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Dispatch Oral > Practice Oral #5 > Flashcards

Practice Oral #5 Flashcards

1
Q

How many times can a dispatch release be amended?

A

No limit, but if a 4th is required, start over with a new dispatch release to avoid excess paperwork in the cockpit. In flight - no limit

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2
Q

The flight arrives at night after the tower has closed. Can the crew land?

A

Yes, if they have an official weather report.

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3
Q

What is an “air turn back”?

A

The aircraft returns to the departure airport (requires an amendment if the the departure airport was not listed as an alternate. The amendment can be done after landing.

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4
Q

Can the crew depart with a reduced thrust takeoff?

A

Yes, saves on wear and tear on engines and fuel. first takeoff of the day must be at normal engine power. A 10% reduction is standard. It is at discretion of the PIC.

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5
Q

How many days can you work continuously as a dispatcher?

A

21 days with 1 day off each 7 days or the equivalent in a calendar month.

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6
Q

Explain the MSA circle in the upper right corner of the Jeppesen approach chart.

A

The altitude(s) depicted guarantee obstacle clearance of 1,000 ft with 25nm of the NAVAID on which the approach is predicated.

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7
Q

Is a SID or STAR mandatory?

A

No, manual flight planning can be done via radar vectors. If a SID or STAR is assigned by ATC it is mandatory.

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8
Q

Weather radar on board is inop. What are the MEL restrictions?

A

The flight cannot proceed is TS are present or forecast along the route in IMC condition, nor can the flight be made at night. Day VFR conditions may be allowed.

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9
Q

What is virga?

A

Rain that has evaporated before hitting the ground, associated with strong cool downdrafts.

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10
Q

What is the clean aircraft concept?

A

Takeoff prohibited when snow, ice, frost is adhering to any critical aircraft surface.

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11
Q

What is a NOTOC?

A

Notice to captain that hazmat is onboard

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12
Q

What do the diamond-shaped labels on the box indicate?

A

HAZMAT (DG)

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13
Q

What is an FDE prediction?

A

Fault Detection & Exclusion, not more than 2hrs prior to ETD for flights using GPS on intl. flights to verify satellites are working. Not required for domestic.

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14
Q

What is ASAP?

A

Aviation Safety Action Program - implemented at many airlines for pilots and dispatchers. Voluntary reporting of safety-related issues that are precursors to accidents.

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15
Q

Which direction does airflow in a low pressure system?

A

Counter-Clockwise and rising.

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16
Q

What is International Standard Atmosphere (ISA)?

A

+59F (+15C) and 29.92 Hg (1013.2mb)

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17
Q

What is an ILS-PRM? Are we approved for it?

A

An instrument to parallel runways whose extended centerlines are less than 4300ft. We are approved in C052

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18
Q

What are 4 fundamental risk elements?

A

Pilot, aircraft, environment, mission

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19
Q

Flying into Mexico is Class I or Class II navigation?

A

We can use class II navigation (GPS, ect) in Class I airspace. As we are using VOR navigation to Mexico, we are in Class I airspace.

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20
Q

What is FAR 117

A

Flight and Duty Time Limitations & Rest Requirements: Flightcrew

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21
Q

Can a flight depart without authorization from a dispatcher?

A

Yes, if operating as a Part 91 flight (non-revenue) but the company may prefer to dispatch all flights.

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22
Q

What is flow control?

A

A FAA program to:
1. Enhance Safety, noise abatement & conserve fuel by
minimizing low altitude maneuvering.
2. Adjust traffic flows at busy airports affected by
weather. Aircraft are held on the ground rather than
forced into holding patterns.

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23
Q

How do I initiate a flight?

A

Create a dispatch release

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24
Q

What are the components of an ILS precision approach?

A

Glideslope, localizer, marker beacons, approach lights

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25
Q

A low 1/2SM (1800RVR) for landing is raised to what value for a low time captain?

A

1800 RVR + 2400 RVR - 4200 rounded up to 4500 = 1 SM

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26
Q

What 3 things are required for the formation of a thunderstorm?

A

Lifting, moisture, instability.

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27
Q

You are scheduled for 13hrs in a 24hr period, are you legal?

A

Yes, as long as you get a minimum of 8hrs rest at the end of your 8 or 10hr shift

28
Q

What is an occluded front?

A

A cold front overtaking a warm front.

29
Q

Can the pilots land overweight?

A

Yes, MX needs to do an inspection to determine airworthiness.

30
Q

Where would you look to predict windshear?

A

Wind shear PIREPs, METAR remarks, ITWS (Integrated Terminal Weather System), TDWR (Terminal Doppler Weather Radar), LLWAS (Low Level Windshear Advisory System)

31
Q

What are lower jet minimums?

A

1800 RVR for landing. C074

32
Q

Can we take off in freezing rain?

