Practice Paper 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the treatment for acute coronary syndrome?

A
300mg aspirin
Clopidogrel
Treatment dose heparin
b-blocker stat 
GTN spray
Morphine

From LAZ:
o Admit to coronary care unit
o Oxygen, IV access, monitor vital signs and serial ECG

o GTN
o Morphine
o Metoclopramide (to counteract the nausea caused by morphine)
o Aspirin - 300 mg initially, followed by 75 mg indefinitely.
o Clopidogrel (300 mg initially, followed by 75 mg for at least 1 year if troponin positive or high risk)
o LMWH (e.g. enoxaparin)
o Beta-blocker (e.g. metoprolol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
Pt presents to gp with painless haematuria
Has a recent history of a sore throat
He is producing less urine and the urine is brown
There are no other symptoms
BP is 155/90
\+++ blood on urine dip
High creatinine 
What do you suspect?
A

Nephritic syndrome triad:

  1. Hypertension
  2. Proteinuria
  3. Haematuria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is nephritic syndrome?

A

Nephritic syndrome is a syndrome comprising signs of nephritis, which is kidney disease involving inflammation.

It often occurs in glomerulonephritis, which is characterized by a thin glomerular basement membrane and small pores in the podocytes of the glomerulus, large enough to permit proteins and red blood cells to pass into the urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Whats the difference between nephritic syndrome and nephrotic syndrome?

A
Nephritic = both blood and protein move into urine
Nephrotic = ONLY protein
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Tell me about digoxin

A

Its used for the treatment of chronic heart failure
Its an inotrope
it does NOT improve survival

It works by blocking the na/k pump causing a rise in iIC na which via na/ca exchange increases the IC conc of ca and hence contractility (inotrope).
It hence increases the AV delay and the HR is indirectly slowed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define hodgkins lymphoma

A

Lymphomas are neoplasms of lymphoid cells, originating in the lymph nodes or other
lymphoid tissues.
Hodgkin’s lymphoma (15% of all lymphomas) is diagnosed histopathologically by the PRESENCE OF REED-STERNBERG CELLS (BINUCLEATE LYMPHOCYTES)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Whats the aetiology of Hodgkins lymphoma?

A

Unknown

EBV trigger in 50% (“glandular fever”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Epidemiology of hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

MALES

bimodal: peaks at 20-30 and >50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the PC of hodgkins?

A

• Painless enlarging mass (unilateral)
o Most commonly in the neck
o Can also be in the axilla or groin
• The mass may become painful after ALCOHOL INGESTION

• B symptoms of Lymphoma
o Fever > 38 degrees - If this is cyclical it is referred to as Pel-Ebstein fever
o Night sweats
o Weight loss > 10% body weight in the past 6 months
- these are associated with a worst prognosis.

• Other symptoms
o Pruritis
o Cough
o Dyspnoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Recognise the signs of Hodgkin’s lymphoma on physical examination

A

• Non-tender firm rubbery lymphadenopathy***
(may be cervical, axillary or inguinal)
• Splenomegaly (or sometimes, hepatosplenomegaly)
• Skin excoriations
• Signs of intrathoracic disease (e.g. pleural effusion, superior vena cava obstruction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the staging for hdgkin

A

• Ann Arbor Staging
o I = single lymph node region
o II = 2+ lymph node regions on one side of the diaphragm
o III = lymph node regions on both sides of the diaphragm
o IV = extranodal involvement

o A = absence of B symptoms
o B = presence of B symptoms
o E = localised extranodal extension
o S = involvement of spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Define psoriasis

A

• A chronic inflammatory skin disease, which has characteristic lesions and may be complicated by arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Recognise the PC of psoriasis

A

Recognise the presenting symptoms of psoriasis
• Itching and occasionally tender skin
• Pinpoint bleeding with removing scales (Auspitz phenomenon)
• Skin lesions may develop at sites of trauma/scars (Koebner phenomenon)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Recognise the sings OE for psoriasis

A

Recognise the signs of psoriasis on physical examination
• Discoid/Nummular psoriasis - symmetrical, well-demarcated erythematous plaques with silvery scales over extensor surfaces (knee, elbows, scalp, sacrum)

  • Flexural psoriasis - less scaly plaques in axilla, groins, perianal and genital skin
  • Guttate psoriasis - small drop-like lesions over trunk and limbs
  • Palmoplantar psoriasis - erythematous plaques with pustules on palms and soles
  • Generalised pustular psoriasis - pustules distributed over limbs and torso
  • Nail Signs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How does psoriatic arthritis present

A

• Joint Signs M FIVE presentations of psoriatic arthritis
o Asymmetrical oligoarthritis
o Symmetrical polyarthritis
o Distal interphalangeal joint predominance
o Arthritis mutilans
o Psoriatic spondylitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the main causes of subarachnoid haemorrhages?

