Practice Exam Flashcards

To learn all of the details of anatomy and physiology, and how to talk about them using the correct terminology

1
Q

Explain the principle of complementarity of structure and function.

A

What a structure can do depends on its form.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What’s an example of the principle of complementarity?

A

Bones can support body organs and protect them because they contains hard mineral deposits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Why are the heart’s valves an example of the principle of complementarity?

A

Blood flows through the heart in one direction because the heart has built in valves that prevent back flow.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Name the different levels of structural organisation that make up the body.

A
  1. Chemical level
  2. Cellular level
  3. Tissue level
  4. Organ level
  5. Organ system level
  6. Organismal level
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define anatomy and physiology.

A

Anatomy studies the structure of body parts and their relationships to one another. Physiology concerns the function of the body, in other words, how the body parts work and carry out life sustaining activities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

List the 11 organ systems of the body.

A

Integumentary system, skeletal system, muscular system, nervous system, endocrine system, cardiovascular system, lymphatic system/immunity, respiratory system, digestive system, reproductive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

List the 11 organ systems of the body.

A

Integumentary system, skeletal system, muscular system, nervous system, endocrine system, cardiovascular system, lymphatic system/immunity, respiratory system, digestive system, urinary system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

List the 11 organ systems of the body.

A

Integumentary system, skeletal system, muscular system, nervous system, endocrine system, cardiovascular system, lymphatic system/immunity, respiratory system, digestive system, urinary system, male and female reproductive systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What term describes the body’s ability to maintain its normal states?

A

Homeostasis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Complete labelling activities on website.

A

Complete labelling activities on website.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is it called when the anatomy of a body part is intimately tied to its structure and function?

A

The principle of complementarity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Explain primary and secondary active transport and distinguish between the two.

A

In primary active transport, the energy is derived directly from the breakdown of ATP. In the secondary active transport, the energy is derived secondarily from energy that has been stored in the form of ionic concentration differences between the two sides of a membrane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Compare and contrast endocytosis and exocytosis in terms of function and direction.

A

Endocytosis and exocytosis are both cellular means of transporting substances across a cell membrane via the use of a vesicle. However, the processes differ in the direction in which the substances move across the cell membrane. During endocytosis, substances are brought into the cell (“endo” = in). During exocytosis, substances exit the cell (“exo” = exit).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Recognise the effects of positive and negative ions moving across the membrane.

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Define membrane potential and explain how the resting membrane potential is established and maintained.

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Recognise and label main cell organelles.

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Match the organelles to their functions.

A

A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Compare mitosis and meiosis.

A

Mitosis versus meiosis. Cells divide and reproduce in two ways, mitosis and meiosis. Mitosis results in two identical daughter cells, whereas meiosis results in four sex cells. Below we highlight the keys differences and similarities between the two types of cell division.

Involves one cell division?
Results in two daughter cells
Results in diploid? daughter cells? (chromosome? number remains the same as parent cell)
Daughter cells are genetically identical
Occurs in all organisms except viruses
Creates all body cells (somatic?) apart from the germ cells? (eggs and sperm)
Prophase is much shorter
No recombination/crossing over occurs in prophase.

In metaphase individual chromosomes (pairs of chromatids) line up along the equator.
During anaphase the sister chromatids are separated to opposite poles.

Involves two successive cell divisions
Results in four daughter cells
Results in haploid? daughter cells (chromosome number is halved from the parent cell)
Daughter cells are genetically different
Occurs only in animals, plants and fungi
Creates germ cells (eggs and sperm) only

Prophase I takes much longer
Involves recombination/crossing over of chromosomes in prophase I
In metaphase I pairs of chromosomes line up along the equator.
During anaphase I the sister chromatids move together to the same pole.
During anaphase II the sister chromatids are separated to opposite poles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Discuss the lifecycle of a cell including interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase and cytokinesis.

A
  1. Interphase:
    Interphase is the period from cell formation to cell division. During interphase a cell carries out all its routine activities, and “rests” only by dividing. This is the metabolic phase and growth phase.
  2. Prophase. Prophase is the first phase of mitosis, the process that separates the duplicated genetic material carried in the nucleus of a parent cell into two identical daughter cells. During prophase, the complex of DNA and proteins contained in the nucleus, known as chromatin, condenses.
  3. Metaphase. The second stage of cell division, between prophase and anaphase, during which the chromosomes become attached to the spindle fibres.
  4. Anaphase. Third stage of mitosis, meiosis I, and meiosis II in which chromosomes move toward each pole of a cell.
  5. Telophase. The final phase of mitosis, meiosis I, and meiosis II: begins when migration of chromosomes to the poles of the cell has been completed and ends with the formation of two daughter nuclei.
  6. Cytokinesis. The division of cytoplasm that occurs after the cell nucleus has divided.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Recognise cell adaptations and variations in cell death.

A

Apoptosis, or programmed cell death, rids the body of cells that are programmed to have a limited life span. These include the cells lining the uterus in a menstruating woman, and the webs between the fingers and toes of a developing foetus.

Leukocytosis
Margination
Diapedesis
Chemotaxis

Necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Identify the four tissue types and state their features, functions and where they are found in the body.

A

There are four main types of tissue: muscle, epithelial, connective and nervous.

