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BIO 208 Exam #2 > Practice Exam > Flashcards

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0
Q

T/F all bacteria double their numbers every 20 minutes.

A

False

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1
Q

Most bacteria increase in number through the process of

A

Binary fission

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2
Q

When comparing direct microscopic counts of microbial growth to plate counts, plate counts _______ tell you whether the cells are dead or alive

A

Will

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3
Q

Microbes will not be able to grow below their minimal temperatures because

A

Proteins denature

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4
Q

A pastry chef with poor personal hygiene inadvertently inoculate a crime puff with 100 Staphylococcus aureus cells. The crime puff sat on the bakery display shelf for four hours and was purchased and consumed by a college student on her way home from micro class. S. Aureus has a generation time of 20 minutes, approximately how many bacteria did the student eat?

A

409,600

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5
Q

Salts preserve foods by creating a(n) ______ relative to the inside of the cell

A

Hypertonic environment

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6
Q

As potential pathogens and the fact that they are growing on nutrient agar plates the organisms are most likely

A

Chemoorganoheterotrophs

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11
Q

which of the four microbial growth controls is/are physical methods to kill microbes

A

sterilization (ex. autoclave, gamma radiation)

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12
Q

which of the four microbial growth controls are chemical methods to kill microbes?

A

antiseptic
disinfectant
sanitize

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13
Q

physical and chemical methods are both _________ methods to kill microbes

A

nonspecific methods

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14
Q

how are antibiotics different from all of the methods to control microbial growth discussed this far?

A

antibiotics are specific and target a certain microbe (targeted towards pathogens - towards Bacteria)

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15
Q

bactericidal

A

kills bacteria

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16
Q

bacteriostatic

A

inhibits growth

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17
Q

Is penicillin considered bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

A

bactericidal - directly leading to death of organism (it prevents proper cell wall division)

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18
Q

which environment is most harmful to a bacterial cell?

A

hypertonic

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19
Q

plasmolysis can occur when a bacterial cell is placed into a ________ solution

A

hypertonic

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20
Q

the test tube of media shown (lots of growth on top and little distributed throughout tube) is likely to have which kind of organism in it?

A

facultative anaerobe

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21
Q

an obligate anaerobe will produce which enzyme?

A

neither catalase nor SOD

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22
Q

organisms that can tolerate environments with high salt concentrations, such as your skin, are ___________

A

halotolerant

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23
Q

write out the timeline of how antibiotic resistance developed

A
  1. penicillin was discovered
  2. more antibiotics discovered
  3. penicillin used (used widely in WW II) –> rapid decline in infections
  4. “magic bullet” - widespread use (decrease in research)
  5. antibiotic resistance started growing rapidly (where we are today)
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24
Q

plasmolysis

A

plasma membrane shrinks away from cell wall in hypertonic solution
- supposed to be close together (will screw up metabolism)

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25
Q

facultative anaerobe

A

has a preference to grow with oxygen because it is more endogenically favorable (more growth near top of culture)

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26
Q

what percent of salt can halophiles live in

A

1-15%

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27
Q

penicillin inhibits __________

A

peptidoglycan synthesis

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28
Q

cells divide at their maximal rates during ___________

A

log phase

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29
Q

what happens to cells at high temperatures?

A

cytoplasmic membrane collapses
nucleic acids denature
proteins denature

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30
Q

which of the following is false about the enzymes of acidophiles?

they have an activity optimum at pH below neutral
they will be denatured at high pH
they are found in soda lakes
they are found in low pH bogs

A

they are found in soda lakes

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31
Q

potato salad at a restaurant salad bar was inadvertently inoculated with 1 Salmonella cell. The potato salad sat at room temperature for 2 hours. Assuming that Salmonella has a generation time of 10 minutes, approximately how many bacteria were present after 2 hours?

A

4,096

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32
Q

when a halophile is placed in distilled water the cell is placed in a(n)

A

hypotonic environment

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33
Q

high temperatures are more lethal to cells than low temperatures. This is because

A

heat damage tends to be irreversible

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34
Q

the average temperature of the oceans is 5 degrees C. You would then predict that the majority of marine microorganisms would be

A

psychrophiles

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35
Q

why is molecular oxygen (O2) a toxic molecule for cells

A

free radicals produced during O2 reduction pull electrons off cellular components

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36
Q

what is the difference between an antiseptic and a disinfectant

A

disinfectants kill pathogens on inanimate surfaces, antiseptics kill pathogens on living tissues

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37
Q

what is the desired result of the quadrant streak plate technique

A

obtain will isolated bacterial colonies

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38
Q

what do we call an organism that grows best in the presence of low amounts of oxygen?

