancers and potentially minimizing latency.
Advantages of Client-Side Load Balancing:
Scalability: Each client independently balances its load across available service instances, which can scale more effectively as the number of clients and services increases.
Reduced Bottleneck: There’s no single point of failure or bottleneck since the load balancing logic is distributed across clients.
Better Performance: Clients can make intelligent decisions based on local conditions, such as choosing the nearest or least loaded instance.
Which two statements about a stateless application are true? (Choose two.)
A. Different requests can be processed by different servers.
B. Requests are based only on information relayed with each request.
C. Information about earlier requests must be kept and must be accessible.
D. The same server must be used to process all requests that are linked to the same state.
E. No state information can be shared across servers.
A. Different requests can be processed by different servers.
B. Requests are based only on information relayed with each request.
Explanation:
A. Different requests can be processed by different servers:
In a stateless application, each request is independent and self-contained, meaning that any server can handle any request without needing information from previous requests. This allows for better scalability and flexibility, as requests can be routed to any available server.
B. Requests are based only on information relayed with each request:
Stateless applications do not retain any session or state information between requests. Instead, all necessary information is sent with each request (e.g., in HTTP headers, parameters, or cookies), making each request self-sufficient.
Which statement about microservices architecture is true?
A. Applications are written in a single unit.
B. It is a complex application composed of multiple independent parts.
C. It is often a challenge to scale individual parts.
D. A single faulty service can bring the whole application down.
B. It is a complex application composed of multiple independent parts.
Explanation:
Microservices Architecture: This approach to software design structures an application as a collection of loosely coupled services. Each service corresponds to a specific business function, and these services communicate with each other through APIs.
Which two data encoding techniques are supported by gRPC? (Choose two.)
A. XML
B. JSON
C. ASCII
D. ProtoBuf
E. YAML
B. JSON
D. ProtoBuf
Explanation:
ProtoBuf (Protocol Buffers):
ProtoBuf is the default serialization format used by gRPC. It is a language-neutral, platform-neutral, extensible mechanism for serializing structured data, which is both compact and efficient. gRPC relies heavily on ProtoBuf due to its performance and efficiency.
JSON:
gRPC can also support JSON encoding, especially in scenarios where interoperability with web clients is required, such as with gRPC-Web. JSON is widely used for its readability and ease of use in web-based applications.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two functions are performed by the load balancer when it handles traffic originating from the
Internet destined to an application hosted on the file server farm? (Choose two.)
A. Terminate the TLS over the UDP connection from the router and originate an HTTPS connection to the selected server.
B. Terminate the TLS over the UDP connection from the router and originate an HTTP connection to the selected server.
C. Terminate the TLS over the TCP connection from the router and originate an HTTP connection to the selected server.
D. Terminate the TLS over the TCP connection from the router and originate an HTTPS connection to the selected server.
E. Terminate the TLS over the SCTP connection from the router and originate an HTTPS connection to the selected server.
C. Terminate the TLS over the TCP connection from the router and originate an HTTP connection to the selected server.
D. Terminate the TLS over the TCP connection from the router and originate an HTTPS connection to the selected server.
Explanation:
TLS Termination over TCP:
TLS (Transport Layer Security) is commonly used to secure communications over a network. TLS operates over TCP (Transmission Control Protocol), not UDP (User Datagram Protocol) or SCTP (Stream Control Transmission Protocol).
The load balancer typically handles incoming TLS-encrypted connections from clients (originating from the router in this scenario) and can “terminate” the TLS connection. This means the load balancer decrypts the incoming traffic.
Options for Connection to Backend Server:
HTTP Connection to the Server (Option C): After terminating the TLS connection, the load balancer can forward the request to the selected server using plain HTTP, which is unencrypted. This is common in environments where encryption is only needed between the client and the load balancer, and not within the internal network.
HTTPS Connection to the Server (Option D): Alternatively, after terminating the TLS connection, the load balancer can re-encrypt the traffic and forward it to the selected server over HTTPS, ensuring end-to-end encryption.
Which transport protocol is used by gNMI?
A. HTTP/2
B. HTTP 1.1
C. SSH
D. MQTT
A. HTTP/2
Explanation:
gNMI (gRPC Network Management Interface) is a protocol used for network management that leverages gRPC, which in turn uses HTTP/2 as its transport protocol. HTTP/2 provides features like multiplexing, flow control, header compression, and server push, making it well-suited for efficient communication in network management.
A developer plans to create a new bugfix branch to fix a bug that was found on the release branch.
Which command completes the task?
A. git checkout -t RELEASE BUGFIX
B. git checkout -b RELEASE BUGFIX
C. git checkout -t BUGFIX RELEASE
D. git checkout -b BUGFIX RELEASE
D. git checkout -b BUGFIX RELEASE
Explanation:
git checkout -b BUGFIX RELEASE:
This command creates a new branch named BUGFIX based on the RELEASE branch. The -b flag is used to create a new branch, and RELEASE specifies the branch from which the new BUGFIX branch should be created.
Which Git command enables the developer to revert back to f414f31 commit to discard changes in the current working tree?
A. git reset –hard f414f31
B. git reset checkout –hard f414f31
C. git reset –soft f414f31
D. git checkout f414f31
A. git reset –hard f414f31
Explanation:
git reset –hard f414f31:
This command resets the current branch to the commit f414f31 and updates the working tree and the index to match the specified commit. This means that all changes in the working directory will be discarded, effectively reverting the project to the state it was in at the f414f31 commit.
An application has these characteristics:
provide one service or function
distributed database
API gateway
central repository for code
configuration database
uses session management
Which two design approaches contribute to the scalability of the application? (Choose two.)
A. session management in a stateless architecture
B. modular design iteration
C. distributed computing with tightly coupled components
D. built to scale based on a star topology
E. planned before the first device is deployed
A. Session management in a stateless architecture
B. Modular design iteration
Explanation:
A. Session management in a stateless architecture:
Stateless Architecture: In a stateless architecture, session data is not stored on the server but is instead managed on the client side (e.g., using tokens or cookies). This allows the application to scale more easily because any server instance can handle any request, as there is no need to maintain session state on the server. This design approach contributes significantly to the scalability of the application, particularly in environments where load balancing is used.
B. Modular design iteration:
Modular Design: Modular design involves breaking down the application into smaller, independent modules or services. Each module can be developed, tested, and scaled independently. This approach enhances scalability because it allows specific parts of the application to be scaled according to their own needs without affecting the entire system. For example, if one service experiences high demand, it can be scaled out independently without scaling the entire application.
How is AppDynamics used to instrument an application?
A. Enables instrumenting a backend web server for packet installation by using an AppDynamics agent.
B. Retrieves a significant amount of information from the perspective of the database server by using application monitoring.
C. Provides visibility into the transaction logs that can be correlated to specific business transaction requests.
D. Monitors traffic flows by using an AppDynamics agent installed on a network infrastructure device.
C. Provides visibility into the transaction logs that can be correlated to specific business transaction requests.
Explanation:
AppDynamics is an application performance management (APM) tool that provides deep visibility into an application’s performance and user experience. It does this by instrumenting the application to monitor various components such as business transactions, database interactions, and application logs.
Visibility into Transaction Logs: AppDynamics agents are installed within the application environment (e.g., on application servers) to monitor and collect detailed performance data. This data includes information about business transactions, which are end-to-end flows representing specific user interactions or processes within the application. By correlating transaction logs with these business transactions, AppDynamics allows you to trace the performance and identify bottlenecks or failures specific to a particular transaction.
Refer to the exhibit. Which action will complete the workflow that represents how an API call sends multiple messages?
A. {PUT} messages(roomID)
B. {PUT} messages(BearerToken)
C. {POST} messages(roomID)
D. {POST} messages(BearerToken)
A. {PUT} messages(roomID):
The PUT method is typically used to update a resource or create it if it does not exist. While it could be used for idempotent operations, POST is more appropriate for sending multiple messages since you’re adding new data rather than updating existing data.
B. {PUT} messages(BearerToken):
Bearer tokens are typically used for authentication, not as a resource identifier like roomID. Additionally, the use of PUT with a bearer token does not align with the operation of sending multiple messages.
C. {POST} messages(roomID)
{POST}: The HTTP POST method is typically used to send data to the server to create or update a resource. In the context of sending messages through an API, POST is the correct method because it is used to submit data (in this case, messages) to be processed.
D. {POST} messages(BearerToken):
Similar to option B, while the POST method is correct for sending messages, BearerToken is used for authentication and should not be part of the resource path (messages). Instead, the bearer token is usually passed in the HTTP headers for authentication.
What is the function of dependency management?
A. separating code into modules that execute independently
B. utilizing a single programming language/framework for each code project
C. automating the identification and resolution of code dependencies
D. managing and enforcing unique software version names or numbers
C. automating the identification and resolution of code dependencies
Explanation:
Dependency Management: This refers to the process of automatically identifying, tracking, and resolving dependencies in a software project. Dependencies are external libraries or modules that a project relies on to function correctly. Effective dependency management ensures that the correct versions of these dependencies are used, resolves conflicts between dependencies, and handles the downloading and updating of these dependencies as needed.
Why the Other Options Are Less Suitable:
A. separating code into modules that execute independently:
This describes modularization or componentization, not dependency management. While modular design is important, it is distinct from managing dependencies between modules.
B. utilizing a single programming language/framework for each code project:
This is more about project setup and architecture decisions. Dependency management is relevant regardless of the programming language or framework used and does not imply using only one language or framework.
D. managing and enforcing unique software version names or numbers:
This relates more to version control and release management. While versioning is important in dependency management (e.g., ensuring the correct version of a library is used), the primary function of dependency management is to handle dependencies automatically rather than just managing version numbers.
Which two types of organization are subject to GDPR? (Choose two.)
A. only organizations that operate outside the EU
B. any organization that offers goods or services to customers in the EU
C. only organizations that have offices in countries that are part of the EU
D. any organization that operates within the EU
E. only organizations that physically reside in the EU
B. any organization that offers goods or services to customers in the EU
D. any organization that operates within the EU
Explanation:
B. Any organization that offers goods or services to customers in the EU:
The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) applies to any organization, regardless of location, that offers goods or services to individuals in the EU or monitors their behavior within the EU. This means that even if an organization is based outside the EU, it must comply with GDPR if it processes the personal data of individuals in the EU.
D. Any organization that operates within the EU:
GDPR applies to all organizations that are established within the EU, regardless of where they process data. This includes companies that have offices, branches, or any form of stable arrangements in the EU.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. only organizations that operate outside the EU:
This is incorrect because GDPR applies primarily to organizations within the EU and to those outside the EU that process personal data of EU individuals.
C. only organizations that have offices in countries that are part of the EU:
While having an office in the EU would make an organization subject to GDPR, this option is too narrow. GDPR also applies to organizations outside the EU that offer goods or services to EU residents or monitor their behavior.
E. only organizations that physically reside in the EU:
This is incorrect because GDPR also applies to non-EU organizations that process data of EU individuals, even if they do not physically reside in the EU.
What is a benefit of continuous testing?
A. increases the number of bugs found in production
B. enables parallel testing
C. removes the requirement for test environments
D. decreases the frequency of code check-ins
B. enables parallel testing
Explanation:
Continuous Testing: This is a practice in the DevOps lifecycle where testing is integrated early and continuously throughout the development process. It ensures that software is continuously tested at every stage of its development, which helps identify and fix bugs early and often.
Why This Option is Correct:
Enables Parallel Testing: Continuous testing allows multiple tests to be executed simultaneously across different environments or stages in the development pipeline. This parallelism speeds up the testing process, enabling quicker feedback and more efficient identification of issues.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. increases the number of bugs found in production:
Continuous testing is actually intended to reduce the number of bugs found in production by catching them early in the development process.
C. removes the requirement for test environments:
Continuous testing does not remove the need for test environments. In fact, it often involves multiple testing environments, such as development, staging, and production-like environments, to ensure comprehensive coverage.
D. decreases the frequency of code check-ins:
Continuous testing does not impact the frequency of code check-ins. The practice is more about ensuring that every change is tested continuously rather than affecting how often developers commit code.
What is a characteristic of a monolithic architecture?
A. It is an application with multiple independent parts.
B. New capabilities are deployed by restarting a component of the application.
C. A service failure can bring down the whole application.
D. The components are platform-agnostic.
C. A service failure can bring down the whole application.
Explanation:
Monolithic Architecture: A monolithic architecture is a traditional software architecture pattern where all components of an application are tightly integrated and operate as a single unit. This means that if one part of the application fails, it can potentially bring down the entire application.
Why This Option is Correct:
Service Failure Impact: In a monolithic architecture, all components are interconnected and run as a single process. This tight coupling means that a failure in one component (e.g., a service or module) can cause the entire application to crash or become unavailable.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. It is an application with multiple independent parts:
This describes a microservices architecture, not a monolithic architecture. In microservices, the application is broken down into independent services that can be deployed and managed separately.
B. New capabilities are deployed by restarting a component of the application:
In a monolithic architecture, deploying new capabilities often requires restarting the entire application, not just a component, since everything is tightly coupled.
D. The components are platform-agnostic:
Monolithic applications are typically less platform-agnostic because they are built as a single unit and often rely on specific technologies or environments. Platform-agnostic components are more characteristic of microservices or modular architectures.
What are two principles according to the build, release, run principle of the twelve-factor app methodology? (Choose two.)
A. Code changes are able to be made at runtime.
B. Separation between the build, release, and run phases.
C. Releases should have a unique identifier.
D. Existing releases are able to be mutated after creation.
E. Release stage is responsible for compilation of assets and binaries.
B. Separation between the build, release, and run phases.
C. Releases should have a unique identifier.
Explanation:
B. Separation between the build, release, and run phases:
The Twelve-Factor App methodology emphasizes the clear separation of the build, release, and run phases. Each phase has a distinct responsibility:
Build: Converts the codebase into an executable bundle (e.g., compiling code, packaging dependencies).
Release: Combines the build with configuration and assigns a unique release identifier.
Run: Executes the application in the execution environment.
This separation ensures consistency and repeatability, making the deployment process more predictable and reliable.
C. Releases should have a unique identifier:
According to the twelve-factor methodology, every release should have a unique identifier. This allows for precise tracking of what code and configuration are running in any environment, and it helps in rolling back to a previous state if necessary.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. Code changes are able to be made at runtime:
The twelve-factor app methodology does not support making code changes at runtime. Code changes should be made during the build phase, and a new release should be created and deployed if changes are needed.
D. Existing releases are able to be mutated after creation:
The methodology emphasizes that releases should be immutable. Once a release is created, it should not be altered. If changes are needed, a new release should be created.
E. Release stage is responsible for compilation of assets and binaries:
Compilation of assets and binaries happens during the build phase, not the release phase. The release phase is about combining the build with configuration, not about compiling or creating binaries.
What is a well-defined concept for GDPR compliance?
A. Data controllers must confirm to data subjects as to whether, where, and why personal data is being processed.
B. Personal data that was collected before the compliance standards were set do not need to be protected.
C. Compliance standards apply to organizations that have a physical presence in Europe.
D. Records that are relevant to an existing contract agreement can be retained as long as the contract is in effect.
A. Data controllers must confirm to data subjects as to whether, where, and why personal data is being processed.
Explanation:
A. Data controllers must confirm to data subjects as to whether, where, and why personal data is being processed:
This is a well-defined concept in GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation) compliance. GDPR mandates that data controllers must provide transparency to data subjects regarding the processing of their personal data. This includes informing data subjects whether their data is being processed, where it is being processed, and for what purposes.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
B. Personal data that was collected before the compliance standards were set do not need to be protected:
This is incorrect. GDPR applies to all personal data, regardless of when it was collected. Even data collected before GDPR came into effect must be protected according to GDPR standards.
C. Compliance standards apply to organizations that have a physical presence in Europe:
While GDPR does apply to organizations with a physical presence in the EU, it also applies to any organization that processes the personal data of individuals in the EU, regardless of the organization’s physical location.
D. Records that are relevant to an existing contract agreement can be retained as long as the contract is in effect:
While it is true that certain records can be retained for the duration of a contract, GDPR still requires that the retention and processing of personal data must be lawful and limited to what is necessary. Retention policies must comply with GDPR principles such as data minimization and purpose limitation.
Given an application that implements a basic search function as well as a video upload function, which two load-balancing
approaches optimize the application’s user experience? (Choose two.)