Muscle tissue:

Epithelial tissue, also referred to as epithelium, refers to the sheets of cells that cover exterior surfaces of the body, lines internal cavities and passageways, and forms certain glands. Connective tissue, as its name implies, binds the cells and organs of the body together and functions in the protection, support, and integration of all parts of the body. Muscle tissue is excitable, responding to stimulation and contracting to provide movement, and occurs as three major types: skeletal (voluntary) muscle, smooth muscle, and cardiac muscle in the heart. Nervous tissue is also excitable, allowing the propagation of electrochemical signals in the form of nerve impulses that communicate between different regions of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Classify different types of epithelium.

A

Epithelium is a sheet of cells that covers a body surface or lines a body cavity. Two forms occur in the body:

  1. Covering and lining epithelium. Forms the outer layer of the skin, dips into and lines the open cavities of the urogenital, digestive and respiratory systems; and covers the walls and organs of the closed ventral body cavity.
  2. Glandular epithelium. Fashions the glands of the body.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Discuss endocrine and exocrine glands, including where they are found in the body.

A

A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Describe the process of tissue repair.

A

A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

List and describe seven important functions of bones.

A

A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Name the four bone classifications and provide examples of each.

A

A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Discuss general aspects of bone development (ossification).

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Explain bone growth from cartilage and formation of spongy bone.

A

A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Compare compact bone to spongy bone.

A

A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Discuss how each type of bone structure relates to its function.

A

A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which tissue type is comprised largely of non-living extracellular matrix: important in protection and support?

A

Connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which tissue is immediately responsible for body movement?

A

Muscle tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which tissue enables us to be aware of the external environment and react to it?

A

Nervous tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What tissue lines body cavities and covers surfaces?

A

Epithelial tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is an epithelium that has several layers, within an apical layer of flattened cells called?

A

Stratified squamous epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the gland type that secretes products such as milk, saliva, bile or sweat through a duct?

A

Exocrine gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the membrane that lines body cavities that open the exterior called?

A

Mucous membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What of these is scar tissue a variety of? (Endothelium, connective tissue, muscle tissue, nervous tissue, all of them)

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Distinguish between the axial and appendicular skeleton.

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Identify arrangements of compact and spongy bone.

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Discuss osteocytes, osteoblasts and osteoclasts.

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Identify bony markings and discuss the terminology correctly.

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Identify major features of the skull.

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Identify and label skull bones and sutures.

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Explain what bones contribute to the eye socket.

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Name and local the major regions of the vertebral column.

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Name the functions of the spine.

A

The three main functions of the spine are to: Protect the spinal cord, nerve roots and several of the body’s internal organs. Provide structural support and balance to maintain an upright posture. Enable flexible motion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Identify the importance of the vertebral curvatures.

A

The major function of the vertebral column is protection of the spinal cord; it also provides stiffening for the body and attachment for the pectoral and pelvic girdles and many muscles. In humans an additional function is to transmit body weight in walking and standing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Identify abnormal/excessive curvatures.

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Describe vertebral structures as they relate to functions.

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Identify the structures and functions of the thoracic cage.

A

The thoracic cage is formed by the 12 pairs of ribs with their costal cartilages and the sternum. The ribs are attached posteriorly to the 12 thoracic vertebrae and most are anchored anteriorly either directly or indirectly to the sternum. The thoracic cage functions to protect the heart and lungs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Distinguish between true, false and floating ribs.

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Identify bones forming the pectoral girdle and the pelvic girdle, and relate their structure and arrangement to the function of these girdles.

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Identify important bone markings on the pectoral girdle.

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Identify and label bones of the upper and lower limbs.

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Can material move either into or out of a cell by means of active transport?

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Complete all online anatomy quizzes

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Complete all interactive diagrams and questions online, watch all youtube videos.

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

In their resting state, do all body cells exhibit a resting membrane potential ranging from 50 to +50 millivolts?

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Do osteoclasts develop from osteoblasts?

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Is spongy bone always covered by compact bone?

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Do most bones develop from hyaline cartilage?

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Is the growth zone of the long bones of adolescents the articular cartilage?

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Do blood vessel travel through the central canals of compact bone?

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Does the parathyroid hormone promote bone resorption and raise blood calcium concentration?

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Does the shallow socket of the shoulder joint restrict the movement of the humerus but does increase the stability of the joint?

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

In the anatomical position, is the lateral forearm bone the radius?

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Do the lacrimal bones contain openings that allow the tear ducts to pass?

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Are there seven cervical, twelve thoracic and five lumbar vertebrae?

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

How many cervical, thoracic and lumbar vertebrae are there?

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Which of the following organs lies directly posterior to the sternum: the brain, heart, spinal cord or liver?

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Which of the following bones is not part of the appendicular skeleton: clavicle, scapula, sternum or ilium?

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Which of the following bones is capable of bearing the greatest physical stress: ischium, fibula, femur or patella?

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Which portion of the fibula articulates with the talus: calcaneus, head, medial malleolus or lateral malleolus?

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

The “Hallux” refers to which part of the body: metacarpal, big toe, thumb or metatarsal?

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

If someone has broken a leg, he or she has damaged the dorsal/appendicular/superficial/axial division of the body.

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Which of the following is not an example of the inflammation of the serous membrane: pericarditis, pleurisy, peritonitis or appendicitis?

