Practice Qs Flashcards

1
Q

What WAN topology permits the highest degree of failover and redundancy?

Full mesh
Ring
Partial mesh
Hub-and-spoke

A

Full Mesh

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2
Q

What WAN topology enables you to minimize WAN expenses by not directly connecting any two remote locations?

partial mesh
hub-and-spoke
full mesh
ring

A

hub-and-spoke

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3
Q

What type of network allows interconnected devices to share their resources with one another but would have issues regarding scalability?

MPLS
client-server
hub-and-spoke
peer-to-peer

A

peer-to-peer

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4
Q

What device is a Layer 3 device that is used to make forwarding decisions based on a Layer 3 address?

hub
switch
WAN link
router

A

router

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5
Q

What device would forward information using the following address as its primary information: 192.168.1.101?

hub
WAN Link
switch
router

A

router

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6
Q

What type of network has a dedicated file server, which provides shared access to files?

client-server
hub and spoke
peer to peer
MPLS

A

client-server

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7
Q

What device is a Layer 2 device that uses MAC address learning to intelligently forward traffic?

WAN Link
hub
switch
router

A

switch

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8
Q

What topology could result in a lack of all communication capabilities with a single connection break?

ring
dual ring
full mesh
partial mesh

A

ring

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9
Q

You need a network that provides centralized authentication for your users. Which of the following logical topologies should you use?

A. VLANs
B. Peer-to-peer
C. Client-server
D. Mesh

A

client-server

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10
Q

You need a topology that is scalable to use in your network. Which of the following will you install?

A. Bus
B. Ring
C. Star
D. Mesh

A

star

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11
Q

Which of the following physical topologies has the most connections and is the least popular for LANs?

A. Bus
B. Start
C. Ring
D. Mesh

A

mesh

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12
Q

In a physical star topology, what happens when a workstation loses its physical connection to another device?

A. The ring is broken, so no devices can communicate.
B. Only that workstation loses its ability to communicate.
C. That workstation and the device it’s connected to lose communication with the rest of the network.
D. No devices can communicate because there are now two unterminated network segments.

A

Only that workstation loses its ability to communicate.

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13
Q

Which type of WAN technology uses labels, which enables priority of voice though the network?

A.	VPN
B.	T1
C.	MPLS
D.	LAN
E.	Bus
A

MPLS

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14
Q

What is a logical grouping of network users and resources called?

A. WAN
B. LAN
C. MPLS
D. Host

A

LAN

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15
Q

Which of the following is a concern when using peer-to-peer networks?

A. Where to place the server
B. Whose computer is least busy and can act as the server
C. The security associated with such a network
D. Having enough peers to support creating such a network

A

The security associated with such a network

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16
Q

Which of the following is an example of when a point-to-multipoint network is called for?

A. When a centralized office needs to communicate with many branch offices
B. When a full mesh of WAN links is in place
C. When multiple offices are daisy-chained to one another in a line
D. When there are only two nodes in the network to be connected

A

When a centralized office needs to communicate with many branch offices

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17
Q

Which of the following is an example of a LAN?

A. Ten buildings interconnected by Ethernet connections over fiber-optic cabling
B. Ten routers interconnected by Frame Relay circuits
C. Two routers interconnected with a T1 circuit
D. A computer connected to another computer so they can share resources

A

A computer connected to another computer so they can share resources

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18
Q

Which of the following is a disadvantage of the star topology?

A. When a single port on the central concentrating device fails, the entire network loses connectivity.
B. When the central concentrating device experiences a complete failure, all attached devices lose connectivity to the rest of the network.
C. In a star topology, a more expensive type of host must be used compared to the host used when implementing a physical bus.
D. It is more difficult to add stations and troubleshoot than with other topologies.

A

When the central concentrating device experiences a complete failure, all attached devices lose connectivity to the rest of the network.

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19
Q

1What is a difference between a LAN and a WAN?

A. WANs require a router.
B. WANs cover larger geographical areas.
C. WANs can utilize either private or public data transport.
D. All of the above.

A

All of the above

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20
Q

Which of the following provides the most physical layout flexibility in a very large, geographically dispersed enterprise network?

A. Bus topology
B. LAN switch
C. Star topology
D. MPLS cloud network

A

MPLS cloud network

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21
Q

In what type of network are all computers considered equal and do not share any central authority?

A. Peer-to-peer
B. Client-server
C. Physical topology
D. None of the above

A

Peer-to-peer

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22
Q

What advantage does the client-server architecture have over peer-to-peer?

A. Easier maintenance
B. Greater organization
C. Tighter security
D. All of the above

A

All of the above

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23
Q

Which of the following is an example of a hybrid network?

A. Ethernet switch
B. Ring topology
C. Bus topology
D. Star topology

A

Ethernet switch

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24
Q

You have a network with multiple LANs and want to keep them separate but still connect them together so they can all get to the Internet. Which of the following is the best solution?

