Practice Management Flashcards

1
Q

Which organization creates the National Patient Safety Goals (NPSGs)

A

The Joint Commission established NPSGs to help accredited organizations address specific areas of concern regarding patient safety

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2
Q

Describe NPSGs for Goal 1, 2, 3, 7 and 9

A

Goal
1. Improve accuracy of patient identification (Use 2 identifiers to provide care)

  1. Improve effectiveness of communication among caregivers
  2. Improve safety of using medications
  3. Reduce risk of health-care associated infections
  4. Reduce risk of falls
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3
Q

What are Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) codes?

A

Codes for how medical pros document and report medical, surgical, etc and management services.

Requirements of CPT codes:
-Hx of problem
- Exam related to problem
- Medical decision

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4
Q

Define cost utility analysis.

A

Incorporates quality of life by considering health consequences.

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5
Q

How does cost-benefit analysis (CBA) differ from return on investment (ROI)

A. ROI is used prior to initiating a service (predictor of success), while CBA is used once the service is in place or started (actual success)

B. CBA only includes indirect medical benefits and costs

C. CBA includes both tangible and intangible benefits and costs

D. CBA only includes tangible benefits and costs

A

C. CBA includes both tangible and intangible benefits and costs

ROI does not evaluate intangible benefits and costs

According to the AHRQ, CBA allows the aggregation of health and non-health benefits because it values benefits, as well as costs, in money terms.

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6
Q

Define cost-effectiveness analysis.

A

Measures cost in dollars and outcomes in natural health units.

Cost-effectiveness= cost ($)/clinical outcomes

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7
Q

Define cost-minimization analysis.

A

Differences in cost between comparable therapies

Only useful for comparing therapies w/ similar outcomes

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8
Q

Define cost-benefit analysis.

A

Monetary value placed on therapy costs and beneficial health outcomes

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9
Q

What is a living will?

A

Legal document that states an individual’s which about how their healthcare wishes. Becomes active when a pt cannot make their own decisions.

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10
Q

What is a medical power of attorney?

A

Document that appoints another person to make healthcare decisions for them when the pt cannot make their own choices.

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11
Q

What is a Physician Order for Life-sustaining treatment (POLST)?

A

Medical order/form that is signed by MD in the healthcare setting to document end-of-life care instructions.

Is NOT a substitute for a living will.

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12
Q

What does HIPAA stand for and what is its purpose?

A

HIPPA: health insurance portability and accountability act

Purpose: protect against
1. the disclosure of health information w/o patient permission

  1. protect health information that is held or electronically transmitted
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13
Q

What is MedWatch?

A

System used to facilitate reporting of adverse events by providers, consumers, and industry. Designed to detect adverse event signals in the product research and post-approval phase.

FDA form 3500: used by healthcare professionals to report adverse events

FDA form 3500A: Used by industry

FDA form 3500B: used by consumers

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14
Q

Which of the following allows consumers and purchasers to compare and contrast the performance of health plans using the same set of measures?

A. The Joint Commission

B. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services

C. Healthcare Effectiveness Data and Information Set

D. Institute for Safe Medication Practices

A

C. Healthcare Effectiveness Data and Information Set (HEDIS)

HEDIS (Healthcare Effectiveness Data and Information Set) is a set of standardized performance measures developed by the National Committee for Quality Assurance (NCQA) to objectively measure, report, and compare quality across health plans.

Measures are developed through a committee represented by purchasers, consumers, health plans, health care providers, and policy makers

Measures include preventative care, asthma, COPD, immunizations, etc.

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15
Q

What is the Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP)?

A

ISMP works w/ healthcare systems and practitioners to advocate for patient safety and promote safe medication practices.

Focus is to help practitioners understand medication error from a systems perspective, collect reports of errors and disseminate recommendations to help prevent similar occurrences.

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16
Q

A new initiative aims to reduce the number of hospital admissions as a result of medication errors. Which category of public health prevention programs does this activity represent?

A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Quaternary

A

A. Primary prevention

Primary prevention public health activities aim to reduce the actual incidence and occurrence of diseases in a given population.

Secondary prevention: aims to reduce the impact, severity or progression of diseases that already exist

Tertiary: focus on treatment or rehabilitation

17
Q

Who makes up members of an Institutional Review Board (IRB)?

A

Under the FDA, the IRB group chosen to review and monitor biomedical research involving human subjects.

Must have at least 1:
1. member specialized in a scientific area

  1. member who is a specialty in a non-scientific area
  2. member not affiliated w/ the institution
18
Q

What is the purpose of an Institutional Review Board (IRB)?

A

Assure that appropriate steps are take to protect the rights and welfare of humans participating as subjects in the research.

19
Q

List the 5 core elements of Medication therapy management.

A
  1. Medication therapy review (MTR)
  2. Personal medication record (PMR)
  3. Medication-related action plan (MAP)
  4. Intervention and/or referral
  5. Documentation and follow-up
20
Q

Which of the following best describes the function of an Advanced Directive?

A. Written document that allows an individual to express his/her wishes for how much healthcare intervention he/she wants.