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Phospholipids orient themselves in aqueous solutions such that __________.

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

A red blood cell placed into a container of distilled water will _____ water via _____.

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

When movement of Na+ ions down their concentration gradient drives the transport of other substances across the cell membrane, it is called ______.

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What does the sodium-potassium pump do?

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is the fluid component between the plasma membrane and nuclear envelope called?

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What does apoptosis do?

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Define joint or articulation.

A

C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Classify joints by structure and by function.

A

C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Provide examples for each kind of joint.

A

C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Label the parts and associated structures of the synovial joint.

A

C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is the difference between an endocrine and an exocrine gland?

A

C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Give details of the two chemical classes of hormones.

A

C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

List the major endocrine organs of the human body.

A

C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Explain the neuroendocrine system.

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is the importance of target cell receptors for effective hormone action?

A

C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What hormones are released by the anterior pituitary gland? What are their target organs and what effect do they have on the body?

A

C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Using GH hormone as an example, explain negative feedback.

A

C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Discuss oxytocin.

A

C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Explain the formation, effect and control of thyroid hormone.

A

D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

How does the endocrine system control blood calcium levels?

A

D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Discuss the hormones synthesised and secreted by the adrenal medulla and adrenal cortex.

A

D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What hormones are produced by the pancreas? Specift the locations and cell types responsible. What is their effect?

A

D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Name three other organs that can produce hormones and give one example for each.

A

D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Describe the system of ducts a sperm will travel through to get from the testis to outside the penis.

A

D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Describe the importance of seminal vesicle secretion.

A

D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What are the main differences between mitosis and meiosis?

A

D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Explain the mechanism of release of hormones from the anterior pituitary.

A

D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Explain Growth Hormone (GH) release, effects and process of negative feedback.

A

D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Explain how Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH), Gonadotropins, and Prolactin are released and regulated.

A

D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Label a diagram of thyroid gland follicles.

A

D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Explain the release, function and regulation of thyroid hormones.

A

D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

State the release and function of Parathyroid hormone.

A

D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Identify the components of the adrenal cortex and medulla and compare their structures and functions.

A

D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

State the hormones secreted from each layer and their effects.

A

D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

State the function of the pineal gland.

A

E.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Identify other multifunctional glands and organs like gonads, pancreas, placenta, kidneys and heart and discuss their role in the endocrine system.

A

E.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Identify hormones released from the gonads.

A

E.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Discuss heart and kidney hormones and their effects.

A

E.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Locate and identify the structures that make up the male reproductive system.

A

E.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Describe the role of each male reproductive structure in producing, storing, and transporting semen.

A

E.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Describe blood supply and innervation of the testes.

A

E.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Describe the process of spermatogenesis.

A

E.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Locate the regions of the male urethra.

A

E.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Describe the composition and functions of semen.

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Describe the physiological changes that occur during ejection and ejaculation.

A

F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Identify the hormones involved in male reproductive functions.

A

F.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Describe the control of breathing.

A

F.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Distinguish between asthma and COPD.

A

F.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Discuss the features that support the function of the lungs.

A

F.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Highlight the key responses of the respiratory system to altered O2 and CO2 conditions.

A

F.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Describe and explain the ventilatory responses to increased CO2 concentrations in the inspired air.

A

F.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Describe and explain the ventilatory responses to decreased O2 concentrations the inspired air.

A

F.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Describe the effects of each of the main non chemical factors that influence respiration.

A

F.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Describe the effects of each of exercise on ventilation and O2 exchange in the tissues.

A

F.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Demonstrate the surface anatomy of the left and right lungs.

A

F.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Compare the pulmonary and systemic circulations, and list some major differences between them.

A

F.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

List the major muscles involved in respiration, and state the role of each.

A

F.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Define partial pressure and calculate the partial pressure of each of the important gases in the atmosphere at sea level.

A

F.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Define hypoxia and describe differences in subtypes of hypoxia.

A

F.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

List the reactions that increase the amount of CO2 in the blood, and draw the CO2 dissociation curve for arterial and venous blood.

A

F.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

What are the 2 types of hormones and what are their main features?

A

F.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Which two endocrine organs contribute to the neuroendocrine system?

A

G.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Explain the three triggers for hormone release.

A

G.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What is the difference between synergism and permissiveness?

A

G.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Do more people get rheumatoid arthritis than osteoarthritis?

A

G.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Are synovial joints known as synarthroses?

A

G.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Do most ligaments, but not all, connect one bone to another?

A

G.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Does reaching behind you to take something out of your pocket involve hyperextension of the elbow?

A

G.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Does the anterior cruciate ligament normally prevent hyperextension of the knee?

A

G.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Is there meniscus in the elbow joint?

A

G.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Are knuckles diarthroses?

A

G.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Is synovial fluid secreted by the bursae?

A

G.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Can condylar joints move in more planes than a hip joint?

A

G.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Does reaching behind you to take something out of your pocket involve hyperextension of the shoulder?

A

G.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Does each motor neurone supply just one muscle fiber?

A

G.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

To initiate muscle contraction, must calcium ions bind to the myosin heads.

A

G.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Are slow oxidative fibres more fatigue resistant than fast gycolytic fibres?

A

G.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Are thin filaments found in both the A bands and I bands of striated muscle?

