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Practice Exam! Flashcards

1
Q 
Secure Shell (SSH) protocol runs on:
A. TCP Port 21
B. UDP Port 22
C. TCP port 20
D. TCP port 22
A

D. TCP port 22.

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2
Q 
Which of the following UDP ports is assigned to the Domain Name System (DNS)?
A. 53
B. 67
C. 110
D. 389
A

A. 53

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3
Q 
TCP port 25 is used by:
A. SNMP
B. Telnet
C. FTP
D. SMTP
A

D. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol)

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4
Q

Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP) is an extension to the Secure Shell protocol (SSH) and runs by default on TCP port 22.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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5
Q 
Unblocking TCP port 22 enables what type of traffic? (Select 2 answers)
A. FTPS
B. SSH
C. SFTP
D. FTP
E. HTTP
A

B and C. SSH and SFTP.

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6
Q 
The File Transfer Protocol (FTP) Control Connection for administering a session is established through:
A. TCP Port 20
B. UDP Port 20
C. TCP port 21
D. UDP port 21
A

C. TCP Port 21.

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7
Q 
Which port enables the FTP's Data Connection for sending file data?
A. UDP Port 20
B. TCP Port 20
C. UDP Port 21
D. TCP Port 21
A

B. TCP Port 20

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8
Q 
UDP port 69 is assigned to:
A. TFTP
B. SNMP
C. DHCP
D. LDAP
A

A. TFTP

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9
Q 
Which of the TCP ports listed below is used by Telnet?
A. 20
B. 21
C. 22
D. 23
A

D. 23

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10
Q 
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) runs on: (Select 2 answers)
A. UDP port 53
B. UDP port 67
C. UDP port 68
D. UDP port 69
E. UDP port 161
A

B and C. UDP port 67 and UDP port 68.

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11
Q

TCP port 80 is assigned to:
A. Hypertext Transfer Protocol(HTTP)
B. Hyptertext Transfer Protocol over TLS/SSH (HTTPS)
C. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
D. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

A

A. Http

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12
Q 
Which of the following ports is used by HTTPS?
A. TCP Port 80
B. TCP Port 443
C. UDP port 53
D. TCP port 143
A

B. TCP port 443

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13
Q 
SNMP runs on UDP port:
A. 123
B. 127
C. 143
D. 161
A

D. 161

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14
Q 
A network technician uses Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) client on their Windows OS to remotely troubleshoot a problem on another Windows machine. Which of the following ports needs to be opened for the built-in Windows RDP server to allow this type of network connection?
A. TCP Port 1720
B. TCP port 636
C. TCP port 3389
D. TCP port 445
A

C. TCP port 3389

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15
Q 
Network Time Protocol (NTP) runs on UDP port:
A. 123
B. 110
C. 161
D. 137
A

A. 123

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16
Q 
Which of the ports listed below are assigned to the Session Initiation Protocol (SIP)? (Select 2 answers)
A. UDP port 67
B. TCP Port 5060
C. TCP port 389
D. TCP port 68
E. TCP port 5061
F. TCP port 3389
A

B and E. TCP port 5060 and TCP port 5061

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17
Q 
Which of the following protocols runs on TCP port 445?
A. HTTPS
B. SMB/CIFS
C. IMAP
D. H.323
A

B. SMB/CIFS (Server Message Block / Common Internet File System)

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18
Q 
Post Office Protocol v3 (POP3) uses:
A. TCP Port 110
B. UDP port 123
C. TCP port 143
D. UDP port 161
A

A. TCP port 110

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19
Q 
Which of the TCP port numbers listed below is assigned to the Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)?
A. 143
B. 389
C. 443
D. 636
A

A. 143

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20
Q 
TCP port 389 is the default network port for:
A. RDP
B. LDAP
C. SMB
D. LDAPs
A

B. LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol)

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21
Q 
A network administrator wants to secure the existing access to a directory service with SSL/TLS encryption. Which of the following TCP ports needs to be opened to implement this change?
A. 636
B. 389
C. 443
D. 1720
A

A. 636

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22
Q 
TCP port 1720 is used by:
A. H.323
B. SMB
C. LDAPS
D. SNMP
A

A. H.323

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23
Q 
Which of the following reside at the physical layer of the OSI model? (Select 2 answers)
A. IP Address
B. Switch
C. Bit
D. Router
E. Network Cabling
F. Frame
A

C and E. Bit and Network Cabling

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24
Q 
The application layer of the OSI model is also known as:
A. Layer 1
B. Layer 3
C. Layer 6
D. Layer 7
A

D. Layer 7

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25
Q 
What are the characteristic components of the OSI data link layer? (Select 3 answers)
A. MAC Address
B. Packet
C. Switch
D. Network Cabling
E. Router
F. Frame
A

A, C and F. MAC Address, Switch and Frame.