A. Video upload requests should be routed to the endpoint using an intermediate hop.
B. Search requests should be routed to the endpoint with lowest round-trip latency.
C. Video upload requests should be routed to the endpoint with lowest round-trip latency.
D. Video upload requests should be routed to the endpoint with highest data throughput.
E. Search requests should be routed to the endpoint with highest data throughput.
B. Search requests should be routed to the endpoint with lowest round-trip latency.
D. Video upload requests should be routed to the endpoint with highest data throughput.
Explanation:
B. Search requests should be routed to the endpoint with lowest round-trip latency:
Search functionality typically requires quick response times to enhance user experience. Routing search requests to the endpoint with the lowest round-trip latency ensures that users receive faster responses, improving the perceived speed and efficiency of the search feature.
D. Video upload requests should be routed to the endpoint with highest data throughput:
Video uploads involve transferring large amounts of data. Routing these requests to the endpoint with the highest data throughput ensures that uploads are completed more quickly, enhancing the user experience by reducing wait times during the upload process.
Why the Other Options Are Less Suitable:
A. Video upload requests should be routed to the endpoint using an intermediate hop:
Using an intermediate hop could increase latency and reduce efficiency, making it less optimal for video uploads that require high throughput.
C. Video upload requests should be routed to the endpoint with lowest round-trip latency:
While low latency is important, video uploads are more dependent on high throughput to handle large data transfers efficiently. Low latency is more critical for tasks that require quick responses, like search queries.
E. Search requests should be routed to the endpoint with highest data throughput:
Search requests typically involve smaller amounts of data and benefit more from low latency than high throughput. Therefore, routing search requests based on throughput does not optimize their performance as effectively as routing based on latency.
Which two methods are API security best practices? (Choose two.)
A. Use tokens after the identity of a client has been established.
B. Use the same operating system throughout the infrastructure.
C. Use encryption and signatures to secure data.
D. Use basic auth credentials over all internal API interactions.
E. Use cloud hosting services to manage security configuration.
A. Use tokens after the identity of a client has been established.
C. Use encryption and signatures to secure data.
Explanation:
A. Use tokens after the identity of a client has been established:
Using tokens (such as JWT - JSON Web Tokens) for authentication and authorization is a best practice for API security. Once a client’s identity has been verified, a token is issued, which can be used for subsequent API requests. This method helps in securely maintaining session state and controlling access to the API.
C. Use encryption and signatures to secure data:
Encryption ensures that data is protected during transmission and at rest, making it inaccessible to unauthorized parties. Digital signatures provide data integrity and authentication, ensuring that the data has not been tampered with and that it comes from a verified source. Both are critical components of securing APIs.
Why the Other Options Are Less Suitable:
B. Use the same operating system throughout the infrastructure:
While having a standardized operating system can simplify management, it is not directly related to API security. Diversity in operating systems can sometimes enhance security by reducing the attack surface.
D. Use basic auth credentials over all internal API interactions:
Basic authentication (Basic Auth) is considered weak because it relies on base64-encoded credentials, which can be easily decoded if intercepted. Modern best practices recommend using more secure authentication methods, such as token-based authentication.
E. Use cloud hosting services to manage security configuration:
While cloud services can help manage security configurations, relying solely on them is not a best practice. Security should be layered, with proper controls at every level of the application and infrastructure. Cloud services should be part of a broader security strategy rather than a standalone solution.
A developer has completed the implementation of a REST API, but when it is executed, it returns a 401 error message.
What must be done on the API to resolve the issue?
A. Access permission to the resource must be granted, before the request.
B. Configure new valid credentials.
C. The requested API endpoint does not exist, and the request URL must be changed.
D. Additional permission must be granted before the request can submitted.
B. Configure new valid credentials.
Explanation:
401 Unauthorized Error: This HTTP status code indicates that the request lacks valid authentication credentials for the target resource. When a 401 error occurs, it typically means that the client has not provided valid credentials, or the credentials provided are not correct or no longer valid.
Why This Answer is Correct:
Configure New Valid Credentials: To resolve a 401 error, the API client must provide valid credentials. This could involve configuring new credentials (such as a valid API key, OAuth token, or username and password) or ensuring that the existing credentials are correctly used and have not expired or been revoked.
Why the Other Options Are Less Suitable:
A. Access permission to the resource must be granted, before the request:
While access permissions are important, a 401 error specifically indicates an authentication issue, not an authorization issue. This means the credentials are either missing or invalid.
C. The requested API endpoint does not exist, and the request URL must be changed:
If the endpoint does not exist, a 404 Not Found error would be returned, not a 401 Unauthorized error.
D. Additional permission must be granted before the request can be submitted:
This option suggests an authorization issue, which would result in a 403 Forbidden error, not a 401 Unauthorized error. A 401 error is strictly related to authentication, not additional permissions.
Refer to the exhibit. Many faults have occurred in the ACI environment and a sample of them needs to be examined.
Which API call retrieves faults 31 through 45?
A. GET https://apic-ip-address/api/class/faultInfo.json\?order-by=faultInst.severity|desc&page=1&page-size=15
B. GET https://apic-ip-address/api/class/faultInfo.json\?order-by=faultInst.severity|desc&page=2&page-size=15
C. GET https://apic-ip-address/api/class/faultInfo.json\?order-by=faultInst.severity|desc&page-size=30
D. GET https://apic-ip-address/api/class/faultInfo.json\?order-by=faultInst.severity|desc&page=2&page-size=30
B. GET https://apic-ip-address/api/class/faultInfo.json?order-by=faultInst.severity|desc&page=2&page-size=15
Explanation:
Pagination: When retrieving a large number of records through an API, pagination is often used to split the data into manageable chunks. The page parameter specifies which page of results you want to retrieve, and the page-size parameter specifies how many results are on each page.
Page Calculation:
The page-size is set to 15, meaning each page contains 15 faults.
To retrieve faults 31 through 45:
Faults 1-15 are on page 1.
Faults 16-30 are on page 2.
Faults 31-45 will be on page 3. However, since we only have two pages in the available options, the call with page=2 will correctly give you faults 31-45 when page-size is set to 15.
Option B Explanation:
page=2 refers to the second page of results.
page-size=15 specifies that each page contains 15 faults.
Therefore, page 2 will contain faults 16 through 30. Hence, faults 31-45 should ideally be on the next page (Page 3). However, since the question asks for faults 31-45 and the closest matching option is “page=2”, this is the best option given.
Refer to the exhibit. The cURL POST request creates an OAuth access token for authentication with FDM API requests.
What is the purpose of the file @token_data that cURL is handling?
A. This file is a container to log possible error responses in the request.
B. This file is given as input to store the access token received from FDM.
C. This file is used to send authentication-related headers.
D. This file contains raw data that is needed for token authentication.
D. This file contains raw data that is needed for token authentication.
Explanation:
@token_data in cURL Command:
In a cURL POST request, the @ symbol before a filename indicates that the contents of the file should be sent as part of the request body. In this context, the @token_data file likely contains the necessary data (such as client credentials, grant type, etc.) that is required to authenticate and obtain an OAuth access token from the server.
D. This file contains raw data that is needed for token authentication:
This means the file likely contains JSON or another structured data format with the necessary parameters (like client ID, client secret, username, password, etc.) to authenticate and generate the access token.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. This file is a container to log possible error responses in the request:
This is incorrect because the file is not used for logging responses; it’s used to send data to the server.
B. This file is given as input to store the access token received from FDM:
The file is not used to store the access token. Instead, it is used to send the data needed to request the access token.
C. This file is used to send authentication-related headers:
Headers are typically specified directly in the cURL command using the -H flag, not via a file. The @token_data file is used for the request body, not headers.
User report that they can no longer able to process transactions with the online ordering application, and the logging dashboard is displaying these messages.
Fri Jan 10 19:37:31.123 EST 2020 [FRONTEND] INFO: Incoming request to add item to cart from user 45834534858
Fri Jan 10 19:37:31.247 EST 2020 [BACKEND] INFO: Attempting to add item to cart
Fri Jan 10 19:37:31.250 EST 2020 [BACKEND] ERROR: Failed to add item: MYSQLDB ERROR: Connection refused
What is causing the problem seen in these log messages?
A. The database server container has crashed.
B. The backend process is overwhelmed with too many transactions.
C. The backend is not authorized to commit to the database.
D. The user is not authorized to add the item to their cart.
A. The database server container has crashed.
Explanation:
Log Messages Analysis:
The log message MYSQLDB ERROR: Connection refused indicates that the backend service is unable to connect to the MySQL database.
A “Connection refused” error typically occurs when the database server is not running, the service is down, or the server is unreachable (e.g., due to a crash, network issue, or the database container stopping).
A. The database server container has crashed:
If the database server container has crashed or is not running, the backend service would not be able to connect to it, resulting in a “Connection refused” error.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
B. The backend process is overwhelmed with too many transactions:
If the backend were overwhelmed, you might see timeouts or slow performance, but “Connection refused” is specific to a network or service availability issue, not a load issue.
C. The backend is not authorized to commit to the database:
An authorization issue would likely result in a different error message, such as “Access denied” or “Permission denied,” rather than “Connection refused.”
D. The user is not authorized to add the item to their cart:
If the issue were related to user authorization, the error would likely mention user permissions or access rights, not a connection refusal.
Refer to the exhibit. An Intersight API is being used to query RackUnit resources that have a tag keyword set to Site.
What is the expected output of this command?
A. list of all resources that have a tag with the keyword “Site”
B. error message because the Value field was not specified
C. error message because the tag filter should be lowercase
D. list of all sites that contain RackUnit tagged compute resources
A. list of all resources that have a tag with the keyword “Site”
Explanation:
Intersight API Query: The command is querying RackUnit resources in Cisco Intersight, which is a cloud-based management platform for infrastructure resources.
Tag Filtering: The query uses a filter to retrieve resources that are tagged with the keyword “Site”. Tags are commonly used in Intersight to categorize and filter resources based on user-defined criteria.
Expected Output: The query will return a list of RackUnit resources that have a tag containing the keyword “Site.” This list will include all such resources, assuming the keyword “Site” is found within the tags associated with RackUnit resources.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
B. error message because the Value field was not specified:
The filter is querying based on the tag keyword “Site”. Specifying the Value field is not mandatory unless filtering by a specific tag value is required. The command should still return resources tagged with “Site” even if a value is not provided.
C. error message because the tag filter should be lowercase:
The case of the filter keyword (such as “Tag”) should not cause an error. The keyword “Site” is a case-sensitive string used for filtering, but the API should process this correctly without requiring lowercase.
D. list of all sites that contain RackUnit tagged compute resources:
The query is specifically filtering RackUnit resources with the tag “Site”. It does not retrieve a list of sites; instead, it retrieves resources that match the filter criteria.
A user is receiving a 429 Too Many Requests error.
Which scheme is the server employing that causes this error?
A. rate limiting
B. time outs
C. caching
D. redirection
A. rate limiting
Explanation:
429 Too Many Requests Error: This HTTP status code indicates that the user has sent too many requests in a given amount of time, and the server is refusing to fulfill any more requests until a certain amount of time has passed.
Rate Limiting: The server is employing a rate-limiting scheme, which is a technique used to control the amount of incoming traffic. When the rate of incoming requests exceeds the predefined threshold, the server responds with a 429 status code to tell the client to slow down.
Refer to the exhibit. Which line of code must be added to this code snippet to allow an application to pull the next set of
paginated items?
A. requests.get(url, links=[‘next’][‘url’])
B. requests.get(url, headers=links[‘next’][‘url’])
C. requests.get(res.links[‘next’][‘url’], headers=headers)
D. requests.get(res.headers.get(‘Link’)[‘next’][‘url’], headers=headers)
C. requests.get(res.links[‘next’][‘url’], headers=headers)
Explanation:
Pagination in APIs: When an API response is paginated, the response usually includes a Link header or a similar structure that provides URLs for the next set of results. The res.links attribute in the requests library is a dictionary that contains these links, including the URL for the next page of results.
res.links[‘next’][‘url’]:
res.links is a dictionary that stores pagination links.
[‘next’] accesses the dictionary key corresponding to the “next” page link.
[‘url’] extracts the actual URL from the “next” page link.
Headers:
headers=headers is used to pass any necessary headers (like authorization) when making the next request.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. requests.get(url, links=[‘next’][‘url’]):
This is incorrect because links is not a valid argument for requests.get. The correct usage involves passing the URL directly extracted from res.links.
B. requests.get(url, headers=links[‘next’][‘url’]):
This is incorrect because it incorrectly attempts to pass the next URL as part of the headers, which is not the intended use.
D. requests.get(res.headers.get(‘Link’)[‘next’][‘url’], headers=headers):
This is incorrect because res.headers.get(‘Link’) would retrieve the Link header as a single string, not as a dictionary from which you can access [‘next’][‘url’].
An ETag header is included in the HTTP response for an API resource.
What are two benefits of using the value of the ETag for future interactions involving the same API resource? (Choose two.)
A. caching and optimization of response payloads
B. creating conditional requests
C. categorizing and comparing this API resource with others
D. checking the integrity of the resource
E. requesting the list of operations authorized for this resource
A. caching and optimization of response payloads
B. creating conditional requests
Explanation:
A. Caching and Optimization of Response Payloads:
ETags are used to enable efficient caching. The ETag (Entity Tag) is a unique identifier assigned to a specific version of a resource. When a client requests a resource and receives an ETag, it can store this value and include it in future requests using the If-None-Match header. If the resource has not changed (i.e., the ETag matches), the server can respond with a 304 Not Modified status code, indicating that the client can use the cached version, thereby avoiding the need to download the resource again.
B. Creating Conditional Requests:
ETags are used in creating conditional requests. By including the ETag in the If-None-Match or If-Match headers of a subsequent request, the client can ask the server to perform an action only if the resource has (or has not) been modified. This helps in reducing unnecessary operations and bandwidth usage when the resource has not changed.
Why the Other Options Are Less Relevant:
C. Categorizing and Comparing this API Resource with Others:
While ETags uniquely identify versions of a resource, they are not intended for categorizing or comparing different resources. ETags are specific to the resource they represent.
D. Checking the Integrity of the Resource:
ETags are not primarily intended for checking data integrity. They are more about versioning and cache validation. For data integrity, other mechanisms like checksums (e.g., MD5, SHA-256) are more commonly used.
E. Requesting the List of Operations Authorized for this Resource:
ETags do not relate to authorization or listing operations that can be performed on a resource. Authorization is typically handled by headers like Authorization or by separate API endpoints that define permissions.
Refer to the exhibit. An application uses an API to periodically sync a large data set.
Based on the HTTP message sequence provided, which statements are true about the caching behavior seen in the
scenario? (Choose two.)
A. The full dataset was transmitted to the client twice.
B. The dataset changed sometime between message #4 and #5.
C. A partial dataset was transmitted to the client in message #4.
D. The dataset did not change during the scenario.
E. Messages #3 and #5 are equivalent.
B. The dataset changed sometime between message #4 and #5.
D. The dataset did not change during the scenario.
Explanation:
B. The dataset changed sometime between message #4 and #5:
If the dataset changed between message #4 and #5, the server would have sent a fresh version of the dataset to the client in message #5, likely with a new ETag or a different Last-Modified value. This would result in the client receiving the updated data.
D. The dataset did not change during the scenario:
If the dataset did not change, the server could have responded with a 304 Not Modified status in subsequent requests, indicating that the cached data on the client side is still valid and does not need to be re-transmitted.
Why the Other Options Are Less Likely:
A. The full dataset was transmitted to the client twice:
If caching is working properly and the dataset did not change, the full dataset would not need to be transmitted twice. The client would use the cached version after the first full transmission.
C. A partial dataset was transmitted to the client in message #4:
If the data set were transmitted partially in message #4, there would be specific headers indicating a range request or partial content, such as 206 Partial Content. Since that isn’t described here, it’s unlikely.
E. Messages #3 and #5 are equivalent:
If the dataset changed between messages #4 and #5, then message #5 would contain updated data, making it different from message #3. Therefore, the two messages would not be equivalent.
Which RFC5988 (Web Linking) relation type is used in the Link header to control pagination in APIs?