A

G.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Do thin filaments change length when a muscle contracts?

A

G.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Does smooth muscle lack striations because it does not have thick and thin myofilaments?

A

G.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Must a muscle contract to the point of complete tetanus if it is to move a load?

A

G.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Identify the neural controls of respiration and describe their functions, specifically, the Medulla (VRG and DRG) and the Pontine.

A

G.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Recognise the central and peripheral chemoreceptors as sensors, state their locations and functions.

A

G.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Define hypercapnia.

A

G.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Articulate why Oxygen is less important; CO2 as most important and discuss the influence of pH on respiration.

A

G.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Discuss voluntary control of breathing.

A

G.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Explain the effects of exercise and high altitudes on respiration.

A

G.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Identify and discuss examples of lung diseases.

A

G.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Identify the locations and functions of all glands and organs in the endocrine system.

A

G.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Compare hormone classes.

A

H.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Discuss the neuroendocrine system.

A

H.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Explain mechanisms of hormone action and release, including negative feedback loops.

A

H.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Describe the structural and functional relationships between the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland.

A

H.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Discuss the structure of the anterior and posterior pituitary lobes.

A

H.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

List and describe the chief effects of both the anterior and posterior pituitary hormones.

A

H.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Describe the four processes of respiration.

A

H.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

What are the anatomical features of the nasal cavity and what is each of their functions?

A

H.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Name the three divisions of the pharynx. What features of the immune system are found in these regions?

A

H.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

What are the distinguishing features of the respiratory zones?

A

H.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

What structures are found in the lower respiratory system?

A

H.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Describe the changes in epithelium through the respiratory system. What are the differences in function?

A

H.

179
Q

What are the functions of the larynx?

A

H.

180
Q

Explain sound production.

A

H.

181
Q

What is the unique feature of the trachea?

A

H.

182
Q

Trace the pathway of air from the nostril to the alveoli. What changes occur to the air and where?

A

H.

183
Q

What structures make up the alveolar wall?

A

H.

184
Q

Explain the defining features of the left lung.

A

H.

185
Q

Describe pulmonary ventilation in terms of pressure changes.

A

H.

186
Q

What is lung compliance? What might affect it?

A

H.

187
Q

Classify the structures of LRS as part of the conducting or respiratory zones.

A

H.

188
Q

Identify the organs forming the respiratory passageways in descending order until you reach the alveoli.

A

H.

189
Q

Describe the functions and location of the larynx as well as label its various structures.

A

H.

190
Q

Identify changes in epithelium throughout the RS.

A

H.

191
Q

Label a diagram of the respiratory zone and anatomy of the alveoli.

A

H.

192
Q

Compare the right and left lungs.

A

H.

193
Q

Identify the layers of pleura.

A

H.

194
Q

Explain the pressure mechanism of breathing and identify active vs. passive processes.

A

H.

195
Q

Define airway resistance, surface tension and lung compliance.

A

H.

196
Q

Label a spirographic record of ideal respiratory volumes and capacities for a healthy adult male.

A

H.

197
Q

Identify transpulmonary, intrapleural and intrapulmonary pressures relative to atmospheric pressure.

A

H.

198
Q

Explain partial pressures of gases.

A

H.

199
Q

Discuss how partial pressure gradients promote gas exchange in the body.

A

H.

200
Q

Relate Dalton’s and Henry’s laws to events of external and internal respiration.

A

H.

201
Q

Explain ventilation-perfusion coupling.

A

H.

202
Q

Compare the transportation of O2 and CO2 in the blood.

A

H.

203
Q

Explain the basics of the haemoglobin saturation curve and the bicarbonate buffering system.

A

H.

204
Q

Do more people get rheumatoid arthritis than osteoarthritis?

A

H.

205
Q

Are synovial joints known as synarthroses?

A

H.

206
Q

Do most ligaments but not all, connect one bone to another.

A

H.

207
Q

Does reaching behind you to take something out of your hip pocket involve hyperextension of the elbow?

A

H.

208
Q

Does the anterior cruciate ligament normally prevent hyperextension of the knee?

A

H.

209
Q

Is there a meniscus in the elbow joint?

A

H.

210
Q

Are the knuckles diarthroses?

A

H.

211
Q

Is synovial fluid secreted by the bursae?

A

H.

212
Q

Can condylar joints move in more planes than a hip joint?

A

H.

213
Q

Does reaching behind you to take something out of your hip pocket involve hyperextension of the shoulder?

A

H.

214
Q

Does each motor neuron supply only one muscle fibre?

A

I.

215
Q

To initiate muscle contraction, must calcium ions bind to the myosin heads?

A

I.

216
Q

Are slow oxidative fibres more fatigue resistant than fast glycotic fibres?

A

I.

217
Q

Are thin filaments found in both A bands and I band of striated muscle?

A

I.

218
Q

Do thin filaments change length when a muscle contracts?

A

I.

219
Q

Name the arteries on the anterior surface of the heart.

A

I.

220
Q

Explain the electrical sequence of excitation of the heart.

A

I.

221
Q

Why is there a delay in the excitation sequence of the cardiac muscle?

A

I.

222
Q

Why is the plateau phase in the cardiac muscle contraction important?

A

I.

223
Q

Explain the stages of an ECG trace, and what mechanical event does each stage represent?

