practice policy questions

Question 1

Any time personnel suffer a smoke inhalation injury, the ______ will be required to write a report to the Fire Chief.

A) member
B) Company Officer
C) Incident Commander
D) All of the above

Answer 1

D) All of the above

Ref: B 101.4 Protective Clothing; p.3 (III)(H)

Question 2

The goal in determining the air consumption rate is for personnel to exit an IDLH atmosphere:

A) when more than 15 percent of the air supply remains.
B) without consuming emergency air prior to Vibralert activation
C) after no more than 21 minutes following entry
D) when cylinder pressure drops below 1,500 psi

Answer 2

B) without consuming emergency air prior to Vibralert activation

Ref: B 102.2 SCBA/PASS; p 3 (III)(F)

Question 3

For residential and/or commercial structure fires, the Rally Point for the Inside Division shall be:

A) any area between the fire area and an egress.
B) the door where the fire attack line enters, just outside the IDLH.
C) outside the nearest egress.
D) in the room/compartment closest to the fire area.

Answer 3

B) the door where the fire attack line enters, just outside the IDLH.

Ref: B103.1 Fireground Accountability; p4 (IV)(A)(4)(c)(i)

Question 4

If a downed firefighter feels that they will soon be incapacitated, they should:

A) activate the PASS alarm and not reset it.
B) activate the PASS alarm, clear after 30 seconds, listen and reactivate.
C) attempt to activate their portable radio Emergency ID button.
D) perform all of the above in sequence: B, C, A.

Answer 4

A) activate the PASS alarm and not reset it.

Ref: B104.1 Lost Firefighter; p3, (IV)(B)(3)(Note)

Question 5

All personnel assigned to a Safety Group position will use Safety Group interventions when interacting with other personnel on the emergency scene. There are three approaches for emergency scene safety group interventions: for life threatening situations; for non-life threatening situations; and:

A) in the ongoing incident planning process.
B) for overhaul operations.
C) for rehab assignments.
D) in training and education planning.

Answer 5

A) in the ongoing incident planning process.

Ref: B105.2 Safety Group; pp 4-5, (IV)(4)

Question 6

When short setting/short jacking aerial apparatus stabilizers:

A) do not extend the aerial ladder more than 75 percent.
B) do not load the aerial ladder beyond 50 percent of capacity.
C) if possible, try not to use the aerial ladder for rescue operations.
D) never operate the aerial to the short-set-side.

Answer 6

D) never operate the aerial to the short-set-side.

Ref: B107.1 Aerial Ladder Safety; p3, (IV)(B)(1)(d)

Question 7

The capacity of the aerial ladder platform is reduced to ______ lbs. when the aerial is flowing water.

A) 1,000
B) 750
C) 500
D) 400

Answer 7

C) 500

Ref: B107.1 Aerial Ladder Safety; p4, (IV)(B)(2)(k)

Question 8

If it is necessary to flow an elevated master stream with a firefighter on the aerial ladder tip, it is imperative that:

A) the firefighter is in radio or intercom communication with the turntable operator and division officer
B) the firefighter be on the ladder as a safety precaution.
C) another firefighter be on the ladder as a safety precaution.
D) there be absolutely no movement of the aerial ladder.

Answer 8

A) the firefighter is in radio or intercom communication with the turntable operator and division officer

Ref: B107.1; Aerial Ladder Safety, p5 (IV)(B)(3)(b)

Question 9

When testing hose, use a drilled gate valve to avoid a whipping hose line should a coupling blow. If such a valve is not available, what should be done?

A) use a hose clamp
B) increase pressure to the hose line very slowly
C) the discharge gate valve should be adjusted to a near closed position, once the desired pressure is attained
D) adjust the nozzle to a near closed position, once the desired pressure is attained.

Answer 9

C) the discharge gate valve should be adjusted to a near closed position, once the desired pressure is attained.