A. rel=“index”
B. rel=“page”
C. rel=“next”
D. rel=“section”
C. rel=“next”
Explanation:
RFC5988 (Web Linking): This standard defines a way to indicate relationships between resources on the web using link headers in HTTP responses. It’s commonly used in APIs to manage pagination.
rel=”next”: This relation type is used in the Link header to indicate the URL for the next page of results when paginating through a large set of data. Clients can use this link to request the next set of items.
A client is written that uses a REST API to interact with a server. Using HTTPS as the transport, an HTTP request is sent
and received an HTTP response. The response contains the HTTP response status code: 503 Service Unavailable.
Which action is the appropriate response?
A. Add an Authorization header that supplies appropriate credentials and sends the updated request.
B. Resend the request using HTTP as the transport instead of HTTPS.
C. Add an Accept header that indicates the content types that the client understands and send the updated request.
D. Look for a Retry-After header in the response and resend the request after the amount of time indicated.
D. Look for a Retry-After header in the response and resend the request after the amount of time indicated.
Explanation:
503 Service Unavailable: This status code indicates that the server is temporarily unable to handle the request, often due to being overloaded or undergoing maintenance. The server may include a Retry-After header in the response to tell the client how long to wait before making another request.
Retry-After Header: The Retry-After header, if present, specifies the amount of time (in seconds) that the client should wait before retrying the request. If the header is included in the response, the client should respect this time interval and only resend the request after waiting the specified time.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. Add an Authorization header that supplies appropriate credentials and sends the updated request:
A 503 Service Unavailable error is not related to authorization issues. This error indicates that the server is temporarily unable to process the request, not that the client is unauthorized.
B. Resend the request using HTTP as the transport instead of HTTPS:
Switching from HTTPS to HTTP would not resolve a 503 error. The issue is with the server’s ability to handle the request, not the transport protocol.
C. Add an Accept header that indicates the content types that the client understands and send the updated request:
An Accept header is used to specify the content types the client can handle, but a 503 error is unrelated to content negotiation. This error typically indicates server overload or maintenance, not a problem with content types.
Refer to the exhibit. Two editors are concurrently updating an articles headline from their mobile devices.
What results from this scenario based on this REST API sequence?
A. The article is marked as “Conflicted”
B. The article headline is “Monday Headlines”
C. The article headline is “Today Headlines”
D. The article headline is “Top Headlines”
D. The article headline is “Top Headlines”
Explanation:
Editor 1 sends a GET request to the API service.
The API service responds with an HTTP 200, indicating a successful retrieval of the current headline.
Editor 2 concurrently sends a GET request to the API service.
The API service also responds with an HTTP 200, indicating that Editor 2 also successfully retrieved the current headline.
Editor 1 sends a PUT request to the API service to update the headline to “Top Headlines.”
The API service processes this request and responds with an HTTP 200, indicating that the update was successful. The article’s headline is now “Top Headlines.”
Editor 2 concurrently sends a PUT request to the API service to update the headline to “Today Headlines.”
The API service responds with an HTTP 412 (Precondition Failed). This status code typically occurs when the request fails a precondition check. A common precondition in REST APIs is using an If-Match header with an ETag value to ensure that the resource has not changed since it was last retrieved.
The HTTP 412 indicates that the headline has already been modified since Editor 2 last retrieved it, preventing their update from being applied.
An application uses OAuth to get access to several API resources on behalf of an end user.
What are two valid parameters to send to the authorization server as part of the first step of an authorization code grant
flow? (Choose two.)
A. URI to which the authorization server will send the user-agent back when access is granted or denied
B. list of the API resources that the application is requesting to access
C. secret that was generated by the authorization server when the application registered as an OAuth integration
D. list of scopes that correspond to the API resources to which the application is requesting to access
E. name of the application under which the application registered as an OAuth integration
A. URI to which the authorization server will send the user-agent back when access is granted or denied
D. list of scopes that correspond to the API resources to which the application is requesting to access
Explanation:
A. URI to which the authorization server will send the user-agent back when access is granted or denied:
This parameter is known as the redirect_uri. It specifies where the authorization server should send the user after the authorization process is complete (whether successful or not). This URI is typically pre-registered with the authorization server to ensure security.
D. list of scopes that correspond to the API resources to which the application is requesting to access:
The scope parameter specifies the level of access the application is requesting. Scopes define the specific resources or actions the application wants permission to access on behalf of the user. The user is then prompted to approve or deny this access.
Why the Other Options Are Not Correct:
B. list of the API resources that the application is requesting to access:
The list of specific API resources is generally not directly included in this initial authorization request. Instead, scopes (option D) represent the permissions or resources being requested.
C. secret that was generated by the authorization server when the application registered as an OAuth integration:
The client secret is typically used in the token request phase, not in the initial authorization request. In the authorization code grant flow, the client secret is sent when the authorization code is exchanged for an access token.
E. name of the application under which the application registered as an OAuth integration:
The application name is usually part of the application’s registration with the authorization server, but it is not typically included as a parameter in the authorization request.
Refer to the exhibit. Which word is missing from this Ansible playbook shown, to allow the Cisco IOS XE commands for
router configuration to be pushed after the playbook is executed?
A. input
B. lines
C. commands
D. config
B. lines
Explanation:
In Ansible, when using modules like ios_config for configuring Cisco IOS devices, the lines keyword is used to specify the configuration commands that you want to push to the device.
Which command is used to enable application hosting on a Cisco IOS XE device?
A. iox
B. application-hosting
C. iox-service
D. app-hosting
A. iox
Explanation:
iox: This command is used to enable IOx services on Cisco IOS XE devices, which is necessary for running applications in a virtualized environment on the router or switch. Once IOx is enabled, the device can host and manage applications such as Docker containers.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
B. application-hosting: This is not a valid command to enable application hosting; the correct command is iox.
C. iox-service: This is not the correct command. The iox command is used to enable the necessary IOx infrastructure on the device.
D. app-hosting: This is not a valid command for enabling application hosting. The correct command is iox.
Which two files are needed to create a Cisco IOx application to host on a Cisco device that is running a Cisco IOS XE
version older than 16.12? (Choose two.)
A. package_setup.py
B. package_config.ini
C. application.cfg
D. iox.cfg
E. package.yaml
D. iox.cfg
E. package.yaml
Explanation:
iox.cfg:
This file is used to define the environment in which the application will run on the Cisco IOx platform. It includes information such as resource requirements (CPU, memory), networking configuration, and other environment variables needed by the application.
package.yaml:
This file provides metadata about the application package. It includes information such as the package name, version, author, and other relevant details. This file is crucial for packaging the application and ensuring that the Cisco IOx platform can correctly deploy and manage it.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. package_setup.py:
This is not a standard file required for creating a Cisco IOx application. This filename might be relevant in other contexts (e.g., Python applications), but not specifically for IOx applications.
B. package_config.ini:
This is not a standard file required for creating a Cisco IOx application. The configuration for an IOx application is handled through iox.cfg and package.yaml.
C. application.cfg:
This file is not part of the required files for packaging a Cisco IOx application. The key configuration files are iox.cfg and package.yaml.
Which tool is used to deploy an IOx application to a group of IOx devices at one time?
A. ioxclient
B. IOx local manager
C. Fog Network Director
D. Kubernetes
C. Fog Network Director
Explanation:
Fog Network Director (FND): This is a Cisco tool designed for managing and orchestrating applications across multiple IOx-enabled devices. It allows for centralized deployment, monitoring, and management of IOx applications, making it the appropriate tool for deploying an application to multiple devices simultaneously.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. ioxclient:
The ioxclient tool is used for interacting with individual IOx devices, typically for tasks such as deploying applications, managing resources, and monitoring application status on a single device. It is not designed for deploying to multiple devices at once.
B. IOx local manager:
The IOx Local Manager provides a web-based interface to manage and deploy applications on a single IOx device. It is not used for deploying applications to a group of devices.
D. Kubernetes:
Kubernetes is a container orchestration platform typically used for managing containerized applications across a cluster of machines. It is not specifically designed for deploying IOx applications on Cisco devices.
Refer to the exhibit. Which key value pair from the ios_ntp Ansible module removes the NTP server peer?
A. state: absent
B. state: False
C. config: absent
D. config: False
A. state: absent
Explanation:
In Ansible, the state key is commonly used in various modules to specify whether a resource should be present or absent. When you set state: absent, Ansible removes the specified resource, in this case, the NTP server peer.
state: absent: This tells the ios_ntp module to ensure that the specified NTP server peer is removed from the configuration.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
B. state: False:
False is not a valid value for the state key in this context. The state key typically accepts values like present or absent.
C. config: absent:
The config key is not typically used to control the presence or absence of a resource in Ansible modules like ios_ntp. The state key is the correct one for this purpose.
D. config: False:
Similar to option C, config is not used in this context. Additionally, False is not a valid directive for removing a resource.
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is configuring Ansible to run playbooks against Cisco IOS XE Software.
What should be configured in ansible.cfg as the connection type?
A. network_cli
B. ssh
C. shell
D. command
A. network_cli
Explanation:
network_cli: This connection type is specifically designed for network devices such as Cisco IOS XE. It allows Ansible to interact with the device’s command-line interface over SSH, which is the standard method for configuring network devices. When you specify ansible_network_os=ios, Ansible expects to use network_cli as the connection type to manage the network device.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
B. ssh:
ssh is a more generic connection type used for managing general-purpose servers. While it can connect to a device over SSH, it lacks the specialized support that network_cli provides for interacting with network devices.
C. shell:
The shell connection type is used to execute shell commands on Unix-like systems, not network devices like Cisco IOS XE. It does not provide the necessary functionality for managing network-specific operations.
D. command:
The command connection type does not exist in Ansible. Instead, network_cli is the appropriate choice for running commands on network devices.
A developer needs to configure an environment to orchestrate and configure.
Which two tools should be used for each task? (Choose two.)
A. Jenkins for orchestration
B. Terraform for orchestration
C. Bamboo for configuration
D. Kubernetes for orchestration
E. Ansible for configuration
A. Jenkins for orchestration
E. Ansible for configuration
Explanation:
A. Jenkins for orchestration:
Jenkins is a popular automation server used primarily for orchestrating tasks in the software development lifecycle. It can manage and automate the building, testing, and deployment of applications. It is well-suited for Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment (CI/CD) pipelines, which involves orchestrating various processes in the development and deployment workflow.
E. Ansible for configuration:
Ansible is a powerful tool for configuration management, automation, and provisioning. It is commonly used to configure systems, deploy applications, and manage infrastructure in an automated and repeatable way. Ansible allows you to define configurations as code and apply them across multiple environments consistently.
Why the Other Options Are Less Suitable:
B. Terraform for orchestration:
Terraform is primarily used for infrastructure as code (IaC) and is excellent for provisioning and managing infrastructure across various cloud platforms. While it can orchestrate infrastructure creation, it is not typically used for orchestrating application workflows like Jenkins is.
C. Bamboo for configuration:
Bamboo is a CI/CD tool similar to Jenkins, focused on building, testing, and deploying code. It is not a configuration management tool.
D. Kubernetes for orchestration:
Kubernetes is a container orchestration platform used to manage containerized applications at scale. While it orchestrates the deployment and scaling of containers, it is more specialized than Jenkins and is not typically used for broader orchestration tasks across the software development lifecycle.
Which key value pair from the ios_ntp Ansible module creates the NTP server peer?
A. state: absent
B. state: False
C. config: absent
D. config: False
D. config: False
B & E
Refer to the exhibit. Which RESTCONF verb changes the GigabitEthernet2 interface from 192.168.100.1/24 to
10.10.10.1/24?
A. POST
B. PATCH
C. GET
D. HEAD
B. PATCH
Explanation:
PATCH: The PATCH HTTP method is used to apply partial updates to a resource. In the context of RESTCONF, it is the appropriate verb for modifying the configuration of an existing resource, such as updating the IP address of a network interface.
POST: The POST method is typically used to create new resources, not to update existing ones.
GET: The GET method is used to retrieve information from a resource, not to make changes to it.
HEAD: The HEAD method is similar to GET but only retrieves the headers of the response, without the body content. It is not used for modifying resources.
A. Change POST to PATCH
Explanation:
POST: Typically used to create new resources. If you’re trying to modify an existing resource (such as changing the IP address on an interface), POST may not be appropriate, and you might receive an error indicating that the resource already exists.
PATCH: Used to modify an existing resource. If you want to update the configuration of an interface (such as changing its IP address), PATCH is the correct HTTP method to use. It allows you to make partial updates to the resource without replacing it entirely.
DELETE before POST/PATCH: Deleting the resource before re-creating or modifying it is generally unnecessary and could lead to unintended loss of configuration, particularly if you only need to update a part of the resource.
GET: This method is used to retrieve information about a resource, not to modify it, so changing POST to GET would not solve the issue.
A heterogeneous network of vendors and device types needs automating for better efficiency and to enable future
automated testing. The network consists of switches, routers, firewalls, and load balancers from different vendors; however,
they all support the NETCONF/RESTCONF configuration standards and the YAML models with every feature the business requires. The business is looking for a buy versus build solution because they cannot dedicate engineering resources, and they need configuration diff and rollback functionality from day 1.
Which configuration management or automation tooling is needed for this solution?
A. PyATS
B. AppDynamics
C. NSO
D. Puppet
C. NSO (Cisco Network Services Orchestrator)
Explanation:
NSO (Cisco Network Services Orchestrator):
Heterogeneous Network Support: NSO is designed to handle complex, multi-vendor networks and can manage a wide range of device types, including switches, routers, firewalls, and load balancers from different vendors.
NETCONF/RESTCONF Compatibility: NSO supports NETCONF and RESTCONF, making it a good fit for the network described.
YANG Models: NSO uses YANG data models, which are compatible with the YAML models mentioned in the scenario.
Configuration Diff and Rollback: NSO provides built-in capabilities for configuration diff (comparing configurations) and rollback, which are crucial for maintaining consistency and quickly reverting to a previous configuration if needed.
Buy vs. Build: Since NSO is a commercial product, it fits the requirement of a “buy” solution, meaning it is supported and maintained by Cisco, reducing the need for in-house engineering resources.
Why the Other Options Are Less Suitable:
A. PyATS:
PyATS is primarily a testing and validation framework designed for automating the testing of network devices, rather than a configuration management tool. While it is powerful for automated testing, it does not provide the configuration management capabilities like diff and rollback that are required.
B. AppDynamics:
AppDynamics is an application performance management (APM) tool that monitors the performance and health of applications. It is not designed for network configuration management or automation.
D. Puppet:
Puppet is a powerful configuration management tool, but it is more commonly used for managing IT infrastructure, such as servers, rather than network devices. Puppet has modules for network devices, but it might not be as well-suited for multi-vendor network device management as NSO.
Which two gRPC modes of model-driven telemetry are supported on Cisco IOS XE Software? (Choose two.)
A. dial-in
B. dial-out
C. call-in
D. call-out
E. passive
A. dial-in
B. dial-out
Explanation:
A. Dial-in: In this mode, the telemetry collector initiates the connection to the network device. The collector dials in to the device to request telemetry data. This is typically used in scenarios where the collector needs to control when and how it connects to the devices.
B. Dial-out: In this mode, the network device itself initiates the connection to the telemetry collector. The device dials out to the collector and streams telemetry data continuously or at configured intervals. This is useful for pushing data to a collector as soon as it becomes available or when certain conditions are met.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
C. Call-in and D. Call-out: These terms are not typically used in the context of gRPC model-driven telemetry on Cisco IOS XE.
E. Passive: This is not a recognized mode for gRPC model-driven telemetry on Cisco IOS XE. The correct terms are dial-in and dial-out.
What is the gRPC Network Management Interface protocol?
A. a unified management protocol for streaming telemetry and database logging
B. a configuration management protocol for monitoring
C. a protocol for configuration management and streaming telemetry
D. a logging protocol used across database servers
C. a protocol for configuration management and streaming telemetry
Explanation:
gRPC Network Management Interface (gNMI) is a protocol that provides a unified interface for both configuration management and streaming telemetry. It allows for the configuration of network devices as well as the collection of telemetry data in a highly efficient and scalable manner.
Configuration Management: gNMI can be used to modify the configuration of network devices using gRPC as the transport protocol, often in conjunction with YANG models to define the structure of the configuration data.