A

I.

224
Q

Define the terms systole and diastole.

A

J.

225
Q

What does isovolumetric contraction mean? And where does it occur?

A

J.

226
Q

What do the first and second heart sound represent?

A

J.

227
Q

Explain Cardiac output. How changes in stroke volume and heart rate effect CO?

A

J.

228
Q

Name the three layers of a vessel wall. Are the present in a capillary?

A

J.

229
Q

How many RBCs fit through a capillary?

A

J.

230
Q

Where would you find fenestrated capillaries and what characteristics do they possess?

A

J.

231
Q

Explain the term vascular shunt.

A

J.

232
Q

Which vessels are the main resistance vessels? Why?

A

J.

233
Q

Which vessels are capacitance vessels?

A

J.

234
Q

In which part of the cardiovascular system is the blood most at rest?

A

J.

235
Q

Discuss hypertension. What are some of the risk factors?

A

J.

236
Q

Discuss hypovolemic shock.

A

J.

237
Q

Discuss the relationship between anaphylaxis and vascular shock.

A

J.

238
Q

If the HPc in a capillary is 35mmHg, the COPc is 26mmHg, the HPif is 0mmHg and the OPif is 1mmHg, is the capillary in net filtration or net absorption?

A

J.

239
Q

Detail the journey a RBC would take to travel from the heart to the left foot.

A

K.

240
Q

Detail the journey a RBC would take from the superior mesenteric artery to the right
atrium, and explain the nature of the blood as it goes through; for example oxygenated/deoxygenated, nutrient rich/nutrient poor etc.

A

K.

241
Q

Define terminology related to blood pressure

A

K.

242
Q

Describe the relationship between blood volume and blood pressure.

A

K.

243
Q

Describe relationships between blood pressure, cardiac output, total peripheral resistance,
stroke volume and heart rate.

A

K.

244
Q

Describe the factors that affect resistance.

A

K.

245
Q

Identify the main factors that control vessel diameter and alter resistance.

A

K.

246
Q

Outline factors involved in capillary exchange and bulk flow; explain the significance of each.

A

K

247
Q

Distinguish between capillary hydrostatic pressure and blood colloid osmotic pressure,
explaining the contribution of each to net filtration pressure.

A

L

248
Q

Trace the pathway of blood through the pulmonary and systemic circuits.

A

L

249
Q

Describe the general functions of the systemic circuit.

A

L

250
Q

Name and give the location of the major arteries and veins in the systemic circulation.

A

L

251
Q

Compare differences in functions and structure of arteries and veins.

A

L

252
Q

Name and identify the location of all structures in the upper respiratory system

A

L

253
Q

Explain the relationship and importance of structure for function

A

L

254
Q

The right AV value is the__________ valve and the left AV valve is the_____________

A

M

255
Q

Which valve is the first valve in the heart to have deoxygenated blood flow through it?

A

M

256
Q

Which valve prevents backflow into the left ventricle?

A

M

257
Q

Explain how pressure differences open and close heart valves.

A

M

258
Q

Three veins drain into one of the heart chambers. Which chamber is this and what
are the veins called?

A

M

259
Q

How does the heart’s ability to contract differ from that of other muscles of the body?

A

N

260
Q

Which system is responsible for decreasing heart rate after a crisis has passed?

A

N

261
Q

Cardiac output is _______________.

A

N

262
Q

Given a volume of 150 ml at the end of diastole, a volume of 50 ml at the end of systole, and a heart rate of 60 bpm, the cardiac output is

A

N

263
Q

Soon after the onset of ventricular systole, the

A

N

264
Q

List the components of the cardiovascular system.

A

N

265
Q

Trace the pathway of blood through the heart.

A

N

266
Q

Name the heart valves and describe their location and function.

A

N.

267
Q

Compare the three main types of vessels.

A

N.

268
Q

Determine the function of each type of vessel by the structure of the vessel walls.

A

O.

269
Q

Label a diagram of the heart, including internal structures.

A

O.

270
Q

Recognise the layers of the pericardium and describe their functions.

A

O.

271
Q

Classify unique features of cardiac muscle that determine function.

A

O.

272
Q

Explain pacemaker cells.

A

O.

273
Q

Contrast the membrane potentials of pacemaker cells and contractile cells.

A

O.

274
Q

Summarise the sequence of excitation.

A

P.

275
Q

Identify the stages in an ECG.

A

P.

276
Q

Define terminology related to cardiac output.

A

P.

277
Q

Explain how heart rate and stroke volume affect cardiac output.

A

P.

278
Q

Identify the effects of the autonomic nervous system on heart rate.

A

P.

279
Q

Recognise the relationship between stroke volume, heart rate cardiac output, end-diastolic
volume and end-systolic volume.

A

P.

280
Q

Describe the factors that affect stroke volume.

A

P.

281
Q

Describe the effects of exercise on heart rate, stroke volume, and cardiac output.

A

P.

282
Q

In adults, does hematopoiesis refer to the formation of blood mostly within the red bone marrow of long bones.

A

P.

283
Q

Do hemorrhagic anemias result from a lack of intrinsic factor.

A

P.

284
Q

Is a possible outcome from an overdose of the hormone erythropoietin the
overproduction of red blood cells, a condition known as polycythemia?

A

P.