A

microaerophile

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39
Q

Bacillus cereus can grow in cooked rice while it is cooling in a refrigerator (from 45 C to 15 C), but not once it cools below 15C. Therefore B. cereus is a(n)

A

mesophile

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40
Q

which of the following statements about metabolism in prokaryotes is false?

a. anabolic reactions transfer energy to ATP
b. ATP is the link between anabolic and catabolic reactions
c. degradation reactions release energy
d. synthesis reactions use energy

A

A

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41
Q

the substrate in a reaction contacts a specific region of the enzyme molecule called the _______

A

active site

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42
Q

synthesis reactions ______ energy

A

use

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43
Q

degradation reactions ______ energy

A

release

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44
Q

ATP is the link between _______ and catabolic reactions

A

anabolic

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45
Q

what is a cofactor

A

the non-protein component of an enzyme

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46
Q

how many net ATP are produced from fermentation of glucose with ethanol as the fermentation end product

A

2

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47
Q

how many net ATP are produced from the fermentation of glucose with lactic acid as the fermentation end product?

A

2

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48
Q

Desulfovibrio use SO4 (sulfate) as a terminal electron acceptor, reducing it to H2S (hydrogen sulfide). These bacteria are _______

A

anaerobic respiring prokaryotes

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49
Q

which group of organisms would use oxygen as a terminal electron acceptor and utilize an electron transport chain

A

aerobic respirers

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50
Q

fertilizer is typically applied as NO3-, which of the following processes results in the conversion of NO3- to N gas

A

denitrification

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51
Q

the energy generated by catabolic pathways is used

A

to make cellular components
for motility
to transport substances across the cytoplasmic membrane

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52
Q

uses glucose for carbon and energy

A

chemoorganoheterotroph

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53
Q

uses CO2 for carbon and H2 for energy

A

chemolithoautotroph

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54
Q

which of the following is the best definition of fermentation

A

oxidation of glucose with an internal organic molecule serving as the electron acceptor

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55
Q

which of the following is the best definition of glycolysis

A

oxidation of glucose to pyruvate

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56
Q

which of the following is not necessary for respiration

A

oxygen

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57
Q

a strictly fermentative organism produces energy

A

by glycolysis only

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58
Q

which of the following is not an end-product of fermentation

a. lactic acid b. pyruvate
c. ethanol d. CO2

A

pyruvate

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62
Q

sterilization

A

destroys all viable cells, spores, and viruses

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63
Q

antiseptic

A

kill pathogens on living tissue

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64
Q

sanitize

A

lowers number of pathogens on a surface to an acceptable level

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65
Q

disinfectant

A

kill pathogens on inanimate objects

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66
Q

define oxidation-reduction

A

a coupled reaction in which one substance loses electrons and another gains electrons

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67
Q

define aerobic respiration

A

the final electron acceptor is molecular oxygen

68
Q

define anaerobic respiration

A

the final electron acceptor is another inorganic molecule

69
Q

define respiration

A

an ETC is used , the final electron acceptor is usually inorganic

70
Q

define fermentation

A

an ETC is not used

the final electron acceptor is usually organic

71
Q

define cyclic photphosphorylation

A

electrons are returned to chlorophyll

72
Q

define noncyclic photophosphorylation

A

chlorophyll receives electrons from hydrogen atoms

73
Q

why must NADH be reoxidized

A

NAD+ is needed to pick up more electrons

74
Q

How does this happen in an organism that uses repiration? Fermentation? (Why must NADH be reoxidized)

A

NADH is usually reoxidized in respiration

NADH can be reoxidized in fermentation

75
Q

which reaction produces the most molecules of ATP during aerobic metabolism?

A

acetyl CoA –> CO2 + H2O

76
Q

which of the following compounds has the greatest amount of energy for a cell?

A

glucose

77
Q

which of the following is the best definition of the Krebs cycle?

A

a series of chemical reactions in which NADH is produced from the oxidation of pyruvic acid

78
Q

which of the following is the best definition of respiration?

A

a sequence of carrier molecules with an inorganic molecule as the final electron acceptor

79
Q

which culture produces the most lactic acid?

A

E. coli growing in glucose broth at 35 C without O2 for 5 days

80
Q

which culture produces the most ATP

A

E. coli growing in glucose broth at 35 C with O2 for 5 days

81
Q

which culture uses NAD+?

A

E. coli growing in glucose broth at 35 C with and without O2 for five days

82
Q

describe binary fission

A

the cell elongates, and the chromosome replicates. Next the nuclear material is evenly divided. The plasma membrane invaginates toward the center of the cell. The cell wall thickens and grows inward between the membrane invaginations; two new cells result

83
Q

macronutrients are often listed as CHNOPS. What does each of these letters indicate, and why are they needed by the cell?

A

C: carbon - synthesis of molecules that make up a living cell
H: hydrogen - source of electrons and component of organic molecules
N: nitrogen - component of amino acids
O: oxygen - component of organic molecules
P: phosphorous - in phosolipids and nucleic acids
S: sulfur - in some amino acids

84
Q

seven methods of measuring microbial growth are explained in this chapter (6). Categorize each as either a direct or an indirect method.

A

direct methods are those in which the microorganisms are seen and counted. Direct methods are direct microscope count, plate count, filtration, and most probable number.

85
Q

by deep-freezing, bacteria can be stored without harm for extended periods. Why do refrigeration and freezing preserve foods?

A

the growth rate of bacteria slows down with decreasing temperatures. Mesophilic bacteria will grow slowly at refrigeration temps and will remain domain in a freezer. Bacteria will not spoil food quickly in a refrigerator

86
Q

nitrogen and phosphorous added to beaches following an oil spill encourage the growth of natural oil-degrading bacteria. Explain why the bacteria do not grow if nitrogen and phosphorous are not added.