Streaming Telemetry: gNMI supports streaming telemetry, where data is continuously pushed from network devices to a collector. This is a more efficient way to gather real-time data compared to traditional polling methods.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. a unified management protocol for streaming telemetry and database logging: gNMI is not used for database logging. It focuses on configuration management and telemetry.
B. a configuration management protocol for monitoring: While gNMI does handle configuration management, it also includes streaming telemetry, which is broader than just monitoring.
D. a logging protocol used across database servers: gNMI is not related to logging or databases. It is specifically for network management tasks.
What is a consideration for using gRPC as the model-driven telemetry protocol on a Cisco IOS XE device?
A. works in call-out mode
B. XML-based transmission format
C. works in dial-out mode
D. human-readable transmission format
C. works in dial-out mode
Explanation:
Dial-out Mode: gRPC on Cisco IOS XE devices can operate in dial-out mode, where the network device initiates the connection to the telemetry collector and streams telemetry data to it. This is one of the key modes for gRPC telemetry, allowing for real-time data streaming.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. works in call-out mode: The term “call-out” is not typically used in the context of gRPC telemetry. The correct term is “dial-out.”
B. XML-based transmission format: gRPC typically uses more efficient, binary encoding formats like Protocol Buffers (Protobuf) rather than XML, which is heavier and less efficient for telemetry.
D. human-readable transmission format: gRPC uses Protocol Buffers, which are not human-readable but are highly efficient for machine processing. Human-readable formats, like JSON or XML, are not typically used in gRPC telemetry due to their larger size and lower efficiency.
What are two advantages of using model-driven telemetry, such as gRPC, instead of traditional telemetry gathering
methods? (Choose two.)
A. all data is ad-hoc
B. decentralized storage of telemetry
C. efficient use of bandwidth
D. no overhead
E. continuous information with incremental updates
C. efficient use of bandwidth
E. continuous information with incremental updates
Explanation:
C. Efficient use of bandwidth:
Model-driven telemetry, such as gRPC, is designed to be efficient in terms of bandwidth usage. It can stream telemetry data in a more compact binary format (such as Protocol Buffers) rather than larger, less efficient formats like SNMP, reducing the amount of data that needs to be transmitted over the network.
E. Continuous information with incremental updates:
Model-driven telemetry allows for continuous streaming of telemetry data, providing real-time updates. This is in contrast to traditional polling methods, where data is only gathered at specific intervals. The ability to receive incremental updates ensures that the telemetry data is always up-to-date and provides a more accurate reflection of the current state of the network.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. all data is ad-hoc:
This is not accurate. Model-driven telemetry can be continuous and based on predefined models, not necessarily ad-hoc.
B. decentralized storage of telemetry:
Model-driven telemetry is more about how data is collected and transmitted rather than how it is stored. Storage can be centralized or decentralized depending on the architecture, but this is not a specific advantage of model-driven telemetry.
D. no overhead:
While model-driven telemetry is more efficient, it still involves some overhead, particularly in terms of the processing required to encode and transmit data. The advantage lies in its efficiency, not in the complete absence of overhead.
An automated solution is needed to configure VMs in numerous cloud provider environments to connect the environments to an SDWAN. The SDWAN edge VM is provided as an image in each of the relevant clouds and can be given an identity and all required configuration via cloud-init without needing to log into the VM once online.
Which configuration management and/or automation tooling is needed for this solution?
A. Ansible
B. Ansible and Terraform
C. NSO
D. Terraform
E. Ansible and NSO
B. Ansible and Terraform
Explanation:
Terraform:
Terraform is an infrastructure-as-code (IaC) tool that is highly effective for provisioning and managing cloud infrastructure across multiple cloud providers. Terraform can automate the creation and configuration of the VMs in the various cloud environments, ensuring consistency and repeatability.
Terraform excels in managing cloud infrastructure, making it the ideal tool for spinning up the SD-WAN edge VMs and ensuring they are provisioned according to the required specifications.
Ansible:
Ansible is a powerful configuration management tool that can handle the post-provisioning configuration of the VMs. However, in this specific scenario, where the VMs are automatically configured via cloud-init, Ansible might not be needed for direct configuration after the VMs are provisioned.
However, Ansible could be useful for orchestrating and managing the SD-WAN configuration itself or handling other network-related configurations that are not covered by cloud-init.
Why This Combination:
Terraform for Provisioning: Terraform is well-suited for creating and managing the cloud infrastructure (i.e., the VMs across different cloud providers) needed for the SD-WAN.
Ansible for Configuration Management (if needed): Ansible can be used to manage any additional configurations or to ensure that the SD-WAN settings are correctly applied across the environments.
Why Not the Other Options:
A. Ansible: Ansible alone is not ideal for provisioning VMs across multiple cloud providers. Terraform is better suited for this task. Ansible could be used in conjunction with Terraform but isn’t sufficient by itself in this scenario.
C. NSO: NSO (Cisco Network Services Orchestrator) is more focused on network service orchestration and might not be the best fit for provisioning and configuring cloud VMs across multiple providers.
D. Terraform: While Terraform is excellent for provisioning, the combination of Terraform and Ansible provides a more comprehensive solution if additional configuration management is required beyond what cloud-init can handle.
E. Ansible and NSO: This combination lacks the infrastructure provisioning capabilities that Terraform provides, which are crucial for managing cloud VMs across multiple providers.
A heterogeneous network of vendors and device types needs automating for better efficiency and to enable future
automated testing. The network consists of switches, routers, firewalls and load balancers from different vendors, however
they all support the NETCONF/RESTCONF configuration standards and the YAML models with every feature the business requires. The business is looking for a buy versus build solution because they cannot dedicate engineering resources, and they need configuration diff and rollback functionality from day 1.
Which configuration management for automation tooling is needed for this solution?
A. Ansible
B. Ansible and Terraform
C. NSO
D. Terraform
E. Ansible and NSO
C. NSO (Cisco Network Services Orchestrator)
Explanation:
Heterogeneous Network with Multiple Vendors:
NSO is specifically designed to handle complex, multi-vendor networks, making it ideal for a network consisting of switches, routers, firewalls, and load balancers from different vendors.
Support for NETCONF/RESTCONF:
NSO natively supports NETCONF and RESTCONF, which are the configuration standards mentioned in your scenario. This ensures seamless management of the devices using these protocols.
YANG Models:
NSO uses YANG models, which are compatible with the YAML models mentioned in your scenario. This allows for a model-driven approach to network configuration and management.
Configuration Diff and Rollback Functionality:
NSO offers built-in features for configuration diff (comparing the current configuration with a proposed configuration) and rollback (reverting to a previous configuration), which are essential from day 1, as per your requirements.
Buy Versus Build Solution:
NSO is a commercial, enterprise-grade solution provided by Cisco, meaning it is a “buy” solution with support and maintenance provided by Cisco. This fits the requirement for a solution that does not require dedicating engineering resources to build and maintain.
Why the Other Options Are Less Suitable:
A. Ansible:
While Ansible is a powerful tool for automation and configuration management, it might not provide the same level of multi-vendor network support and built-in functionality (like configuration diff and rollback) that NSO offers, especially in a complex network environment.
B. Ansible and Terraform:
Terraform is more suited for infrastructure provisioning rather than managing the ongoing configuration of network devices. While Ansible can handle configuration tasks, it does not offer the same level of integrated, multi-vendor network management as NSO.
D. Terraform:
Terraform is primarily used for provisioning infrastructure and is not ideal for managing ongoing network device configurations across a heterogeneous environment.
E. Ansible and NSO:
While Ansible could complement NSO for certain tasks, NSO alone is more than capable of handling the requirements listed, including multi-vendor support, configuration diff, and rollback. Adding Ansible might introduce unnecessary complexity if NSO is already in place.
Which database type should be used to store data received from model-driven telemetry?
A. BigQuery database
B. Time series database
C. NoSQL database
D. PostgreSQL database
B. Time series database
Explanation:
Time series database:
Time series databases are optimized for handling and storing time-stamped data, which is exactly what model-driven telemetry data typically consists of. Telemetry data is generated in a continuous stream with timestamps, and time series databases are designed to efficiently handle queries related to time-based data, such as querying data within specific time intervals, aggregating over time periods, etc.
Examples of time series databases include InfluxDB, Prometheus, and TimescaleDB.
Why the Other Options Are Less Suitable:
A. BigQuery database:
BigQuery is a powerful analytics database offered by Google Cloud, typically used for analyzing large datasets. While it can store telemetry data, it is not specifically optimized for time-series data like a time series database is.
C. NoSQL database:
NoSQL databases, such as MongoDB or Cassandra, can store a wide variety of data types, including telemetry data. However, they are not specifically optimized for time-stamped data, making them less efficient for querying and managing telemetry data compared to a time series database.
D. PostgreSQL database:
PostgreSQL is a relational database management system. While it can store telemetry data, it is not optimized for time-series data unless you use extensions like TimescaleDB, which specifically add time series capabilities to PostgreSQL.
Applications sometimes store configuration as constants in the code, which is a violation of the strict separation of
configuration from code.
Where should application configuration be stored?
A. environment variables
B. YAML files
C. Python libraries
D. Dockerfiles
E. INI files
B. YAML files
A developer needs to configure an environment to orchestrate and configure.
Which two tools should be used for each task? (Choose two.)
A. Puppet for orchestration
B. Terraform for orchestration
C. Terraform for configuration
D. Ansible for orchestration
E. Ansible for configuration
B. Terraform for orchestration
E. Ansible for configuration
Explanation:
Terraform for orchestration:
Terraform is an infrastructure-as-code tool that is widely used for orchestrating and managing infrastructure across different environments. It is particularly strong in provisioning and managing cloud resources, making it ideal for orchestrating complex environments.
Ansible for configuration:
Ansible is a configuration management tool that is used to automate the configuration of systems, deploy software, and manage infrastructure. It is known for its simplicity and ease of use, making it an excellent choice for configuring environments after they have been provisioned.
Why the Other Options Are Less Suitable:
A. Puppet for orchestration:
Puppet is primarily a configuration management tool, not typically used for orchestration. It focuses on ensuring that the state of the system configuration is as desired, but it’s not designed for orchestrating the deployment of infrastructure across environments.
C. Terraform for configuration:
While Terraform can configure some aspects of infrastructure, its primary strength is in orchestration—provisioning and managing infrastructure. Ansible is more suitable for ongoing configuration management.
D. Ansible for orchestration:
Ansible can be used for orchestration in some cases, but it is primarily used for configuration management. Terraform is generally better suited for the orchestration of infrastructure.
Refer to the exhibit. As part of the Ansible playbook workflow, several new interfaces are being configured using the
netconf_config module. The task references the interface variables that are unique per device.
In which directory is the YAML file with these variables found?
A. host_vars directory
B. home directory
C. group_vars directory
D. current working directory
A. host_vars directory
Explanation:
host_vars directory:
In Ansible, the host_vars directory is used to store variables that are specific to individual hosts (devices). Each host can have its own YAML file in the host_vars directory, named after the hostname or inventory name of the device. This allows you to define variables that are unique to each device, such as interface configurations.
Why the Other Options Are Less Suitable:
B. home directory:
The home directory is generally where a user’s files are stored. It is not typically used for storing Ansible variables related to specific hosts or groups.
C. group_vars directory:
The group_vars directory is used to store variables that are common to all hosts within a specific group. If the variables are unique per device (host), they should be placed in the host_vars directory instead.
D. current working directory:
The current working directory is where the Ansible command is executed. While it’s possible to reference variable files from here, it’s not the conventional place to store host-specific variables.
Refer to the exhibit. The YAML represented is using the ios_vrf module.
As part of the Ansible playbook workflow, what is the result when this task is run?
A. VRFs not defined in the host_vars file are removed from the device.
B. VRFs not defined in the host_vars file are added to the device, and any other VRFs on the device remain.
C. VRFs defined in the host_vars file are removed from the device.
D. VRFs are added to the device from the host_vars file, and any other VRFs on the device are removed.
D. VRFs are added to the device from the host_vars file, and any other VRFs on the device are removed.
Explanation:
ios_vrf module: The ios_vrf module in Ansible is used to manage VRFs (Virtual Routing and Forwarding instances) on Cisco IOS devices.
vrfs: “{{local_vrfs}}”: This line indicates that the VRFs to be managed are defined by the local_vrfs variable, which is likely specified in the host_vars file for this particular device.
state: present: This ensures that the specified VRFs are present on the device. If they are not already present, they will be created.
purge: yes: The purge: yes option means that any VRFs on the device that are not defined in the local_vrfs list will be removed. This ensures that only the VRFs defined in the host_vars file will exist on the device after the playbook is run.
Refer to the exhibit. The Ansible playbook is using the netconf_module to configure an interface using a YANG model. As part of this workflow, which YANG models augment the interface?
A. ietf-interfaces and ietf-ip
B. iana-if-type and ietf-interfaces
C. ietf-ip and openconfig-interface
D. ietf-ip and iana-if-type
B. iana-if-type and ietf-interfaces
What are two benefits of using distributed log collectors? (Choose two.)
A. supports multiple transport protocols such as TCP/UDP
B. improves performance and reduces resource consumption
C. provides flexibility due to a wide range of plugins and accepted log formats
D. enables extension of logs with fields and export to backend systems
E. buffers and resends data when the network is unavailable
B. improves performance and reduces resource consumption
E. buffers and resends data when the network is unavailable
Explanation:
B. Improves performance and reduces resource consumption:
Distributed log collectors help distribute the load of log collection across multiple nodes, which can significantly improve performance. By distributing the log collection process, resource consumption on individual nodes is reduced, which can lead to more efficient processing and storage of log data.
E. Buffers and resends data when the network is unavailable:
Distributed log collectors often have the capability to buffer data locally when the network is unavailable. This ensures that log data is not lost during network outages and can be resent once the network connection is restored.
Why the Other Options Are Less Suitable:
A. supports multiple transport protocols such as TCP/UDP:
While supporting multiple transport protocols is a feature of many log collectors, it is not specifically a benefit of using distributed log collectors. This is more of a general feature of log collection tools.
C. provides flexibility due to a wide range of plugins and accepted log formats:
This feature is related to the extensibility and compatibility of log collectors, but it is not a direct benefit of a distributed architecture. It pertains more to the capabilities of the log collection software itself.
D. enables extension of logs with fields and export to backend systems:
While this is a useful feature of some log collectors, it is not a specific benefit of using distributed log collectors. This capability relates to log processing and enrichment, which can be done regardless of whether the log collection is distributed.
Refer to the exhibit. Which key value pair from the ios_ntp Ansible module creates an NTP server peer?
A. state: present
B. state: True
C. config: present
D. config: True
A. state: present
Explanation:
state: present: In Ansible modules, the state parameter is commonly used to define the desired state of a resource. When you set state: present, it ensures that the specified resource (in this case, the NTP server peer) is created and present in the device’s configuration.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
B. state: True: While True might seem like a logical choice, it is not the correct or standard value for the state parameter in Ansible. The correct value is present or absent.
C. config: present and D. config: True: The config parameter is not used in the ios_ntp module for creating or ensuring the presence of an NTP server peer. The correct parameter to use is state, not config.
A team of developers created their own CA and started signing certificates for all of their IoT devices.
Which action will make the browser accept these certificates?
A. Install a TLS instead of SSL certificate on the IoT devices.
B. Set the private keys 1024-bit RSA.
C. Preload the developer CA on the trusted CA list of the browser.
D. Enable HTTPS or port 443 on the browser.
A. Install a TLS instead of SSL certificate on the IoT devices.
C. Preload the developer CA on the trusted CA list of the browser.
Explanation:
C. Preload the developer CA on the trusted CA list of the browser:
Browsers use a list of trusted Certificate Authorities (CAs) to verify the authenticity of SSL/TLS certificates. Since the team created their own CA, this CA is not automatically trusted by browsers. To make the browser accept the certificates signed by this CA, the CA’s root certificate must be manually added to the browser’s list of trusted CAs. Once the developer’s CA is in the trusted CA list, the browser will accept certificates issued by this CA as valid.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. Install a TLS instead of SSL certificate on the IoT devices:
The distinction between SSL and TLS is about the protocol version used for encryption. While TLS is the successor to SSL and more secure, this action does not address the issue of the CA not being trusted by the browser.
B. Set the private keys 1024-bit RSA:
Using 1024-bit RSA keys is related to the strength of encryption, but modern best practices recommend using at least 2048-bit keys for RSA. However, key size does not affect whether a certificate is trusted; the trust is based on the CA being recognized by the browser.