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26
Q 
A type of cryptographic network protocol for secure data communication, remote command-line login, remote command execution, and other secure network services between two networked computers is known as:
A. TFTP
B. SSH
C. Telent
D. RDP
A

B. SSH

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27
Q 
Which of the answers listed below refers to a secure replacement for Telnet?
A. CHAP
B. FTP
C. SNMP
D. SSH
A

D. SSH (Secure Shell)

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28
Q 
Which of the following answers refers to a system containing mappings of domain names to various types of data, such as numerical IP addresses?
A. TCP/IP
B. DNS
C. SQL
D. DHCP
A

B. DNS (Domain Name System)

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29
Q 
The SMTP protocol is used for: (Select 2 answers)
A. Sending Email between mail servers
B. Name Resolution
C. Serving of web pages
D. Retrieving email from mail servers
E. Sending email from a client device.
A

A. and E. Sending email between mail servers and sending email from a client server.

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30
Q 
A network protocol that allows for secure file transfer over Secure Shell (SSH) is called:
A. TFTP
B. SFTP
C. Telnet
D. FTPS
A

B. SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol)

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31
Q 
What is the function of FTP?
A. Mailing Services
B. Serving of Web Pages
C. Directory Access
D. File Exchange
A

D. File Exchange

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32
Q

What are the characteristic features of TFTP? (Select 2 answers)
A. Provides no security features
B. Typically used for exchanging files over the internet.
C. A very basic form of file sharing protocol.
D. Provides authentication and encryption
E. Directory Access Protocol

A

A and B. Provides no security features. Typically used for exchanging files over the internet.

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33
Q

Telnet: (Select 3 answers)
A. Encrypts network connections
B. Provides username and Password Authentication.
C. Transmit data in an unencrypted form.
D. Does not provide authentication.
E. Enables remote login and command execution

A

B, C, and E. Provides username and password authentication, Transmit data in an unencrypted form and enables remote login and command execution.

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34
Q 
A network protocol providing an alternative solution to the manual allocation of IP addresses is known as:
A. DNS
B. SNMP
C. NAT
D. DHCP
A

D. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol)

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35
Q 
Which protocol allows for retrieving contents of an Internet page from a web server?
A. SNMP
B. HTTP
C. SMTP
D. IMAP
A

B. HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol)

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36
Q 
What is the name of a network protocol that secures web traffic via SSL/TLS encryption?
A. SFTP
B. HTTPS
C. FTPS
D. SNMP
A

B. HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure)

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37
Q 
A type of protocol used in network management systems for monitoring network-attached devices is called:
A. SMB
B. NTP
C. SNMP
D. RDP
A

C. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol)

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38
Q 
A Microsoft-proprietary protocol providing a user with graphical interface for connecting to another networked host is known as:
A. RDP 
B. SSH
C. Telnet
D. RSH
A

A. RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol)

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39
Q 
Which of the answers listed below refers to a network protocol used for synchronizing clocks over a computer network?
A. NTP
B. VTP
C. NNTP
D. RTP
A

A. NTP (Network Time Protocol)

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40
Q 
Which of the following answers refers to a protocol used for managing real-time sessions that include voice, video, application sharing, or instant messaging services?
A. L2TP
B. BGP
C. RSTP
D. SIP
A

D. SIP (Session Initiation Protocol)

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41
Q

What are the characteristics of SMB/CIFS? (Select 2 answers)
A. User mainly by computer running linux distributions.
B. Provides shared access to files, directories, and devices.
C. Used mainly by computers running Microsoft windows operating system.
D. Enables voice and multimedia communications over IP networks

A

B and C. Provides shared access to files, directories, and devices. Used mainly by computers running Microsoft Operating System.

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42
Q 
POP3 is used for:
A. Name Resolution
B. Sending Email Messages
C. File Exchange
D. Email Retrieval
A

D. Email Retrieval

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43
Q

Which of the answers listed below refer to IMAP4? (Select 2 answers)
A. Offers improved functionality in comparison to POP3.
B. Serves the same function as POP3.
C. Enables sending email messages from client devices.
D. Offers less functions than POP3.
E. Enables email exchanges between mail servers.

A

A and B. Offers improved functionality in comparison to POP3. Serves the same function as POP3.