B. Written document that allows an individual to express his/her wishes only when terminally ill.

C. Written document that gives someone else the right to make decisions about your medical care on your behalf.

D. Written document that states the obligation of the physician to act for the benefit of the patient.

A

A. Written document that allows an individual to express his/her wishes for how much healthcare intervention he/she wants.

B. Wrong. ADs can be used for both healthy and ill patients.

C. Wrong. Describes living will (one type of AD).

D. Wrong. Describes beneficence and does not have to be written.

21
Q

A new drug treatment is being tested in 2,500 people to confirm its effectiveness, monitor side effects and compare with standard treatments. What phase of clinical trial is this?

A. Phase I
B. Phase II
C. Phase III
D. Phase IV

A

C. Phase III

Phase 3 trials collect information that will allow the new drug/treatment to be used safely. Used to test if the new treatment is better than the standard.

22
Q

Which of these best describes a Phase II clinical trial?

A. The drug/treatment is given to a large group (1000-3000 people) to confirm its effectiveness and monitor side effects.

B. After FDA approval, the treatment/drug is made available to the public and researchers track its safety.

C. A group of 100-300 people are given drug treatment to determine its effectiveness and study its safety.

D. Less than 100 people are tested to study the safety and identify drug side effects.

A

C. A group of 100-300 people are given drug treatment to determine its effectiveness and study its safety.

23
Q

Which of the following statements is true of a Living Will (LW)?

A. A LW covers all health care decisions and lasts only as long as an individual is incapable of making decisions for him or herself.

B. A LW specifies beneficiaries in the event of an individual becoming incapacitated.

C. A LW is limited to deathbed concerns only

D. A LW does not get very specific.

A

C. A LW is limited to deathbed concerns only

-A LW is a type of advanced directive used to state a pt’s desires not to have life-prolonging measures undertaken if there is no hope of recovery. Addresses specific concerns (ex. DNR, dialysis, blood transfusions, etc.)

A. Wrong. Describes Durable Power of Attorney.

24
Q

What is a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendment (CLIA) certificate?

A. A certificate required by Centers for Medicare and Medicaid before basic lab testing can be performed.

B. A certificate required by OSHA before a pharmacist can bill for ambulatory care services.

C. A certificate required for a pharmacist to provide immunizations.

D. A certificate required for a pharmacist to make a medication change under a collaborative practice agreement.

A

A. A certificate required by Centers for Medicare and Medicaid before basic lab testing can be performed.

CLIA certificate issued by CMS; allows pharmacists to provide basic lab testing, including point of care testing (POCT).

CLIA requirements vary based on state.

25
Q

Which organizations/agencies are responsible for accrediting specialty pharmacies? Select all that apply.

A. Accreditation Commission for Healthcare (ACHC)

B. State Board of Pharmacy

C. The Joint Commission

D. Utilization Review Accreditation Commission (URAC)

E. National Association of Boards of Pharmacy (NABP)

A

A. Accreditation Commission for Healthcare (ACHC) and, D. Utilization Review Accreditation Commission (URAC)

26
Q

The Healthcare Effectiveness and Data Information Set (HEDIS) is supervised under which government agency?

A. National Committee for Quality Assurance (NCQA)

B. Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS)

C. US Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

D. Hospital Consumer Assessment of Healthcare Providers and Systems (HCAHPS)

A

A. National Committee for Quality Assurance (NCQA)

NCQA is a non-government, non-profit organization.

HEDIS reports are published annually, and standards are revised when safety and quality measures are introduced.

27
Q

Which of these best describes the purpose of HEDIS?

A. A survey that reports patients perspective of hospital care.

B. Responsible for protecting the public health by assuring the safety, efficacy, and security of human and veterinary drugs.

C. Enforces the United States’ controlled substance laws and regulations and aims to reduce the supply of and demand for such substances.

D. A tool used by U.S. health plans to measure performance on important dimensions of care and service.

A

D. HEDIS- A tool used by U.S. health plans to measure performance on important dimensions of care and service.

A. Hospital Consumer Assessment of Healthcare Providers and Systems (HCAHPS) Survey

B. Food and drug administration (FDA)

C. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)

28
Q

The Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality (AHRQ) is an agency partnered with which of the following?

A. US Department of Health and Human Services

B. US Department of Homeland Security

C. Drug Enforcement Agency

D. Food and Drug Administration

A

A. US Department of Health and Human Services

AHRQ is responsible for promoting initiatives include e-prescribing, electronic health records, and educating health care providers about medical errors and patient safety.

29
Q

Researchers want to know if blood pressure can be managed better with diet modifications or ACEi/ARB therapy in working class individuals. Researchers plan to collect data for 3 years. What type of trial design should be used to evaluate this question?

A. Randomized, control study
B. Cohort study
C. Crossover study
D. Case-control study

A

B. Cohort Study

Cohort study- type of observational study that follows group of people over time (prospectively or retrospectively) to identify CORRELATION between risk factors and outcomes.

Pro: Useful for determining the “incidence” or “natural history” of a disease

Con: NOT ideal for rare diseases/illnesses that take a long time to manifest