Ref: B108.1 Waterflow/Pressure Safety; p 3, (III)(F)(4)

Question 10

Factors to consider in determining level of on-scene gross decontamination include all of the following except:

A) proximity of warm/decontamination zone
B) volume and density of smoke
C) exposure time to smoke and products of combustion
D) type of material burned

Answer 10

A) proximity of warm/decontamination zone

Ref: B112 Post Fire Contamination; p 2 (III)(c)

Question 11

At single unit responses, where crews are exposed to products of combustion, on-scene gross decontamination will be established by:

A) the Company Officer
B) the Driver
C) command
D) any of the above

Answer 11

B) the Driver

Ref: B112 Post Fire Decontamination; p 3 (IV)(A)(6)

Question 12

Firefighters exiting a smoke environment will remain on air, when possible, to minimize inhalation exposure during the gross decontamination process. Personnel may go off air:

A) upon entering rehab
B) when decon lines are shut down
C) after rinsing the exterior of PPE
D) after removing PPE

Answer 12

C) after rinsing the exterior of PPE

Ref: B112 Post fire Decontamination; p 4, (IV)(A)(7)(a)(c)(ii)

Question 13

There are rare occasions where a responding unit may need to pass another responding vehicle. This can only happen if:

A) the passing vehicle is using lights and sirens
B) the passing vehicle has used headlight flashers
C) the vehicle to be passed has come to a complete stop
D) the units are in direct radio communication with each other, and the passing apparatus receives permission from the apparatus to be passed.

Answer 13

D) the units are in direct radio communication with each other, and the passing apparatus receives permission from the apparatus to be passed.

Ref: B201.6 Safe Driving; p 5 (III)(B)(12)

Question 14

All apparatus will reduce their response to Code 1 when the first company reports out with nothing showing in:

A) a one or two story residence
B) a two family residence
C) a small commercial building
D) All of the above

Answer 14

D) All of the above

Ref: B202.1 ; Code 3 to Code 1; p 2 (IV)(D)

Question 15

All of the following statements about responses to non-aircraft related incidents at ABIA are correct except:

A) for medical calls, AFD personnel who not have an ABIA clearance badge must wait for an escort to enter any secured areas.
B) ARFF 2 and ARFF 5 shall not respond to Alarm Activations at ABIA buildings other than the terminal.
C) the primary Terminal FDC is present at the east end of the loading dock on the east end of the lower level of the Terminal.
D) an escort will be required to gain access to secure side FDCs at the Terminal.

Answer 15

B) ARFF 2 and ARFF 5 shall not respond to Alarm Activations at ABIA buildings other than the terminal.

Ref: B203.3; ABIA Incidents p2 (IV)(A)(1); p3 (IV)(C)(1); p3 (IV)(D)(3)(e); p4 (IV)(F)(2)(d)

Question 16

Which of the following statements about Cross Jurisdiction Responses is correct?

A) All Automatic Aid, multiple unit responses will be dispatched according to AFD response plans
B) On Mutual Aid HazMat alarms, AFD will act in an advisory capacity only.
C) Mutual Aid incidents shall be run on AFD’s primary talk group
D) All of the above

Answer 16

B) On Mutual Aid HazMat alarms, AFD will act in an advisory capacity only.

Ref: B204.1 Cross Jurisdictional Responses; p3 (IV)(A)(4)(6); B(2)

Question 17

Which of the following is not one of the limitations of the Thermal Imaging Camera?

A) Cannot see through water.
B) The infrared technology can be reflected by a number of surfaces.
C) The infrared technology is unreliable outdoors.
D) Heat from an object can leave an image after the object s=is gone.

Answer 17

C) The infrared technology is unreliable outdoors.

Ref: B302.1; TIC; p2 (IV)(B)

Question 18

A TIC can be used for all of the following in search operations except:

A) identify bodies in a heated atmosphere behind walls and behind reflective surfaces
B) identify most direct and safest path through the structure
C) identify significant landmarks such as egress and shelter points
D) identify fire, structural and occupancy special hazards

Answer 18

A) identify bodies in a heated atmosphere behind walls and behind reflective

Ref: B302.1 TIC; p 4 (IV)(E)(1)(2)(3)

Question 19

Which of the following is not one of the seven rules regarding elevator safety during firefighter operations?

A) never take an elevator to fire floor
B) never pass the fire floor in an elevator.
C) Never use an elevator in a multiple elevator hoist way unless all other elevators are positioned at the lobby.
D) Always activate the emergency stop button before escaping a stalled elevator.

Answer 19

C) Never use an elevator in a multiple elevator hoist way unless all other elevators are positioned at the lobby.

Ref: B303.1 Use of Elevators; p2, (IV)(c)(2)(3)(4)(6)

Question 20

Fire pumps and sprinklers are reliable systems for providing water in high-rise buildings. When there systems fail to operate as designed:

A) a second alarm should be implemented.
B) most often it is because a valve has been closed.
C) most often it is because there has been an explosion.
D) the HVAC system must be completely shut down

Answer 20

B) most often it is because a valve has been closed.