A. Use static IP addresses.
B. Add more hubs.
C. Implement more switches.
D. Install a router.

A

Install a router

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25
Which type of topology has the greatest number of physical connections? A. Point-to-multipoint B. Star C. Point-to-point D. Mesh
Mesh
26
What is the common TCP port (that is, “well-known” port) used by HTTP? 123 110 443 80
80
27
A corporate e-mail service would be classified as belonging to what Layer of the OSI Model? Presentation Physical Network Application
Application
28
What layer of the OSI model does a hub operate? (Choose 2) Layer 1 Layer 2 Data Link Physical
Layer 1 | Physical
29
Which layer of the OSI Model is concerned with logical addressing? Network Transport Data Link Application
Network
30
What sublayer of the Data Link layer uses the IEEE 802.2 protocol? MAC LLC IP TCP
LLC
31
An Ethernet workgroup switch resides at which layer of the OSI Model? Layer 3 Layer 2 Layer 1 Layer 4
Layer 2
32
Which of the following are sublayers of the Data Link Layer (that is, Layer 2) of the OSI Model? Select 2 MAC LLC LAPD PPP
MAC | LLC
33
``` Internet Protocol (IP) resides at what layer of the OSI Model? Select 2 ``` Layer 3 Network Layer 4 Transport
Layer 3 | Network
34
What is the name of Layer 6 in the OSI Model? Presentation Application Data Link Physical
Presentation
35
What layer of the OSI model includes routing? Internet Network Access Network Physical
Network
36
Host 1 sent a SYN packet to Host 2. What will Host 2 send in response? ``` A. ACK B. NAK C. SYN/ACK D. SYN/NAK E. SYN ```
SYN/ACK
37
TCP and UDP reside at which layer of the OSI model? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
Layer 4
38
Which layer of the OSI model provides an entry point for programs to access the network infrastructure? A. Application B. Transport C. Network D. Physical
Application
39
You are connected to a server on the Internet and you click a link on the server and receive a time-out message. What layer could be the source of this message? A. Application B. Transport C. Network D. Physical
Application
40
Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for code and character-set conversion as well as recognizing data formats? A. Application B. Presentation C. Session D. Network
Presentation
41
At which layers of the OSI model do bridges, hubs, and routers primarily operate, respectively? A. Physical, Physical, Data Link B. Data Link, Data Link, Network C. Data Link, Physical, Network D. Physical, Data Link, Network
Data Link, Physical, Network
42
Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for converting data into signals appropriate for the transmission medium? A. Application B. Network C. Data Link D. Physical
Physical
43
A receiving host has failed to receive all the segments that it should acknowledge. What can the host do to improve the reliability of this communication session? A. Send a different source port number. B. Restart the virtual circuit. C. Decrease the sequence number. D. Decrease the window size.
Decrease the window size
44
Which Layer 1 devices can be used to enlarge the area covered by a single LAN segment? (Choose two.) ``` A. Firewall B. NIC C. Hub D. Repeater E. RJ-45 transceiver ```
Hub | Repeater
45
Segmentation of a data stream happens at which layer of the OSI model? A. Physical B. Data Link C. Network D. Transport
Transport
46
When data is encapsulated, which is the correct order? A. Data, frame, packet, segment, bits B. Segment, data, packet, frame, bits C. Data, segment, packet, frame, bits D. Data, segment, frame, packet, bits
Data, segment, packet, frame, bits
47
What are two purposes for segmentation with a bridge? (Choose two.) A. To add more broadcast domains B. To create more collision domains C. To add more bandwidth for users D. To allow more broadcasts for users
To create more collision domains | To add more bandwidth for users
48
Acknowledgments, sequencing, and flow control are characteristic of which OSI layer? A. Layer 2 B. Layer 3 C. Layer 4 D. Layer 7
Layer 4
49
Which of the following is true regarding sequencing and acknowledgments? (Choose all that apply.) A. The segments delivered are acknowledged back to the sender upon their reception. B. If a segment is not received, the virtual circuit must be restarted from the beginning at a slower transmit interval. C. Any segments not acknowledged are retransmitted. D. Segments are sequenced back into their proper order upon arrival at their destination. E. All segments are retransmitted on time slot intervals.
The segments delivered are acknowledged back to the sender upon their reception. Any segments not acknowledged are retransmitted. Segments are sequenced back into their proper order upon arrival at their destination.
50
What is the purpose of flow control? A. To ensure that data is retransmitted if an acknowledgment is not received B. To reassemble segments in the correct order at the destination device C. To provide a means for the receiver to govern the amount of data sent by the sender D. To regulate the size of each segment
To provide a means for the receiver to govern the amount of data sent by the sender
51
At which layer of the OSI model would you find IP? A. Transport B. Network C. Data Link D. Physical
Network
52
Of the following, which is the highest layer in the OSI model? A. Transport B. Session C. Network D. Presentation
Presentation
53
Routers perform routing at which OSI layer? ``` A. Physical B. Data Link C. Network D. Transport E. Application ```
Network
54
Which of the following mnemonic devices can you use to remember the first letter of the name of each layer of the OSI model in the proper order? A. All People Seem To Need Processed Data. B. Always Should People Never Threaten Dog Police. C. Please Do Not Throw Sausage Pizza Away. D. All Day People Should Try New Professions.
Please Do Not Throw Sausage Pizza Away
55
Which IEEE standard specifies the protocol for CSMA/CD? A. 802.2 B. 802.3 C. 802.5 D. 802.11
802.3
56
A crossover cable is used to connect all of the following except . A. Switch to switch B. Host to host C. Hub to switch D. Host to switch
Host to switch
57
A building might have multiple patch panels (for example, on different floors of a building). These common locations, where cables from nearby office home back to, are often called what? multistation access units intermediate distribution frames central offices access points
IDF - intermediate distribution frames
58
Multimode fiber interfaces use what to generate the signal? Laser LEAD Copper LED
LED
59
On which type of cable does EMI have the least effect? A. Coax B. Fiber-optic C. UTP D. STP
Fiber-optic
60
What is the bandwidth of a 1000BaseT network? 1000KB 1000GB 1GB 1MB
1GB
61
What layer of of the OSI model is the T568A specification? Transport Network Data Link Physical
Physical
62
What material is used for the jacket of a plenum rated cable? Copper Glass Teflon PVC
Teflon
63
What type of connector does UTP cable typically use? A. BNC B. ST C. RJ-45 D. SC
RJ-45
64
When creating a T568A to T568B Crossover cable, where do pins 1 and 2 connect to on the other side of the cable pins 1 and 2 pins 2 and 3 pins 4 and 5 pins 3 and 6
pins 3 and 6
65
Which type of twisted pair cable has an insulator that is fire retardant and minimizes the emission of dangerous fumes in the event of fire? STP plenum HVAC UTP
plenum
66
Why would a network administrator use plenum-rated cable during an installation? (Choose two.) A. Low combustion temperature B. High combustion temperature C. Reduces toxic gas released during a fire D. Is not susceptible to any interference
High combustion temperature Reduces toxic gas released during a fire
67
Which of the following Ethernet unshielded twisted-pair cabling types is/are commonly used? A. 10BaseT B. 100BaseTX C. 1000BaseTX D. All of the above
All of the above
68
In which of the following categories is UTP cable not rated? A. Category 2 B. Category 3 C. Category 5e D. Category 9
Category 9
69
What type of connector does UTP cable typically use? A. BNC B. ST C. RJ-45 D. SC
RJ-45
70
Which of the following provides the longest cable run distance? A. Single-mode fiber B. Multimode fiber C. Category 3 UTP D. Coax
Single-mode fiber
71
You need to crimp on a connector using an RJ-45 connector. Which pin-out configuration would you use to connect a host into a switch? A. UTP B. Straight-through C. Crossover D. Rolled
Straight-through
72
Why is fiber-optic cable immune to electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI)? A. Because it transmits analog signals using electricity B. Because it transmits analog signals using light impulses C. Because it transmits digital signals using light impulses D. Because it transmits digital signals using electricity
Because it transmits digital signals using light impulses
73
What type of cable transmits lights from end to end? A. Coax B. Fiber-optic C. UTP D. Category 2
Fiber-optic
74
What is the main difference between single-mode fiber (SMF) and multimode fiber (MMF)? A. Electrical signals B. Number of light rays C. Number of digital signals D. That signal-mode can be run a shorter distance
Number of light rays
75
What type of cable should be used if you need to make a cable run longer than 100 meters? A. Category 5e B. Category 6 C. Fiber-optic D. Coaxial
Fiber-optic
76
Which of the following are fiber-optic connectors? (Select three.) ``` A. BNC B. ST C. RJ-11 D. SC E. LC F. RJ-45 ```
ST SC LC
77
You need to connect two devices on a network and they need to send voice traffic. Which of the following cables will you use? A. Cat 3 B. Cat 5 C. Cat 8 D. Rolled
Cat 5
78
How many hosts on a half-duplex segment can talk at one time? A. Zero B. One C. Two D. Unlimited
One
79
On which type of cable does EMI have the least effect? A. Coax B. Fiber-optic C. UTP D. STP
Fiber-optic
80
How many devices can be connected to a full-duplex segment? A. Zero B. One C. Two D. Four
Two
81
How many wires are used in a 100BaseTX UTP transmission? A. Two B. Four C. Six D. Eight
Four
82
A crossover cable is used to connect all of the following except . A. Switch to switch B. Host to host C. Hub to switch D. Host to switch
Host to switch
83
How is a T1 crossover cable wired? A. Pins 1, 2, 4, and 5 are connected to 4, 5, 1, and 2. B. Pins 2, 3, 4, and 5 are connected to 4, 5, 1, and 2. C. Pins 1, 2, 4, and 5 are connected to 3, 4, 5, and 6. D. Pins 4, 5, 6, and 7 are connected to 4, 5, 1, and 2.
Pins 1, 2, 4, and 5 are connected to 4, 5, 1, and 2.
84
The purpose of the demarcation point is to separate the customer from whom? A. The branch office B. Headquarters C. The data center D. The service provider
The service provider
85
You need to make a T568B cable for a Fast Ethernet link. How many pairs will you use? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four
Two
86
On an Ethernet switched network, what address does one host computer use to communicate with another? A. IP address B. MAC address C. Street address D. HUB address
MAC address On an Ethernet network, the MAC address (hardware address) is used for one host to communicate with another.
87
Which of the following can run full duplex and achieve 200 Mbps with Cat 5e cable? A. 100BaseF B. 100BaseTX C. 1000BaseF D. 1000BaseT
100BaseTX 100BaseTX uses CAT 5e and can run 200 Mbps when using full duplex.
88
How many devices in a collision domain have to listen when a single host talks? A. 2 B. 3 C. 1 D. All
All When one device sends a packet out on a network segment, all other devices on the same physical network segment must wait and let it be transmitted.
89
If you are using a cable medium called 10Base2, what does this mean? A. That you are running Ethernet over HDMI B. That you are running Ethernet over fiber C. That you are running Ethernet over thicknet D. That you are bundling multiple connections E. That you are really old and using thinnet coax for your LAN medium
That you are really old and using thinnet coax for your LAN medium 10Base2 was one of the very first Ethernet network physical mediums and is a thinnet coax.
90
What network access control method helps devices share the bandwidth evenly without having two devices transmit at the same time on the network medium? A. TCP/IP B. CSMA/CD C. HTTPS D. TFTP
CSMA/CD Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) helps packets that are transmitted simultaneously from different hosts share bandwidth evenly.
91
What is the maximum distance of 10GBaseSR? A. 100 meters (328 feet) B. 302 meters (990 feet) C. 305 meters (1,000 feet) D. 1,593 km (6 miles)
302 meters (990 feet) A 10GBaseSR cable can have a maximum distance of 990 feet (302 meters).
92