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44
Q 
LDAP is an example of:
A. Authentication Protocol.
B. Address Resolution Protocol.
C. Directory Access Protocol.
D. File Exchange Protocol.
A

C. Directory Access Protocol. LDAP = (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol)

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45
Q 
Which of the following answers refers to an SSL/TLS-based directory access protocol?
A. H.323
B. PPTP
C. Kerberos
D. LDAPS
A

D. LDAPS

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46
Q 
Which of the answers listed below refers to a protocol used for managing VoIP and VTC services?
A. SMB
B. H.323
C. SCP
D. IGP
A

B. H.323

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47
Q 
Which of the following answers refers to a protocol used by routers, hosts and network devices to generate error messages and troubleshoot problems with delivery of IP packets?
A. CCMP
B. RSTP
C. ICMP
D. SNMP
A

C. ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol)

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48
Q

User Datagram Protocol (UDP) is a connection-oriented protocol using a three-way handshake which is a set of initial steps required for establishing network connection. UDP supports re-transmission of lost packets, flow control (managing the amount of data that is being sent), and sequencing (rearranging packets that arrived out of order).
A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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49
Q

Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) is an example of a connectionless protocol. Because TCP doesn’t support three-way handshake while establishing a network connection, it is referred to as unreliable or best-effort protocol.
A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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50
Q 
What is the name of a network layer protocol that specifies the format of packets and addressing scheme in network communications?
A. UDP
B. IP
C. TCP
D. NetBIOS
A

B. IP (Internet Protocol)

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51
Q 
Layer 5 of the OSI model is also referred to as:
A. Session Layer
B. Application Layer
C. Transport Layer
D. Presentation Layer
A

A. Session Layer

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52
Q 
Which of the answers listed below refer to the components that can be found at the OSI network layer? (Select 3 answers)
A. Router
B. Networking Cabling
C. IP Address
D. TCP/UDP Protocol
E. Switch
F. Packet
A

A. C. and F. Router, IP Address, and Packet.

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53
Q 
The term "Presentation layer" refers to:
A. Layer 7 of the OSI Layer
B. Layer 5 of the OSI Layer
C. Layer 6 of the OSI Layer
D. Layer 4 of the OSI Layer
A

C. Layer 6 of the OSI Model.

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54
Q 
Layer 2 of the OSI model is known as:
A. Transport Layer
B. Network Layer
C. Data Link layer
D. Physical Layer
A

C. Data Link Layer

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55
Q 
Which of the following terms refers to the OSI network layer?
A. Layer 2
B. Layer 5
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 4
A

C. Layer 3

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56
Q 
Which of the protocols listed below reside at the OSI transport layer? (Select 2 answers)
A. UDP
B. SSL/TLS
C. ICMP
D. TCP
E. ATM
A

A. and D. UDP and TCP

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57
Q 
Which OSI layer assumes the responsibility for managing network connections between applications?
A.Network Layer
B. Data Link Layer
C. Application Layer
D. Session Layer
A

D. Session Layer

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58
Q 
Physical layer of the OSI model is also known as:
A. Layer 2
B. Layer 7
C. Layer 1
D. Layer 4
A

C. Layer 1

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59
Q 
Layer 4 of the OSI model is also referred to as:
A. Network Layer
B. Data LInk Layer
C. Session Layer
D. Transport Layer
A

D. Transport Layer

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60
Q 
Character encoding, data compression and encryption/decryption take place at the:
A. Application Layer of the OSI Model.
B. Presentation Layer of the OSI Model.
C. Session Layer of the OSI Model.
D. Transport Layer of the OSI Model.
A

B. Presentation Layer of the OSI Model.

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61
Q 
Which of the following protocols reside at the application layer of the OSI model? (Select 3 answers)
A. ATM
B. HTTP
C. FTP
D. IP
E. SMTP
F. TCP/UDP
A

B. C. and E. HTTP, FTP, and SMTP.

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62
Q

In computer networking, the term “Collision” refers to a situation in which two or more demands are made simultaneously on an equipment that can handle only one request at any given moment.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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63
Q 
A network segment utilizing only this type of device is the most prone to network performance degradation due to large number of network collisions.
A. Bridge
B. Hub
C. Switch
D. Router
A

B. Hub

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64
Q 
Which device improves network performance by dividing a given network segment into separate collision domains?
A. Hub
B. Repeater
C. Switch
D. Router
A

C. Switch

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65
Q 
Which of the devices listed below is used for separating broadcast domains?
A. Router
B. Switch
C. Repeater
D. Hub
A

A. Router

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66
Q

The purpose of the Carrier Sense Multiple Access (CSMA) protocol is to verify the absence of other traffic on a shared medium before transmitting to prevent collisions and loss of data.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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67
Q 
Which of the following allows for verifying the absence of traffic on a shared transmission medium in 802.3 networks?
A. CDMA
B. CSMA/CA
C. CWDM
D. CSMA/CD
A

