practice exam 3 Flashcards
(125 cards)
Which of the following is NOT a means of improving data validation and trust?
A. Encrypting data in transit
B. Using MD5 checksums for files
C. Decrypting data at rest
D. Implementing Tripwire
C. Decrypting data at rest
Explanation
OBJ-1.1: Encrypting data in transit leads to more integrity and confidentiality of the data, and therefore trust. Hashing files using MD5 to check against known valid checksums would provide integrity, and therefore validation and trust. Implementing a file integrity monitoring program, such as Tripwire, would also improve data validation and trust. Decrypting data at rest does not improve data validation, or trust since the data at rest could be modified when decrypted.
Which of the following would trigger the penetration tester to stop and contact the system owners during an engagement?
A. Discovery of obsfucated PHI data being stored on the system
B. Discovery of an indicator of compromise on a production server
C. Discovery of missing Windows security patches on a production server
D. Discovery of default credentials on an appliance in a staging network
B. Discovery of an indicator of compromise on a production server
Explanation
OBJ-1.1: The penetration testing team should have a direct communication path with the system owners or their trusted agents during an engagement. If the team discovers any security breaches, current hacking activity, extremely critical findings on a production server, or a production server becomes unresponsive during exploitation, then the team should stop what they are doing and contract their trusted point of contact within the organization to get further guidance.
Which of the following identity and access management controls relies upon using a certificate-based authentication mechanism?
A. HOTP
B. Smart card
C. TOTP
D. Proximity card
B. Smart card
Explanation
OBJ-1.1: Smart cards, PIV, and CAC devices are used as an identity and access management control. These devices contain a digital certificate embedded within the smart card (PIV/CAC) presented to the system when it is inserted into the smart card reader. When combined with a PIN, the smart card can be used as a multi-factor authentication mechanism. The PIN unlocks the card and allows the digital certificate to be presented to the system.
What type of scan will measure the size or distance of a person’s external features with a digital video camera?
A. Iris scan
B. Retinal scan
C. Facial recognition scan
D. Signature kinetics scan
C. Facial recognition scan
Explanation
OBJ-1.1: A face recognition system is a computer application capable of identifying or verifying a person from a digital image or a video frame from a video source. One way to do this is by comparing selected facial features from the image and a face database. By measuring the external facial features, such as the distance between your eyes and nose, you can uniquely identify the user. A retinal scan is a biometric technique that uses unique patterns on a person’s retina blood vessels. Iris recognition or iris scanning is the process of using visible and near-infrared light to take a high-contrast photograph of a person’s iris. A signature kinetics scan measures a user’s action when signing their name and compares it against a known-good example or baseline.
Which of the following will an adversary so during the exploitation phase of the Lockheed Martin kill chain? (SELECT THREE)
A. Take advantage of a software, hardware, or human vulnerability
B. Select backdoor implant and appropriate command and control infrastructure for operation
C. Wait for a malicious email attachment to be opened
D. Wait for a user to click on a malicious link
E. A webshell is installed on a web server
F. A backdoor/implant is placed on a victim’s client
A. Take advantage of a software, hardware, or human vulnerability
C. Wait for a malicious email attachment to be opened
D. Wait for a user to click on a malicious link
Explanation
OBJ-1.1: During this phase, activities taken during the exploitation phase are conducted against the target’s system. Taking advantage of or exploiting an accessible vulnerability, waiting for a malicious email attached to be opened, or waiting for a user to click on a malicious link is all part of the exploitation phase. The installation of a web shell, backdoor, or implant is all performed during the installation phase. Selecting a backdoor implant and appropriate command and control infrastructure occurs during the weaponization phase.
What should administrators perform to reduce a system’s attack surface and remove unnecessary software, services, and insecure configuration settings?
A. Harvesting
B. Windowing
C. Hardening
D. Stealthing
C. Hardening
Explanation
OBJ-1.1: Hardening is usually the process of securing a system by reducing its surface of vulnerability, which is larger when a system performs more functions; in principle, a single-function system is more secure than a multipurpose one. Reducing available ways of attack typically includes changing default passwords, removing unnecessary software, unnecessary usernames or logins, and disabling or removing unnecessary services. Windows is the use of windows for the simultaneous display of more than one item on a screen. Harvesting is the process of gathering data, normally user credentials. Stealthing is a made-up term in this question.
Which of the following pairs of authentication factors should you choose to meet the requirements associated with MFA?