How many wire pairs are used with half duplex? A. Two B. One C. Four D. None of the above
One With half duplex, you are using only one wire pair at a time, with a digital signal either transmitting or receiving.
93
How many wire pairs are used with 100BaseTX full duplex? A. Two B. One C. Four D. A or C
Two Full-duplex Ethernet uses two pairs of wires at the same time.
94
What is the maximum distance of 10GBaseLR? A. 1 mile B. 3 miles C. 6 miles D. 25 miles
6 miles A 10GBaseLR implementation can go a distance of up to 6 miles.
95
What is the effective total throughput increase with a full-duplex connection? A. None B. Twice as much C. Four times as much D. Ten times as much
Twice as much Double up! You can get 20 Mbps with a 10 Mbps Ethernet running full duplex or 200 Mbps for Fast Ethernet.
96
What device can you not use full-duplex communication with? A. Host B. Hub C. Switch D. Router
Hub Full-duplex communication cannot be used with a hub because a hub is a half-duplex single communication device. A host, switch, and router have the ability to process traffic (frames), whereas a hub is a multiport repeater.
97
What is the decimal equivalent of this binary number: 11000000.10101000.00110000.11110000? A. 192.168.48.192 B. 192.168.48.240 C. 192.168.64.224 D. 192.168.32.248
192.168.48.240 11000000 is 192, 10101000 is 168, 00110000 is 48, and 11110000 is 240.
98
Which IEEE standard is used for Ethernet over Power Lines? A. 802.3p B. 1901 C. 802.16 D. 1918
1901 In February 2011, the IEEE finally published a standard for Broadband over Power Line (BPL) called IEEE 1901; this is also referred to as Power Line Communication (PLC) or even Power Line Digital Subscriber Line (PDSL).
99
How is the decimal value 10 represented in binary? A. 1000 B. 1001 C. 1010 D. 1011
1010 Nibble values are 8 + 4 + 2 + 1, giving us a maximum value of 15. If we have a decimal value of 10, that means the 8 bit and the 2 bit are turned on.
100
What is the decimal value for the binary number 11101000? A. 128 B. 194 C. 224 D. 232
232 The 128, 64, 32, and 8 bits are on, so just add the values: 128 + 64 + 32 + 8 = 232.
101
What is the decimal number 10 in hexadecimal? A. 9 B. A C. C D. B
A The first 10 hexadecimal digits (0–9) are the same values as the decimal values. We already know the binary value for the number 10 is 1010—in hex, the number 10 needs to be displayed as a single character. To display double-digit numbers as a single character, we substitute letters. In our example, 10 is A.
102
How many bits is a MAC address? A. 16 B. 32 C. 48 D. 64
48 A MAC, or hardware, address is a 48-bit (6-byte) address written in hexadecimal format.
103
What is the maximum distance of 1000BaseT? A. 100 meters (328 feet) B. 128 meters (420 feet) C. 1,000 meters (3280 feet) D. 1,024 meters (3360 feet)
100 meters (328 feet) 100BaseT and 1000BaseT both have a maximum distance of 100 meters, or 328 feet.
104
What is the purpose of the Frame Check Sequence (FCS) in an Ethernet frame? A. Error correction B. Error detection C. Error recovery D. Creating errors
Error detection The FCS can detect frames in the sequence by calculating the cyclic redundancy check (CRC), which verifies that all the bits in the frame are unchanged.
105
What does the Base mean in 100BaseTX? A. Broadband B. 100 Mbps C. Baseband D. Twisted-pair at 100 Mbps
Baseband The 100 means 100 Mbps. The Base means baseband, which refers to baseband technology—a signaling method for communication on the network.
106
Which of the following is not a term used when making SOHO Internet connections? A. Hub B. Router C. NIC D. Switch
NIC NICs are the physical network connections for a computer but are not one of the devices or mediums used to provide Internet access in a SOHO setting.
107
What advantage does a switch have over a hub? A. It discards frames. B. Transmissions received on one port will be sent out all the other ports. C. It recognizes frame boundaries and destination MAC addresses of incoming frames. D. Any two or more devices the switch connects are capable of causing a collision with each other
It recognizes frame boundaries and destination MAC addresses of incoming frames. Like a hub, a switch connects multiple segments of a network together, with one important difference. Whereas a hub sends out anything it receives on one port to all the others, a switch recognizes frame boundaries and pays attention to the destination MAC address of the incoming frame as well as the port on which it was received.
108
Which device is used to segment a network? A. Hub B. Switch C. Repeater D. All of the above
Switch When we say segment, we mean to create multiple collision or broadcast domains. Hubs don’t segment a network; they just connect network segments together. Repeaters don’t segment the network; they repeat a signal and allow the distance covered to be increased. So the only correct option is B, a switch.
109
What is the primary function of a bridge? A. Breaks up collision domains B. Allows a NIC or other networking device to connect to a different type of media than it was designed for C. Allows mobile users to connect to a wired network wirelessly D. None of the above
Breaks up collision domains The primary function of a bridge is to keep traffic separated on both sides of it, breaking up collision domains.
110
A network device that is used to connect multiple devices together without segmenting a network is a A. Hub B. Wireless access point C. Switch D. Router
Hub Hubs create one collision domain and one broadcast domain.
111
Which of the following is among the benefits of a switch? A. Protects LAN resources from attackers on the Internet B. Provides extra bandwidth C. Reduces throughput D. Allows access to all computers on a LAN
Provides extra bandwidth By allowing full-duplex operation on each port, a switch provides extra bandwidth to each port.
112
Which of the following devices can work at both Layers 2 and 3 of the OSI model? A. Hub B. Switch C. Multilayer switch D. Bridge
Switch A switch is typically just a Layer 2 device segmenting the network by using MAC addresses. However, some higher-end switches can provide Layer 3 services.
113
What is an advantage of using DHCP in a network environment? A. More difficult administration of the network B. Static IP addressing C. Can send an operating system for the PC to boot from D. Assigns IP address to hosts
Assigns IP address to hosts Remember that DHCP servers assign IP addresses to hosts. Thus, DHCP allows easier administration than providing IP information to each host by hand (called static IP addressing).
114
What is a benefit of a multilayer switch (MLS) over a Layer 2 switch? A. Less bandwidth B. Routing functions C. Fewer features D. Fewer ports
Routing functions Multilayer switches (also called Layer 3 switches) don’t have fewer features, less bandwidth, or fewer ports than a normal switch; they just allow routing functions between subnets.
115
Which device should be used if you need to send incoming packets to one or more machines that are hidden behind a single IP address? A. Switch B. Load balancer C. Hub D. Repeater
Load balancer A load balancer uses a little trickery and sends incoming packets to one or more machines that are hidden behind a single IP address. Modern load-balancing routers can use different rules to make decisions about where to route traffic, which can be based on least load, fastest response times, or simply balancing requests.
116
What role does the A record in a Domain Name Service (DNS) server have in your network? A. Translates human name to IP address B. Translates IP address to human name C. Enables printing, copying, and faxing from one device D. Controls network packets to optimize performance12.
Translates human name to IP address DNS translates human names to IP addresses for routing your packet through the Internet. Hosts can receive the IP address of this DNS server and then resolve hostnames to IP addresses.
117
Which device does not aid in network segmentation? A. Router B. Switch C. Hub D. Bridge
Hub Routers, switches, and bridges are all devices that help break up big networks into a number of smaller ones—also known as network segmentation. Hubs don’t segment networks—they just connect network segments together
118
What is the most common use for a web proxy? A. Web cache B. Throughput increase C. DHCP services D. Support for user authentication
Web cache Web cache, of course! Most proxy programs provide a means to deny access to certain URLs in a blacklist, thus providing content filtering, usually in corporate environments.
119
Which is not an advantage of network segmentation? A. Reducing congestion B. Improving security C. Containing network problems D. Preventing broadcast storms
Preventing broadcast storms Options A, B, and C all aid in boosting network performance, so the only option left is broadcast storms. Increased traffic will increase LAN congestion.
120
Users arrive at the office after a weekend and the hosts that were shut down over the weekend are restarted but cannot access the LAN or Internet. Hosts that were not shut down are working fine. Where can the problem be? A. The DNS server B. The DHCP server C. The proxy server D. The firewall
The DHCP server If the DHCP server has stopped functioning, it will not hand out IP addresses to hosts that are restarted. However, the hosts that were not shut down still have IP addresses because the lease time has not expired.
121
You need a device that can prevent your users from accessing certain websites. Which device should you install? A. Firewall B. IDS C. IPS D. Proxy server
Proxy server A proxy server can be used to prevent external traffic from reaching your internal network directly and can also be used to filter the sites to which your users are allowed to connect.
122
Which device creates separate collision domains and a single broadcast domain? A. Hub B. Router C. Switch D. Modem
Switch Switches create separate collision domains but a single broadcast domain. Remember that routers provide a separate broadcast domain for each interface.
123
Which of the following is not an advantage of using appliances to offload services like encryption and content filtering? A. Less expensive B. Reduced load on other devices C. Additional functionality D. Better performance
Less expensive Using appliances to offload functions such as encryption, content filtering, and VPN concentration can decrease the workload of other systems and add functionality that may be present in these dedicated devices.
124
Which type of server in your network uses pointer and A records? A. NAT translation server B. IPS/IDS server C. DNS server D. Proxy server
DNS server A DNS server uses many types of records. An A record is a hostname to IP address record, and a pointer record is an IP address to hostname record.
125
Users on your network are saturating your bandwidth because they are using too many non-work-related sites. What device would limit the availability of the types of sites that users on a LAN have access to while providing granular control over the traffic between the local LAN and the Internet? A. Switch B. DHCP server C. DNS server D. Proxy server
Proxy server A proxy server can provide many functions. A proxy server can use a caching engine so repeated access requests for web information would accelerate repeated access for users, and they can also limit the availability of websites.
126
The OSI model has seven layers and the DoD has four. At which layer does SMTP work in both models? ``` A. Network B. Transport C. Session D. Application E. Internet ```
Application SMTP resides at the Application layer of the OSI and DoD models.
127
You need to have secure communications using HTTPS. What port number is used by default? A. 69 B. 23 C. 21 D. 443
443 HTTPS, or Secure HTTP, uses port 443 by default.
128
You want to implement a mechanism that automates the IP configuration, including IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS information. Which protocol will you use to accomplish this? A. SMTP B. SNMP C. DHCP D. ARP
DHCP Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is used to provide IP information to hosts on your network. DHCP can provide a lot of information, but the most common is IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS information.
129
What protocol is used to find the hardware address of a local device? ``` A. RARP B. ARP C. IP D. ICMP E. BootP ```
ARP Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is used to find the hardware address from a known IP address.
130
You need to log in to a Unix server across a network that is not secure. Which of the following protocols will allow you to remotely administer this server securely? A. Telnet B. SSH C. SFTP D. HTTP