A
  • 85% - rupture of a saccular aneurysm at the base of the brain (Berry aneurysms)
  • 10% - perimesencephalic haemorrhage
  • 5% - arteriovenous malformations, bleeding diathesis, vertebral artery dissection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the main RF for subarachnoid haemorrhages?

A

• Risk Factors
o Hypertension
o Smoking
o Excess alcohol intake

o Saccular aneurysms are associated with:
• Polycystic kidney disease
• Marfan’s syndrome
• Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A
  • Sudden-onset worst headache ever THUNDERCLAP
  • Nausea/vomiting
  • Neck stiffness
  • Photophobia
  • Reduced level of consciousness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Recognise the signs of subarachnoid haemorrhage on physical examination

A

Meningism :
o Neck stiffness
o Kernig’s sign
o Pyrexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What do you expect to find on a LP of a sub. haem?

A

Xanthochromia = straw-coloured CSF due to breakdown of red blood cells

requires at least 6hrs to show up though - until the rbc break down.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What do you expect to find on a CT scan of sub. haem?

A

• CT Scan

Hyperdense areas in the basal regions of the skull (due to blood)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What investigations do you do for sub. haem?

A
•  Bloods 
o  FBC  
o  U&Es 
o  ESR/CRP   
o  Clotting  

• CT Scan
o Hyperdense areas in the basal regions of the skull (due to blood)
• Angiography - detect source of bleeding
• Lumbar Puncture
o Increased opening pressure
o Increased red cells
o Xanthochromia - straw-coloured CSF due to breakdown of red blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What’s the antidote for paracetamol overdose?

A

N-acetylcysteine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Whats’s the antidote for opiate overdose?

A

Naloxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the CURB65 score and what is it used for?

A
Used to asses severity/management of pneumonia
Confusion
Urea >7
RR>30
BP low
65< yrs old
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

On examining a patient with a weak regular pulse, ejection systolic murmur.
When they lean forward so you can palpate their apex beat in expiration they get flustered and complains of a sore back and SOB.
What are you thinking?

A

Aortic stenosis

Ejection systolic murmur is classic of aortic stenosis
Rheumatic fever is a rf - most comon cause wordlwide.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the most common cause of aortic stenosis?

A

Age related calcification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are aortic stenosis complications?

A

Heart failure
Angina
Heyde syndrome (colonic angiodysplasia and lower GI bleed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Explain the aetiology and risk factors of aortic stenosis

A
  • Stenosis can be secondary to rheumatic heart disease (MOST COMMON WORLDWIDE)
  • Calcification of a congenital bicuspid aortic valve
  • Calcification/degeneration of a tricuspid aortic valve in the elderly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of aortic stenosis

A

• May be ASYMPTOMATIC initially
• Angina (due to increased oxygen demand of the hypertrophied left ventricle)
• SYNCOPE or dizziness on exercise (due to outflow obstruction)
–> classic elderly patient falls for no reason and comes to a&e then you discover aortic murmur.
• Symptoms of heart failure (e.g. dyspnoea, orthopnoea)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Recognise the signs of aortic stenosis on examination

A

Recognise the signs of aortic stenosis on examination
• Narrow pulse pressure
• Slow-rising pulse
• Thrill in the aortic area (only if severe)
• Forceful sustained thrusting undisplaced apex beat
• EJECTION SYSTOLIC MURMUR** at the aortic area, radiating to the carotid artery
• Second heart sound may be softened or absent (due to calcification)
• A bicuspid valve may produce an ejection click

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the signs you expect to find for aortic stenosis on ECG?