A.Username and password
B. Username and pin
C. Thumbprint and password
D. Thumbprint and retina scan
C. Thumbprint and password
Explanation
OBJ-1.1: Multi-factor authentication (MFA) requires a user to provide at least two different forms of authentication: something you know (username, password, pin), something you have (token, key fob, smartphone), something you are (fingerprint, retina scan), something you do (the way you speak a phrase or sign your name), or somewhere you are (location factor based on IP address or geolocation).
Which of the following provides accounting, authorization, and authentication via a centralized privileged database, as well as challenge/response and password encryption?
A. Multi-factor authentication
B. ISAKMP
C. TACACS+
D. Network access control
C. TACACS+
Explanation
OBJ-1.1: TACACS+ is a AAA (accounting, authorization, and authentication) protocol to provide AAA services for access to routers, network access points, and other networking devices.
A cybersecurity analyst is attempting to perform an active reconnaissance technique to audit their company’s security controls. Which DNS assessment technique would be classified as active?
A. A DNS forward or reverse lookup
B. A zone transfer
C. A whois query
D. Using maltego
B. A zone transfer
Explanation
OBJ-2.1: DNS zone transfer, also sometimes known by the inducing DNS query type AXFR, is a DNS transaction type. It is one of the many mechanisms available for administrators to replicate DNS databases across a set of DNS servers. DNS zone transfers are an active technique. Performing a whois query is a passive reconnaissance technique that performs a query of the databases that store the registered users or assignees of an Internet resource, such as a domain name, an IP address block, or an autonomous system, but is also used for a wider range of other information. Performing a DNS forward and reverse lookup zones is an active technique that allows the resolution of names to IP addresses and IP addresses to names. This can be conducted as a passive technique. Maltego is used for open-source intelligence and forensics. It focuses on providing a library for data discovery from open sources and visualizing that information in a graph format suitable for link analysis and data mining. It collects this information passively since it can acquire the information from whois lookup servers, a DNS lookup tool using public DNS servers, or even emails and hostnames one can acquire from TheHarvester.
You are working as part of a penetration testing team conducting engagement against Dion Training’s network. You have been given a list of targets in a text file called servers.txt. Which of the following Nmap commands should you use to find all the servers from the list with ports 80 and 443 enabled and save the results in a greppable file called results.txt?
A. nmap -p80,443 -sL servers.txt -oX results.txt
B. nmap -p80,443 -iL servers.txt -oX results.txt
C. nmap -p80,443 -iL servers.txt -oG results.txt
D. nmap -p80,443 -sL servers.txt -oG results.txt
C. nmap -p80,443 -iL servers.txt -oG results.txt
Explanation
OBJ-2.2: The command (nmap -p80,443 -iL servers.txt -oG results.txt) will only perform an nmap scan against ports 80 and 443. The -iL option will scan each of the listed server’s IP addresses. The -oG option will save the results in a greppable format to the file results.txt while still displaying the normal results to the shell. The option of -sL will only list the servers to scan. It will not actually scan them. The option of -oX is for outputting the results to a file in an XML format.
An attacker uses the nslookup interactive mode to locate information on a Domain Name Service (DNS). What command should they type to request the appropriate records for only name servers?
A. locate type=ns
B. request type=ns
C. set type=ns
D. transfer type=ns
C. set type=ns
Explanation
OBJ-2.1: The “set type=ns” tells nslookup only reports information on name servers. If you used “set type=mx” instead, you would receive information only about mail exchange servers.
As a newly hired cybersecurity analyst, you are attempting to determine your organization’s current public-facing attack surface. Which of the following methodologies or tools generates a current and historical view of the company’s public-facing IP space?
A. shodan.io
B. nmap
C. Google hacking
D. Review network diagrams
A. shodan.io
Explanation
OBJ-2.1: Shodan (shodan.io) is a search engine that identifies Internet-connected devices of all types. The engine uses banner grabbing to identify the type of device, firmware/OS/app type, and version, plus vendor and ID information. This involves no direct interaction with the company’s public-facing internet assets since this might give rise to detection. This is also the first place an adversary might use to conduct reconnaissance on your company’s network. The nmap scanning tool can provide an analysis of the current state of public exposure but has no mechanism to determine the history, nor will it give the same depth of information that shodan.io provides. Google Hacking can determine if a public exposure occurred over public-facing protocols, but it cannot conclusively reveal all the exposures present. Google hacking relies on using advanced Google searches with advanced syntax to search for information across the internet. Network diagrams can show how a network was initially configured. Unless the diagrams are up-to-date, which they usually aren’t, they cannot show the current “as is” configuration. If you can only select one tool to find your attack surface’s current and historical view, shodan is your best choice.