SSH Secure Shell (SSH) allows you to remotely administer router, switches, and even servers securely.
131
If you can ping by IP address but not by hostname, or FQDN, which of the following port numbers is related to the server process that is involved? ``` A. 21 B. 23 C. 53 D. 69 E. 80 ```
53 The problem is with DNS, which uses both TCP and UDP port 53.
132
Which of the following describe the DHCP Discover message? (Choose two.) A. It uses FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF as a Layer 2 broadcast. B. It uses UDP as the Transport layer protocol. C. It uses TCP as the Transport layer protocol. D. It does not use a Layer 2 destination address.
- It uses FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF as a Layer 2 broadcast. - It uses UDP as the Transport layer protocol. A client that sends out a DHCP Discover message in order to receive an IP address sends out a broadcast at both Layer 2 and Layer 3. The Layer 2 broadcast is all Fs in hex, or FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF. The Layer 3 broadcast is 255.255.255.255, which means all networks and all hosts. DHCP is connectionless, which means it uses User Datagram Protocol (UDP) at the Transport layer, also called the Host-to-Host layer.
133
What Layer 4 protocol is used for a Telnet connection, and what is the default port number? ``` A. IP, 6 B. TCP, 21 C. UDP, 23 D. ICMP, 21 E. TCP, 23 ```
TCP, 23 Telnet uses TCP at the Transport layer with a default port number of 23.
134
Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets? (Choose two.) A. They acknowledge receipt of a TCP segment. B. They guarantee datagram delivery. C. They can provide hosts with information about network problems. D. They are encapsulated within IP datagrams. E. They are encapsulated within UDP datagrams.
- They can provide hosts with information about network problems. - They are encapsulated within IP datagrams. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) is used to send error messages through the network, but ICMP does not work alone. Every segment or ICMP payload must be encapsulated within an IP datagram (or packet).
135
Which of the following services use TCP? (Choose four.) ``` A. DHCP B. SMTP C. SNMP D. FTP E. HTTP F. TFTP ```
- SMTP - SNMP - FTP - HTTP SMTP, SNMP, FTP and HTTP are connection oriented and use TCP.
136
Which of the following services use UDP? (Choose three.) ``` A. DHCP B. SMTP C. SNMP D. FTP E. HTTP F. TFTP ```
DHCP SNMP TFTP DHCP, SNMP, and TFTP use UDP. SMTP, FTP, and HTTP use TCP.
137
Which of the following TCP/IP protocols are used at the Application layer of the OSI model? (Choose three.) ``` A. IP B. TCP C. Telnet D. FTP E. TFTP ```
- Telnet - FTP - TFTP Telnet, File Transfer Protocol (FTP), and Trivial FTP (TFTP) are all Application layer protocols. IP is a Network layer protocol. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is a Transport layer protocol.
138
Which of the following protocols is used by email servers to exchange messages with one another? A. POP3 B. IMAP C. SMTP D. HTTP
SMTP SMTP is used by a client to send mail to its server and by that server to send mail to another server. POP3 and IMAP are used by clients to retrieve their mail from the server that stores it until it is retrieved. HTTP is only used with web-based mail services.
139
You need to have a connection to run applications that are installed on only your desktop computer at your office. Which protocol will provide a GUI interface to your work computer? ``` A. Telnet B. FTP C. RDP D. IMAP E. SMTP ```
RDP Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) allows you to connect to a remote computer and run programs, as Telnet does. However, the large advantage that RDP has over Telnet is that RDP allows you to have a GUI interface connection.
140
Which of the following protocols can use TCP and UDP, permits authentication and secure polling of network devices, and allows for automated alerts and reports on network devices? A. DNS B. SNMP C. SMTP D. TCP
SNMP Simple Network Management Protocol is typically implemented using version 3, which allows for a connection-oriented service, authentication and secure polling of network devices, and alerts and reports on network devices.
141
You need to transfer files between two hosts. Which protocol can you use? A. SNMP B. RIP C. NTP D. FTP
FTP File Transfer Protocol (FTP) can be used to transfer files between two systems.
142
What layer in the IP stack is equivalent to the Transport layer of the OSI model? A. Application B. Host-to-Host C. Internet D. Network Access
Host-to-host The four layers of the IP stack (also called the DoD model) are Application/Process, Host-to-Host, Internet, and Network Access. The Host-to-Host layer is equivalent to the Transport layer of the OSI model.
143
You need to make sure that the time is consistent across all your network devices. What protocol do you need to run on your network? A. FTP B. SCP C. NTP D. RTP
NTP Network Time Protocol will ensure a consistent time across network devices on the network.
144
Which of the following allows a server to distinguish among different simultaneous requests from the same host? A. They use different port numbers. B. A NAT server changes the IP address for subsequent requests. C. A server is unable to accept multiple simultaneous sessions from the same host. One session must end before another can begin. D. The MAC address for each one is unique.
They use different port numbers Through the use of port numbers, TCP and UDP can establish multiple sessions between the same two hosts without creating any confusion. The sessions can be between the same or different applications, such as multiple web-browsing sessions or a webbrowsing session and an FTP session.
145
Which of the following uses both TCP and UDP? A. FTP B. SMTP C. Telnet D. DNS
DNS DNS uses TCP for zone exchanges between servers and UDP when a client is trying to resolve a hostname to an IP address.
146
Which of the following addresses is not allowed on the Internet? A. 191.192.168.1 B. 191.168.169.254 C. 172.32.255.0 D. 172.31.12.251
172.31.12.251 The addresses in the range 172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255 are all considered private, based on RFC 1918. Use of these addresses on the Internet is prohibited so that they can be used simultaneously in different administrative domains without concern for conflict. Some experts in the industry believe these addresses are not routable, which is not true.
147
A host automatically configured with an address from which of the following ranges indicates an inability to contact a DHCP server? A. 169.254.0.x with a mask of 255.255.255.0 B. 169.254.x.x with a mask of 255.255.0.0 C. 169.254.x.x with a mask of 255.255.255.0 D. 169.255.x.x with a mask of 255.255.0.0
169.254.x.x with a mask of 255.255.0.0 APIPA uses the link-local private address range of 169.254.0.0 through 169.254.255.255 and a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0. APIPA addresses are used by DHCP clients that cannot contact a DHCP server and have no static alternate configuration. These addresses are not Internet routable and cannot, by default, be used across routers on an internetwork.
148
Which statement regarding private IP addresses is most accurate? A. Private addresses cannot be used in intranets that require routing. B. Private addresses must be assigned by a registrar or ISP. C. A remote host across the Internet cannot ping your host if it has a private address. D. Private addresses can only be used by a single administrative domain.
A remote host across the Internet cannot ping your host if it has a private address. Private IP addresses are not routable over the Internet, as either source or destination addresses. Because of that fact, any entity that wishes to use such addresses internally can do so without causing conflicts with other entities and without asking permission of any registrar or service provider. Despite not being allowed on the Internet, private IP addresses are fully routable on private intranets.
149
Which of the following is a valid Class A address? A. 191.10.0.1 B. 127.10.0.1 C. 128.10.0.1 D. 126.10.0.1
126.10.0.1 The Class A range is 1 through 126 in the first octet/byte, so only option D is a valid Class A address.
150
Which of the following is a valid Class B address? A. 10.1.1.1 B. 126.1.1.1 C. 129.1.1.1 D. 192.168.1.1
129.1.1.1 The Class B range is 128 through 191 in the first octet/byte. Only option C is a valid Class B address.
151
Which of the following describes a broadcast address? A. All network bits are on (1s). B. All host bits are on (1s). C. All network bits are off (0s). D. All host bits are off (0s).
All host bits are on (1s). If you turned on all host bits (all of the host bits are 1s), this would be a broadcast address for that network.
152
Which of the following is a Layer 2 broadcast? A. FF.FF.FF.EE.EE.EE B. FF.FF.FF.FF.FF.FF C. 255.255.255.255 D. 255.0.0.0
FF.FF.FF.FF.FF.FF A Layer 2 broadcast is also referred to as a MAC address broadcast, which is in hexadecimal and is FF.FF.FF.FF.FF.FF.
153
In a Class C IP address, how long is the network address? A. 8 bits B. 16 bits C. 24 bits D. 32 bits
24 bits A default Class C subnet mask is 255.255.255.0, which means that the first three octets, or first 24 bits, are the network number.
154
Which of the following is true when describing a unicast address? A. Packets addressed to a unicast address are delivered to a single interface. B. These are your typical publicly routable addresses, just like regular publicly routable addresses in IPv4. C. These are like private addresses in IPv4 in that they are not meant to be routed. D. These addresses are meant for nonrouting purposes, but they are almost globally unique, so it is unlikely they will have an address overlap.
Packets addressed to a unicast address are delivered to a single interface. Packets addressed to a unicast address are delivered to a single interface. For load balancing, multiple interfaces can use the same address.
155
A host is rebooted and you view the IP address that it was assigned. The address is 169.123.13.34. Which of the following happened? A. The host received an APIPA address. B. The host received a multicast address. C. The host received a public address. D. The host received a private address.
The host received a public address. I wonder how many of you picked APIPA address as your answer? An APIPA address is 169.254.x.x. The host address in this question is a public address. Somewhat of a tricky question if you did not read carefully.
156
An IPv4 address uses 32 bits. How many bits is an IPv6 address? A. 64 B. 128 C. 192 D. 255
128 An IPv6 address is 128 bits in size.
157
Which of the following is true when describing a multicast address? A. Packets addressed to a unicast address from a multicast address are delivered to a single interface. B. Packets are delivered to all interfaces identified by the address. This is also called a one-to-many address. C. It identifies multiple interfaces and is delivered to only one address. This address can also be called one-to-one-of-many. D. These addresses are meant for nonrouting purposes, but they are almost globally unique so it is unlikely they will have an address overlap.
Packets are delivered to all interfaces identified by the address. This is also called a one-to-many address. Packets addressed to a multicast address are delivered to all interfaces identified by the multicast address, the same as in IPv4. A multicast address is also called a one-to-many address. You can tell multicast addresses in IPv6 because they always start with FF.
158
Which of the following is true when describing an anycast address? A. Packets addressed to a unicast address from an anycast address are delivered to a single interface. B. Packets are delivered to all interfaces identified by the address. This is also called a one-to-many address. C. This address identifies multiple interfaces, and the anycast packet is delivered to only one address: the closest one. This address can also be called one-to-nearest. D. These addresses are meant for nonrouting purposes, but they are almost globally unique so it is unlikely they will have an address overlap.
This address identifies multiple interfaces, and the anycast packet is delivered to only one address: the closest one. This address can also be called one-to-nearest. Anycast addresses identify multiple interfaces, which is the same as multicast; however, the big difference is that the anycast packet is delivered to only one address: the first one it finds defined in terms of routing distance. This address can also be called one-to-one-ofmany or one-to-nearest.