A

No, but we can take off in light freezing rain (-FZRA)

33
Q

What is the difference between a dispatch release and a flight release?

A

Dispatch Release - Flag and Domestic
Flight Release - Supplemental

34
Q

What 4 things are considered when calculating fuel as per FAR 121.647?

A
  1. Wind and weather
  2. Anticipated traffic delays
  3. One instrument approach & possible missed
    approach
  4. Any other condition that may delay landing
35
Q

What is WAAS?

A

Wide Area Augmentation System - A system to improve accuracy, integrity and availability of GPS. A nav system with a ground reference station with a GPS satellite signal

36
Q

What is Controller Pilot Data Link Communications (CPDLC)?

A

A datalink between ATC & pilots to decrease frequency congestion by exchanging information.

37
Q

What does the Flight Management System Provide?

A

A flight computer with a worldwide database with pre-programmed routes & airports; departure, enroute & arrival navigation, fuel planning & precise vertical navigation.

38
Q

What is the SMGCS (Surface Movement Guidance & Control System)?

A

One way traffic on airport taxiways in low vis conditions, All aircraft & vehicles are under positive radar control. At 1200 RVR the partial program is implemented, at or below 600 RVR, the full program is in effect.

39
Q

Approach lights are OTS (Out of Service) at the destination? How does this effect mins?

A

Vis mins are raised 1/2 SM (2400 RVR).

40
Q

Under what conditions are we not allowed to use an airport as an alternate?

A
  1. NAVAID on which the approach is based is
    unmonitored
  2. Approach is based off GPS if a GPS was planned at
    destination
  3. There is no official weather available.
41
Q

The National Airspace System (NAS) is composed of 3 layers. They are…

A
  1. the base of controlled airspace up to but not
    including 18,000 ft.
  2. Jet Routs from FL180 to FL 450
  3. RNAV from FL180 to FL600
42
Q

Where can we find information on Tower Enroute (TEC) and Preferred IFR routes?

A

Airport Facility Directory

43
Q

All published routes in the NAS have obstacle clearances based on mountainous & non-mountainous terrain

A

Mountainous terrain - 2000 ft.
non-mountainous terrain -1000 ft.

44
Q

What is an MEA?

A

Minimum Enroute Altitude - the lowest published altitude between radio fixes assuring acceptable NAV signal coverage & meets obstacle clearance requirements between those fixes.

45
Q

A 3-leter identifier for transition altitude between sea level?

A

QNH - Pilot Controller Glossary

46
Q

What document dictates a requirement for enroute emergency diversion airports?

A

GOM - 3.3.3 | 3.8.1 | 8.9.10

47
Q

What document is used to specify a geographical point or fix along a route of flight with RNAV?

A

ATC Sever Weather Avoidance Plan, used in the summer on the east coast to avoid thunderstorms.

48
Q

What is SWAP?

A

ATC Severe Weather Avoidance Plan, used in the summer on the east coast to avoid thunderstorms.

49
Q

RNP 10 is:

A

Required NAV performance of 10 NM of the desired flight path at least 95% of the time

50
Q

A rule of thumb for initial IFR descent planning in many jets is the 3 to 1 formula.

A

12 NM

51
Q

Off the US coastline, INTL. Airspace begins at:

A

12 NM

52
Q

Who decides what category is assigned to an accident/incident?

A

AOC Duty Manager

53
Q

Can the crew use GPS (Class II navigation) on a flight from Cincinnati to San Francisco

A

Yes, they are in Class I airspace and must have both VORs ON while using Class II NAV equipment.

54
Q

the 600-2 and the 800-2 rule for alternate airports applies to which type of operation?

A

Part 91 operations

55
Q

The Final Approach Fix (FAF) is shown on the profile view of the approach chart with what symbol?

A

Non-Precision approaches - a cross
Precision approach - a lightning bolt

56
Q

An instrument approach is based on 4 segments, what are they?

A

Initial, intermediate, final and missed

57
Q

An ILS Category I precision approach may allow approaches with visibilities as low as

A

1800 RVR (1/2 SM)

58
Q

What is Exemption 3583?

A

We can release an aircraft to a destination below landing minimums as long as we have 2 alternates.

59
Q

Give some examples of special use airspace (SUA)

A

Prohibited, restricted, MOA, CFA, national security area, warning and alert area

60
Q

4 forces acting on the aircraft?

A

Lift, weight, drag, thrust

61
Q

Relative wind is independent of which way the ___ is pointed.

A

Nose

62
Q

Which absorbs and radiates heat faster?

A

Land

63
Q

Where do we find dispatch and flight release rules?

A

Subparts E - L of Part 121

64
Q

What 4 things happen when flying through a frontal boundry?

A
  1. Pressure change
  2. Wind direction change
  3. Temperature change
  4. Dewpoint change
65
Q

What is the max reportable value for an RVR?

A

6000 ft

Dispatch Oral (5 decks)

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