You have just finished running an nmap scan on a server are see the following output:
-=-=-=-=-=-=--=-=-=-=-=-=--=-=-=-=-=-=--=-=-=-=-=-=- # nmap diontraining.com Starting Nmap ( http://nmap.org )
Nmap scan report for diontraining.com (64.13.134.52)
Not shown: 996 filtered ports
PORT STATE
22/tcp open
23/tcp open
53/tcp open
443/tcp open
Nmap done: 1 IP address (1 host up) scanned in 2.56 seconds
-=-=-=-=-=-=–=-=-=-=-=-=–=-=-=-=-=-=–=-=-=-=-=-=-
Based on the output above, which of the following ports listed as open represents the most significant security vulnerability to your network?
A. 22
B. 23
C. 53
D. 443
B. 23
Explanation
OBJ-2.2: Port 23 is used by telnet and is not considered secure because it sends all of its data in cleartext, including authentication data like usernames and passwords. As an analyst, you should recommend that telnet is disabled and blocked from use. The other open ports are for SSH (port 22), DNS (port 53), and HTTPS (port 443).
You are working as a service desk analyst. This morning, you have received multiple calls from users reporting that they cannot access websites from their work computers. You decide to troubleshoot the issue by opening up your command prompt on your Windows machine and running a program to determine where the network connectivity outage occurs. Which tool should you use to determine if the issue is on the intranet portion of your corporate network or if it is occurring due to a problem with your ISP?
A. netstat
B. nslookup
C. ping
D. tracert
D. tracert
Explanation
OBJ-2.1: Tracert is a command-line utility used to trace an IP packet’s path as it moves from its source to its destination. While using ping will tell you if the remote website is reachable or not, it will not tell you where the connection is broken. Tracert performs a series of ICMP echo requests to determine which device in the connection path is not responding appropriately. This will help to identify if the connectivity issue lies within your intranet or is a problem with the ISP’s connection.
You are developing your vulnerability scanning plan and attempting to scope your scans properly. You have decided to focus on the criticality of a system to the organization’s operations when prioritizing the system in the scope of your scans. Which of the following would be the best place to gather the criticality of a system?
A. Ask the CEO for a list of the critical systems
B. Conduct a nmap scan of the network to determine the OS of each system
C. Scope the scan based on IP subnets
D. Review the asset inventory and BCP
D. Review the asset inventory and BCP
Explanation
OBJ-2.1: To best understand a system’s criticality, you should review the asset inventory and the BCP. Most organizations classify each asset in its inventory based on its criticality to the organization’s operations. This helps to determine how many spare parts to have, the warranty requirements, service agreements, and other key factors to help keep these assets online and running at all times. Additionally, you can review the business continuity plan (BCP) since this will provide the organization’s plan for continuing business operations in the event of a disaster or other outage. Generally, the systems or operations listed in a BCP are the most critical ones to support business operations. While the CEO may be able to provide a list of the most critical systems in a large organization, it isn’t easy to get them to take the time to do it, even if they did know the answer. Worse, in most large organizations, the CEO isn’t going to know what systems he relies on, but instead just the business functions they serve, again making this a bad choice. While conducting a nmap scan may help you determine what OS is being run on each system, this information doesn’t help you determine criticality to operations. The same is true of using IP subnets since a list of subnets by itself doesn’t provide criticality or prioritization of the assets.
What results will the following command yield: NMAP -sS -O -p 80-443 145.18.24.7?
A. A stealth scan that scans ports 80 and 443
B. A stealth scan that scans ports 80 to 443
C. A stealth scan that scans all open ports excluding ports 80 to 443
D. A stealth scan that scans all ports from 80 to 443 and determines a target’s operating system
D. A stealth scan that scans all ports from 80 to 443 and determines a target’s operating system
Explanation
OBJ-2.2: When using NMAP, the -sS tells the tool to use a stealth scan using a TCP SYN packet, the -O is used to determine the operating system, and -p dictates which ports to scan. Since the ports were listed as 80-443, this indicates it includes all the ports from 80 through 443.
A security analyst conducts a nmap scan of a server and found that port 25 is open. What risk might this server be exposed to?