159
You want to ping the loopback address of your local host. Which two addresses could you type? (Choose two.) A. ping 127.0.0.1 B. ping 0.0.0.0 C. ping ::1 D. trace 0.0.::1
- ping 127.0.0.1 - ping ::1 A, C. The loopback address with IPv4 is 127.0.0.1. With IPv6, that address is ::1.
160
What two statements about IPv6 addresses are true? (Choose two.) A. Leading zeros are required. B. Two colons (::) are used to represent successive hexadecimal fields of zeros. C. Two colons (::) are used to separate fields. D. A single interface will have multiple IPv6 addresses of different types.
- Two colons (::) are used to represent successive hexadecimal fields of zeros. - A single interface will have multiple IPv6 addresses of different types. In order to shorten the written length of an IPv6 address, successive fields of zeros may be replaced by double colons. In trying to shorten the address further, leading zeros may also be removed. Just as with IPv4, a single device’s interface can have more than one address; with IPv6 there are more types of addresses and the same rule applies. There can be link-local, global unicast, and multicast addresses all assigned to the same interface.
161
What two statements about IPv4 and IPv6 addresses are true? (Choose two.) A. An IPv6 address is 32 bits long, represented in hexadecimal. B. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long, represented in decimal. C. An IPv4 address is 32 bits long, represented in decimal. D. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long, represented in hexadecimal.
- An IPv4 address is 32 bits long, represented in decimal. - An IPv6 address is 128 bits long, represented in hexadecimal IPv4 addresses are 32 bits long and are represented in decimal format. IPv6 addresses are 128 bits long and represented in hexadecimal format.
162
Which of the following is a Class C network address? A. 10.10.10.0 B. 127.0.0.1 C. 128.0.0.0 D. 192.255.254.0
192.255.254.0 Only option D is in the Class C range of 192 through 224. It might look wrong because there is a 255 in the address, but this is not wrong—you can have a 255 in a network address, just not in the first octet.
163
Which of the following are private IP addresses? (Choose two.) ``` A. 12.0.0.1 B. 168.172.19.39 C. 172.20.14.36 D. 172.33.194.30 E. 192.168.24.43 ```
- 172.20.14.36 - 192.168.24.43 The Class A private address range is 10.0.0.0 through 10.255.255.255. The Class B private address range is 172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255, and the Class C private address range is 192.168.0.0 through 192.168.255.255.
164
IPv6 unicast routing is running on the Corp router. Which of the following addresses would be used as the EUI-64 address? Corp#sh int f0/0 FastEthernet0/0 is up, line protocol is up Hardware is AmdFE, address is 000d.bd3b.0d80 (bia 000d.bd3b.0d80) [output cut] A. FF02::3c3d:0d:bdff:fe3b:0d80 B. FE80::3c3d:2d:bdff:fe3b:0d80 C. FE80::3c3d:0d:bdff:fe3b:0d80 D. FE80::3c3d:2d:ffbd:3bfe:0d80
FE80::3c3d:2d:bdff:fe3b:0d80 This can be a hard question if you don’t remember to invert the 7th bit! Always look for the 7th bit when studying for the exam. The EUI-64 autoconfiguration inserts an FF:FE in the middle of the 48-bit MAC address to create a unique IPv6 address.
165
Which of the following is an invalid IP address for a host? A. 10.0.0.1 B. 128.0.0.1 C. 224.0.0.1 D. 172.0.0.1
224.0.0.1 Option C is a multicast address and cannot be used to address hosts.
166
What is the maximum number of IP addresses that can be assigned to hosts on a local subnet that uses the 255.255.255.224 subnet mask? ``` A. 14 B. 15 C. 16 D. 30 E. 31 F. 62 ```
30
167
You have a Class A host of 10.0.0.110/25. It needs to communicate to a host with an IP address of 10.0.0.210/25. Which of the following devices do you need to use in order for these hosts to communicate? A. A Layer 2 switch B. Router C. DNS server D. Hub
Router Don’t freak because this is a Class A. What is your subnet mask? 255.255.255.128. Regardless of the class of address, this is a block size of 128 in the fourth octet. The subnets are 0 and 128. The 0 subnet host range is 1–126, with a broadcast address of 127. The 128 subnet host range is 129–254, with a broadcast address of 255. You need a router for these two hosts to communicate because they are in different subnets.
168
What is the subnetwork address for a host with the IP address 200.10.5.68/28? HostA: 192.168.1.20 | 255.255.255.240 HostB: 192.168.1.201 | 255.255.255.240 A. 200.10.5.56 B. 200.10.5.32 C. 200.10.5.64 D. 200.10.5.0
200.10.5.64 This is a pretty simple question. A /28 is 255.255.255.240, which means that our block size is 16 in the fourth octet (0, 16, 32, 48, 64, 80, and so on). The host is in the 64 subnet.
169
The network address of 172.16.0.0/19 provides how many subnets and hosts? ``` A. 7 subnets, 30 hosts each B. 7 subnets, 2,046 hosts each C. 7 subnets, 8,190 hosts each D. 8 subnets, 30 hosts each E. 8 subnets, 2,046 hosts each F. 8 subnets, 8,190 hosts each ```
8 subnets, 8,190 hosts each A CIDR address of /19 is 255.255.224.0. This is a Class B address, so that is only 3 subnet bits, but it provides 13 host bits, or 8 subnets, each with 8,190 hosts.
170
You receive a call from a user who is complaining that they cannot get on the Internet. You have them verify their IP address, mask, and default gateway. The IP address is 10.0.37.144, with a subnet mask of 255.255.254.0. The default gateway is 10.0.38.1. What is the problem? A. Incorrect DNS server address B. Invalid subnet mask C. Incorrect gateway IP D. IP address and mask not compatible
Incorrect gateway IP The host ID of 10.0.37.144 with a 255.255.254.0 mask is in the 10.0.36.0 subnet (yes, you need to be able to subnet in this exam!). Do not stress that this is a Class A; what we care about is that the third octet has a block size of 2, so the next subnet is 10.0.38.0, which makes the broadcast address 10.0.37.255. The default gateway address of 10.0.38.1 is not in the same subnet as the host. Even though this is a Class A address, you still should easily be able to subnet this because you look more at the subnet mask and find your interesting octet, which is the third octet in this question. 256 – 254 = 2. Your block size is 2.
171
If a host on a network has the address 172.16.45.14/30, what is the subnetwork this host belongs to? ``` A. 172.16.45.0 B. 172.16.45.4 C. 172.16.45.8 D. 172.16.45.12 E. 172.16.45.16 ```
172.16.45.12 A /30, regardless of the class of address, has a 252 in the fourth octet. This means we have a block size of 4 and our subnets are 0, 4, 8, 12, 16, and so on. Address 14 is obviously in the 12 subnet.
172
On a network, which mask should you use on point-to-point WAN links in order to reduce the waste of IP addresses? ``` A. /27 B. /28 C. /29 D. /30 E. /31 ```
/31 A point-to-point link uses only two hosts. A /30, or 255.255.255.252, mask provides two hosts per subnet.
173
On which of the following devices are you most likely to be able to implement NAT? A. Hub B. Ethernet switch C. Router D. Bridge
Router Devices with Layer 3 awareness, such as routers and firewalls, are the only ones that can manipulate the IP header in support of NAT.
174
You have an interface on a router with the IP address of 192.168.192.10/29. Including the router interface, how many hosts can have IP addresses on the LAN attached to the router interface? ``` A. 6 B. 8 C. 30 D. 62 E. 126 ```
6 A /29 (255.255.255.248), regardless of the class of address, has only 3 host bits. Six hosts is the maximum number of hosts on this LAN, including the router interface.
175
When configuring the IP settings on a computer on one subnet to ensure that it can communicate with a computer on another subnet, which of the following is desirable? A. Configure the computer with the same default gateway as the other computer. B. Configure the computer with the same subnet mask as the other computer. C. Configure the computer with a default gateway that matches the IP address of the interface of the router that is attached to the same subnet as the computer. D. Configure the computer with a subnet mask that matches the IP address of the interface of the router that is attached to the same subnet as the computer.
Configure the computer with a default gateway that matches the IP address of the interface of the router that is attached to the same subnet as the computer. A computer should be configured with an IP address that is unique throughout the reachable internetwork. It should be configured with a subnet mask that matches those of all other devices on its local subnet, but not necessarily one that matches the mask used on any other subnet. It should also be configured with a default gateway that matches its local router’s interface IP address.
176
You have an interface on a router with the IP address of 192.168.192.10/29. What is the broadcast address the hosts will use on this LAN? ``` A. 192.168.192.15 B. 192.168.192.31 C. 192.168.192.63 D. 192.168.192.127 E. 192.168.192.255 ```
192.168.192.15 A /29 (255.255.255.248) has a block size of 8 in the fourth octet. This means the subnets are 0, 8, 16, 24, and so on. 10 is in the 8 subnet. The next subnet is 16, so 15 is the broadcast address.
177
What is the highest usable address on the 172.16.1.0/24 network? A. 172.16.1.255 B. 172.16.1.254 C. 172.16.1.253 D. 172.16.1.23
172.16.1.254 A 24-bit mask, or prefix length, indicates that the entire fourth octet is used for host identification. In a special case, such as this, it is simpler to visualize the all-zeros value (172.16.1.0) and the all-ones value (172.16.1.255). The highest usable address, the last one before the all-ones value, is 172.16.1.254.
178
A network administrator is connecting two hosts directly through their Ethernet interfaces, as shown in the illustration. Ping attempts between the hosts are unsuccessful. What can be done to provide connectivity between the hosts? (Choose two.) A. A crossover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable. B. A rollover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable. C. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.192. D. A default gateway needs to be set on each host. E. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.0.
- A crossover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable. - The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.0. First, if you have two hosts directly connected, as shown in the graphic, then you need a crossover cable. A straight-through cable won’t work. Second, the hosts have different masks, which puts them in different subnets. The easy solution is just to set both masks to 255.255.255.0 (/24).
179
If an Ethernet port on a router was assigned an IP address of 172.16.112.1/25, what would be the subnet address of this host? ``` A. 172.16.112.0 B. 172.16.0.0 C. 172.16.96.0 D. 172.16.255.0 E. 172.16.128.0 ```
172.16.112.0 A /25 mask is 255.255.255.128. Used with a Class B network, the third and fourth octets are used for subnetting with a total of 9 subnet bits: 8 bits in the third octet and 1 bit in the fourth octet. Because there is only 1 bit in the fourth octet, the bit is either off or on—which is a value of 0 or 128. The host in the question is in the 0 subnet, which has a broadcast address of 127 because 128 is the next subnet.
180
Using the following illustration, what would be the IP address of E0 if you were using the eighth subnet? The network ID is 192.168.10.0/28, and you need to use the last available IP address in the range. The 0 subnet should not be considered valid for this question. ``` A. 192.168.10.142 B. 192.168.10.66 C. 192.168.100.254 D. 192.168.10.143 E. 192.168.10.126 ```
192.168.10.142 A /28 is a 255.255.255.240 mask. Let’s count to the ninth subnet (we need to find the broadcast address of the eighth subnet, so we need to count to the ninth subnet). We start at 16 (remember, the question stated that we will not use subnet 0, so we start at 16, not 0): 16, 32, 48, 64, 80, 96, 112, 128, 144. The eighth subnet is 128, and the next subnet is 144, so our broadcast address of the 128 subnet is 143. This makes the host range 129–142. 142 is the last valid host.
181
Using the illustration in question 15, what would be the IP address of E0 if you were using the first subnet? The network ID is 192.168.10.0/28, and you need to use the last available IP address in the range. Again, the 0 subnet should not be considered valid for this question. A. 192.168.10.24 B. 192.168.10.62 C. 192.168.10.30 D. 192.168.10.127