Ref: B304.3 Sprinklers/Fire Pumps; p1 (ii)

Question 21

Sprinkler systems shall be shut down only on the authority of Command and only:

A) when the fire is under control.
B) when there are no occupants in the structure.
C) after the fire has been extinguished.
D) after overhaul has begun.

Answer 21

C) after the fire has been extinguished.

Ref: B304.3 Sprinkler/Fire Pumps; p2, (III)(E)

Question 22

Fire companies may encounter a residential sprinkler system with an FDC that has one inlet of 1-1/2 inch diameter. These systems:

A) should be supplied with 100psi.
B) should be supplied with a maximum 150psi.
C) should only be supplied after firefighters have entered the residence and reported on the status of sprinkler operations.
D) should not be supported for fire operation, a they are not designed for control or extinguishment.

Answer 22

D) should not be supported for fire operation, a they are not designed for control or extinguishment.

Ref: 304.3 Sprinkler/Fire Pumps; p3 (IV)(G)

Question 23

A systematic approach of looking at the scene starting from the least burned area and working toward the most burned area will help to identify the area of origin. This method will also assist personnel in:

A) identifying multiple areas of origin.
B) identifying the use of accelerants.
C) determining where wall and ceiling openings should be made.
D) determining duration of burning.

Answer 23

A) identifying multiple areas of origin.

Ref: B307; Fire Cause Determination; p2 (III)(B)(3)

Question 24

On arrival at the incident scene, stand-by companies will position their apparatus in the most advantageous position to:

A) observe as much of the building as possible
B) maintain scene security and initiate fire ground operations if necessary.
C) enter the building as hickory as possible.
D) establish and maintain an adequate water supply if needed.

Answer 24

B) maintain scene security and initiate fire ground operations if necessary.

Ref: B308, Stand-by Operations; p2 (IV)(D)

Question 25

An area of ________ is approximately the area required for STAR Flight to land.

A) 50 feet x 50 feet
B) 75 feet x 75 feet
C) 100 feet x 100 feet
D) 150 feet x 150 feet

Answer 25

B) 75 feet x 75 feet

Ref: B316; Helicopter Operations; p2 (IV)(A)(6)

Question 26

Which of the following statements about the declaration of “Emergency traffic” is correct?

A) All Emergency Traffic transmissions should be followed by a PAR.
B) Emergency Traffic declarations can be made by any member on the fireground who feels they need to communicate critical time-sensitive information to other personnel on scene.
C) All Emergency Traffic declarations require members to eave a structure
D) All of the above.

Answer 26

B) Emergency Traffic declarations can be made by any member on the fireground who feels they need to communicate critical time-sensitive information to other personnel on scene.

Ref: B402.1 Emergency Terminology; p2 (III)(B)

Question 27

The brake system low-air warning devices must activate at no less than ______ psi.

A) 30
B) 40
C) 60
D) 100

Answer 27

C) 60

Ref: D104.1; Inspection/PM; p6 (IV)(G)(2)(a)(vi)

Question 28

In the Weekly Pumping Apparatus Floor Test, set the pressure governor. With the Master Discharge set at 125psi, note the RPM level indicated and then slowly close the recirculating/tank-fill valve. A noticeable drop in the apparatus RPMs should be noted. The RPMs should return to the original level when:

A) a discharge is opened
B) pressure is increased
C) pressure is reduced
D) the recirculating/tank-fill valve is reopened.

Answer 28

D) the recirculating/tank-fill valve is reopened.

Ref. D104.1; Inspection/PM; p9 (IV)(H)(12)(a)

Question 29

Water flow appliances with integrated pressure relief valves are pressure tested to ensure the pressure relief valve activates at the correct pressure depending on the apparatus it is carried on. Do not exceed ______psi while attempting to activate the relief valve.

A) 150
B) 200
C) 300
D) 350

Answer 29

B) 200

Ref: D104.1 Inspection/PM; p 10; (IV)(I)(2)(Note)

Question 30

In high-rise fires, hose lines should initially be placed on the floor of fire origin, and the fire should be attacked at that area. Secondary hose lines should then attack any extension on the floor above. Fire cut-off on floors above the origin floor should not be undertaken unless:

A) backup lines are in place for both the lines on the floor of origin and the floor(s) above.
B) the fire below is under control.
C) nozzlemen on both lines are in communication.
D) ventilation has occurred.