A
•  ECG 
Signs of left ventricular hypertrophy  
•  Deep S in V1/2 
•  Tall R in V5/6 
•  Inverted T waves in I, aVL and V5/6  
•  Left axis deviation 

LBBB signs
WilliaM v1,v6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Common AB and their side effects

A
Co-amoxiclav = cholestatic jaundice
Erythromycin = diarrhoea
Gentamicin = nephrotoxicity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What scoring system is used to predict risk of pressure sores in patients?

A

Waterlow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Define obstructive sleep apnoea

A

A disease characterised by recurrent prolapse of the pharyngeal airway and apnoea (cessation of airflow for > 10 s) during sleep, followed by arousal from sleep.

Also known as Pickwickian Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What’s obstructive sleep apnoea associated with?

A
Associated with: 
Weight gain  - OBESE
Smoking  
Alcohol 
Sedative use   
Enlarged tonsils and adenoids in children   Macroglossia 
Marfan's syndrome  
Craniofacial abnormalities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How does obstructive sleep apnoea occur?

A

Occurs due to narrowing of the upper airways because of the collapse of soft tissues of the pharynx
This is due to decreased tone of the pharyngeal dilators during sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of obstructive sleep apnoea

A
TIREDNESS 
Excessive daytime sleepiness  
Unrefreshing or restless sleep 
Morning headaches  
Dry mouth  
Difficulty concentration  
Irritability and mood changes   
Partner reporting snoring, nocturnal apnoeic episodes or nocturnal choking
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

In an SBA what does “work in a shipyard” indicate?

A

Asbestos exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Define mesothelioma

A

Aggressive tumour of the mesothelial cells, which

usually occurs in the pleura (90%) but can also occur in other sites, such as the peritoneum, pericardium and testes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Whats the RF of mesothelioma

A

ASBESTOS ** (shipyard exposure)

has a latent period of 50years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of mesothelioma

A
  • RARE
  • More common in ELDERLY (> 75 yrs)
  • Asbestos exposure is documented in 70M80% of cases
  • Latent period between asbestos exposure and mesothelioma may be up to 50 yrs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms and signs of mesothelioma

A

• MOST COMMON symptoms:
o SOB
o Chest pain (dull, diffuse and progressive)
WORST ON INHALATION = pleural chest pain
o Weight loss
• Occasionally palpable chest wall mass
• Fatigue
• Fever
• Night sweats
• Clubbing (due to underlying asbestosis (pulmonary fibrosis))
• Signs of metastases (e.g. hepatomegaly, bone pain and tenderness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What ix will you do for mesothelioma?

A

• CXR/CT
o Shows pleural effusion
o May show a pleural mass and rib destruction

  • MRI and PET
  • Pleural fluid - can be sent for cytological analysis and may be blood-stained
  • Pleural biopsy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What would help distinguish between angina and myocardial infarction?

A

raised troponin levels = MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What’s the classic presentation for colonic carcinoma on CT or barium enema?

A

apple core lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Whats the classic px of crohns on barium enema of the colon?

A

“cobble stoning” PATCHY throughout colon
rosy thorne ulcer
colonic strictures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Whats the classic px of UC on barium enema of the colon?

A

CONTINUOUS changes from recturm proximally
loss of haustra on plain film
colon appears shorter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which sign would you NOT expect to see on a cauda equina pt?

A

Upgoing plantars- They should be normal

Upgoing plantars would indicate a lesion higher up.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which nerve roots are compressed in saddle anesthesi

A

s3-s5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Whats coeliac disease?

A

An inflammatory disease caused by intolerance to GLUTEN, causing chronic intestinal malabsorption.

52
Q

Which component of gluten specifically irritates the bowel?

A

gliadin

53
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of coeliac disease

A
  • May be asymptomatic
  • Abdominal discomfort, pain and distention
  • Steatorrhoea (pale bulky stool, with offensive smell and difficult to flush away)
  • Diarrhoea
  • Tiredness, malaise, weight loss (despite normal diet)
  • Failure to ‘thrive’ in children
  • Amenorrhoea in young adults
54
Q

Recognise the signs of coeliac disease on physical examination

A

• Signs of anaemia: pallor
• Signs of malnutrition:
o Short stature
o Abdominal distension
o Wasted buttocks in children
o Triceps skinfold thickness gives indication of fat stores
• Signs of vitamin/mineral deficiencies: osteomalacia, easy bruising
• Intense, itchy blisters on elbows, knees or buttocks (dermatitis herpetiformis)