D. CSMA/CD (Carrier-sense multiple access with collision detection)

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68
Q 
A solution that allows to control access to a shared transmission medium in 802.11 networks is known as:
A. CWDM
B. CSMA/CD
C. CDMA
D. CSMA/CA
A

D. CSMA/CA (Carrier-sense multiple access with collision avoidance)

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69
Q

In telecommunications, Protocol Data Unit (PDU) is a term used for describing a specific unit of data passed across a network.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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70
Q

Which of the statements listed below is not true?
A. The ATM PDU is the cell
B. OSI physical layer PDU is the bit
C. OSI data link layer PDU is the frame
D. OSI network layer PDU is the packet
E. OSI transport layer PDU is the segment
F. PDUs between OSI session and application layers are referred to simply as the data
G. All of the above statements are true

A

G. All Of The Above Statement Are True.

71
Q 
Which of the following metrics is used to describe the largest allowable data unit that can be transmitted across a network?
A. PDU
B. MTU
C. DSU
D. BPDU
A

B. MTU (Maximum transmission unit)

72
Q

A networked host with unknown address can be reached via:
A. Unicast
B. Mulitcast
C. Broadcast

A

C. Broadcast

73
Q

A type of network traffic intended for a particular group of hosts is called:
A. Unicast
B. Mulitcast
C. Broadcast

A

B. Mulicast

74
Q

A type of network traffic intended for a single host identified by a unique IP address is referred to as:
A. Unicast
B. Mulitcast
C. Broadcast

A

A. Unicast

75
Q 
Which of the terms listed below refers to a logical grouping of computers that allow computer hosts to act as if they were attached to the same broadcast domain regardless of their physical location?
A. VLAN
B. DMZ
C. SNMP Community
D. VPN
A

A. VLAN

76
Q 
A type of port assigned to carry traffic from all the VLANs connected to a specific network switch is known as:
A. Default Gateway
B. Trunk Port
C. Registered Port
D. Mirrored Port
A

B. Trunk Port

77
Q

To allow traffic from multiple VLANs on a single communication link, frames from individual VLANs must be identified. The most common and preferred method, IEEE 802.1Q, adds a tag to the Ethernet frame header, labeling it as belonging to a certain VLAN.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

78
Q 
Which of the following allows an administrator to inspect the traffic passing through a network switch?
A. Port Mirroring
B. VLAN Tagging
C. Fault-Tolerant Mode
D. Port Scanning
A

A. Port Mirroring

79
Q 
Which of the protocols listed below provide protection against switching loops? (Select 2 answers)
A. RTP
B. SRTP
C. RDP
D. STP
E. RSTP
A

D and E. STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) and RSTP. (Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol)

80
Q 
A solution that allows to supply electricity over standard Ethernet cables is known as: (Select 2 answers)
A. IEEE 802.3ab
B. PoE
C. Metro-Ethernet
D. IEEE 802.3af
E. PSTN
A

B and D. PoE and IEEE 802.3af

81
Q 
Which of the following standards implements PoE+?
A. IEEE 802.1d
B. IEEE 802.3at
C. IEEE 802.1X
D. IEEE 802.3ab
A

B. IEEE 802.at

82
Q 
A lightly protected subnet consisting of publicly available servers placed on the outside of the company's firewall is referred to as:
A. VPN
B. Extranet
C. VLAN
D. DMZ
A

D. DMZ (demilitarized zone)

83
Q 
An Ethernet switch forwards LAN traffic from connected devices based on the information stored in:
A. DNS Table
B. Routing Table
C. MAC Address Table
D. Firmware
A

C. MAC Address Table

84
Q 
An Ethernet switch table containing IP-to-MAC address mappings is called:
A. ARP Table
B. Routing Table
C. MAC Address Table
D. DNS Table
A

A. ARP Table (Address Resolution Protocol)

85
Q 
Which of the answers listed below refers to a type of routing protocol that determines the best route for data packets based on the lowest number of hops?
A. Hybrid
B. Link-State
C. Distance-Vector
D. Dynamic
A

C. Distance-Vector

86
Q 
A type of routing protocol that calculates the best path between source and destination nodes based on a map of network connectivity between nodes is called:
A. Dynamic
B. Link-State
C. Static
D. Distance-Vector
A

B. Link-State

87
Q

A hybrid routing protocol combines the features of distance-vector and link-state routing protocols.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

88
Q 
A manually-configured routing table entry is known as:
A. Static Route
B. Dynamic Route
C. Hybrid Route
D. Default Route
A

A. Static Route

89
Q 
Automatic routing table update is a feature of:
A. Static Routing
B. Route Redistribution
C. Dynamic Routing
D. Route Aggregation
A