D. Enable HTTPS or port 443 on the browser:
Enabling HTTPS or using port 443 is necessary for secure communication, but it does not address the trust issue with the certificates. The browser will still reject certificates from an untrusted CA, even if HTTPS is enabled.
What are two benefits of using a centralized logging service? (Choose two.)
A. reduces the time required to query log data across multiple hosts
B. reduces the loss of logs after a single disk failure
C. improves application performance by reducing CPU usage
D. improves application performance by reducing memory usage
E. provides compression and layout of log data
A. reduces the time required to query log data across multiple hosts
E. provides compression and layout of log data
Pipenv is used to manage dependencies. The test runs successfully on a local environment.
What is the reason for the error when running the test on a CI/CD pipeline?
A. All the unit tests in testsum.py failed.
B. Pytest did not detect any functions that start with ‘test_’.
C. The pipfile in the local environment was not pushed to the remote repository.
D. Nose2 was not used as the test runner.
C. The pipfile in the local environment was not pushed to the remote repository.
Explanation:
Pipenv is used to manage Python dependencies, and it relies on two files: Pipfile and Pipfile.lock. The Pipfile specifies the dependencies required for the project.
ImportError: No module named unittest2 indicates that the unittest2 module, which is a third-party module for extended unit testing in Python, is not installed in the environment where the test is being run.
If the test runs successfully on the local environment but fails in the CI/CD pipeline, it likely means that the necessary dependencies, including unittest2, were not installed in the CI/CD environment. This usually happens if the Pipfile (which lists the dependencies) was not pushed to the remote repository, so the CI/CD pipeline could not install the required dependencies.
What is an effective logging strategy according to the 12-factor app tenets?
A. Tag and save logs in a local document database that has querying capabilities.
B. Back up log files in a high-availability remote cluster on the public cloud.
C. Timestamp and save logs in a local time-series database that has querying capabilities.
D. Capture logs by the execution environment and route to a centralized destination.
D. Capture logs by the execution environment and route to a centralized destination.
Explanation:
12-Factor App Methodology: The 12-factor app methodology is a set of best practices for building scalable and maintainable web applications. According to the logging principle of the 12-factor app, applications should not manage log files or save logs to a local database. Instead, logs should be treated as event streams that are captured by the execution environment and routed to a centralized logging system.
Centralized Logging: The idea is that logs are written to stdout or stderr, and the execution environment (such as a cloud platform or container orchestrator) captures these logs and sends them to a centralized logging service. This service can then aggregate, store, and analyze logs across different instances and services.
Why the Other Options Are Less Suitable:
A. Tag and save logs in a local document database that has querying capabilities:
Saving logs locally contradicts the 12-factor principle, which emphasizes that logs should be treated as event streams and not managed by the application itself.
B. Back up log files in a high-availability remote cluster on the public cloud:
While backing up logs remotely ensures availability, the 12-factor app methodology focuses on real-time log streaming and central aggregation rather than managing log files.
C. Timestamp and save logs in a local time-series database that has querying capabilities:
Similar to option A, saving logs locally does not align with the 12-factor app’s emphasis on treating logs as event streams handled by the execution environment.
The access token for a Webex bot has been stored in an environment variable using the command: export
bot_token=6bec40cf957de397561557a4fac9ea0
The developer now wants to containerize the Python application which will interact with the bot, and will use this build command to add the token to the build image: docker build –build-arg BOT_TOKEN=$bot_token
Which Dockerfile should be used to build the Docker image so that the bot access token is available as an environment
variable?
D
B
Refer to the exhibit. The command docker build –tag=friendlyhello . is run to build a docker image from the given Dockerfile,
reguirements.txt, and app.py. Then the command docker run -p 4000:80 friendlyhello is executed to run the application.
Which URL is entered in the web browser to see the content served by the application?
A. http://127.0.0.1:80
B. http://4000:80
C. http://localhost:4000
D. http://localhost:80
http://localhost:4000
Explanation:
docker build –tag=friendlyhello .: This command builds a Docker image from the Dockerfile in the current directory, tagging the image as friendlyhello.
docker run -p 4000:80 friendlyhello: This command runs a container from the friendlyhello image. The -p 4000:80 option maps port 4000 on your local machine (the host) to port 80 on the container (where the application is likely serving the content).
URL:
localhost refers to your local machine.
4000 is the port on your local machine that has been mapped to port 80 on the container. When you enter http://localhost:4000, your browser sends a request to port 4000 on your local machine, which is forwarded to port 80 in the running Docker container, where the application is serving its content.
What is the missing step in deploying a Docker container to IOx?
A. Build the package.yaml file.
B. Pull/push the image to the Docker registry.
C. Build the package.cert file to sign the app.
D. Log in to Device Manager.
A. Build the package.yaml file.
A local Docker image has an image ID of 385001111. Fill in the blanks to complete the command in order to tag the image
into the “cisco” repository with “version1.0”
$ docker tag <> <>
$ docker tag 385001111 cisco:version1.0
A web application is being developed to provide online sales to a retailer. The customers will need to use their username and passwords to login into their profile and complete their order. For this reason, the application must store user passwords.
Which approach ensures that an attacker will need to crack the passwords one at a time?
A. Store the passwords by using asymmetric encryption.
B. Apply the salting technique.
C. Store the passwords by using symmetric encryption.
D. Apply the peppering technique.
B. Apply the salting technique.
Explanation:
Salting:
Salting involves adding a unique, random value (a “salt”) to each user’s password before hashing it. This means that even if two users have the same password, their hashed passwords will be different because the salt is different.
The salt is stored along with the hashed password. When a user logs in, the application retrieves the salt, applies it to the entered password, and then hashes it to compare with the stored hash.
This technique ensures that even if an attacker gains access to the hashed passwords, they would need to crack each password individually, rather than using techniques like rainbow tables that can crack multiple passwords at once.
Why the Other Options Are Less Suitable:
A. Store the passwords by using asymmetric encryption:
Asymmetric encryption is typically used for securing data transmission rather than storing passwords. It involves a public/private key pair, which is not practical for password storage.
C. Store the passwords by using symmetric encryption:
Symmetric encryption uses the same key to encrypt and decrypt data. While it can be used to secure data, it is not the best approach for password storage because if the encryption key is compromised, all passwords can be decrypted at once. Symmetric encryption is also not typically used for password storage.
D. Apply the peppering technique:
Peppering involves adding a secret value (a “pepper”) to passwords before hashing them. Unlike salts, peppers are not stored alongside the hash but are instead stored securely, often hardcoded in the application. While peppering is an additional security measure, it is not as commonly used as salting. Also, peppering does not necessarily ensure that an attacker would need to crack passwords one at a time, as the same pepper might be used for all passwords.
What is a data privacy concern when designing data storage?
A. Data must be kept for as long as necessary.
B. Storage must be designed to enable data maximization.
C. Data must be retained in secure data storage after use.
D. Storage must be designed to enforce encryption in transit.
A. Data must be kept for as long as necessary.
Explanation:
A. Data must be kept for as long as necessary:
Data privacy regulations, such as GDPR, emphasize the importance of minimizing data retention. This principle means that data should only be kept for the period necessary to fulfill the purposes for which it was collected. Once the data is no longer needed, it should be securely deleted or anonymized. Retaining data longer than necessary increases the risk of unauthorized access and breaches.
Why the Other Options Are Less Suitable:
B. Storage must be designed to enable data maximization:
Data maximization is not aligned with data privacy principles. Instead, data minimization, which is the opposite concept, is recommended. Data minimization involves collecting and storing only the data that is strictly necessary for the specified purpose.
C. Data must be retained in secure data storage after use:
While security during storage is important, data privacy principles typically emphasize not retaining data after it has been used for its intended purpose unless it is required for legal or compliance reasons. Unnecessary retention can pose privacy risks.
D. Storage must be designed to enforce encryption in transit:
While encrypting data in transit is a critical security measure, it is more related to data security rather than data privacy. Data privacy concerns focus more on the retention, access, and processing of personal data.
How do end-to-end encryption principles apply to APIs?
A. The owners of the service are prevented from accessing data that is being transferred.
B. Sensitive information is protected against backdoor attacks.
C. The API data is protected against man-in-the-middle attacks.
D. Both endpoints that are using the API resources are hardened against hacking.
C. The API data is protected against man-in-the-middle attacks.
Explanation:
End-to-End Encryption in APIs: End-to-end encryption (E2EE) ensures that data sent between two parties (in this case, between an API client and server) is encrypted throughout its journey. Only the sender and the intended recipient can decrypt and access the actual data.
Protection Against Man-in-the-Middle Attacks:
C. The API data is protected against man-in-the-middle attacks: End-to-end encryption effectively secures the data against interception by unauthorized parties during transmission, such as in man-in-the-middle (MITM) attacks. This means that even if an attacker intercepts the data, they won’t be able to read it because it remains encrypted.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. The owners of the service are prevented from accessing data that is being transferred:
This scenario is more common in messaging apps with true end-to-end encryption where the service provider cannot decrypt the messages. However, in most API contexts, the API provider needs to access and process the data, so this option does not typically apply.
B. Sensitive information is protected against backdoor attacks:
While end-to-end encryption can protect against unauthorized data access, it is not specifically designed to protect against backdoor attacks, which involve vulnerabilities intentionally or unintentionally left in the system.
D. Both endpoints that are using the API resources are hardened against hacking:
Hardening endpoints involves applying security measures to make them more secure, which is a broader concept than encryption. End-to-end encryption specifically deals with protecting data in transit, not the security posture of the endpoints themselves.
When end-to-end encryption is implemented, which area is most vulnerable to exploitation?
A. cryptographic key exchange
B. endpoint security
C. cryptographic key generation
D. security of data in transit
B. endpoint security
Explanation:
End-to-End Encryption (E2EE): E2EE ensures that data is encrypted on the sender’s side and only decrypted on the receiver’s side. This means that the data remains encrypted while in transit, protecting it from interception and man-in-the-middle attacks.
Endpoint Security:
B. endpoint security: While E2EE protects data during transit, the endpoints (i.e., the devices or systems where the data is encrypted and decrypted) are still vulnerable to exploitation. If an attacker gains control of an endpoint, they can access the decrypted data, regardless of how secure the transmission was. Common vulnerabilities include malware, phishing attacks, and inadequate security practices on the endpoints.
Why the Other Options Are Less Vulnerable:
A. cryptographic key exchange:
Modern encryption protocols use secure key exchange methods, such as Diffie-Hellman or Elliptic Curve Diffie-Hellman, to mitigate the risk of key exchange being compromised. While key exchange is critical, secure protocols have made this process less vulnerable compared to endpoint security.
C. cryptographic key generation:
Key generation is generally secure if done using strong, random processes and using well-established cryptographic libraries. The vulnerability here is lower compared to endpoint security, as long as best practices are followed.
D. security of data in transit:
E2EE specifically addresses the security of data in transit, ensuring that it cannot be intercepted and read by unauthorized parties. With proper implementation, this is not typically the most vulnerable area.
While working with the Webex API, on an application that uses end-to-end encryption, a webhook has been received. What
must be considered to read the message?
A. Webhook information cannot be used to read the message because of end-to-end encryption. The API key is needed to decrypt the message.
B. Webhook returns the full unencrypted message. Only the body is needed to query the API.
C. Webhook returns a hashed version of the message that must be unhashed with the API key.
D. Webhook returns message identification. To query, the API is needed for that message to get the decrypted information.
A. Webhook information cannot be used to read the message because of end-to-end encryption. The API key is needed to decrypt the message.
A developer deploys a SQLite database in a Docker container. Single-use secret keys are generated each time a user
accesses the database. The keys expire after 24 hours.
Where should the keys be stored?
A. Outside of the Docker container in the source code of applications that connect to the SQLite database.
B. In a separate file inside the Docker container that runs the SQLite database.
C. In an encrypted database table within the SQLite database.
D. In a separate storage volume within the Docker container.
D. In a separate storage volume within the Docker container.
Why is end-to-end encryption deployed when exposing sensitive data through APIs?
A. Data transfers are untraceable from source to destination.
B. Data cannot be read or modified other than by the true source and destination.
C. Server-side encryption enables the destination to control data protection.
D. Traffic is encrypted and decrypted at every hop in the network path.
B. Data cannot be read or modified other than by the true source and destination.
Explanation:
End-to-End Encryption (E2EE): End-to-end encryption is a method of securing data so that only the communicating users (the true source and destination) can read and modify it. When E2EE is deployed, data is encrypted on the sender’s side and only decrypted on the recipient’s side, ensuring that even if the data is intercepted during transit, it cannot be read or altered by anyone else.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. Data transfers are untraceable from source to destination:
E2EE does not make data transfers untraceable. While the content of the data is secure and unreadable to intermediaries, the metadata (like source and destination IPs) can still be traced.
C. Server-side encryption enables the destination to control data protection:
Server-side encryption typically refers to encrypting data on the server, either at rest or in transit. However, in E2EE, the encryption happens at the endpoints, not just on the server, and is controlled by both the sender and receiver, not just the destination.
D. Traffic is encrypted and decrypted at every hop in the network path:
In E2EE, the data is encrypted once at the source and decrypted only at the destination, not at every hop. Encryption and decryption at every hop would imply that intermediaries can access the data, which contradicts the principles of E2EE.
A web application is susceptible to cross-site scripting.
Which two methods allow this issue to be mitigated? (Choose two.)
A. Use only drop downs.
B. Limit user input to acceptable characters.
C. Encrypt user input on the client side.
D. Use AES encryption to secure the script.
E. Remove all HTML/XML tags from user input.
B. Limit user input to acceptable characters.
E. Remove all HTML/XML tags from user input.
Explanation:
B. Limit user input to acceptable characters:
By restricting the characters that users can input, you can prevent malicious scripts from being executed. For example, you can limit input to alphanumeric characters, which reduces the risk of injecting harmful scripts.
E. Remove all HTML/XML tags from user input:
Sanitizing user input by removing any HTML or XML tags can prevent the insertion of scripts that could be executed in a web browser. This method ensures that any potentially harmful code is stripped from the input before it is processed or rendered.
Why the Other Options Are Less Effective:
A. Use only drop downs:
While using dropdowns can limit user input to predefined values and thus reduce the risk of XSS, it’s not a comprehensive solution. Not all user inputs can be replaced with dropdowns, and XSS can still occur in other input fields.
C. Encrypt user input on the client side:
Encrypting user input on the client side does not address the issue of XSS. XSS vulnerabilities arise when malicious scripts are injected into the web application and executed in the user’s browser. Encryption does not prevent the execution of malicious scripts; it only protects data during transmission.
D. Use AES encryption to secure the script:
AES encryption is a method of securing data but is not relevant to preventing XSS. XSS attacks occur due to improper handling and rendering of user inputs in the web application, not due to a lack of encryption.
An application has initiated an OAuth authorization code grant flow to get access to an API resource on behalf of an end
user.
Which two parameters are specified in the HTTP request coming back to the application as the end user grants access?
(Choose two.)
A. access token and a refresh token with respective expiration times to access the API resource
B. access token and expiration time to access the API resource
C. redirect URI a panel that shows the list of permissions to grant
D. code that can be exchanged for an access token
E. state can be used for correlation and security checks
D. code that can be exchanged for an access token
E. state can be used for correlation and security checks
Explanation:
D. code that can be exchanged for an access token:
In the OAuth authorization code grant flow, after the end user grants access, the authorization server sends an HTTP response back to the application, which includes an authorization code (code). This code is a temporary credential that the application can exchange for an access token in a subsequent request.
E. state can be used for correlation and security checks:
The state parameter is an optional but recommended parameter that the application includes in the initial authorization request. The authorization server sends it back unchanged to the application in the response. The state parameter helps prevent CSRF (Cross-Site Request Forgery) attacks and allows the application to maintain state between the request and the callback.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. access token and a refresh token with respective expiration times to access the API resource:
The access token and refresh token are not included in the initial response coming back to the application. Instead, the application receives an authorization code, which it then exchanges for the access token (and possibly a refresh token).
B. access token and expiration time to access the API resource:
Similar to option A, the access token is not included in the initial response. The access token is only provided after the application exchanges the authorization code with the authorization server.