55
Q

Identify appropriate investigations for coeliac disease

A
Identify appropriate investigations for coeliac disease 
•  Blood:  
o  FBC (low Hb, iron and folate)  
o  U&amp;E 
o  Albumin  
o  Calcium 
o  Phosphate 

• Serology:
o IgG anti-gliadin antibodies***, IgA and IgG anti-endomysial tranglutaminase antibodies can be diagnostic
o NOTE: IgA deficiency is quite COMMON (1/50 with coeliac) so Ig levels should be measured to avoid false negatives

  • Stool: culture to exclude infection, faecal fat tests for steatorrhoea
  • D-xylose test: reduced urinary excretion after oral xylose indicates small bowel malabsorption

• Endoscopy: allows direct visualisation of villous atrophy in the small intestine (mucosa appears flat and smooth)
o Biopsy will show villous atrophy and crypt
hyperplasia in the duodenum
o The epithelium adopts a cuboidal appearance - there is an inflammatory infiltrate of lymphocytes and plasma cells in the lamina propria

56
Q

What exactly happens in coeliac disease with gliadin ingestion?

A

Exposure to gliadin triggers and immunological reaction in the small intestine leading to mucosal damage and loss of villi

57
Q

Generate a management plan for coeliac disease

A
  • Advice: avoid gluten (wheat, rye and barley products)

* Medical: vitamin and mineral supplements. Oral corticosteroids if disease does not subside with avoidance of gluten

58
Q

Identify the possible complications of coeliac disease

A
  • Iron, folate and B12 deficiency
  • Osteomalacia
  • Ulcerative jejunoileitis
  • GI lymphoma (particularly T cell) *
  • Bacterial overgrowth
  • Cerebellar ataxia (rarely)
59
Q

What is delirium tremens?
What are the complications?
What is the treatment?

A

A syndrome of delirium, autonomic activation and agitation brought on by acute detoxification from alcohol
It is a terrifying and life threatening confusional state
35% mortality if untreated
It can progress to seizures and heart arrhythmias
Its important tot keep monitoring vital signs in these pts - bp drops.
Treatment is with benzodiazepines.

60
Q

What should you suspect in a pt with known cancer and vague abdominal symptoms?

A

Hypercalcaemia

Explanation: metastasis from primary cancer to the bone causing hypercalcaemia. Hypercalcaemia symtpoms are “bones, abdominal groans, mones, stones”
Which explain these vague unspecific abdominal symptoms

61
Q

Which cancers are prone to met to the bones?

A
Breast
Bronchus
Kidney
Prostate
Thyroid
Myeloma
62
Q

What diseases and things can cause Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation? And how.

A
Meningococcal septicaemia
E Coli
Strep pneumonia
Malaria
Lung cancer
Pancreatic caner

Diffuse endothelial damage leads to widespread tissue factor expression thus activating intravascular coagulation and consuming platelets, factors 5 and 8 and fibrinogen. This causes the pt to enter a haemorrhagic state.

63
Q

Recognise the symptoms OE of DIC pt

A
o  Petechiae, purpura, ecchymoses   
o  Epistaxis  
o  Mucosal bleeding  
o  Overt haemorrhage  
o  Signs of end organ damage   
o  Respiratory distress  
o  Oliguria due to renal failure
64
Q

What does a full blood count of a DIC pt show

A
  • Low platelets
  • Low Hb
  • High APTT/PT
  • Low fibrinogen
  • High fibrin degradation products
  • High D-dimers
65
Q

What confirms the diagnosis of gout?

A

Needle shaped rystals showing negative birefringence under polarised light

66
Q

What crystals cause pseudogout?

A

Calcium pyrophosphate crystals

67
Q

How is pseudogout seen under polarised light?

A

Brick shaped positive birefringence crystals and under polarised light

68
Q

Why does gout occur

A

It occurs secondary to the deposition of uric acid crystals in the joint

69
Q

Who is a classic gout pt

A
Older
Male
Obese
Drinker - PUBLICAN ****
With Htn, ischaemia, diabetes
70
Q

How does gout usually present?

A

Sudden onset sharp pain, swelling, redness in the first metataatrsophalangeal joint (PODAGRA)
25% of cases occur in the knee

71
Q

How is gout treated?