Answer 30

B) the fire below is under control.

Ref. High-Rise Fire Operations; TM, p8, 3.0 (F)(Note)

Question 31

The flowing of water from the standpipe should make the building fire pump start. You should notice an increase in pressure and flow when the pump starts. If this does not occur, inform Command that:

A) the pump needs to be started manually, before fire attack can begin.
B) handlines need to be carried to the fire floor if below 10 stories before fire attack can begin.
C) the FDC needs to be supplied before fire attack can begin.
D) A or C

Answer 31

D) A or C

Ref: High-Rise Fire Operations; TM, p 10, 3.01 (E, 3rd bullet)

Question 32

To ensure proper pressure to the attack line at a standpipe outlet, which of the following is essential?

A) A pressure relief valve
B) the use and monitoring of a pressure gauge.
C) A constant flow nozzle
D) A constant pressure nozzle

Answer 32

B) the use and monitoring of a pressure gauge.

Ref: High-Rise Fire Operations; TM, p 13, 3.02 (B, 4th bullet)

Question 33

A fully extended aerial may reach the ______ floor with a water stream.

A) 10th
B) 12th
C) 15th
D) 20th

Answer 33

C) 15th

Ref: High-Rise Fire Operations; TM, p 20, 3.04 (B, last bullet)

Question 34

A high rise fire WILL be a prolonged event. To prevent pump overheating, the driver should:

A) keep hose lines charged.
B) crack open the tank fill valve
C) open a discharge valve.
D) carefully monitor engine rpm’s

Answer 34

B) crack open the tank fill valve

Ref: High-Rise Fire Operations; TM, p 22, 4.0 (A)(10)

Question 35

In a high-rise building, if the pump is electric, not operating, and sprinklers are flowing water:

A) have the water supply engine supporting the sprinkler system deliver up to 225 psi.
B) have the water supply engine supporting the sprinkler system deliver the same pressure that the pump is designed to deliver.
C) push the reset button on the pump controller.
D) place the pump controller lever in the manual position to start the pump

Answer 35

D) place the pump controller lever in the manual position to start the pump

Ref: High-Rise Fire Operations; TM, p 25, 4.01 (C)

Question 36

Which of the following statements is a mitigation option for a wind-driven fire in a high-rise?

A) if the fire room door is closed and life safety concerns exist, attempt a wall breach for shielding.
B) if the fire room door is closed and there are no life safety concerns, do not enter the floor.
C) if the stairwell is full of smoke and roof access is closed, PPV below the fire probably will not be much help.
D) All of the above.

Answer 36

D) All of the above.

Ref: High-Rise Fire Operations; TM, p 34, 6.02 (A)(3)

Question 37

The 4th-arriving engine at a high-rise is responding for Lobby Control. Which of the following is a Lobby Control responsibility?

A) designate access routes (a stairwell or elevator)
B) ensure stairwell pressurization is occurring.
C) ensure capture of elevators and coordinate their use.
D) All of the above.

Answer 37

D) All of the above.

Ref: High-Rise Fire Operations; TM, p 56, Lobby Control, (Responsibilities)

Question 38

At a commercial structure fire, the aerial apparatus assigned Outside Truck should normally position:

A) to ladder the building.
B) to cover exposures.
C) at a corner of the building.
D) to utilize the aerial ladder to get to roof, from the side or rear of the structure.

Answer 38

D) to utilize the aerial ladder to get to roof, from the side or rear of the structure.

Ref: Commercial Structure Fires, TM; p 11, 8.0 (4)(a)

Question 39

The main disadvantage of the short attack is that:

A) personnel are entering the fire floor without the protection of a stairwell.
B) a backup line will not be available until an additional water supply is established.
C) the fire may not be confined to a single apartment.
D) All of the above.

Answer 39

A) personnel are entering the fire floor without the protection of a stairwell.

Ref: Mid-Rise Fire Operations; TM: p 12, 3.02 (C)

Question 40

In the high rise hallway stretch, Drop Point #2 is:

A) at the standpipe outlet.
B) in the hallway on the floor below the fire floor.
C) on the fire floor in the hallway just outside the stairwell door.
D) at the fire apartment door.

Answer 40

C) on the fire floor in the hallway just outside the stairwell door.