285
Q

In a centrifuge, do two distinct layers of blood emerge: the erythrocytes and the buffy
coat?

A

P.

286
Q

Do blood’s protective functions include preventing blood loss by forming clots when a
vessel is damaged and preventing infection due to its antimicrobial proteins and
white blood cells.

A

P.

287
Q

Is the hematocrit the percentage of blood that is occupied by erythrocytes (red
blood cells) and is it normally about 45 %?

A

P.

288
Q

What are the three main functions of blood? Give examples for each.

A

P.

289
Q

What is the matrix of blood?

A

P.

290
Q

What are the three plasma proteins? Why is the most common one so important?

A

P.

291
Q

Describe the features of an Eosinophil.

A

P.

292
Q

How do the actions of T lymphocytes differ from those of B lymphocytes?

A

P.

293
Q

What shape is an erythrocyte? And why?

A

P.

294
Q

What is Erythropoiesis? List the stages.

A

P.

295
Q

What eventually happens to a RBC?

A

P.

296
Q

What cells can be produced from myeloid stem cells?

A

P.

297
Q

If a person with type A blood receives a transfusion of blood from a type B donor,
two antigen-antibody reactions occur. What are they? And what are the
consequences?

A

P.

298
Q

Can a mother with RH- blood give birth to a healthy baby with RH+ blood?

A

P.

299
Q

List the functions of blood.

A

P.

300
Q

Describe the composition and physical characteristics of whole blood.

A

P.

301
Q

Recognize red blood cell structure and function.

A

P.

302
Q

Discuss the composition and functions of plasma.

A

P.

303
Q

Describe the process of haemostasis.

A

P.

304
Q

Explain how blood types are formed and determined.

A

P.

305
Q

Describe the functions of prime movers, antagonists, and synergists.

A

P.

306
Q

Explain how a muscle’s position relative to a joint affects its action.

A

P.

307
Q

List the criteria used in naming muscles.

A

P.

308
Q

Provide an example to illustrate the use of each criterion.

A

P.

309
Q

Label diagrams of the major muscles.

A

P.

310
Q

True or false? All muscle tissues develop from embryonic myoblasts

A

True

311
Q

Define joint or articulation.

A

P.

312
Q

Classify joints by structure and by function.

A

P.

313
Q

Provide examples for each type of joint.

A

P.

314
Q

Label the parts and associated structures of the synovial joint.

A

P.

315
Q

Name and describe the common body movements allowed by the synovial joint.

A

P.

316
Q

Describe the properties and locate structures of skeletal muscle tissue.

A

P.

317
Q

Explain muscle attachment points: origin and insertion.

A

P.

318
Q

Discuss the sliding filament model.

A

P.

319
Q

Describe the three-phase cycle of muscle twitch.

A

P.

320
Q

Define muscle summation versus tetanus.

A

P.

321
Q

Describe isotonic versus isometric movements.

A

P.

322
Q

Locate all micro structures in a sarcomere and discuss their functions.

A

P.

323
Q

Explain how muscle fibers are stimulated to contract by describing events that occur at the
neuromuscular junction.

A

P.

324
Q

Describe how an action potential is generated.

A

P.

325
Q

Recognize the events of excitation-contraction coupling that lead to cross bridge activity.

A

P.

326
Q

True or false: More people get rheumatoid arthritis than osteoarthritis.

A

P.

327
Q

True or false: Synovial joints are also known as synarthroses.

A

P.

328
Q

True or false: Most ligaments, but not all, connect one bone to another.

A

P.

329
Q

True or false: Reaching behind you to take something out of your hip pocket involves hyperextension of the elbow.

A

P.

330
Q

True or false: The anterior cruciate ligament normally prevents hyperextension of the knee.

A

P.

331
Q

True or false: There is no meniscus in the elbow joint.

A

P.

332
Q

True or false: The knuckles are diarthroses.

A

P.

333
Q

True or false: Synovial fluid is secreted by the bursae.

A

P.

334
Q

True or false: Condylar joints can move in more planes than a hinge joint.

A

P.

335
Q

True or false: Reaching behind you to take something out of your hip pocket involves hyperextension of the shoulder.

A

P.

336
Q

True or false: Each motor neuron supplies just one muscle fiber.

A

P.

337
Q

True or false: To initiate muscle contraction, calcium ions must bind to the myosin heads.

A

P.

338
Q

True or false: Slow oxidative fibers are more fatigue resistant than fast glycolytic fibers.

A

P.

339
Q

True or false: Thin filaments are found in both the A bands and I bands of striated muscle.

A

P.

340
Q

True or false: Thin filaments do not change length when a muscle contracts.

A

P.

341
Q

True or false: Smooth muscle lacks striations because it does not have thick and thin myofilaments.

A

P.

342
Q

True or false: A muscle must contract to the point of complete tetanus if it is to move a load.

A

P.

343
Q

True or false: If no ATP were available to a muscle fiber, the excitation stage of muscle action could not occur.

A

P.

344
Q

True or false: For the first 30 seconds of an intense exercise, muscle gets most of its energy from lactic acid.

A

P.

345
Q

True or false: The smooth muscle and the skeletal muscle are both autorhythmic.

A

P.

346
Q

The site where two or more bones meet is called a(n) ______.

A

P.

347
Q

Which of the following correctly lists the three structural types of joints?