192.168.10.30 A /28 is a 255.255.255.240 mask. The first subnet is 16 (remember that the question stated not to use subnet 0), and the next subnet is 32, so our broadcast address is 31. This makes our host range 17–30. 30 is the last valid host.
182
If you are forced to replace a router that has failed to the point that you are unable to access its current configuration to aid in setting up interface addresses on the new router, which of the following can you reference for assistance? A. The default gateway settings on computers from each subnet that the old router interconnected. B. The router’s configuration that was periodically cached on the DHCP server. C. The router’s configuration that was periodically cached on the DNS server. D. The new router will auto-configure itself with the correct settings.
The default gateway settings on computers from each subnet that the old router interconnected. The best method here is to check the configuration of devices that were using the old router as a gateway to the rest of the internetwork. Routers do not periodically cache their configurations to servers of any sort. You might have copied the old router’s configuration to a TFTP server or the like, but failing that, you will have to rebuild the configuration from scratch, which might well be much more than interface addresses. Therefore, keeping a copy of the router’s current configuration somewhere other than on the router is a wise choice. Routers don’t auto-configure themselves; we wouldn’t want them to.
183
You have a network with a subnet of 172.16.17.0/22. Which of the following is a valid host address? ``` A. 172.16.17.1 255.255.255.252 B. 172.16.0.1 255.255.240.0 C. 172.16.20.1 255.255.254.0 D. 172.16.16.1 255.255.255.240 E. 172.16.18.255 255.255.252.0 F. 172.16.0.1 255.255.255.0 ```
172.16.18.255 255.255.252.0 A Class B network ID with a /22 mask is 255.255.252.0, with a block size of 4 in the third octet. The network address in the question is in subnet 172.16.16.0 with a broadcast address of 172.16.19.255. Only option E has the correct subnet mask listed, and 172.16.18.255 is a valid host.
184
Your router has the following IP address on Ethernet0: 172.16.2.1/23. Which of the following can be valid host IDs on the LAN interface attached to the router? (Choose two.) ``` A. 172.16.0.5 B. 172.16.1.100 C. 172.16.1.198 D. 172.16.2.255 E. 172.16.3.0 F. 172.16.3.255 ```
- 172.16.2.255 - 172.16.3.0 The router’s IP address on the E0 interface is 172.16.2.1/23, which is a 255.255.254.0. This makes the third octet a block size of 2. The router’s interface is in the 2.0 subnet, and the broadcast address is 3.255 because the next subnet is 4.0. The valid host range is 2.1 through 3.254. The router is using the first valid host address in the range.
185
You have one IP address provided from your ISP with a /30 mask. However, you have 300 users that need to access the Internet. What technology will you use to implement a solution? A. PAT B. VPN C. DNS D. LANs
PAT Network Address Translation can allow up to 65,000 hosts to get onto the Internet with one IP address by using Port Address Translation (PAT).
186
Which is not a routing protocol? A. RIP B. RIPv2 C. RIPv3 D. EIGRP
RIPv3 Yep, you got it. RIP, RIPv2, and EIGRP are all examples of routing protocols.
187
Which of these best describes dynamic routing? A. All network addresses must be hand-typed into the routing table. B. Only a portion of the network address must be hand-typed into the routing table. C. Routing tables are updated automatically when changes occur in the network. D. A and B.
Routing tables are updated automatically when changes occur in the network. In dynamic routing, routers update each other about all the networks they know about and place this information into the routing table. This is possible because a protocol on one router communicates with the same protocol running on neighbor routers. If changes occur in the network, a dynamic routing protocol automatically informs all routers about the event.
188
Which is true regarding dynamic routing? A. Static routes are best in large networks and thus better to use than dynamic routing protocols. B. Static routes are automatically added to the routing table but dynamic routes must be added by hand. C. You must use a DNS and WINS server when configuring dynamic routing. D. Dynamic routes are automatically added to the routing table.
Dynamic routes are automatically added to the routing table Dynamic routing scales well in large networks and routes are automatically added into the routing table. Static routing is done by hand, one route at a time into each router.
189
Which of the following is true for MAC addresses? A. MAC addresses are never local on the LAN and always pass through a router. B. MAC addresses are always local on the LAN and never go through or past a router. C. MAC addresses will always be the IP address of Fa0/0 interface. D. None of the above.
MAC addresses are always local on the LAN and never go through or past a router. Media Access Control (MAC) addresses are always local on the LAN and never go through and past a router.
190
What is it called when protocols update their forwarding tables after changes have occurred? A. Name resolution B. Routing C. Convergence D. ARP resolution
Convergence Routing convergence is the time required by the routing protocols to update the routing tables (forwarding tables) on all routers in the network.
191
What command would be used to view the ARP cache on your host? A. C:\ >show ip route B. C:\ >show ip arp C. C:\ >show protocols D. C:\ >arp -a
C:\ >arp -a The arp -a command will show the ARP cache on your host.
192
What happens when a router receives a packet for a network that isn’t listed in the routing table? A. It forwards the packet to the next available router. B. It holds the packet until the address is updated in the routing table. C. The router will use RIP to inform the host that it can’t send the packet. D. None of the above.
None of the above Hope you answered D! A router will not send a broadcast looking for the remote network—the router will discard the packet.
193
Which of the following is not a distance vector protocol? A. RIPv1 B. RIPv2 C. OSPF D. IGRP
OSPF RIPv1 and 2 and IGRP are all distance vector (DV) protocols. Routers using a DV protocol send all or parts of their routing table in a routing-update message at a regular interval to each of their neighbor routers.
194
Which two of the following are link state protocols? ``` A. RIPv1 B. RIPv2 C. OSPF D. IS-IS E. IGRP ```
- IS-IS - IGRP Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) and Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System (IS-IS) are link state (LS) routing protocols.
195
Which of the following is a hybrid routing protocol? A. RIPv2 B. EIGRP C. IS-IS D. IGRP
EIGRP The only protocol you could select is Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP).
196
What does the acronym IGRP stand for? A. Interior Gateway Routing Protocol B. Inside Gateway Redundancy Protocol C. Interior Group Reliability Protocol D. Interior Gateway Redundancy Protocol
Interior Gateway Routing Protocol Interior Gateway Routing Protocol is a distance vector (DV) interior gateway protocol.
197
What EGP protocol is used on the Internet? A. GGP B. EGP C. BGP D. IGP
Border Gateway Protocol Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) is the most popular choice for ISPs or really large corporations.
198
What are the two categories of IGP protocols? A. Link state B. Static C. Distance vector D. EGP
- Link state - Distance vector Distance vector (DV) and link state (LS) are the two routing protocols to remember.
199
What two pieces of information does a router require to make a routing decision? (Choose two.) A. Destination network (address) B. Destination MAC address C. Application layer protocol D. Neighbor router
- Destination network (address) - Neighbor router A frame uses MAC addresses to send a packet on the LAN. The frame will take the packet to either a host on the LAN or a router’s interface if the packet is destined for a remote network.
200
Where does a frame have to carry a packet if it is destined for a remote network? A. Default gateway B. Neighbor host C. Switch D. Hub
Default gateway I hope you said A! Packets specifically have to be carried to a router in order to be routed through a network.
201
Where along the IP routing process does a packet get changed? A. Router B. Host A C. Destination device D. Host B
Destination device Remember that the frame changes at each hop but that the packet is never changed in any way until it reaches the destination device.
202
When all routers in a network agree about the path from one point to another, the network is said to be what? A. Dynamic B. Static C. Secure D. Converged
Converged When the routing tables are complete because they include information about all networks in the internetwork, they are considered converged.
203
What type of request must a client send if it does not know the destination MAC address? A. ARP broadcast B. Multicast C. ICMP redirect D. Reverse ARP
ARP broadcast This is step 6 in the IP routing process. If the hardware address isn’t in the ARP cache of the host, an ARP broadcast is sent out onto the local network to search for the hardware address.
204
You need to perform maintenance on a router in your corporate office. It is important that the network does not go down. What can you do to accomplish your goal? A. Configure BGP on the router. B. Implement NAT on the router. C. Configure on the router a static route that temporarily reroutes traffic through another office. D. Implement convergence on the router.
Configure on the router a static route that temporarily reroutes traffic through another office. The best answer would be to reroute traffic using a temporary static route until the maintenance is complete on the router.
205
When are you most likely to see a Request Timed Out message? A. When an unknown error has occurred B. When you have used the ARP -a command incorrectly C. When a known error has occurred D. When you are using a hybrid routing protocol
When unknown error has occured You are most likely to see a Request Timed Out message when (if) a packet is lost on the way back to the originating host for an unknown error. Remember, if the error occurs because of a known issue, you are likely to see a Destination Unreachable message.
206
Which of the following protocols support VLSM, summarization, and discontinuous networking? (Choose three.) ``` A. RIPv1 B. IGRP C. EIGRP D. OSPF E. BGP F. RIPv2 ```
- EIGRP - OSPF - RIPv2 C, D, F. RIPv1 and IGRP are true distance vector routing protocols and can’t do much, really—except build and maintain routing tables and use a lot of bandwidth! RIPv2, EIGRP, and OSPF build and maintain routing tables, but they also provide classless routing, which allows for VLSM, summarization, and discontiguous networking.
207
Which of the following are considered distance vector routing protocols? (Choose two.) A. OSPF B. RIP C. RIPv2 D. IS-IS
- RIP - RIPv2 RIP and RIPv2 are distance vector routing protocols. OSPF and IS-IS are link state.
208
Which of the following are considered link state routing protocols? (Choose two.) A. OSPF B. RIP C. RIPv2 D. IS-IS
- OSPF - IS-IS RIP and RIPv2 are distance vector routing protocols. OSPF and IS-IS are link state.
209
Which of the following is considered a hybrid routing protocol? (Choose two.) ``` A. OSPF B. BGP C. RIPv2 D. IS-IS E. EIGRP ```
- BGP - EIGRP RIP and RIPv2 are distance vector routing protocols. OSPF and IS-IS are link state. EIGRP uses qualities from both distance vector and link state to create a hybrid routing protocol. BGP can be used as an EGP and IGP, and the objectives consider BGP a hybrid routing protocol.
210
Why would you want to use a dynamic routing protocol instead of using static routes? A. There is less overhead on the router. B. Dynamic routing is more secure. C. Dynamic routing scales to larger networks. D. The network runs faster.
Dynamic routing scales to larger networks. Dynamic routing is typically used in today’s networks because it scales to larger networks and takes less administrative work.
211
Which of the following is a vendor-specific FHRP protocol? ``` A. STP B. OSPF C. RIPv1 D. EIGRP E. IS-IS F. HSRP ```
HSRP Hot Standby Router Protocol (HSRP) is Cisco’s FHRP.
212
RIP has a long convergence time and users have been complaining of response time when a router goes down and RIP has to reconverge. Which can you implement to improve convergence time on the network? A. Replace RIP with static routes. B. Update RIP to RIPv2. C. Update RIP to OSPF using link state. D. Replace RIP with BGP as an exterior gateway protocol.