Ref: Mid-Rise Fire Operations; TM: p 17, 3.04 (A)(5)

Question 41

The Target Exit Device (TED) is used/deployed in all the following circumstances except:

A) A working fire with interior operations at a 1500 square foot residential (open) structure with many unobstructed windows and doors.
B) A working fire with interior operations at a 2200 square foot residential (open) structure with burglar bars on the windows and doors.
C) A working fire with interior operations at an 1800 square foot commercial (enclosed - few windows and doors) structure.
D) A working fire with interior operations at a 10,000 square feet warehouse (enclosed) structure.

Answer 41

A) A working fire with interior operations at a 1500 square foot residential (open) structure with many unobstructed windows and doors.

Ref: A111; Deploying Target Exit Device (TED); IV D. 1-4.

Question 42

The _____________ or designee is responsible for issues and actions pertaining to public health during a weapons of mass destruction incident.

A) Medical Director
B) Public Health Authority
C) AFD HMRT
D) none of the above

Answer 42

B) Public Health Authority

Ref: A609, pg 4, IV. G 1. b.

Question 43

The response to a commuter rail emergency will be dependent on the type of reported emergency. The distance between train stations varies from:

A) 3 to 10 minutes.
B) 5 to 8 minutes.
C) 3 to 10 miles.
D) 5 to 8 miles.

Answer 43

C) 3 to 10 miles.

Ref. A707, pg 3, IV. E. 2.

Question 44

By City ordinance, the owner of a fire alarm must ensure a response within _____ of being notified.

A) 30 mins
B) 1 hour
C) 1.5 hours
D) 2 hours

Answer 44

D) 2 hours

Ref. A708.3; pg 2, III. A, 3, last sentence.

Question 45

For roadway incidents, the first arriving apparatus should position at a _____ angle to provide a barrier between the incident scene and oncoming traffic.

A) 45-degree
B) 90-degree
C) 60-degree
D) 70-degree

Answer 45

A) 45-degree

Ref: A711.1; pg 2, IV. A. 2.

Question 46

Apparatus will normally be positioned to block the lane the incident is in plus:

A) all additional lanes to help with scene safety.
B) one additional lane for a buffer zone.
C) try to keep all other lanes open to keep LE happy.
D) two additional lanes to provide scene safety before mitigating the incident.

Answer 46

B) one additional lane for a buffer zone.

REf: A711.1; pg 2, IV. A. 2.

Question 47

What is the tactical assignment for the 2nd arriving Aerial apparatus at a Mid-Rise Offensive Structure Fire?

A) Lobby Control
B) Ventilation
C) Outside Truck
D) Evacuation

Answer 47

D) Evacuation

Ref: A101.4 pg 25

Question 48

What is the tactical assignment for the 4th arriving Aerial apparatus at a High-Rise Offensive Structure Fire?

A) Interior Staging
B) Logistics and System Control
C) Lobby Control
D) Outside Truck

Answer 48

A) Interior Staging

Ref: A101.4 pg 25

Question 49

What is the tactical assignment for the 3rd arriving Aerial apparatus at a Mid-Rise Offensive Structure Fire?

A) Lobby Control
B) Ventilation
C) Outside Truck
D) Evacuation

Answer 49

B) Ventilation

Ref: A101.4 pg 25

Question 50

What is the tactical assignment for the 4th arriving Aerial apparatus at a Mid-Rise Offensive Structure Fire?

A) Lobby Control
B) Ventilation
C) Outside Truck
D) Evacuation

Answer 50

C) Outside Truck

Ref: A101.4 pg 25

Question 51

What is the tactical assignment for the 2nd arriving Aerial apparatus at a High-Rise Offensive Structure Fire?

A) Recon
B) Logistics and System Control
C) Lobby Control
D) Outside Truck

Answer 51

A) Recon

Ref: A101.4 pg 25

Question 52

What is the tactical assignment for the 3rd arriving Aerial apparatus at a High-Rise Offensive Structure Fire?

A) Recon
B) Logistics and System Control
C) Lobby Control
D) Outside Truck

Answer 52

B) Logistics and System Control

Ref: A101.4 pg 25

Question 53

What are the four Primary Tactics for Offensive Mode Fireground Operations?