A

NSAID’s

Allopurinol (xanthine oxidase inhibitor that slows the production of uric acid) - in recurrent pt’s

72
Q

Where does chronic tophaceous gout often present at

A

In cartilage

Usually ear and Achilles tendon.

73
Q

Post op pt presents with SOB what do you suspect

A

PE

74
Q

What criteria is used to stratify PE risk

A

Well’s criteria
4 or less = low probability - use D-dimer
above 4 = high probability - required imaging (CTPA)

75
Q

What is a PE

A

a blood clut in the lung vasculature

LAZ:
Occlusion of pulmonary vessels, most commonly by a thrombus that has travelled to the pulmonary vascular system from another site

76
Q

What are the features of a PE?

A

acute onset pleuritic chest pain
SOB
fever
tachycardia

77
Q

What are d-dimers?

A

Breakdown product of clots
a low d dimer excludes a PE
a high level does NOT confirm a PE though.

78
Q

Whats a CTPA?

A

Computer tomography pulmonary angiography is the best investigation

if its -ve its not pe for sure - no further investigations required .

79
Q

Treatment of PE

A

Heparin or LMWH and then Wargarin for 6 months

80
Q

What level of INR are you aiming for?

A

2-3

the normal range

81
Q

If haemodynamically UNSTABLE - massive pe - how do you manage

A

Resuscitate
O2
IV fluids
*Thrombolysis with tPA may be considered if cardiac arrest is imminent

82
Q

Is there sensory loss in parkinsons disease?

A

no

83
Q

Why is colour and central vision most commonly affected in MS?

A

because the axons conducting messages from the cone cells (colour vision and high acuity central vision) are myelinated
Unlike the ones conducting messages from the rod cells (dark vision and peripheral vision).

84
Q

Define multiple sclerosis

A

• Inflammatory demyelinating disease of the CNS

85
Q

What are the 3 main types of MS?

A

Relapsing-Remitting –> COMMONEST form
• Clinical attacks of demyelination with complete recovery in between attacks

Clinically Isolated Syndrome
• Single clinical attack of demyelination
• The attack in itself does NOT count as MS
• 10-50% progress to develop MS

Primary Progressive MS
• Steady accumulation of disability with NO relapsing-remitting pattern

Marburg Variant
• Severe fulminant variant of MS leading to advanced disability or death within weeks

86
Q

What’s the aetiology of MS?

A

UNKOWN

possible connection to EBV

87
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of multiple sclerosis

A
  • UK prevalence: 1/1000
  • 2 x as common in FEMALES
  • Age of presentation: 20M40 yrs
88
Q

Recognise the presenting symptoms of multiple sclerosis

A

Recognise the presenting symptoms of multiple sclerosis
• Varies depending on the site of inflammation

Optic Neuritis (COMMONEST)
o Unilateral deterioration of visual acuity and colour perception
o Pain on eye movement
o Common first symptoms of multiple sclerosis

Sensory
o Pins and needles
o Numbness
o Burning

Motor  
o  Limb weakness   
o  Spasms  
o  Stiffness  
o  Heaviness  
Autonomic  
o  Urinary urgency 
o  Hesitancy  
o  Incontinence   
o  Impotence  

Psychological
o Depression
o Psychosis

89
Q

Whats Uhthoff’s Sign

A

• Uhthoff’s Sign - worsening of neurological symptoms as the body gets overheated from hot weather, exercise, saunas, hot tubs etc.

90
Q

What’s Lhermitte’s Sign

A

• Lhermitte’s Sign - an electrical sensation that runs down the back and into the limbs
when the neck is flexed

91
Q

What’s the McDonald criteria

A

Diagnosis is based on the finding of two or more CNS lesions with corresponding symptoms, SEPERATED IN TIME AND SPACE.

eg: presents now with weakness in arm and 1 year ago had an episode of loss of vision (optic neuritis)

92
Q

What are the expected results of MS on LP?

A

unmatched oligoclonal bands

93
Q

What enchancement is used for scans in MS diagnosis?

A

Gadolinium

94
Q

Pt presents with left sided weakness of sudden onsett
L arm power = 0
left leg power = 3/4
Reduced reflexes throughout
Sensation absent in the arm and reducecd in the leg
CN exam = can’t see left hand side
Lower half of her left face is weak (she can raise her eyebrow)

Which vacular territory is affected?