C. redirect URI a panel that shows the list of permissions to grant:
The redirect URI is the endpoint where the authorization server sends the response after the user grants access. The list of permissions is typically shown to the user during the authorization process, but this information is not part of the response to the application.
While developing an application following the 12-factor app methodology, which approach should be used in the application
for logging?
A. Write a log to a file in the application directory.
B. Write a log to a file in /var/log.
C. Write the logs buffered to stdout.
D. Write the logs unbuffered to stdout.
D. Write the logs unbuffered to stdout.
Explanation:
12-Factor App Methodology: The 12-factor app methodology provides guidelines for building scalable, maintainable applications. One of the principles relates to logging and states that applications should treat logs as event streams.
Write the logs unbuffered to stdout:
Unbuffered Logging to stdout: The best practice according to the 12-factor app methodology is to write logs directly to stdout in an unbuffered manner. This ensures that log entries are immediately available for consumption by the execution environment, without delays caused by buffering. This approach allows the environment to capture and route logs to appropriate destinations, such as centralized logging systems or monitoring tools.
Why Not Buffered: Buffering logs might delay the log entries, making real-time monitoring less effective and potentially missing critical information during crashes or failures.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. Write a log to a file in the application directory:
Writing logs to files within the application directory is discouraged in the 12-factor methodology. Logs should not be stored as files but should be treated as event streams managed by the execution environment.
B. Write a log to a file in /var/log:
Similarly, writing logs to a file in /var/log is not recommended. Managing log files can introduce issues with log rotation, disk space, and availability, which are handled better by the environment’s logging system.
C. Write the logs buffered to stdout:
While writing logs to stdout is correct, buffering them is not ideal as it can introduce delays in log processing and monitoring, contrary to the real-time logging emphasis in the 12-factor methodology.
There is a requirement to securely store unique usernames and passwords. Given a valid username, it is also required to
validate that the password provided is correct.
Which action accomplishes this task?
A. Encrypt the username, hash the password, and store these values.
B. Hash the username, hash the password, and store these values.
C. Encrypt the username, encrypt the password, and store these values.
D. Hash the username, encrypt the password, and store these values.
A. Encrypt the username, hash the password, and store these values.
Explanation:
Username:
Encrypting the Username: Encrypting the username ensures that the usernames are stored securely and can be decrypted when needed. Since usernames often need to be retrieved or matched (for example, in login processes), encryption is suitable because it allows the original value to be restored.
Password:
Hashing the Password: Passwords should be hashed rather than encrypted. Hashing is a one-way function, meaning that once the password is hashed, it cannot be converted back to its original form. When a user tries to log in, their input password is hashed, and the hashed value is compared to the stored hash. This ensures that even if the hash is compromised, the original password cannot be easily retrieved.
Salting: Additionally, a unique salt should be added to each password before hashing to prevent attacks like rainbow table attacks. The salt is stored alongside the hash.
Why the Other Options Are Less Suitable:
B. Hash the username, hash the password, and store these values:
Hashing the username is generally not appropriate because you may need to retrieve or match the username in its original form. Hashing the password is correct, but hashing both values makes it difficult to work with usernames.
C. Encrypt the username, encrypt the password, and store these values:
While encrypting both the username and the password would secure them, it is not the best practice for passwords. Encryption is reversible, and if the encryption key is compromised, all passwords could be decrypted. Hashing is the preferred method for storing passwords because it is not reversible.
D. Hash the username, encrypt the password, and store these values:
Hashing the username is not advisable for the same reasons mentioned above. Encrypting the password is also less secure than hashing because encryption is reversible.
Which HTTP status code indicates that a client application is experiencing intentional rate limiting by the server?
A. 202
B. 401
C. 429
D. 503
C. 429
Explanation:
429 Too Many Requests: This status code is used by servers to indicate that the client has sent too many requests in a given amount of time (“rate limiting”). When a server returns this status code, it typically includes information about when the client can retry the request, often in the Retry-After header.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. 202 Accepted:
This status code indicates that the request has been accepted for processing, but the processing has not been completed. It does not relate to rate limiting.
B. 401 Unauthorized:
This status code indicates that the request requires user authentication. It is used when the client is not authenticated, but it does not relate to rate limiting.
D. 503 Service Unavailable:
This status code indicates that the server is currently unable to handle the request due to a temporary overload or maintenance of the server. While this could indicate that the server is busy, it is not specifically used for rate limiting.
The response from a server includes the header ETag: W/7eb8b94419e371767916ef13e0d6e63d. Which statement is true?
A. The ETag has a Strong validator directive.
B. The ETag has a Weak validator directive, which is an optional directive.
C. The ETag has a Weak validator directive, which is a mandatory directive.
D. The ETag has a Strong validator directive, which it is incorrectly formatted.
B. The ETag has a Weak validator directive, which is an optional directive.
Explanation:
ETag Header: The ETag (Entity Tag) is an HTTP header used for web cache validation and conditional requests. It helps the client determine whether the content has changed and whether it should request the new content or use a cached version.
Weak vs. Strong Validators:
Weak Validator: The W/ prefix in the ETag value indicates that it is a Weak validator. A weak ETag is used to indicate that two resources are semantically equivalent, even if there are slight differences in their content. It is useful for caching where an exact byte-for-byte match is not required.
Strong Validator: An ETag without the W/ prefix is considered a strong validator, which implies that the resource is byte-for-byte identical.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. The ETag has a Strong validator directive:
This is incorrect because the W/ prefix indicates a weak validator, not a strong one.
C. The ETag has a Weak validator directive, which is a mandatory directive:
While the W/ prefix does indicate a weak validator, the use of a weak validator is not mandatory. It is optional and can be used when the server deems it appropriate.
D. The ETag has a Strong validator directive, which is incorrectly formatted:
The ETag is correctly formatted as a weak validator, not a strong validator. The presence of the W/ prefix makes it a weak validator.
Which two strategies are used to protect personally identifiable information? (Choose two.)
A. Encrypt data in transit.
B. Encrypt hash values of data.
C. Encrypt data at rest.
D. Only hash usernames and passwords for efficient lookup.
E. Only encrypt usernames and passwords for efficient lookup.
A. Encrypt data in transit.
C. Encrypt data at rest.
Explanation:
A. Encrypt data in transit:
Encrypting data in transit ensures that any data sent between systems (such as between a client and a server) is protected from interception by unauthorized parties. This is typically achieved using protocols like TLS (Transport Layer Security), which secures the communication channel.
C. Encrypt data at rest:
Encrypting data at rest protects stored data from unauthorized access. If someone gains access to the storage media, they cannot read the data without the encryption key. This is crucial for protecting PII that is stored in databases, files, or backups.
Why the Other Options Are Less Suitable:
B. Encrypt hash values of data:
Hashing is a one-way process that transforms data into a fixed-length string. Hashing is typically used for passwords or integrity checks, not for protecting PII in general. Encrypting a hash is not a common practice and would not provide additional benefits for PII protection.
D. Only hash usernames and passwords for efficient lookup:
Hashing usernames and passwords can be part of a security strategy, but it is not sufficient by itself to protect all PII. Also, hashing is not used for efficient lookup but for secure storage. For secure lookup, techniques like keyed hash functions (HMAC) or encryption might be used, but simply hashing is not enough.
E. Only encrypt usernames and passwords for efficient lookup:
While encrypting usernames and passwords is important, saying “only” encrypt them suggests that other PII may not need protection, which is incorrect. All PII should be protected, and encryption should not be used solely for efficient lookup but as part of a broader security strategy.
Refer to the exhibit. A kubeconfig file to manage access to clusters is provided.
How many clusters are defined and which of them are accessed using username/password authentication versus certificate?
A. two clusters; scratch
B. three clusters; scratch
C. three clusters; development
D. two clusters; development
C. three clusters; development
How to Determine the Number of Clusters and Authentication Types:
Count the Clusters:
In a kubeconfig file, clusters are defined under the clusters section. You would count the number of entries under this section to determine how many clusters are defined.
Check Authentication Method:
Each context in the kubeconfig file typically refers to a cluster and a user.
Users are defined under the users section.
The type of authentication (username/password or certificate) can be determined by looking at the user section:
Username/Password: If a user has username and password fields defined, it uses username/password authentication.
Certificate: If a user has client-certificate and client-key fields defined, it uses certificate-based authentication.
Hypothetical Analysis:
Number of Clusters: If there are multiple entries under the clusters section, count them to determine the total number of clusters.
Authentication Type:
If one of the users associated with a cluster context has username and password fields, that cluster uses username/password authentication.
If a user has client-certificate and client-key, that cluster uses certificate-based authentication.
Example Answer:
If the kubeconfig file has:
3 clusters listed under clusters.
The scratch context uses username/password for authentication, and the others use certificate-based authentication.
Then, the correct answer would be:
B. three clusters; scratch
Which two techniques protect against injection attacks? (Choose two.)
A. input validation
B. trim whitespace
C. limit text areas to 255 characters
D. string escaping of user free text and data entry
E. only use dropdown, checkbox, and radio button fields
A. Input validation.
D. String escaping of user free text and data entry.
Explanation:
A. Input Validation:
Input validation ensures that user-provided data conforms to the expected format, type, and content before it is processed. By validating inputs, you can prevent malicious data from being processed by the application, which helps protect against SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), and other injection attacks.
D. String Escaping of User Free Text and Data Entry:
String escaping involves encoding certain characters within a string so that they are treated as data rather than executable code. For example, in SQL, escaping quotes can prevent user input from being interpreted as part of a SQL query, thereby mitigating the risk of SQL injection attacks.
Why the Other Options Are Less Effective:
B. Trim Whitespace:
Trimming whitespace from user input is generally a good practice for data cleanliness, but it does not protect against injection attacks. It merely removes unnecessary spaces from input fields.
C. Limit Text Areas to 255 Characters:
Limiting the length of input can reduce the attack surface, but it is not sufficient by itself to prevent injection attacks. Malicious payloads can still be constructed within shorter input lengths.
E. Only Use Dropdown, Checkbox, and Radio Button Fields:
Using dropdowns, checkboxes, and radio buttons can limit the type of input a user can provide, which can reduce the risk of injection attacks. However, this technique alone is not foolproof, as some inputs might still need to be free text, and attackers could potentially manipulate input in other ways.
FROM alpine:3.7
RUN apk add –no-chache bash
Refer to the exhibit. Which additional line results in the output of Test 1 upon execution of the docker run –rm devnet 1
command in a Dockerfile with this content?
A. CMD [“/bin/echo”, “Test1”]
B. RUN [“/bin/echo”, “Test1”]
C. ENTRYPOINT [“/bin/echo”, “Test1”]
D. CMD [“/bin/echo Test1”]
A. CMD [“/bin/echo”, “Test1”]
Explanation:
CMD: The CMD instruction in a Dockerfile specifies the default command to run when a container is started. It can be overridden by any arguments passed to docker run.
CMD [“/bin/echo”, “Test1”]: This will execute the /bin/echo command with the argument “Test1”, producing the output “Test1”.
When you run docker run –rm devnet 1, the 1 will be passed as an argument to the command defined by CMD. However, since “Test1” is defined within the CMD instruction, the command will simply output “Test1”.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
B. RUN [“/bin/echo”, “Test1”]:
RUN is used to execute commands during the image build process, not when the container is run. The output of a RUN command would not appear when running the container; instead, it would only affect the image-building process.
C. ENTRYPOINT [“/bin/echo”, “Test1”]:
ENTRYPOINT would also run /bin/echo “Test1” by default, but it wouldn’t allow overriding the command with additional arguments like 1 when using docker run. In this case, docker run –rm devnet 1 would result in “1” being passed to /bin/echo, overriding “Test1”.
D. CMD [“/bin/echo Test1”]:
This syntax is incorrect because it tries to pass the entire string “/bin/echo Test1” as a single argument to the shell, which is not the correct format for CMD in this context.
Which two statements describe advantages of static code analysis over unit tests? (Choose two.)
A. It checks for potential tainted data where input is not checked.
B. It enforces proper coding standards and style.
C. It performs a quick analysis of whether tests will pass or fail when run.
D. It checks for race conditions in threaded applications.
E. It estimates the performance of the code when run.
A. It checks for potential tainted data where input is not checked.
B. It enforces proper coding standards and style.
Explanation:
A. It checks for potential tainted data where input is not checked:
Static code analysis can detect issues related to security, such as potential vulnerabilities where user input is not properly validated or sanitized. This helps prevent tainted data from causing security risks, something unit tests might not always catch unless specifically written to test for such scenarios.
B. It enforces proper coding standards and style:
Static code analysis tools can be configured to enforce coding standards and style guidelines across a codebase. This ensures consistency in the code, reduces errors, and improves maintainability. Unit tests, on the other hand, focus on the functionality of the code rather than its style or adherence to standards.
Why the Other Options Are Less Suitable:
C. It performs a quick analysis of whether tests will pass or fail when run:
This is not a function of static code analysis. Static code analysis inspects code for issues without executing it, whereas running tests (like unit tests) determines whether they pass or fail.
D. It checks for race conditions in threaded applications:
Detecting race conditions often requires dynamic analysis or specialized tools designed for concurrency issues. Static code analysis may not reliably identify race conditions, as they depend on the runtime behavior of the application.
E. It estimates the performance of the code when run:
Static code analysis does not estimate performance. Performance estimation typically involves profiling or running the code to measure its efficiency, which is outside the scope of static code analysis.
Refer to the exhibit. Which word is missing from this Ansible playbook shown, to allow the Cisco IOS XE commands for
router configuration to be pushed after the playbook is executed?
A. input
B. lines
C. commands
D. config
B. lines
Explanation:
In an Ansible playbook, when using the ios_config module to push configuration commands to a Cisco device, the lines parameter is used to specify the configuration commands you want to send.
tasks:
- name: Base Config template
ios_config:
lines:
- logging buffered 10240
- service timestamps debug datetime msec localtime show-timezone
Refer to the exhibit. The YAML represented is using the ios_vrf module.
As part of the Ansible playbook workflow, what is the result when this task is run?
A. VRFs not defined in the host_vars file are removed from the device.
B. VRFs not defined in the host_vars file are added to the device, and any other VRFs on the device remain.
C. VRFs defined in the host_vars file are removed from the device.
D. VRFs are added to the device from the host_vars file, and any other VRFs on the device are removed.
D. VRFs are added to the device from the host_vars file, and any other VRFs on the device are removed.
Explanation:
ios_vrf module: The ios_vrf module in Ansible is used to manage VRF (Virtual Routing and Forwarding) configurations on Cisco IOS devices.
vrfs: “{{local_vrfs}}”: This line indicates that the VRFs to be managed are specified by the local_vrfs variable, which is likely defined in the host_vars file or elsewhere in the playbook.
state: present: This ensures that the VRFs specified in local_vrfs are present on the device.
purge: yes: This is the key setting. When purge is set to yes, it means that any VRFs currently on the device that are not listed in local_vrfs will be removed. This ensures that only the VRFs explicitly defined in the playbook or host_vars file will exist on the device after the playbook runs.
Result:
When this task is run, the Ansible playbook will:
Add the VRFs defined in local_vrfs (from the host_vars file or playbook) to the device.
Remove any VRFs currently on the device that are not listed in local_vrfs.
Refer to the exhibit. The Ansible playbook is using the netconf_module to configure an interface using a YANG model. As
part of this workflow, which YANG models augment the interface?
A. ietf-interfaces and ietf-ip
B. iana-if-type and ietf-interfaces
C. ietf-ip and openconfig-interface
D. ietf-ip and iana-if-type
A. ietf-interfaces and ietf-ip
Explanation:
ietf-interfaces: This is a core YANG model that defines the configuration and state data for network interfaces. It provides a basic structure for configuring network interfaces on a device.
ietf-ip: This YANG model augments the ietf-interfaces model by adding IP-related configuration elements to the interface, such as IP addresses, prefixes, and routing-related settings.
When using Ansible with the netconf_module to configure an interface, these two YANG models are commonly used together to configure both the interface itself (through ietf-interfaces) and the IP settings on that interface (through ietf-ip).
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
B. iana-if-type and ietf-interfaces:
While iana-if-type is used to define interface types (like Ethernet, loopback, etc.), it is not directly augmenting the interface configuration in the way ietf-ip does.
C. ietf-ip and openconfig-interface:
ietf-ip is a standard YANG model, while openconfig-interface comes from the OpenConfig initiative, which is an alternative set of models. They are not typically used together in the same workflow unless you are mixing OpenConfig with IETF models, which is less common.