Update RIP to OSPF using link state. Static routes may be a good solution, but remember that they are not dynamic, and if a piece of equipment goes down, new routes to remote networks will not automatically update, so OSPF is the best answer. It dynamically will update the routing tables with faster convergence than RIP.
213
What is the administrative distance of OSPF? A. 90 B. 100 C. 110 D. 120
110 The administrative distance (AD) is a very important parameter in a routing protocol. The lower the AD, the more trusted the route. If you have IGRP and OSPF running, by default IGRP routes would be placed in the routing table because IGRP has a lower AD of 100. OSPF has an AD of 110. RIPv1 and RIPv2 both have an AD of 120, and EIGRP is the lowest at 90.
214
Which of the following protocols will advertise routed IPv6 networks? A. RIP B. RIPng C. OSPFv2 D. EIGRPv3
RIPng The routing protocols that have been upgraded to advertise IPv6 routes are RIPng, OSPFv3, and EIGRPv6. IS-IS can advertise IPv6 routes as well, but no upgrade was needed for IS-IS.
215
What is the difference between static and dynamic routing? A. You use static routing in large, scalable networks. B. Dynamic routing is used by a DNS server. C. Dynamic routes are added automatically. D. Static routes are added automatically.
Dynamic routes are added automatically. Dynamic routing protocols, like RIP, EIGRP and OSPF, automatically add route updates to the routing table. Static routes must be added by hand.
216
Which routing protocol has a maximum hop count of 15? A. RIPv1 B. IGRP C. EIGRP D. OSPF
RIPv1 The distance vector protocols RIPv1 and RIPv2 both have a maximum hop count of 15 (remember, 16 is unreachable). IGRP and EIGRP have a hop count of 255, and OSPF doesn’t have a maximum hop count.
217
Which of the following describes routing convergence time? A. The time it takes for your VPN to connect B. The time required by protocols to update their forwarding tables after changes have occurred C. The time required for IDS to detect an attack D. The time required by switches to update their link status and go into forwarding state
The time required by protocols to update their forwarding tables after changes have occurred Routing convergence time is the time for all routers to update their routing tables (forwarding tables).
218
What routing protocol is typically used to connect ASs on the Internet? A. IGRP B. RIPv2 C. BGP D. OSPF
BGP BGP is used to connect autonomous systems together on the Internet because of its ability to make classless routing and summarization possible. This helps to keep routing tables smaller and more efficient at the ISP core.
219
RIPv2 sends out its routing table every 30 seconds just like RIPv1, but it does so more efficiently. What type of transmission does RIPv2 use to accomplish this task? A. Broadcasts B. Multicasts C. Telecast D. None of the above
Multicasts RIPv1 sends broadcasts every 30 seconds and has an AD of 120. RIPv2 sends multicast (224.0.0.9) every 30 seconds and also has an AD of 120. RIPv2 sends subnet-mask information with the route updates, which allows it to support classless networks and noncontiguous networks. RIPv2 also supports authentication between routers; RIPv1 does not.
220
Which routing protocols have an administrative distance of 120? (Choose two.) A. RIPv1 B. RIPv2 C. EIGRP D. OSPF
- RIPv1 - RIPv2 Both RIPv1 and RIPv2 have an AD of 120. EIGRP has an AD of 90 and OSPF is 110.
221
Which of the following routing protocols uses AS-Path as one of the methods to build the routing tables? ``` A. OSPF B. IS-IS C. BGP D. RIP E. EIGRP ```
BGP Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) attributes include the IP address to get to the next AS (the next-hop attribute) as well as an indication of how the networks at the end of the path were introduced into BGP (the origin code attribute). The AS path information is useful to construct a graph of loop-free autonomous systems and is used to identify routing policies so that restrictions on routing behavior can be enforced based on the AS path.
222
Which IPv6 routing protocol uses UDP port 521? A. RIPng B. EIGRPv6 C. OSPFv3 D. IS-IS
RIPng RIPng, which uses port 521, has many of the same features as RIPv2: It’s a distance vector protocol; it has a max hop count of 15; and it uses split horizon, poison reverse, and other loop-avoidance mechanisms. And it still uses multicast to send its updates, too, but in IPv6, it uses FF02::9 for the transport address. For RIPv2, the multicast address was 224.0.0.9, so the address still has a 9 at the end in the new IPv6 multicast range.
223
What EIGRP information is held in RAM and maintained through the usage of hello and update packets? (Select all that apply.) A. DUAL table B. Neighbor table C. Topology table D. Successor route
- Neighbor table - Topology table EIGRP holds three tables in RAM: neighbor, topology, and routing. The neighbor and topology tables are built and also maintained with the use of hello packets.
224
Which is true regarding EIGRP successor routes? A. Successor routes are saved in the neighbor table. B. Successor routes are stored in the DUAL table. C. Successor routes are used only if the primary route fails. D. A successor route is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination.
A successor route is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination. A successor route (think “successful” rather than standby or backup) is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination and is stored in the routing table. It is backed up by a feasible successor route that is stored in the topology table—if one is available. Remember that all routes are in the topology table.
225
Which of the following uses only hop count as a metric to find the best path to a remote network? A. RIP B. EIGRP C. OSPF D. BGP
RIP RIP and RIPv2 use only hop count as a metric, with a maximum of 15 hops, to find the best path to a remote network.
226
You want to improve network performance by increasing the bandwidth available to hosts and limiting the size of the broadcast domains. Which of the following options will achieve this goal? A. Managed hubs B. Bridges C. Switches D. Switches configured with VLANs
Switches configured with VLANs By creating and implementing VLANs in your switched network, you can break up broadcast domains at Layer 2. For hosts on different VLANs to communicate, you must have a router or Layer 3 switch.
227
The types of ports that can be found on a switch are ____________________ and ____________________. (Choose two.) A. VLAN Trunk Protocol B. Access C. 802.1Q D. Trunk
- Access - Trunk Hosts are connected to a switch and are members of one VLAN. This is called an access port. Trunk links connect between switches and pass information about all VLANs.
228
Which switching technology reduces the size of a broadcast domain? A. ISL B. 802.1Q C. VLANs D. STP
VLANs Virtual LANs break up broadcast domains in Layer 2 switched internetworks.
229
Which of the following are IEEE versions of STP? (Choose two.) ``` A. 802.1X B. VLANs C. 802.1D D. 802.11 E. 802.1w ```
- 802.1D - 802.1w Both 802.1D and 802.1w are IEEE STP versions, with 802.1w being the latest and greatest version.
230
You connect a host to a switch port, but the new host cannot log into the server that is plugged into the same switch. What could the problem be? (Choose two.) A. The router is not configured for the new host. B. The STP configuration on the switch is not updated for the new host. C. The host has an invalid MAC address. D. The switch port the host is connected to is not configured to the correct VLAN membership. E. STP shut down the port.
- The switch port the host is connected to is not configured to the correct VLAN membership. - STP shut down the port. The best answers are that the VLAN membership for the port is configured incorrectly and that STP shut down the port.
231
Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three.) A. They increase the size of collision domains. B. They allow logical grouping of users by function. C. They can enhance network security. D. They increase the size of broadcast domains while decreasing the number of collision domains. E. They simplify switch administration. F. They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast domains.
- They allow logical grouping of users by function. - They can enhance network security. - They simplify switch administration. VLANs break up broadcast domains in a switched Layer 2 network, which means smaller broadcast domains. They allow configuration by logical function instead of physical location and can create some security if configured correctly.
232
Which of the following is a Layer 2 protocol used to maintain a loop-free network? A. VTP B. STP C. RIP D. CDP
STP The Spanning Tree Protocol is used to stop switching loops in a switched network with redundant paths.
233
What is the result of segmenting a network with a bridge (switch)? (Choose two.) A. It increases the number of collision domains. B. It decreases the number of collision domains. C. It increases the number of broadcast domains. D. It decreases the number of broadcast domains. E. It makes smaller collision domains. F. It makes larger collision domains.
- It increases the number of collision domains. - It makes smaller collision domains. Bridges break up collision domains, which would increase the number of collision domains in a network and also make smaller collision domains.
234
You connect your host to a switch that is running network analysis software. However, you are not seeing any packets from the server. What do you need to implement on the switch to see all the packet information? A. VLANs B. STP C. Port mirroring D. Authentication
Port mirroring In order to see all frames that pass through the switch and read the packets with a network analyzer, you need to enable port mirroring on the port your diagnostic host is plugged into.
235
Which of the following features of a switch will allow two switches to pass VLAN network information? A. PoE B. VLANs C. Trunking D. STP
Trunking Trunking allows switches to pass information about many or all VLANs configured on the switches.
236
What are the distinct functions of Layer 2 switching that increase available bandwidth on the network? (Choose three.) ``` A. Address learning B. Routing C. Forwarding and filtering D. Creating network loops E. Loop avoidance F. IP addressing ```
- Address learning - Forwarding and filtering - Loop avoidance Layer 2 features include address learning, forwarding and filtering of the network, and loop avoidance.
237
Which of the following statements is true? A. A switch creates a single collision domain and a single broadcast domain. A router creates a single collision domain. B. A switch creates separate collision domains but one broadcast domain. A router provides a separate broadcast domain. C. A switch creates a single collision domain and separate broadcast domains. A router provides a separate broadcast domain as well. D. A switch creates separate collision domains and separate broadcast domains. A router provides separate collision domains.
A switch creates separate collision domains but one broadcast domain. A router provides a separate broadcast domain. Switches break up collision domains, and routers break up broadcast domains.
238
What does a switch do when a frame is received on an interface and the destination hardware address is unknown or not in the filter table? A. Forwards the switch to the first available link B. Drops the frame C. With the exception of the source port, floods the network with the frame looking for the device D. Sends back a message to the originating station asking for a name resolution
With the exception of the source port, floods the network with the frame looking for the device With the exception of the source port, switches flood all frames that have an unknown destination address. If a device answers the frame, the switch will update the MAC address table to reflect the location of the device.
239
If a switch receives a frame and the source MAC address is not in the MAC address table but the destination address is, what will the switch do with the frame? A. Discard it and send an error message back to the originating host B. Flood the network with the frame C. Add the source address and port to the MAC address table and forward the frame out the destination port D. Add the destination to the MAC address table and then forward the frame