C. Dynamic Routing

90
Q

The term “Default route” refers to a “last resort” network path used by a router for forwarding all packets with destination addresses not listed in its routing table.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

91
Q 
Examples of distance-vector routing protocols include: (Select 2 answers)
A. EGP
B. OSPF
C. RIP
D. EIGRP
E. BGP
A

C and D. RIP (Routing Information protocol) and EIGRP (Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol)

92
Q 
Which of the following answers refers to a link-state routing protocol?
A. BGP
B. EIGRP
C. RIP
D. OSPF
A

D. OSPF (Open Shortest Path First)

93
Q 
Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) falls into the category of:
A. hybrid Routing Protocols
B. Link-State Routing Protocols
C. Distance-Vector Routing Protocols
D. Static Routing Protocols
A

A. Hybrid Routing Protocol

94
Q 
An IPv4 address consists of:
A. 32 Bit
B. 48 Bit
C. 64 Bit
D. 128 Bit
A

A. 32 Bit

95
Q 
Which of the answers listed below refers to a binary representation of the decimal number 192?
A. 10101100
B. 111000000
C. 01100010
D. 10101010
A

B. 111000000 = 192

96
Q 
IPv4 addresses are expressed with the use of:
A. Octagonal Numbers
B. Binay Numbers
C. Hexadecimal Numbers
D. Decimal Numbers
A

D. Decimal Numbers

97
Q 
Which of the following answers lists a decimal notation of the binary number 10101100?
A. 168
B. 172
C. 192
D. 224
A

B. 172

98
Q 
Which of the answers listed below refer to an IPv4 loopback address?
A. ::1
B. FE80::/10
C. 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1
D. 169.254/16
E. 127.0.0.1
A

E. 127.0.0.1

99
Q 
An IPv6 address consists of:
A. 32 Bit
B. 48 Bit
C. 64 Bit
D. 128 Bit
A

D. 128 Bit

100
Q 
IPv6 addresses are expressed with the use of:
A. Octagonal Numbers
B. Binary Numbers
C. Hexadecimal Numbers
D. Decimal Numbers
A

C. Hexadecimal Numbers

101
Q

A double colon in an IPv6 address indicates that part of the address containing only zeros has been compressed to make the address shorter.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

102
Q 
Which of the following answers refer to IPv6 loopback addresses? (Select 2 answers)
A. 127.0.0.01
B. 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1
C. 169.254/16
D. ::1
E. FE80::/10
A

B and D. 0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1 and ::1

103
Q 
An IPv6 link-local address is an equivalent of IPv4's:
A. APIPA Address
B. Routable IP Address
C. Public IP Address
D. MAC Address
A

A. APIPA Address (Automatic Private IP Addressing)

104
Q 
Which of the answers listed below refers to an IPv6 link-local address?
A. 2002::/16
B. FE80::/10
C. 2001::/32
D. ::1/128
A

B. FE80::/10

105
Q 
Which of the following answers lists a valid address of FE80:00A7:0000:0000:02AA:0000:4C00:FE9A after compression?
A. FE80:00A7::2AA:0:4C:FE9A
B. FE80:A7::2AA::4C00:FE9A
C. FE80:00A7::2AA:0:4C00:FE9A
D. FE80:A7::2AA:0:4C00:FE9A
A

D. FE80:A7::2AA:0:4C00:FE9A

106
Q 
A limited IPv4-to-IPv6 transition mechanism that allows for encapsulation of IPv6 packets in IPv4 packets transmitted over IPv4 networks is referred to as:
A. 6to4
B. 802.3af
C. eDiscovery
D. Miredo
A

A. 6to4

107
Q 
An IPv4-to-IPv6 transition mechanism with native support for Network Address Translation (NAT) is known as:
A. 6to4
B. Teredo
C. eDiscovery
D. Miredo
A

B. Teredo

108
Q 
What does the term "Miredo" refer to?
A. IPV4 to IPV6 migration mechanism
B. Load Balancing Solution
C. Teredo Tunneling Software
D. Content Filtering Solution
A

C. Teredo Tunneling Solution

109
Q

The term “Dual-stack IP” refers to a solution that relies on implementing both IPv4 and IPv6 protocol stacks on various network devices to facilitate seamless migration from IPv4 to IPv6.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

110
Q 
An IPv6 protocol performing the function of IPv4's Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is called:
A. NCP
B. NDP
C. NTP
D. NDR
A

B. NDP (Neighbor Discovery Protocol)

111
Q 
Which IPv6 protocol is used by networked hosts to determine the link layer address of adjacent nodes?
A. NTP
B. NDR
C. NCP
D. NDP
A