A

Middle cerebral artery

95
Q

What sort of symptoms do you expect to see in an ANTERIOR cerebral artery stroke?

A

Lower limb weakness

Confusion

96
Q

What sort of symptoms do you expect to see in an MIDDLE cerebral artery stroke?

A

HEMI - …

!  Facial weakness  
!  Hemiparesis (motor cortex) 
!  Hemisensory loss (sensory cortex) 
!  Apraxia  
!  Hemineglect (parietal lobe)  
!  Receptive or expressive dysphasia (due to involvement of Wernicke's 
and Broca's areas)  
!  Quadrantopia (if superior or inferior optic radiations are affected)
97
Q

What sort of symptoms do you expect to see in an POSTERIOR cerebral artery stroke?

A

More cerebellar like symptoms:

  • Posterior Cerebral M hemianopia
  • Anterior Inferior Cerebellar - vertigo, ipsilateral ataxia, ipsilateral deafness, ipsilateral facial weakness
  • Posterior Inferior Cerebellar (affected in lateral medullary syndrome) - vertigo, ipsilateral ataxia, ipsilateral Horner’s syndrome, ipsilateral hemisensory loss, dysarthria, contralateral spinothalamic sensory loss
  • Basilar Artery - cranial nerve pathology and impaired consciousness
  • Multiple Lacunar Infarcts - vascular dementia, urinary incontinence, gait apraxia, shuffling gait, normal or excessive arm-swing
  • Intracerebral - headache, meningism, focal neurological signs, nausea/vomiting, signs of raised ICP, seizures
98
Q

45yo male smoker with 4month history of productive cough and exertional breathlesness. What are you thinking?

A

COPD

99
Q

define COPD

A

Cough with sputum for most days of a 3month period on two consecutive years

100
Q

Define emphysema

A

Pathological destructive enlargement of the alveoli

101
Q

Whats cor pulmonale

A

Abnormal enlargement of the right side of the heart as a result of disease of the lungs (COPD) or the pulmonary blood vessels.

102
Q

What are the features of COPD on examination

A
INSPECTION
Respiratory distress  
Use of accessory muscles   
Barrel-shaped over-inflated chest *
Decreased cricosternal distance   
Cyanosis  

PERCUSSION
Hyper-resonant chest
Loss of liver and cardiac dullness

AUSCULTATION  
Quiet breath sounds  
Prolonged expiration  
Wheeze  
Rhonchi - rattling, continuous and lowMpitched breath sounds that sounds a bit like snoring. They are often caused by secretions in larger airways or obstructions Sometimes crepitations   

SIGNS OF CO2 RETENTION
Bounding pulse
Warm peripheries
Asterixis

LATE STAGES: signs of right heart failure (cor pulmonale)
Right ventricular heave
Raised JVP
Ankle oedema

103
Q

What does PEFR and spirometry look like in a COPD pt?

A
Shows obstructive picture:
Reduced PEFR 
Reduced FEV1/FVC 
Increased lung volumes  
Decreased carbon monoxide gas transfer coefficient
104
Q

Generate a management plan for COPD

A

STOP SMOKING

Bronchodilators

SABA (e.g. salbutamol)

Anticholinergics (e.g. ipratropium bromide)

LABA (if > 2 exacerbations per year)

Steroids

Inhaled beclamethasone - considered in all patients with FEV1 < 50% of predicted OR > 2 exacerbations per year
Regular oral steroids should be avoided if possible

Pulmonary rehabilitation

Oxygen therapy
Only for those who stop smoking
Indicated if:
PaO2 < 7.3 kPa on air during a period of clinical stability

105
Q

Identify the possible complications of COPD

A
Acute respiratory failure  
Infections  
Pulmonary hypertension  
Right heart failure   
Pneumothorax (secondary to bullae rupture)   
Secondary polycythaemia
106
Q

What sort of AB do you expect a patient to be on who has recently developed c diff diarrhoea?

A

Co-amoxiclav

Clarithromycin

107
Q

What’s the best treatment plan for C diff?

A

Oral vancomycin

108
Q

What are classic features of GORD?