Add the source address and port to the MAC address table and forward the frame out the destination port Because the source MAC address is not in the MAC address table, the switch will add the source address and the port it is connected to into the MAC address table and then forward the frame to the outgoing port.
240
When would you configure VTP on a switch? A. When you have hubs connected in your network B. When you have redundant links between switches C. When you have multiple hosts in multiple VLANs and you want to share all the data between hosts without a router D. When you have multiple switches with multiple VLANs and you want to share the VLAN database from one switch to all the others
When you have multiple switches with multiple VLANs and you want to share the VLAN database from one switch to all the others Virtual Trunk Protocol (VTP) is a Cisco proprietary method of having a single VLAN database advertised to all other switches in your network. This allows for ease of VLAN management in a larger network. Option C is not a possible configuration, by the way; I made that up.
241
When is STP said to be converged on the root bridge? (Choose two.) A. When all ports are in the forwarding state B. When all ports are in the blocking state C. When all ports are in the listening state D. When all ports are in the learning state
- When all ports are in the forwarding state - When all ports are in the blocking state The sequence of steps for STP convergence is, by default, blocking, listening, learning, forwarding, disabled. When all ports are in either the blocking or forwarding state, STP is converged.
242
In which two states is the MAC address table populated with addresses? (Choose two.) A. Blocking B. Listening C. Learning D. Forwarding
- Learning - Forwarding In the blocking and listening states, the MAC address table is not learning. Only in the learning and forwarding states is the MAC address table learning MAC addresses and populating the MAC address table.
243
You have multiple departments all connected to switches, with crossover cables connecting the switches together. However, response time on the network is still very slow even though you have upgraded from hubs to switches. What technology should you implement to improve response time on the networks? A. STP B. VLANs C. Convergence D. OSPF
VLANs Switches break up collision domains by default, but the network is still one large broadcast domain. In order to break up broadcast domains in a Layer 2 switched network, you need to create virtual LANs.
244
If you are configuring voice VLANs, which of the following should you configure on the switch ports to provide a higher precedence to voice traffic over data traffic to improve sound quality? A. Access VLANs B. VTP C. QoS D. STP
QoS If you are configuring voice VLANs, you’ll want to configure Quality of Service (QoS) on the switch ports to provide a higher precedence to voice traffic over data traffic to improve quality of the line.
245
What is a disadvantage of using port spanning? A. It breaks up broadcast domains on all ports. B. It can create overhead on the switch. C. It makes the switch one large collision domain. D. It makes the switch fast between only two ports instead of all ports.
It can create overhead on the switch. Be careful when using port mirroring/spanning on a switch because it can cause a lot of overhead on the switch and possibly crash your network. It’s therefore a good idea to use this feature at strategic times and only for short periods, if possible.
246
You need to install wireless Internet access in an open warehouse environment. After installing the equipment, the technician notices varying signal strengths throughout the warehouse. How do you make sure there is full coverage? ``` A. Turn on broadcast key rotation. B. Change the encryption method used on all the APs. C. Change the antenna placement. D. Use channel bonding. E. Use channel shaping ```
Change the antenna placement It is imperative that a good site survey is completed before you install your wireless network. Trying various types of antennas and their placements is the key to covering the whole wireless area.
247
Which of the following uses a certificate on both the server and client to provide the best wireless security with 802.1X (but is hardest to implement)? A. AES B. TTLS C. TLS D. TKIP
TLS TLS provides really good wireless security, but it’s hard to implement because you need to install a certificate on your server and also on all your clients. TTLS only uses a serverside certificate.
248
What is the frequency range of the IEEE 802.11g standard? A. 2.4 Gbps B. 5 Gbps C. 2.4 GHz D. 5 GHz
2.4GHz The IEEE 802.11b and IEEE 802.11g both run in the 2.4 GHz RF range.
249
Which devices can interfere with the operation of a wireless network because they operate on similar frequencies? (Choose two.) ``` A. Copier B. Microwave oven C. Toaster D. Cordless phone E. IP phone F. AM radio ```
- Microwave oven - Cordless phone If you are running 802.11b/g frequency, which most networks are, then you can receive interference from microwave ovens and cordless phones.
250
Which wireless standard allows you to channel-bond to increase bandwidth and uses both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequencies? ``` A. 802.11b B. 802.11g C. 802.11a D. 802.11n E. 802.11ac ```
802. 11n | 802. 11n uses channel bonding of both the 2.4 GHz range and the 5 GHz range to get increased bandwidth of over 100 Mbps.
251
Which of the following is considered a PAN? A. AES B. BSS C. SSID D. Bluetooth
Bluetooth Bluetooth works wirelessly to connect our phones, keyboards, and so on in small areas, also known as personal area networks (PANs).
252
How many non-overlapping channels are available with 802.11a? A. 3 B. 12 C. 23 D. 40
12 The IEEE 802.11a standard provides up to 12 non overlapping channels, or up to 23 if you add the 802.11h standard.
253
What is the maximum data rate for the 802.11a standard? A. 6 Mbps B. 11 Mbps C. 22 Mbps D. 54 Mbps
54 Mbps The IEEE 802.11a standard provides a maximum data rate of up to 54 Mbps.
254
You need to install wireless on multiple floors of a large building and maintenance area. What is your first concern before installing the APs? A. Authentication B. Encryption C. Channel overlap D. AP configuration
Channel overlap If you have a large area to cover with wireless, you need to be concerned with channel overlap.
255
What is the maximum data rate for the 802.11b standard? A. 6 Mbps B. 11 Mbps C. 22 Mbps D. 54 Mbps
11 Mbps The IEEE 802.11b standard provides a maximum data rate of up to 11 Mbps.
256
You connect a new host to your company’s wireless network. The host is set to receive a DHCP address and the WPA2 key is entered correctly. However, the host cannot connect to the network. What can the problem be? A. DNS is not configured on the host. B. MAC filtering is enabled on the AP. C. The network has run out of wireless connections. D. The host is enabled to run 802.11b and 802.11g.
MAC filtering is enabled on the AP If everything is correctly configured on the host, then MAC filtering would stop the host from connecting to the AP. If you try to connect and can’t, check the AP’s settings.
257
Which is the highest encryption that WPA2 can use? A. AES-CCMP B. PPK via IV C. PSK D. TKIP/MIC
AES-CCMP The IEEE 802.11i standard replaced Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) with a specific mode of the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) known as the Counter Mode Cipher Block Chaining-Message Authentication Code (CBC-MAC) protocol. This allows AESCounter Mode CBC-MAC Protocol (AES-CCMP) to provide both data confidentiality (encryption) and data integrity.
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Which additional configuration step is necessary in order to connect to an access point that has SSID broadcasting disabled? A. Set the SSID value in the client software to public. B. Configure open authentication on the AP and the client. C. Set the SSID value on the client to the SSID configured on the AP. D. Configure MAC address filtering to permit the client to connect to the AP.
Set the SSID value on the client to the SSID configured on the AP If you disable SSID broadcasting, which you should, then you must configure the SSID name on the clients that need to connect to the AP.
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Which spread-spectrum technology does the 802.11b standard define for operation? ``` A. IR B. DSSS C. FHSS D. DSSS and FHSS E. IR, FHSS, and DSSS ```
DSSS The IEEE 802.11b standard uses Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS). If you are running 802.11g, it uses Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing (OFDM).
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Which wireless LAN design ensures that a mobile wireless client will not lose connectivity when moving from one access point to another? A. Using adapters and access points manufactured by the same company B. Overlapping the wireless cell coverage by at least 10 percent C. Configuring all access points to use the same channel D. Utilizing MAC address filtering to allow the client MAC address to authenticate with the surrounding APs
Overlapping the wireless cell coverage by at least 10 percent If you are running an extended service set (meaning more than one AP with the same SSID), you need to overlap the cell coverage by 10 percent or more so clients will not drop out while roaming.
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You have installed a point-to-point connection using wireless bridges and Omni directional antennas between two buildings. The throughput is low. What can you do to improve the link? A. Replace the bridges with APs. B. Replace the Omni directional antennas with Yagis. C. Configure 802.11a on the links. D. Install amps to boost the signal
Replace the Omni directinal antennas with Yagis You need to use directional antennas, like a Yagi, to get the best signal between antennas.
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What does extended service set (ESS) ID mean? A. That you have more than one access point, and they are in the same SSID connected by a distribution system B. That you have more than one access point, and they are in separate SSIDs connected by a distribution system C. That you have multiple access points, but they are placed physically in different buildings D. That you have multiple access points, but one is a repeater access point
That you have more than one access point and they are in the same SSID connected by a distribution system Extended service set ID means that you have more than one access point, they all are set to the same SSID, and they are all connected together in the same VLAN or distribution system so users can roam.
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What is one reason that WPA encryption is preferred over WEP? A. A WPA key is longer and requires more special characters than the WEP key. B. The access point and the client are manually configured with different WPA key values. C. WPA key values remain the same until the client configuration is changed. D. The values of WPA keys can change dynamically while the system is used.
The values of WPA keys can change dynamically while the system is used WPA is cool because it is easy to configure and works great. Type in a passphrase (assuming you’re using a pre-shared key) and you’re done. Plus, you have great security because the keys change dynamically.
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How wide are the channels used in 802.11n in order to gain the large bandwidth that the specification provides? A. 22 MHz B. 20 MHz C. 40 MHz D. 100 MHz
40 MHz? 802.11n uses two 20 MHz wide channels to create a 40 MHz wide channel, which provides over 100 Mbps wireless.
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802.11n uses MIMO. How does this optimize throughput to gain the high-speed advantage that 802.11n provides? A. By specifying an acknowledgment of each and every frame, 802.11n provides better overhead. B. Several frames are sent by several antennas over several paths and are then recombined by another set of antennas. C. One frame at a time is sent, but faster than in 802.11g because multiple antennas are used (multiple-in, multiple-out). D. MIMO packs smaller packets into a single unit, which improves throughput.
Several frames are sent by several antennas over several paths and are then recombined by another set of antennas 802.11n MIMO sends multiple frames by several antennas over several paths. The frames are then recombined by another set of antennas to optimize throughput and multipath resistance. This is called spatial multiplexing. nx chap13