A) Fire Attack, Inside Truck, Outside Truck, Water Supply
B) Fire Attack, Inside Truck, Backup Team, Water Supply
C) Fire Attack, Backup Team, Inside Truck, Outside Truck
D) Incident Command, Inside Truck, Outside Truck, Water Supply

Answer 53

B) Fire Attack, Inside Truck, Backup Team, Water Supply

Ref: A101.4 Appendix C

Question 54

Introducing air into a ventilation-controlled structure fire will most likely lead to:

A) a decrease of the burning rate and possibly cause rapid fire progression.
B) the systematic removal of heat, smoke, and gases and replacement with a supply of cooler fresh air.
C) a dramatic improvement in visibility and quick heat dissipation.
D) an increase of the burning rate and possibly cause rapid fire progression.

Answer 54

D) an increase of the burning rate and possibly cause rapid fire progression.

Ref: A102.1; pg 1; II, para 2, sentence 2.

Question 55

During a “MAYDAY” notification how long will the portable radio transmit with a “hot Microphone” when the Emergency ID button is activated?

A) 5 to 6 seconds
B) 8 to 10 seconds
C) 15 seconds
D) 18 to 20 seconds

Answer 55

B) 8 to 10 seconds

Ref: B104.2; pg 2; IV, B. 2. b

Question 56

During a “MAYDAY” incident all of the follow monitor the Emergency channel and should receive the emergency message EXCEPT:

A) RIC
B) Command
C) Fire Dispatch
D) Assistant Safety Officer

Answer 56

D) Assistant Safety Officer

Ref: B104.2; pg2; IV, B. 2. c

Question 57

Which is not correct when preparing contaminated PPE for pick up by Safety Support on-scene?

A) Turnout coat and pants need to have the shells and liners separated and placed in separate clear trash bags.
B) Shells and firefighting gloves go in one clear trash bag. Liners (turned inside out) and hoods go in one clear trash bag.
C) The trash bags should be closed by twisting then taping the bag shut.
D) PPE will be kept intact and placed in a trash bag ready for pick up by Safety Support.

Answer 57

D) PPE will be kept intact and placed in a trash bag ready for pick up by Safety Support.

Ref: B112; pg 5-6; IV, D. 3.

Question 58

What hand signal will the backing guide use to tell the vehicle operator to stop?

A) Both arms extended above the head with palms closed toward the driver.
B) one arm extended above the head with palm closed toward the driver.
C) Both arms extended above the head with palms open toward the driver.
D) both arms extended above the head crossing forearms making a “X”.

Answer 58

C) Both arms extended above the head with palms open toward the driver.

Ref: B201.5; pg 6; IV, C. i. 3.

Question 59

When using RMS to document the cause of ignition, which of the following entry choices is used by the Investigator only?

A) Intentional
B) Unintentional
C) Cause Under Investigation
D) Undetermined

Answer 59

C) Cause Under Investigation

Ref: B206.2; pg 3, lll, F.

Question 60

Air shops will ensure all resupply stations have their full supply of SCBA and O2 cylinders before weekends and holidays. In order for this to happen, requests must be turned in by:

A) 0700 on Fridays
B) 1300 on Fridays
C) 1700 on Fridays
D) 1700 on day before holidays

Answer 60

B) 1300 on Fridays

Ref: B207; pg 2, lV, A. 1.

Question 61

Who is responsible for handling the request from the on-call Air Tech for back up support of additional Techs at the scene?

A) Command/Dispatch
B) The Shift Commander
C) Fire Dispatch
D) Operations Support Chief and/or Lieutenant

Answer 61

D) Operations Support Chief and/or Lieutenant

Ref: B207; pg 3, lV, B. 5.

Question 62

Chief Officers will utilize the Fire Scene Tactical Worksheet at all of the following working fire events except:

A) Box Alarm
B) Mid-Rise Alarm
C) High-Rise Alarm
D) Brush Alarm

Answer 62

D) Brush Alarm

Ref: B301.1; pg 1, ll.

Question 63

A firefighter utilizing the TIC in low visibility, should be sure to scan deliberately in a three area pattern. What is the three area pattern?

A) high, medium, and low
B) low, medium, and high
C) left, right, and left again
D) the ceiling, the floor, and the walls

Answer 63

A) high, medium, and low

Ref: B302.1 pg. 3; lV, D. 5.

Question 64

Which of the following don’t have InfraRed capabilities to help during search/rescue operations, wildfire incidents, and large defensive fires?

A) APD (Air Support)
B) TXDPS
C) Red Team UAS
D) STAR Flight

Answer 64

D) STAR Flight

Ref: B316.1; pg 2; III,2.