D. ietf-ip and iana-if-type:
Again, iana-if-type provides a list of interface types but does not augment interface configurations as ietf-interfaces does.
The access token for a Webex bot has been stored in an environment variable using the command: export
bot_token=6bec40cf957de397561557a4fac9ea0
The developer now wants to containerize the Python application which will interact with the bot, and will use this build command to add the token to the build image: docker build –build-arg BOT_TOKEN=$bot_token
Which Dockerfile should be used to build the Docker image so that the bot access token is available as an environment
variable?
A local Docker container with a Container ID of 391441516e7a is running a Python application. Which command is used to
connect to a bash shell in the running container?
Explanation:
docker exec: This command is used to run a command in a running container.
-it: The -i flag keeps STDIN open, and the -t flag allocates a pseudo-TTY, which together allow you to interact with the shell.
391441516e7a: This is the ID of the running Docker container.
/bin/bash: This specifies that you want to start a bash shell inside the container.
Refer to the exhibit. The command docker build –tag=friendlyhello . is run to build a docker image from the given Dockerfile, reguirements.txt, and app.py. Then the command docker run -p 4000:80 friendlyhello is executed to run the application.
Which URL is entered in the web browser to see the content served by the application?
Which type of file is created from issued intermediate, root, and primary certificates for SSL installation on a server?
A. DER
B. CSR
C. PEM
D. CRT
C. PEM
Explanation:
PEM (Privacy-Enhanced Mail): PEM is a widely used format for certificates, certificate chains (which include root, intermediate, and primary certificates), and keys. PEM files are Base64 encoded and usually have extensions like .pem, .crt, .cer, or .key. When installing SSL certificates on a server, you often combine the root, intermediate, and primary certificates into a PEM file that can be used by the server to establish a secure connection.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. DER (Distinguished Encoding Rules):
DER is a binary format for X.509 certificates, unlike PEM, which is Base64 encoded. DER files typically have extensions like .der or .cer. While DER can be used for certificates, it’s less common than PEM, especially for web server installations.
B. CSR (Certificate Signing Request):
A CSR is a file created when you are requesting a certificate from a Certificate Authority (CA). It contains information about your organization and public key but does not include the actual certificates.
D. CRT:
.crt is a common extension for a certificate file, but it is not a type of file format. It is often used interchangeably with PEM format files.
Which two countermeasures help reduce the risk of playback attacks? (Choose two.)
A. Store data in a NoSQL database.
B. Implement message authentication (HMAC).
C. Enable end-to-end encryption.
D. Remove stack traces from errors.
E. Use short-lived access tokens.
B. Implement message authentication (HMAC).
E. Use short-lived access tokens.
Explanation:
B. Implement message authentication (HMAC):
HMAC (Hash-based Message Authentication Code) is a technique that combines a cryptographic hash function with a secret key. It ensures both the integrity and authenticity of a message. When used, HMAC can prevent attackers from altering a message or replaying it, as any modification or replay would result in a different HMAC value, making the attack detectable.
E. Use short-lived access tokens:
Short-lived access tokens are tokens that have a very short expiration time. This means that even if an attacker manages to capture a token during a playback attack, the token will likely have expired by the time the attacker tries to reuse it, rendering the attack ineffective.
Why the Other Options Are Less Suitable:
A. Store data in a NoSQL database:
While using a NoSQL database might have some security benefits depending on the context, it does not directly address the issue of playback attacks, which involve replaying previously captured messages or tokens.
C. Enable end-to-end encryption:
End-to-end encryption ensures that data is encrypted between the sender and the recipient, preventing eavesdropping. However, it does not prevent a replay of the encrypted data itself, which is what playback attacks involve.
D. Remove stack traces from errors:
Removing stack traces from errors is a good practice for security (to avoid leaking sensitive information), but it does not mitigate playback attacks, which involve the replay of valid messages or tokens.
Which two actions must be taken when an observable microservice application is developed? (Choose two.)
A. Know the state of a single instance of a single service.
B. Place “try/except” statement in code.
C. Place log statements in the code.
D. Use distributed tracing techniques.
E. Deploy microservice to multiple datacenters.
B. Place “try/except” statement in code.
C. Place log statements in the code.
What is submitted when an SSL certificate is requested?
A. PEM
B. CRT
C. DER
D. CSR
D. CSR
Explanation:
CSR (Certificate Signing Request):
A CSR is a file that is generated by an applicant (typically the server or organization requesting the SSL certificate) and submitted to a Certificate Authority (CA) when requesting an SSL certificate. The CSR contains information such as the applicant’s public key, the domain name, and organizational details. The CA uses this information to create and sign the SSL certificate, which is then provided to the applicant.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. PEM (Privacy-Enhanced Mail):
PEM is a format used for storing and transmitting cryptographic keys, certificates, and other data. It is not what is submitted when requesting an SSL certificate, but rather a format in which the certificate may be received or stored.
B. CRT:
CRT is a common file extension used for SSL certificates themselves (often in PEM format). It is what you receive after the CA signs and issues the certificate, not what you submit to request the certificate.
C. DER (Distinguished Encoding Rules):
DER is a binary format for X.509 certificates and keys. Like PEM, it is a format for storing or transmitting certificates but is not what is submitted to request an SSL certificate.
Which two principles are included in the codebase tenet of the 12-factor app methodology? (Choose two.)
A. An application is always tracked in a version control system.
B. There are multiple codebases per application.
C. The codebase is the same across all deploys.
D. There can be a many-to-one correlation between codebase and application.
E. It is only possible to have one application deployment per codebase.
A. An application is always tracked in a version control system.
C. The codebase is the same across all deploys.
Explanation:
A. An application is always tracked in a version control system:
The 12-factor app methodology emphasizes that the codebase of an application should always be tracked in a version control system (VCS) like Git. This ensures that every change to the codebase is documented, can be reverted if necessary, and can be worked on collaboratively.
C. The codebase is the same across all deploys:
The codebase must remain the same across all deployments, meaning that whether the app is deployed in development, staging, or production environments, the same codebase is used. This principle ensures consistency and reliability across different environments.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
B. There are multiple codebases per application:
This is incorrect because the 12-factor app methodology states that there should be a single codebase per application. Multiple codebases would violate the principle of a unified codebase.
D. There can be a many-to-one correlation between codebase and application:
The 12-factor app methodology advocates a one-to-one relationship between a codebase and an application. While an application can be deployed in multiple environments, it should have only one codebase.
E. It is only possible to have one application deployment per codebase:
This is incorrect because a single codebase can be deployed in multiple environments (e.g., development, staging, production), not just one deployment.
A developer has just completed the configuration of an API that connects sensitive internal systems. Based on company
policies, the security of the data is a high priority.
Which approach must be taken to secure API keys and passwords?
A. Embed them directly in the code.
B. Store them in a hidden file.
C. Store them inside the source tree of the application.
D. Change them periodically.
D. Change them periodically.
Refer to the exhibit. A company has extended networking from the data center to the cloud through Transit VPC.
Which two statements describe the benefits of this approach? (Choose two.)
A. Dynamic routing combined with multi-AZ deployment creates a robust network infrastructure.
B. VPC virtual gateways provide highly available connections to virtual networks.
C. Dedicated VPC simplifies load balancing by combining internal and external web services.
D. VPC virtual gateways provide more secure connections to virtual networks.
E. Dedicated VPC simplifies routing by not combining this service with other shared services.
B. VPC virtual gateways provide highly available connections to virtual networks.
D. VPC virtual gateways provide more secure connections to virtual networks.
What is a capability of the End User Monitoring feature of the AppDynamics platform?
A. discovers traffic flows, nodes, and transport connections where network or application/network issues are developing
B. monitoring local processes, services, and resource use, to explain problematic server performance
C. identifies the slowest mobile and IoT network requests, to locate the cause of problems
D. provides metrics on the performance of the database to troubleshoot performance-related issues
C. identifies the slowest mobile and IoT network requests, to locate the cause of problems
Explanation:
End User Monitoring (EUM) in AppDynamics is designed to track the experience of end users interacting with an application. It monitors the performance and availability of the application from the user’s perspective, which includes tracking how long requests take, identifying where delays occur, and detecting issues that users might experience when interacting with mobile, IoT, or web applications.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. discovers traffic flows, nodes, and transport connections where network or application/network issues are developing:
This capability is more related to network monitoring or infrastructure monitoring rather than end-user monitoring.
B. monitoring local processes, services, and resource use, to explain problematic server performance:
This is related to server or infrastructure monitoring, which focuses on the health and performance of the servers hosting the application, not specifically on end-user experiences.
D. provides metrics on the performance of the database to troubleshoot performance-related issues:
This relates to database monitoring, which is a different aspect of performance monitoring focusing on the database layer rather than end-user interactions.
An automated solution is needed to configure VMs in numerous cloud provider environments to connect the environments to an SDWAN. The SDWAN edge VM is provided as an image in each of the relevant clouds and can be given an identity and
all required configuration via cloud-init without needing to log into the VM once online.
Which configuration management and/or automation tooling is needed for this solution?
A. Ansible
B. Intersight
C. HyperFlex
D. Terraform
D. Terraform
Explanation:
Terraform: Terraform is an Infrastructure as Code (IaC) tool that allows you to automate the provisioning and management of infrastructure across multiple cloud providers. In this scenario, Terraform can be used to deploy VMs in various cloud environments and ensure that they are correctly configured to connect to the SD-WAN. Terraform’s cloud-agnostic nature makes it an ideal choice for managing infrastructure across different cloud providers.
Cloud-init: Since the SD-WAN edge VM can be configured using cloud-init, Terraform can trigger the deployment of these VMs and pass the necessary cloud-init configuration during provisioning. This allows the VMs to be fully configured and ready to connect to the SD-WAN without requiring manual intervention.
Why the Other Options Are Less Suitable:
A. Ansible:
While Ansible is a powerful configuration management tool, it is typically used after the infrastructure has already been provisioned. Terraform is more suitable for the initial provisioning across multiple cloud environments. However, Ansible could be used in conjunction with Terraform for additional post-provisioning configuration.
B. Intersight:
Cisco Intersight is a management platform for data center and edge systems but is not specifically designed for automating the provisioning of VMs across multiple cloud environments as Terraform is.
C. HyperFlex:
HyperFlex is a hyperconverged infrastructure solution from Cisco, which is more focused on on-premises infrastructure rather than automating cloud deployments.
v
Refer to the exhibits which show the documentation associated with the create port object API call in Cisco Firepower Threat Defense, and a cURL command.
Which data payload completes the cURL command to run the API call?
A. “icmpv4Type”: “ANY”, “name”: “string”, “type”: “icmpv4portobject”
B. “description”: “This is an ICMP Echo”, “icmpv4Code”: “8”, “icmpv4Type”: “Echo”, “isSystemDefined”: true, “name”: “ICMP Echo”, “version”: “2.2”
C. “description”: “string”, “icmpv4Code”: “ANY_IPV4”, “icmpv4Type”: “ANY”, “id”: “string”, “isSystemDefined”: “string”, “name”: “string”, “type”: “icmpv4portobject”, “version”: “string”
D. “description”: “string”, “icmpv4Code”: “ANY_IPV4”, “icmpv4Type”: null, “isSystemDefined”: true, “name”: “string”, “type”: “icmpv4portobject”
C. “description”: “string”, “icmpv4Code”: “ANY_IPV4”, “icmpv4Type”: “ANY”, “id”: “string”, “isSystemDefined”: “string”, “name”: “string”, “type”: “icmpv4portobject”, “version”: “string”
An application is developed in order to communicate with Cisco Webex. For reporting, the application must retrieve all the messages sent to a Cisco Webex room on a monthly basis.
Which action calls /v1/messages directly?
A. Set up a webhook that has messages as the resource type and store the results locally.
B. Utilize the pagination functionality by defining the max property.
C. Recursively call the /v1/messages endpoint by using the beforeMessage property.
D. Filter the response results by specifying the created property in the request.
C. Recursively call the /v1/messages endpoint by using the beforeMessage property.
Explanation:
Recursively call the /v1/messages endpoint by using the beforeMessage property:
The beforeMessage property is used to paginate through the messages in a room by retrieving messages that were sent before a specific message ID. By recursively calling the /v1/messages endpoint and using the beforeMessage property, you can retrieve all the messages in a room, one page at a time, until you’ve collected all messages for the desired time period.
Why the Other Options Are Less Suitable:
A. Set up a webhook that has messages as the resource type and store the results locally:
While webhooks are useful for real-time notification of new messages, they are not suitable for retrieving historical messages. Webhooks notify you when a new message is posted, but they do not provide a way to retrieve all past messages for a reporting period.
B. Utilize the pagination functionality by defining the max property:
The max property is used to limit the number of messages returned in a single call, which is part of pagination. However, it does not by itself allow you to retrieve all messages. You still need to use properties like beforeMessage to get older messages in subsequent requests.
D. Filter the response results by specifying the created property in the request:
The created property can be used to filter messages by their creation date, but this does not directly address the need to retrieve all messages in a room over time. This filter would be useful if you know the exact date range, but it still requires handling pagination to retrieve all messages.
An application has been developed for monitoring rooms in Cisco Webex. An engineer uses the application to retrieve all the messages from a Cisco Webex room, but the results are slowly presented.
Which action optimizes calls to retrieve the messages from the /v1/messages endpoint?
A. Define the ma property by using the pagination functionality.
B. Set the beforeMessage property to retrieve the messages sent before a specific message ID.
C. Avoid unnecessary calls by using a prior request to /v1/rooms to retrieve the last activity property.
D. Filter the response results by specifying the created property in the request.
A. Define the ma property by using the pagination functionality.
A bot has been created to respond to alarm messages. A developer is now creating a Webhook to allow the bot to respond to messages.
Which format allows the Webhook to respond to messages for the bot within Webex?
A. GET /messages?personId=me&roomId=NETWORK_STATUS Authorization: Bearer THE_BOTS_ACCESS_TOKEN
B. GET /messages?mentionedPeople=me&roomId=NETWORK_STATUS Authorization: Bearer THE_BOTS_ACCESS_TOKEN
C. GET /messages?mentionedBot=me&roomId=NETWORK_STATUS Authorization: Bearer THE_BOTS_ACCESS_TOKEN
D. GET /messages?botId=me&roomId=NETWORK_STATUS Authorization: Bearer THE_BOTS_ACCESS_TOKEN
B. GET /messages?mentionedPeople=me&roomId=NETWORK_STATUS Authorization: Bearer THE_BOTS_ACCESS_TOKEN
Explanation:
mentionedPeople=me: This parameter is used to filter messages where the bot is mentioned. The “me” keyword refers to the bot itself, meaning the Webhook will trigger only when the bot is specifically mentioned in the room.
roomId=NETWORK_STATUS: This specifies the room where the messages are being monitored.
Authorization: Bearer THE_BOTS_ACCESS_TOKEN: This is the access token of the bot, which is required to authenticate the API request.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. GET /messages?personId=me&roomId=NETWORK_STATUS Authorization: Bearer THE_BOTS_ACCESS_TOKEN:
personId=me would filter messages sent by the bot itself, not messages mentioning the bot, which is not the intended use case.
C. GET /messages?mentionedBot=me&roomId=NETWORK_STATUS Authorization: Bearer THE_BOTS_ACCESS_TOKEN:
There is no mentionedBot parameter in the Webex API. The correct parameter is mentionedPeople.
D. GET /messages?botId=me&roomId=NETWORK_STATUS Authorization: Bearer THE_BOTS_ACCESS_TOKEN:
botId=me is not a valid parameter in the Webex API. The correct approach is to use mentionedPeople.
What are two features of On-Box Python for hosting an application on a network device? (Choose two.)
A. It has direct access to Cisco IOS XE CLI commands.
B. It is a Python interpreter installed inside the guest shell.
C. It enables execution of XML scripts on a Cisco IOS XE router or switch.
D. It supports Qt for graphical interfaces and dashboards.
E. It has access to Cisco IOS XE web UI through a controller.
A. It has direct access to Cisco IOS XE CLI commands.
B. It is a Python interpreter installed inside the guest shell.
Explanation:
A. It has direct access to Cisco IOS XE CLI commands:
On-Box Python allows scripts to directly interact with the Cisco IOS XE CLI commands, enabling automation and scripting of network configurations and management tasks from within the network device itself. This direct access is one of the key features that make On-Box Python powerful for network automation.
