Practice Issues, Trends, and Health Policy Flashcards

1
Q

What is an advanced directive?

A

a written statement of a patient’s intent/desires regarding medical treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is a healthcare directive?

A

a type of advanced directive that may or may not include a living will and/or durable power of attorney designation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a living will?

A

a document which specifies which life-prolonging measures one does or does not want to be taken if he/she becomes incapacitated.
Often times this document includes designation of a DPOA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does Title I of HIPAA encompass?

A

It provides health insurance coverage through COBRA for workers and their families when they change or lose their jobs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is Title II of HIPAA?

A

requires the establishment of `national standards for electronic health care transactions and national identifiers for providers, health insurance plans, and employers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are some examples of those not required to follow HIPAA?

A

life insurers, employers, workers comp carriers, many schools and school districts, many state agencies such as child protective services, law enforcement, municipal offices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the Patient Safety and Quality Improvement Act

A

A voluntary reporting system for which to report medical errors. This act aims to improve reporting and analysis of patient safety events in order to increase data and gain a better understanding of patient safety events.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

True or False.

The “duty to warn” supersedes a patient’s right to confidentiality.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

True or False.

A patient’s right to confidentiality outweighs the duty to protect a patient from harming him/herself.

A

FALSE.

The duty to protect that patient from harming him/herself supersedes the right to confidentiality.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the strongest method to evaluate teaching?

A

return demonstration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which 5 conditions must be reported to the Health Department?

A

HIV, TB, Syphilis, Gonorrhea, Chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the goals of Healthy People 2020?

A

To increase the quality and years of healthy life and to eliminate health disparities.
…with the intent to plan prevention programs that grant equal access, availability, cost and quality of care.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

True or False.

NPs are not legally required to report domestic violence.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is covered in Medicare Part A?

A

Inpatient services and the extension of inpatient services such as home health, hospice, and SNF for those > or = 65yo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is covered in Medicare Part B?

A

Outpatient services: clinic visits, labs and diagnostic procedures, medical equipment, outpatient hospital services, and some home health services.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is covered in Medicare Part C?

A

eligibility to receive all of their health care services through one of the provider organizations under Part C (HMOs, PPOs). This is known as the “MediCare Advantage.”

17
Q

What is covered in Medicare Part D?

A

Limited drug prescriptions.

18
Q

What services are not covered by Medicare?

A

regular physical exams, health maintenance screenings, counseling for well patients (to name a few)

19
Q

What are the rules to “incident-to” billing?

A
  1. Services must be an integral part of the physician’s services
  2. Services are commonly rendered without charge or included in the physician’s offices or clinics
  3. Furnished under the physician’s direct personal supervision
  4. The physician must perform the “initial service and subsequent services of a frequency which reflects his or her active participation in the management of the course of treatment.”
  5. Not allowed in the hospital setting
20
Q

What are the four roles of the NP?

A

Clinician, Consultant/Collaborator, Educator, Researcher

21
Q

Define autonomy.

A

Duty to respect an individual’s thoughts and actions

22
Q

Define veracity.

A

Duty to be truthful.

23
Q

Define fidelity.

A

Duty to be faithful.

24
Q

Define justice.

A

Duty to be fair.

25
Q

Define beneficence.

A

Duty to prevent harm and promote good.

26
Q

Define utilitarianism.

A

The right act is the one that produces the greatest good for the greatest number.

27
Q

Define nonmaleficence.

A

The duty to do no harm.

28
Q

What are the different types of research?

A

Non-experimental (descriptive and ex post facto/correlational research), cross sectional, cohort, longitudinal, experimental, qualitative.

29
Q

What is the t-test?

A

statistical test to evaluate the differences in means between two groups.

30
Q

What designates the level of significance?

A

p value. Indicates statistically significant differences between groups.

31
Q

What is a confidence interval?

A

the specified probability of including the parameter being estimated.
*a small CI implies a very precise range of values

32
Q

What does -1 represent in ‘perfect correlation’? 0? +1?

A
-1= a perfect negative correlation.
0= absence of correlation.
\+1= a perfect positive correlation.
33
Q

Define reliability.

A

Estimated repeatability of a measurement- the degree to which an instrument measures the same way over time with the same subjects.

34
Q

Define validity.

A

The degree to which a variable measures what it is intended to measure.

35
Q

What is Cronbach’s alpha?

A

correlation among values among the questions on the instruments- the closer it is to one (> or= .70) the higher the reliability estimate of the instrument.

36
Q

What are the levels of evidence?

A

Level I: Evidence from a systematic review of all relevant RCTs, or evidence-based clinical practice guidelines based on systematic reviews of RCT’s
Level II: Evidence obtained from at least one well-designed RCT
Level III: Well-designed controlled trials without randomization, quasi-experimental
Level IV: Case-control and cohort studies
Level V: Systematic reviews of descriptive and qualitative studies
Level VI: Single descriptive or qualitative study
Level VII: Opinion of authorities and/or reports of expert committees

37
Q

What is the pyramid of levels of evidence?

A
Systematic Review.
RCT.
Cohort studies.
Case-Control Studies.
Case Series, Case Reports.
Editorials, Expert opinion.