A

P.

348
Q

An amphiarthrotic joint exhibits which level of movement?

A

P.

349
Q

Of the following types of joints, which type occurs only in the skull?

A

P.

350
Q

The ______ the ligament fibers of a syndesmosis, the ______ the degree of movement.

A

P.

351
Q

Which of the following joints is a site of long bone growth?

A

P.

352
Q

All synovial joints are ______.

A

P.

353
Q

Which of the following synovial joint components is responsible for secreting synovial fluid?

A

P.

354
Q

Much of the friction associated with synovial joints is reduced by the presence of ______.

A

P.

355
Q

The greatest degree of motion that synovial joints display is described as ______.

A

P.

356
Q

During depolarization, the sarcolemma is most permeable to ______.

A

P.

357
Q

The time period between action potential initiation and mechanical activity of a muscle fiber is called the ______.

A

P.

358
Q

What is calcium’s function during muscle contraction?

A

P.

359
Q

Corpses usually exhibit rigor mortis because ______.

A

P.

360
Q

Small precise movements are controlled by ______ motor units.

A

P.

361
Q

A muscle contraction increases in strength up to a point because ______.

A

P.

362
Q

Isometric contractions come into play when an individual is ________.

A

P.

363
Q

Sprinters typically possess more ______ muscle fibers.

A

P.

364
Q

A major difference between smooth muscle fibers and skeletal muscle fibers in terms of calcium influx is that ______.

A

P.

365
Q

A major cellular feature in smooth muscle that contributes to its rhythmicity and ability to participate in peristalsis is the presence of ______.

A

P.

366
Q

Electrical coupling by gap junctions is present in ______.

A

P.

367
Q

True or false: All muscle tissues develop from embryonic myoblasts

A

P.

368
Q

True or false: Multinucleated skeletal muscle cells form by fusion

A

P.

369
Q

True or false: A growth factor stimulates clustering of ACh receptors at neuromuscular junctions

A

P.

370
Q

True or false: Cardiac and smooth muscle myoblasts develop gap junctions

A

P.

371
Q

True or false: ~All muscle tissue develops from myoblasts

A

P.

372
Q

True or false: Cardiac and skeletal muscle become amitotic, but can lengthen and thicken in growing child

A

P.

373
Q

True or false: Myoblast-like skeletal muscle satellite cells have limited regenerative ability

A

P.

374
Q

True or false: Cardiomyocytes can divide at modest rate, but injured heart muscle mostly replaced by connective tissue

A

P.

375
Q

True or false: Smooth muscle regenerates throughout life

A

P.

376
Q

True or false: Muscular development reflects neuromuscular coordination

A

P.

377
Q

True or false: Development occurs head to toe, and proximal to distal

A

P.

378
Q

True or false: Peak natural neural control occurs by mid adolescence

A

P.

379
Q

True or false: Athletics and training can improve neuromuscular control

A

P.

380
Q

True or false: Female skeletal muscle makes up 36% of body mass

A

P.

381
Q

True or false: Male skeletal muscle makes up 42% of body mass, primarily due to testosterone

A

P.

382
Q

True or false: Body strength per unit muscle mass same in both sexes

A

P.

383
Q

True or false: With age, connective tissue increases and muscle fibers decrease

A

P.

384
Q

True or false: By age 30, loss of muscle mass (sarcopenia) begins

A

P.

385
Q

True or false: Regular exercise reverses sarcopenia

A

P.

386
Q

True or false: Atherosclerosis may block distal arteries, leading to intermittent claudication and severe pain in leg muscles

A

P.

387
Q

Muscle disorder – myopathies
– Disrupt movement of body
• Mild case: inconvenience to slight troublesome
• Severe case: impairment of muscle used in breathing

A

P.

388
Q

Muscle injury

A

P.

389
Q

Strain
– Muscle overexertion or trauma
– Myalgia: pain
– May involve overstretching or tearing muscle fibers

A

P.

390
Q

Sprain
– If joint ligament injured or
damaged

A

P.

391
Q

Minor trauma; contusion

– Muscle bruise, Local internal bleeding

A

P.

392
Q

Severe trauma: crush injury

– Release of fiber contents into blood stream, life threatening (myoglobin > kidney failure)

A

P.

393
Q

Muscular Dystrophy:
• Group of inherited muscle-destroying diseases; generally appear in
childhood
• Muscles enlarge due to fat and connective tissue deposits
• Muscle fibers atrophy and degenerate

A

P

394
Q

Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD):
• Most common and severe type
• Inherited, sex-linked, carried by females and expressed in males
(1/3500) as lack of dystrophin
• Cytoplasmic protein that stabilizes sarcolemma
• Fragile sarcolemma tearsàCa2+ entryàdamaged contractile fibers à inflammatory cells à muscle mass drops
• Victims become clumsy and fall frequently; usually die of respiratory failure in 20s
• No cure
• Myoblast transfer therapy disappointing
• Coaxing dystrophic muscles to produce more utrophin (protein similar to dystrophin) successful in mice
• Viral gene therapy and infusion of stem cells with correct dystrophin genes show promise

A

P.

395
Q

True or false: All skeletal muscle is voluntary

A

V

396
Q

True or false: The endomyosin surrounds fasciculi.