A

Obese pt
Intermittent burning central chest pain
Occurs on lying down

Smoker
Alcoholic
Pregnant woman
Hiatal hernia history

109
Q

What’s the mx of GORD?

A
CONSERVATIVE FIRST: 
o  Weight loss  
o  Elevating head of bed  
o  Avoid provoking factors  
o  Stop smoking  
o  Lower fat meals  
o  Avoid large meals late in the evening 
MEDICAL:
o  Antacids  
o  Alginates  
o  H2 antagonists (e.g. ranitidine)  
o  Proton pump inhibitors (e.g. lansoprazole, 

ENDOSCOPY:
o Annual endoscopic surveillance - looking for Barrett’s Oesophagus
o May be necessary for stricture dilation or

SURGERY:
o Antireflux surgery if refractory to medical treatment

NISSEN FUNDOPLICATION:
o Fundus of the stomach is wrapped around the lower oesophagus - helps reduce the risk of hiatus hernia and reduce reflux

110
Q

Identify the possible complications of GORD

A
  • Oesophageal ulceration
  • Peptic stricture
  • Anaemia
  • Barrett’s oesophagus
  • Oesophageal adenocarcinoma
  • Associated with asthma and chronic laryngitis
111
Q

What would you suspect with a hr of 300bpm

A

Atrial flutter

112
Q

What would you suspect with a hr of 140-220 bpm

A

AVN re-entry tachycardia.

113
Q

What’s moloscum contagiosum?

A

A common skin infection caused by a pox virus that affects children and adults.
Transmission is usually by direct skin contact.

114
Q

What are the risk factors of moloscum contagiosum?

A

o Mainly in CHILDREN
o Immunocompromised * (AIDS)
o Atopic eczema

115
Q

Recognise the signs of molluscum contagiosum on physical examination

A

• Firm, smooth, UMBILICATED* papules
• Usually 2-5 mm in diameter
• In children - tends to occur on the trunk
and the extremities
• In adults - tends to occur on the lower abdomen, genital area and inner thighs (suggesting sexual contact)

116
Q

How does pneumothorax present?

A
Acute onset
pleuritic (unilateral) chest pain **
SOB
No associated trauma
Could or could not have a pmh of lung disease (COPD)
No temperature 
High RR
117
Q

What does a CXR show with pneumothorax?

A

Small rim of air between the lung edge and chest wall

118
Q

How would a tension pneumothorax present?

A

Distress with rapid shallow breathing in te

119
Q

How do you treat a pneumothorax?

A

Chest Drain with Underwater Seal
Inserted in the 4th-6th intercostal space midaxillary line
Performed if:
Aspiration fails
Fluid in the pleural cavity
After decompression of a tension pneumothorax

120
Q

52yo pt with history of alcoholism presents: can’t fully extend his ring finger on his R hand. Its permanently partially flexed
What is this

A

Dupuytren contracture

121
Q

Define SLE

A

• Multi-system inflammatory autoimmune disorder

122
Q

What is the mnemonic for SLE?

A

SOAP BRAIN MD
o Serositis
o Oral ulcers
o Arthritis (non-erosive)
o Photosensitivity
o Bloods (haemolytic anaemia/ leukopaenia /thrombocytopaenia)
o Renal disease (urine casts/proteinuria)
o ANA
o Immunological disorder (antidsDNA /anti-Sm/ anti-phospholipid)
o Neurological disease (psychosis/seizures)
o Malar rash
o Discoid rash

123
Q

Summarise the epidemiology of SLE

A
Summarise the epidemiology of SLE 
•  COMMON 
•  1-2/1000 
•  More common in the YOUNG  *
•  More common in AFRO-CARIBBEAN and CHINESE  *
•  9 x more common in FEMALES  *
124
Q

What autoantibodies are present in SLE?

A
o  Anti-dsDNA (60%) 
o  Rheumatoid factor (30-50%)  
o  Anti-ENA 
o  Anti-RNP
o  Anti-SM 
o  Anti-Ro 
o  Anti-La 
o  Anti-histone 
o  Anti-cardiolipin (anti-phospholipid)
125
Q

What is spironolactone MOA?

A

Is an aldosterone antagonist which will increase serum K

126
Q

Which 4 symptoms BEST describe parkinsons?

A

Bradikynesia
Postural inability
Rigidity
Tremor (10-12Hz)