D. NDP (Neighbor Discovery Protocol)

112
Q 
An IPv6 protocol used by routers to advertise their presence on a network is known as:
A. NDR
B. NCP
C. NDP
D. NTP
A

C. NDP (Neighbor Discovery Protocol)

113
Q 
Which of the IPv6 protocols listed below is used by networked nodes for locating routers?
A. NDP
B. NTP
C. NDR
D. NCP
A

A. NDP (Neighbor Discovery Protocol)

114
Q 
Which of the following terms refer to solutions used for controlling network resources and assigning priority to different types of traffic? (Select 2 answers)
A. Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)
B. Packet Shaping
C. Bandwidth Cap
D. Quality Of Service (QoS)
E. Fair Access Policy
A

B. and D. Packet Shaping and Quality of Service.

115
Q 
Which of the answers listed below describe the function of DiffServ architecture? (Select 2 answers)
A. Security
B. QoS
C. Authentication
D. Traffic Management
E. Accounting
A

B. and D. Quality of Service (QoS) and Traffic Management

116
Q 
What is the functionality provided by the Class of Service (CoS) parameter? (Select 2 answers)
A. Security
B. QoS
C. Authentication
D. Traffic Management
E. Accounting
A

B. and D. Quality of Service (QoS) and Traffic Management

117
Q 
Which optional field in an Ethernet frame header can be used to enable the Quality of Service (QoS) functionality?
A. CRC
B. Preamble
C. CoS
D. Payload
A

C. CoS (Class of Service)

118
Q 
Which of the following solutions alleviates the problem of the depleting IPv4 address space by allowing multiple hosts on the same private LAN to share a single public IP address?
A. DNS
B. APIPA
C. NAT
D. DHCP
A

C. NAT (Network Address Translation)

119
Q 
Which of the solutions listed below hides the internal IP addresses by modifying IP address information in IP packet headers while in transit across a traffic routing device?
A. QoS
B. DHCP
C. NAT
D. DNS
A

C. NAT (Network Address Translation)

120
Q

Network Address Translation (NAT) provides an IP proxy between a private LAN and a public network such as the Internet.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

121
Q

Dynamic Network Address Translation (DNAT) provides a permanent mapping between a private IP address and a public IP address on a one-to-one basis.
A. True
B. False

A

B. False

122
Q

Static Network Address Translation (SNAT) provides a mapping between a private IP address and any of the IP addresses belonging to the available public IP address pool.
A. True
B. False

A

B. False

123
Q 
Which of the following answers refers to a Network Address Translation (NAT) method that binds a combination of private IP address and port number with a corresponding public IP address and port information?
A. PAT
B. NAC
C. RAS
D. EAP
A

A. PAT (Port Address Translation)

124
Q 
A server with a private IP address has been set up to handle requests from an outside (public) network. Which of the solutions listed below would enable this function?
A. Port bonding
B. Port Labeling
C. Port Forwarding
D. Port mirroring
A

C. Port Forward

125
Q 
Which of the acronyms listed below refers to a set of rules that specify which users or system processes are granted access to objects as well as what operations are allowed on a given object?
A. CRL
B. NAT
C. BCP
D. ACL
A

D. ACL (Access-list)

126
Q 
A rule-based access control mechanism implemented on routers, switches, and firewalls is referred to as:
A. ACL
B. CSR
C. DLP
D. AUP
A

A. ACL

127
Q 
Which of the following typically applies to a request that doesn't match the criteria defined in an ACL?
A. Group Policy
B. Implicit Deny Rule
C. Transitive Trust
D. Context-Aware Authentication
A

B. Implicit Deny Rule

128
Q 
Which type of switch simplifies virtual network configuration by enabling an option to configure switching for the entire network from a single interface?
A. Managed Switch
B. Distributed Switch
C. Stackable Switch
D. Aggregation Switch
A

B. Distributed Switch

129
Q

Circuit-switching networks move data divided into small blocks over a shared connection.
A. True
B. False

A

B. False

130
Q 
Which of the answers listed below refers to a technology designed to simplify network infrastructure management?
A. SAN
B. SDN
C. SSP
D. SEH
A

B. SDN (Software-Defined Networking)

131
Q

Which of the following answers refer to the characteristic features of the 10.0.0.0 - 10.255.255.255 (10.0.0.0/8) IPv4 address space? (Select 2 answers)
A. Class A Range
B. Public IP Address Range
C. Class B Range
D. Non-Routable(Private) IP Address Range
E. Class C Range