A

V

397
Q

True or false: ATP is required to stop the cross bridge cycle.

A

V

398
Q

True or false: Most skeletal muscles are examples of a third-class lever.

A

V

399
Q

True or false: The rectus abdominis muscle is the most superficial out of all the abdominal wall muscles.

A

V

400
Q

True or false: The biceps femoris is part the quadriceps.

A

V

401
Q

True or false: Duchenne muscular dystrophy is the most common and severe type of muscular dystrophy.

A

V

402
Q

True or false: Smooth muscle regenerates throughout life.

A

V

403
Q

True or false: A muscle that assists the muscle primarily responsible for a given action is called an agonist.

A

V.

404
Q

True or false: Antagonists are muscles that oppose or reverse a particular movement.

A

V

405
Q

Whichoneofthefollowingisnotapatternoffasciclearrangement? a) Bipennate

b) Transverse
c) Parallel
d) Circular

A

V.

406
Q

Muscle that crosses a joint anteriorly generally functions as a_____.

a) Flexor
b) Abductor c) Extensor d) Rotator

A

V.

407
Q

Which one of the following is NOT found in the forearm? a) Brachioradialis

b) Pronator teres
c) Flexorpollicislongus
d) Fibularis longus

A

V.

408
Q

Which muscle is NOT part of the rotator cuff?

a) Teresmajor
b) Infraspinatus
c) Subscapularis
d) Teres minor

A

V.

409
Q

Which is one of the following is an adductor muscle?

a) Vastuslateralis
b) Gracilis
c) Vastusmedialis
d) Tensor fascia lata

A

V.

410
Q

Which one of the following muscles is used during passive inspiration?

a) Externalintercostals
b) Internal intercostals
c) Sternocleidomastoid
d) Scalenes

A

V.

411
Q

Cell Membrane

A

Semi-permeable membrane made of phospholipids that acts as a barrier between inside and outside of the cell.

412
Q

Cytoplasm

A

The fluid, cytoskeleton, and organelles inside a cell.

413
Q

Nucleus

A

Contains DNA and control’s the cell’s activity.

414
Q

Nuclear Envelope

A

Double membrane that surrounds the nucleus and has pores to allow some molecules (like RNA) out of the nucleus.

415
Q

Nucleolus

A

Dark, dense area inside nucleus that makes rRNA.

416
Q

Mitochondria

A

Makes ATP (chemical energy). Folds inside are called cristae. They have their own DNA.

417
Q

Ribosomes

A

Made of rRNA and proteins. This is where proteins are made.

418
Q

Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER)

A

Protein highway of sorts (transports proteins made on ribosomes). RER are covered with ribosomes.

419
Q

Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER)

A

Lacks ribosomes. Responsible for making steroids (hormones/cholesterol).

420
Q

Golgi Apparatus

A

Flattened sacs responsible for packaging proteins before they leave the cell. They can add carbs, proteins, or fats like address label.

421
Q

Lysosomes

A

Contain digestive enzymes to break stuff down. Like a garbage disposal.

422
Q

Vesicles

A

Regulate water like in some single-celled organisms. Used for storage in other types of cells. Also, molecules are sometimes transported in them.

423
Q

Cytoskeleton

A

Network of thin and tubular structures that give the cell its shape.

424
Q

Microtubules

A

Large, hollow, protein tubes that sometimes form cilia and/or flagella in addition to the cytoskeleton.

425
Q

Microfilaments

A

Thin protein threads in the cell cytoplasm.

426
Q

Cilia

A

Made of microtubules, they are hair-like and are involved in movement (ex. paramecium or lining of the lung.

427
Q

Flagella

A

Made of microtubules and are tail-like and involved in movement (ex. sperm tail).

428
Q

Centrioles

A

Only in animal cells. Made of microtubules and help in cell division.

429
Q

Cell Wall

A

Only in plant cells. Made of cellulose and has pores to let things in and out of plant. Helps keep shape.

430
Q

Central Vacuole

A

Only in plant cells. Large, full of water, enzymes, wastes, etc. Shrinks and expands based on water content.

431
Q

Chloroplast

A

Only in plant cells. Takes light energy and makes carbs from CO2 and water. Inside are thylakoids (flattened sacs) that contain the pigment chlorophyll (main molecule that absorbs light).

432
Q

What are the similarities between meiosis and mitosis?

A

Diploid parent cell
Consists of interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase
In metaphase individual chromosomes (pairs of chromatids) line up along the equator.
During anaphase the sister chromatids are separated to opposite poles.
Ends with cytokinesis.

433
Q

Loss of lung elasticity and destruction of alveolar walls is termed ______.

A

a.

434
Q

The Bohr effect describes _______.

A

a.

435
Q

Breathing air through the nose serves multiple functions. What functions would be increased when breathing dry air?

A

a.

436
Q

The most powerful respiratory stimulus for breathing in a healthy person is ______.

A

a.

437
Q

What lines most of the digestive tract?

A

a.

438
Q

What lines the esophagus?

A

a.

439
Q

What lines much of the respiratory tract?

A

a.

440
Q

What forms the walls of the air sacs of the lungs?

A

a.

441
Q

What is found in the urinary tract organs?

A

a.

442
Q

What does endothelium and mesothelium look like?

A

a.

443
Q

Watch videos/lessons online

A

a.