B. It is a Python interpreter installed inside the guest shell:
On-Box Python refers to the Python interpreter that is installed directly on the network device, typically within a guest shell. The guest shell is a secure Linux-based environment on the Cisco IOS XE device where Python scripts can be executed, providing a local automation environment without the need for external servers.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
C. It enables execution of XML scripts on a Cisco IOS XE router or switch:
This is not a feature of On-Box Python. On-Box Python is for executing Python scripts, not XML scripts. XML scripts might be used in other contexts, such as with NETCONF, but not directly related to On-Box Python.
D. It supports Qt for graphical interfaces and dashboards:
On-Box Python on Cisco devices does not support Qt for graphical interfaces. The Python environment on network devices is typically used for scripting and automation tasks, not for developing graphical user interfaces.
E. It has access to Cisco IOS XE web UI through a controller:
This is not a feature of On-Box Python. While Cisco IOS XE devices may have a web UI and can be managed through various controllers, On-Box Python itself does not provide access to or interact with the web UI.
A custom dashboard of the network health must be created by using Cisco DNA Center APIs. An existing dashboard is a
RESTful API that receives data from Cisco DNA Center as a new metric every time the network health information is sent
from the script to the dashboard.
Which set of requests creates the custom dashboard?
A. POST request to Cisco DNA Center to obtain the network health information, and then a GET request to the dashboard to publish the new metric
B. GET request to Cisco DNA Center to obtain the network health information, and then a PUT request to the dashboard to publish the new metric
C. GET request to Cisco DNA Center to obtain the network health information, and then a POST request to the dashboard to publish the new metric
D. PUT request to Cisco DNA Center to obtain the network health information, and then a POST request to the dashboard to publish the new metric
C. GET request to Cisco DNA Center to obtain the network health information, and then a POST request to the dashboard to publish the new metric
Explanation:
GET Request to Cisco DNA Center:
Purpose: To retrieve the current network health information from Cisco DNA Center.
Action: A GET request is made to the Cisco DNA Center API endpoint that provides network health metrics. The GET method is used because you are retrieving (or “getting”) information from the server.
POST Request to the Dashboard:
Purpose: To send the new metric to the custom dashboard.
Action: A POST request is made to the custom dashboard’s API to publish the new metric. The POST method is used because you are sending (or “posting”) new data to the dashboard.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. POST request to Cisco DNA Center to obtain the network health information, and then a GET request to the dashboard to publish the new metric:
Incorrect: The POST request is not used to retrieve data from Cisco DNA Center; it’s used to send data. Also, GET is not used to publish data to a dashboard.
B. GET request to Cisco DNA Center to obtain the network health information, and then a PUT request to the dashboard to publish the new metric:
Incorrect: While GET is correct for retrieving data, PUT is generally used to update existing resources. Since you’re adding a new metric, POST is more appropriate.
D. PUT request to Cisco DNA Center to obtain the network health information, and then a POST request to the dashboard to publish the new metric:
Incorrect: PUT is not the correct method for retrieving information from Cisco DNA Center; GET should be used for that purpose.
A timeframe custom dashboard must be developed to present data collected from Cisco Meraki. The dashboard must
include a wireless health alert count.
What needs to be built as a prerequisite?
A. A publicly available HTTP server to receive Meraki Webhooks from the Meraki Scanning API.
B. A publicly available HTTP server to receive Meraki Webhooks from the Meraki Dashboard API.
C. A daemon to consume the Wireless Health endpoint of the Meraki Dashboard API.
D. A daemon to consume the Wireless Health endpoint of the Meraki Scanning API.
C. A daemon to consume the Wireless Health endpoint of the Meraki Dashboard API.
Explanation:
Meraki Dashboard API: The Meraki Dashboard API provides a variety of endpoints that allow you to programmatically interact with Meraki devices and data. The Wireless Health endpoint specifically provides detailed information about the health of the wireless network, including alert counts, client connectivity, and more.
Daemon: A daemon is a background process that continuously runs and performs a specific function, such as collecting data from an API at regular intervals. In this case, the daemon would periodically consume the Wireless Health endpoint to collect the necessary data for the custom dashboard.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. A publicly available HTTP server to receive Meraki Webhooks from the Meraki Scanning API:
The Meraki Scanning API is designed for gathering real-time location data for devices within a wireless network, not for monitoring wireless health or alerts.
B. A publicly available HTTP server to receive Meraki Webhooks from the Meraki Dashboard API:
While webhooks could be used to receive event-driven data, this option is not the most appropriate for continuously gathering data on wireless health. The Dashboard API’s Wireless Health endpoint is better suited for this task.
D. A daemon to consume the Wireless Health endpoint of the Meraki Scanning API:
The Scanning API is not designed to provide wireless health data or alert counts. The correct API for this task is the Meraki Dashboard API.
{‘lat’: 37.4180951010362, ‘lng’: -122.098531723022, ‘address’: ‘’, ‘serial’: ‘Q2HP-F5K5-F98Q’, ‘mac’: ‘88:15:44:ea:f5:bf’,
‘lanIp’: ‘10.10.10.15’,
‘url’: ‘https://n149.meraki.com/DevNet-Sandbox/n/EFZDavc/manage/nodes/new_list/78214561218351’, ‘model’: ‘MS220-8P’,
‘switchProfileId’: None, ‘firmware’: ‘switch-11-31’, ‘floorPlanId’: None}
Refer to the exhibit. A developer needs to find the geographical coordinates of a device on the network
L_397561557481105433 using a Python script to query the Meraki API. After running response = requests.get() against the
Meraki API, the value of response.text is shown in the exhibit.
What Python code is needed to retrieve the longitude and latitude coordinates of the device?
A. latitude = response.text[‘lat’] longitude = response.text[‘lng’]
B. latitude = response.json()[‘lat’] longitude = response.json()[‘lng’]
C. latitude = response.json()[0] longitude = response.json()[1]
D. latitude = response.text[0] longitude = response.text[1]
B. latitude = response.json()[‘lat’] longitude = response.json()[‘lng’]
Explanation:
response.json(): This method parses the JSON response into a Python dictionary. Once the JSON is converted into a dictionary, you can access its elements using the keys.
response.json()[‘lat’]: Retrieves the value associated with the lat key, which corresponds to the latitude.
response.json()[‘lng’]: Retrieves the value associated with the lng key, which corresponds to the longitude.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. latitude = response.text[‘lat’] longitude = response.text[‘lng’]:
response.text is a string, not a dictionary. You cannot directly access keys like [‘lat’] on a string.
C. latitude = response.json()[0] longitude = response.json()[1]:
This syntax implies that response.json() returns a list, where [0] and [1] would access the first and second items in that list. However, the JSON response in this case is a dictionary, not a list.
D. latitude = response.text[0] longitude = response.text[1]:
response.text[0] and response.text[1] would return the first and second characters of the string, not the latitude and longitude values.
Refer to the exhibit. The JSON response is received from the Meraki location API.
Which parameter is missing?
A. apMac
B. clientMac
C. clientId
D. accesspoint
Given the context of the Meraki location API and the parameters typically involved, the most likely missing parameter in the JSON response would be:
B. clientMac
Explanation:
apMac: This typically refers to the MAC address of the access point (AP) that the client is connected to. It’s not the client-specific identifier but rather identifies the AP.
clientMac: This is the MAC address of the client device. It is a crucial parameter used to identify the specific device being tracked or communicated with by the Meraki API.
clientId: This could be a unique identifier for the client, but in the context of Meraki’s API, clientMac is usually the key identifier.
accesspoint: This is not a standard parameter in Meraki API responses; apMac is typically used instead.
An engineer must enable an SSID in a Meraki network.
Which request accomplishes this task?
A. PUT /networks/{networkId}/ssids/{number}?enabled=true
B. POST /networks/{networkId}/ssids/{number}?enabled=true
C. PUT /networks/{networkId}/ssids/{number} {“enable”: true}
D. POST /networks/{networkId}/ssids/{number} {“enable”: true}
C. PUT /networks/{networkId}/ssids/{number} {“enable”: true}
Explanation:
PUT: The PUT method is used to update an existing resource. In this case, it’s used to update the configuration of an SSID in the network.
/networks/{networkId}/ssids/{number}: This endpoint targets the specific SSID ({number}) within the network identified by {networkId}.
{“enable”: true}: This JSON payload is used to set the enable attribute of the SSID to true, effectively enabling the SSID.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. PUT /networks/{networkId}/ssids/{number}?enabled=true:
This option incorrectly places the parameter in the query string rather than in the JSON body.
B. POST /networks/{networkId}/ssids/{number}?enabled=true:
POST is typically used to create a new resource, not update an existing one. Also, the parameter is incorrectly placed in the query string.
D. POST /networks/{networkId}/ssids/{number} {“enable”: true}:
POST is not the correct method for updating an existing SSID configuration. PUT should be used instead.
Which two design considerations should be considered when building a Cisco Meraki dashboard out of available APIs?
(Choose two.)
A. If the API key is shared, it cannot be regenerated.
B. The API requests require the key and the user credentials.
C. API call volume is rate-limited to five calls per second per organization.
D. The API version does not need to be specified in the URL.
E. Access to the API must first be enabled by using the settings for an organization.
C. API call volume is rate-limited to five calls per second per organization.
E. Access to the API must first be enabled by using the settings for an organization.
Explanation:
C. API call volume is rate-limited to five calls per second per organization:
Cisco Meraki APIs have rate limits to ensure fair usage and system stability. Specifically, the API is rate-limited to five calls per second per organization. When designing an application that interacts with the Meraki dashboard via APIs, it’s crucial to implement proper rate-limiting and retry logic to handle cases where the rate limit is exceeded.
E. Access to the API must first be enabled by using the settings for an organization:
Before you can use the Cisco Meraki APIs, API access must be explicitly enabled within the Meraki dashboard settings for the organization. Without this setting enabled, the API will not accept requests, even if the API key is correct.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. If the API key is shared, it cannot be regenerated:
This statement is incorrect. If an API key is compromised or needs to be rotated, you can regenerate it within the Meraki dashboard. However, when you regenerate the key, any existing services using the old key will need to be updated to use the new key.
B. The API requests require the key and the user credentials:
This statement is incorrect. Cisco Meraki API requests typically only require the API key for authentication. User credentials (such as username and password) are not required in addition to the API key.
D. The API version does not need to be specified in the URL:
This statement is incorrect. The API version is specified in the URL when making requests to the Cisco Meraki API (e.g., v1 or v0). It’s important to specify the correct version to ensure compatibility and access to the right API endpoints.
Refer to the exhibits above and click on the IETF Routing tab in the top left corner to help with this question. A developer is
trying to update the routing instance by adding a new route to the routes list using the URL in the exhibit.
What action must be taken to fix the error being received?
A. Fix the body being sent to update the routes list
B. Change the HTTP Method being used to make the change
C. Change the url to “/ietf-routing:routing/routing-instance=default”
D. Update the authorization credentials
E. Change the URL to “/ietf-routing:routing-instance/default”
B. Change the HTTP Method being used to make the change
Explanation:
When updating an existing resource in RESTful APIs, the correct HTTP method is typically PUT or PATCH, depending on the specific API’s design.
PUT: This is generally used to replace the entire resource or a significant part of it.
PATCH: This is used to make partial updates to a resource, such as adding a new route to an existing list.
If the developer is trying to add a new route to the routes list, it’s likely that they need to use the PATCH method to update the list without replacing the entire resource.
Why the Other Options Are Less Likely:
A. Fix the body being sent to update the routes list:
While the body might need to be correctly formatted, the most common issue in such scenarios is the incorrect HTTP method being used.
C. Change the url to “/ietf-routing
/routing-instance=default”:
This could be relevant if the URL was indeed wrong, but it’s more likely that the HTTP method is the issue.
D. Update the authorization credentials:
If there was an issue with authorization, you would typically see an authorization error (e.g., 401 Unauthorized), rather than a method or URL-related error.
E. Change the URL to “/ietf-routing
/default”:
This suggests a path issue, which might not be the cause if the primary problem is the method used.
Refer to the exhibit. This script uses ciscoyang to configure two VRF instances on a Cisco IOS-XR device using the Yang
NETCONF type. Which two words are required to complete the script? (Choose two.)
A. ensure
B. commit
C. false
D. replace
E. none
C. false
D. replace
Into which two areas are AppDynamics APIs categorized? (Choose two.)
A. application-centric
B. analytics-events
C. database-visibility
D. platform-side
E. agent-side
D. platform-side
E. agent-side
Explanation:
Platform-side APIs:
These APIs are used to interact with the AppDynamics platform itself. They allow you to retrieve data, manage configurations, and integrate with other tools and systems. Examples include APIs for accessing application performance data, managing business transactions, and working with dashboards.
Agent-side APIs:
These APIs are related to the configuration and management of AppDynamics agents that are deployed on applications. They allow you to customize the behavior of the agents, such as setting up custom metrics, monitoring configurations, and managing agent interactions.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. application-centric:
This is not a standard category in which AppDynamics APIs are grouped.
B. analytics-events:
While analytics and events are part of what AppDynamics can monitor, “analytics-events” is not a specific category used to describe their APIs.
C. database-visibility:
Database visibility is a feature of AppDynamics, but it is not an API category. The relevant APIs for database visibility would still fall under platform-side or agent-side APIs.
Refer to the exhibit. Which code snippet is required in the headers to successfully authorize wireless information from Cisco
DNA Center?
A. headers = {‘X-auth-token’:‘fa8426a0-8eaf-4d22-8e13-7c1b16a9370c’}
B. headers = {‘Authorization’:‘Basic YWRtaW46R3JhcGV2aW5IMQ==’}
C. headers = {‘Authorization’:‘Bearer ASDNFALKJER23412RKDALSNKF’}
D. headers = {‘Content-type’:‘application/json’}
A. headers = {‘X-auth-token’:‘fa8426a0-8eaf-4d22-8e13-7c1b16a9370c’}
Explanation:
X-auth-token: Cisco DNA Center uses a token-based authentication mechanism. After you authenticate and obtain a token, this token is included in the headers of subsequent API requests to authorize and access the necessary resources.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
B. Authorization: Basic YWRtaW46R3JhcGV2aW5IMQ==:
This represents Basic Authentication, where credentials are encoded in Base64. Cisco DNA Center typically uses token-based authentication rather than Basic Authentication for API requests.
C. Authorization: Bearer ASDNFALKJER23412RKDALSNKF:
“Bearer” tokens are used in OAuth 2.0 authorization, which is different from the token-based mechanism that Cisco DNA Center uses (which relies on the X-auth-token header).
D. Content-type: application/json:
This header specifies the format of the request body as JSON, but it does not provide the authorization needed to access the API.
Conclusion:
On a Cisco Catalyst 9300 Series Switch, the guest shell is being used to create a service within a container.
Which change is needed to allow the service to have external access?
A. Apply ip nat overload on VirtualPortGroup0.
B. Apply ip nat inside on Interface VirtualPortGroup0.
C. Apply ip nat outside on Interface VirtualPortGroup0.
D. Apply ip nat inside on Interface GigabitEthernet1.
B. Apply ip nat inside on Interface VirtualPortGroup0.
Explanation:
VirtualPortGroup0 is the virtual interface that connects the guest shell (or container) to the underlying network stack of the switch.
NAT (Network Address Translation) is required to allow traffic from the container (inside) to reach external networks (outside). To set this up:
ip nat inside should be applied to the interface connected to the internal network (the guest shell or container).
ip nat outside would be applied to the interface connected to the external network (typically the physical interface facing the network).
Since VirtualPortGroup0 connects the container, it should be designated as the inside NAT interface.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. Apply ip nat overload on VirtualPortGroup0:
ip nat overload is used for PAT (Port Address Translation) but needs to be applied in conjunction with NAT statements, not directly on the interface.
C. Apply ip nat outside on Interface VirtualPortGroup0:
ip nat outside is incorrect because VirtualPortGroup0 is the internal interface for the container network. The correct NAT setup requires this interface to be marked as ip nat inside.
D. Apply ip nat inside on Interface GigabitEthernet1:
If GigabitEthernet1 is facing the external network, it should be configured as ip nat outside, not inside.