A

A. and D. Class A Range - Non-routable (private) IP address Range

132
Q

Which of the answers listed below refer to the 172.16.0.0 - 172.31.255.255 (172.16.0.0/12) IPv4 address space? (Select 2 answers)
A. Class A Range
B. Public IP Address Range
C. Class B Range
D. Non-Routable(Private) IP Address Range
E. Class C Range

A

C. and D. Class B Range - Non-Routable (private) IP address Range

133
Q

What are the characteristic features of the 192.168.0.0 - 192.168.255.255 (192.0.0.0/24) IPv4 address space? (Select 2 answers)
A. Class A Range
B. Public IP Address Range
C. Class B Range
D. Non-Routable(Private) IP Address Range
E. Class C Range

A

D. and E. Non-routable (private) IP Address Range and Class C Range.

134
Q

Which of the following answers refers to an IPv4 address range used for loopback addresses?
A. 0.0.0.0 – 0.255.255.255 (0.0.0.0/8)
B. 127.0.0.0 – 127.255.255.255 (127.0.0.0/8)
C. 169.254.0.0 – 169.254.255.255 (169.254.0.0/16)
D. 240.0.0.0 – 255.255.255.254 (240.0.0.0/4)

A

B. 27.0.0.0 – 127.255.255.255 (127.0.0.0/8)

135
Q

Which of the answers listed below refers to an IPv4 address range reserved for future use?
A. 10.0.0.0 - 10.255.255.255 (10.0.0.0/8)
B. 172.16.0.0 - 172.31.255.255 (172.16.0.0/12)
C. 192.168.0.0 - 192.168.255.255 (192.0.0.0/24)
D. 240.0.0.0 – 255.255.255.254 (240.0.0.0/4)

A

D. 240.0.0.0 – 255.255.255.254 (240.0.0.0/4)

136
Q

In a network using subnets, the term “Default gateway” refers to a network device (e.g. router) that enables exchange of data between hosts residing in different subnets.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

137
Q

An IP address that doesn’t correspond to any actual physical network interface is called a virtual IP address (VIP/VIPA).
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

138
Q 
Which of the following allows to determine which network segment an IP address belongs to?
A. physical Address
B. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
C. Address Resolution Protocol
D. Subnet Mask
A

D. Subnet Mask

139
Q 
In IPv4 addressing, the leading octet of an IP address with a value of 1 through 126 denotes that the IP address within that range belongs to the:
A. Class A Range
B. Class B Range
C. Class C Range
D. Class D Range
A

A. Class A Range

140
Q

Which of the answers listed below refers to an example of a valid subnet mask?
A. 255.255.225.0
B. 255.255.191.0
C. 255.255.127.0
D. 255.255.64.0
E. None of the above is a valid subnet mask.

A

E. None of the above is a valid subnet mask.

141
Q 
Which of the following answers lists the default (classful) subnet mask for a class A network?
A. 255.0.0.0
B. 255.128.0.0
C. 224.0.0.0
D. 255.224.0.0
A

A. 255.0.0.0

142
Q 
What is the leading octet value range for an IPv4 address belonging to a class B network?
A. 255.252.0.0
B. 255.255.0.0
C. 255.248.0.0
D. 255.224.0.0
A

B. 255.255.0.0

143
Q 
An IPv4 addressing, the leading octet of an IP address with a value of 192 through 223 denotes that the IP address within that range belongs to the:
A. Class A Range
B. Class B Range
C. Class C Range
D. Class D Range
A

C. Class C Range

144
Q 
Which of the answers listed below refers to the default (classful) subnet mask for a class C network?
A. 255.255.192.0
B. 255.255.224.0
C. 255.255.255.0
D. 255.255.252.0
A

C. 255.255.255.0

145
Q 
Which of the following answers refer to the IPv4 multicast address block? (Select 2 answers)
A. 128 - 191
B. Class B range
C. 192 - 223
D. Class C range
E. 224 - 239 
F. Class D range
A

E and F. 224 - 239, Class D Range.

146
Q 
What is the name of a solution that increases the efficiency of IP address space management by allowing network administrators to divide networks into subnets of different sizes?
A. DNAT
B. VLSM
C. MPLS
D. VLAN
A

B. VLSM

147
Q 
Which of the answers listed below refers to a solution that replaces the classful network design?
A. VLAN 
B. RSTP
C. SNAT
D. CIDR
A

D. CIDR

148
Q 
Which of the following answers lists the CIDR notation of the 255.255.255.224 subnet mask?
A. /25
B. /26
C. /27
D. /28
A

C. /27

149
Q 
What is the first valid host address that can be assigned to a node residing in the 10.119.136.143/20 network?
A. 10.119.96.1
B. 10.119.128.1
C. 10.119.132.1
D. 10.119.136.1
A