A. Open file/print sharing
B. Web portal data leak
C. Clear text authentication
D. Open mail relay
D. Open mail relay
Explanation
OBJ-2.2: Port 25 is the default port for SMTP (Simple Message Transfer Protocol), which is used for sending an email. An active mail relay occurs when an SMTP server is configured in such a way that it allows anyone on the Internet to send email through it, not just mail originating from your known and trusted users. Spammers can exploit this type of vulnerability to use your email server for their own benefit. File/print sharing usually operates over ports 135, 139, and 445 on a Windows server. Web portals run on ports 80 and 443. Clear text authentication could occur using an unencrypted service, such as telnet (23), FTP (20/21), or the web (80).
A penetration test tester conducts an ACK scan using nmap against the external interface of a DMZ firewall. Nmap reports port 80 as “unfiltered”. What type of packet inspection is the firewall performing?
A. Host inspection
B. Stateful inspection
C. Stateless inpsection
D. Application-level inspection
C. Stateless inpsection
Explanation
OBJ-2.2: The unfiltered state means that a port is accessible, but Nmap is unable to determine whether it is open or closed. Only the ACK scan, which is used to map firewall rulesets, classifies ports into this state. Based on the unfiltered port state, the firewall must be performing stateless inspection. Stateless firewalls watch network traffic, and restrict or block packets based on source and destination addresses or other static values. They are not ‘aware’ of traffic patterns or data flows. A stateless firewall uses simple rule-sets with ACLs.
What system contains a publicly available set of databases with registration contact information for every domain name on the Internet?
A. WHOIS
B. IANA
C. CAPTCHA
D. IETF
A. WHOIS
Explanation
OBJ-2.1: WHOIS is a query and response protocol widely used for querying databases that store the registered users or assignees of an Internet resource, such as a domain name, an IP address block, or an autonomous system. WHOIS also is used for a broader range of information. The protocol stores and delivers database content in a human-readable format and is publicly available for use. The Internet Assigned Numbers Authority is a standards organization that oversees global IP address allocation, autonomous system number allocation, root zone management in the Domain Name System, media types, and other Internet Protocol-related symbols and Internet numbers. A CAPTCHA is a type of challenge-response test used in computing to determine whether the user is human. The Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) is an open standards organization that develops and promotes voluntary Internet standards, particularly the standards that comprise the Internet protocol suite.
If you want to conduct an operating system identification during a nmap scan, which syntax should you utilize?
A. nmap -os
B. nmap -O
C. nmap -id
D. nmap -osscan
B. nmap -O
Explanation
OBJ-2.2: The -O flag indicates to nmap that it should attempt to identify the target’s operating system during the scanning process. It does this by evaluating the responses it received during the scan against its signature database for each operating system.
During scanning and enumeration, you have identified that a port 69 is open on a server. Which fo the following risks exist on this server?
A. Weak SSL cipher implementation
B. Cleartext log ins are accepted
C. Web portal informationn disclosure
D. Unauthenticated access to the server
D. Unauthenticated access to the server
Explanation
OBJ-2.3: Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) uses port 69. TFTP allows a client to get a file from or put a file onto a remote host. TFTP has no login or access control mechanisms, therefore if it is used it could allow unauthenticated access to the server.
What techniques are commonly used by port and vulnerability scanners to identify the services running on a target system?
A. Comparing response fingerprints and registry scanning
B. Banner grabbing and UDP response timing
C. Using the -O option in nmap and UDP response timing
D. Banner grabbing and comparing response fingerprints
D. Banner grabbing and comparing response fingerprints
Explanation
OBJ-2.2: Service and version identification are often performed by conducting a banner grab or by checking responses for services to known fingerprints for those services. UDP response timing and other TCP/IP stack fingerprinting techniques are used to identify operating systems only. Using nmap -O will conduct an operating system fingerprint scan, but it will not identify the other services being run.
Which of the following tools is used by a penetration tester to conduct open-source intelligence (OSINT)?
A. Nessus
B. Maltego
C. Empire
D. AirCrack-NG
B. Maltego
Explanation
OBJ-2.1: Maltego is an OSINT tool that is used to gather information from public resources. It has a graphical user interface (GUI) that visualizes the information gathered to help a penetration tester make logical connections between the different data sets collected.
Which protocol relies on mutual authentication of the client and the server for its security?
A. RADIUS
B. Two-factor authentication
C. LDAPS
D. CHAP
C. LDAPS
Explanation
OBJ-2.3: The Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) uses a client-server model for mutual authentication. LDAP is used to enable access to a directory of resources (workstations, users, information, etc.). TLS provides mutual authentication between clients and servers. Since Secure LDAP (LDAPS) uses TLS, it provides mutual authentication.