B. 10.119.128.1

150
Q 
What is the network address for a 154.24.67.147/22 host?
A. 154.24.48.0
B. 154.24.60.0
C. 154.24.62.0
D. 154.24.64.0
A

D. 154.24.64.0

151
Q 
Which of the following answers lists the broadcast address for the 192.168.50.155/20 network?
A. 192.168.31.255
B. 192.168.47.255 
C. 192.168.63.255 
D. 192.168.79.255
A

C. 192.168.63.255

152
Q

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol version 6 (DHCPv6) is the IPv6 equivalent of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) for IPv4.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

153
Q 
Which of the answers listed below refers to a permanent assignment of an IP address?
A. Static IP Address
B. Private IP Address
C. Dynamic IP Address
D. Public IP Address
A

A. Static IP Address

154
Q 
APIPA addresses are valid only for communications within a network segment that a given host is connected to. A host with APIPA-assigned address (i.e. an IP address in the range between 169.254.0.1 and 169.254.255.254) cannot connect to the Internet. The assignment of APIPA address typically indicates a problem related to:
A. SNMP
B. DNS
C. SMTP
D. DHCP
A

D. DHCP

155
Q 
Which of the following enables automatic configuration of an IPv6 address?
A. EUI-64
B. UEFI
C. APIPA
D. MAC-48
A

A. EUI-64

156
Q

One of the features of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is the capability for static allocation of an IP address based on the IP-to-MAC address mapping.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

157
Q 
Which of the terms listed below refers to permanent IP address assignment from a DHCP server?
A. Scope
B. Reservation
C. DHCP Relay
D. Lease
A

B. Reservation

158
Q

A logical network diagram is a document that describes the detailed layout of the building and the way devices are connected to the network through the actual cabling that transmits data.
A. True
B. False

A

B. False

159
Q 
A network topology in which each node connects to a central switching device is called:
A. Bus Topology
B. Ring Topology
C. Star Topology
D. Mesh Topology
A

C. Star Topology

160
Q 
Which of the following network topologies is most commonly used in contemporary Ethernet LANs?
A. Bus Topology
B. Star Topology
C. Ring Topology
D. Mesh Topology
A

B. Star topolgoy

161
Q 
A network topology in which each node connects to exactly two other nodes is referred to as:
A. Partial Mesh Topology
B. Ring Topology
C. Full Mesh Topoplogy
D. Star Topology
A

B. Ring Topology

162
Q 
A network topology in which each node has a direct physical connection to every other node is known as:
A. Star
B. Partial Mesh
C. Bus
D. Full Mesh 
E. Ring
A

D. Full Mesh

163
Q 
Which type of network topology provides the highest level of redundancy?
A. Ring
B. Mesh
C. Bus
D. Star
A

B. Mesh

164
Q 
Which of the following answers lists the number of connections in a full mesh network consisting of 10 nodes?
A. 21
B. 28
C. 36
D. 45
A

D. 45

165
Q 
In which type of network topology, the main network cable becomes a single point of failure?
A. Star
B. Full Mesh
C. Bus
D. Partial Mesh
A

C. Bus

166
Q 
A wireless networking topology in which client devices communicate directly with each other without the use of a controlling Access Point (AP) is called:
A. IEEE 802.3af
B. Star Topology
C. Ad hoc mode
D. IEEE 802.3at
E. Infrastructure mode
A

C. Ad hoc mode

167
Q 
A wireless networking topology consisting of at least one Access Point (AP) is referred to as:
A. IEEE 802.3at
B. Infrastructure mode
C. IEEE 802.3.af
D. Ad hoc mode
E. Peer-to-Peer mode
A

B. Infrastructure Mode

168
Q 
A network connecting computers within a small geographical area such as a building or group of buildings is known as:
A. PAN
B. LAN
C. MAN
D. WAN
A

B. LAN (Local Area Network)

169
Q 
A type of network consisting of computers and peripheral devices that use high-frequency radio waves to communicate with each other is called:
A. MAN
B. WLAN
C. LAN
D. VLAN
A

B. WLAN (wireless LAN)

170
Q 
A computer network connecting multiple LANs over an area of a city or campus is referred to as:
A. PAN
B. LAN
C. MAN
D. WAN
A

C. MAN (metropolitan area network)

171
Q

In terms of size and reach, a Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) can be placed between a LAN (smaller type of network) and a WAN (larger type of network).
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

172
Q 
A computer network connecting multiple smaller networks over very large geographical areas is known as:
A. PAN
B. LAN
C. MAN
D. WAN
A

D. WAN (Wide area network)

173
Q

The Internet is an example of a large public WAN.
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

My Network+ (17 decks)

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