A

petroleum can meet the carbon and energy requirements for an oil-degrading bacterium however nitrogen and phosphate are usually not available in large quantities. Nitrogen and phosphorous are essential for making proteins, phospholipids, nucleic acids, and ATP

87
Q

differentiate complex and chemically defined media

A

a chemically defined medium is one in which the exact chemical composition is known

a complex medium is one in which the exact chemical composition is not known

88
Q

the term trace elements refers to

A

small mineral requirements

89
Q

which one of the following temperatures would most likely kill a mesophile

A

60 C

90
Q

which of the following types of media would not be used to culture aerobes

a. selective
b. reducing
c. enrichment
d. differential
e. complex

A

reducing media

91
Q

an organism that has peroxidase and superoxide dismutase but lacks catalase is most likely an

A

aerotolerant anaerobe

92
Q

catabolism

A

chemical reactions that result in the breakdown of more complex organic molecules into simpler substances

93
Q

catabolic reactions ________ energy

A

release

94
Q

anabolism

A

chemical reactions in which similar substances are combined to form more complex molecules

95
Q

anabolic reactions__________ energy

A

use

96
Q

the energy of catabolic reactions is used to drive _______ reactions

A

anabolic

97
Q

the energy for chemical reactions is stored in _______

A

ATP

98
Q

enzymes are generally _____ proteins

A

globular

99
Q

most enzymes are __________, consisting of a protein portion and a nonprotein portion

A

holoenzymes

100
Q

protein portion

A

apoenzyme

101
Q

nonprotein portion

A

cofactor

102
Q

at high temperatures, enzymes undergo ________ and lose their catalytic properties

A

denaturation

103
Q

optimum pH

A

the pH at which enzymatic activity is maximal

104
Q

enzymatic activity increases as substrate concentration _______ until the enzymes are saturated

A

increases

105
Q

oxidation

A

the removal of one or more electrons from a substrate

protons (H+) are often removed with the electrons

106
Q

reduction

A

gain of one or more electrons

107
Q

NAD+ is the _______ form

A

oxidized

108
Q

NADH is the ________ form

A

reduced

109
Q

glucose is a ______ molecule

A

reduced

110
Q

addition of a Pi to a molecule is called ________

A

phosphorylation

111
Q

most of a cell’s energy is produced from the ________ of carbohydrates

A

oxidation

112
Q

________ is the most commonly used carbohydrate

A

glucose

113
Q

the two major types of glucose catabolism are _______ and fermentation

A

respiration

114
Q

respiration

A

glucose is completely broken down

115
Q

fermentation

A

glucose is partially broken down

116
Q

the most common pathway for the oxidation of glucose is _______

A

glycolysis

117
Q

______ is the end-product of glycolysis

A

pyruvic

118
Q

_____ ATP and 2 NADH molecules are produced from one glucose molecule

A

2

119
Q

during respiration, ________ are oxidized

A

organic molecules

120
Q

in aerobic respiration, _____ functions as the final electron acceptor

A

O2

121
Q

in anaerobic respiration, the final electron acceptor is usually an _______ molecule other than O2

A

inorganic molecule

122
Q

fermentation ______ energy from sugars or other organic molecules by ________

A

releases

oxidation

123
Q

______ is not required in fermentation

A

O2

124
Q

electrons removed from the substrate _______ NAD+ (fermentation)

A

reduce

125
Q

fermentation: the final electron acceptor is an ________ molecule

A

organic

126
Q

in lactic acid fermentation, ________ is reduced by NADH to lactic acid

A

pyruvic acid

127
Q

_______ hydrolyze lipids into glycerol and fatty acids

A

lipases

128
Q

fatty acids and other hydrocarbons are catabolized by ________

A

oxidation

129
Q

catabolic products can be further broken down in glycolysis and ________

A

Krebs cycle

130
Q

photosynthesis

A

the conversion of light energy from the sun into chemical energy; the chemical energy is used for carbon fixation

131
Q

in cyclic phosphorylation, the electrons return to the ________

A

chlorophyll

132
Q

in oxidation-reduction reactions, energy is derived from the _______ of electrons

A

transfer

133
Q

to produce energy, a cell needs an _________

A

electron donor, a system of electron carriers, and a final electron acceptor

134
Q

photoautotrophs

A

obtain energy by phosphorylation and fix carbon from CO2 via the Calvin-Benson cycle to synthesize organic compounds

135
Q

cyanobacteria are oxygenic _________

A

phototrophs

136
Q

Green bacteria and purple bacteria are anoxygenic _______

A

phototrophs

137
Q

_____________ use inorganic compounds as their energy source and carbon dioxide as their carbon source

A

chemoautotrophs

138
Q

__________ use complex organic molecules as their carbon and energy sources

A

chemoheterotrophs

139
Q

amino acids are required for _______

A

protein biosynthesis

140
Q

psychrophiles

A

cold-loving

141
Q

mesophiles

A

moderate-temperature-loving

142
Q

thermophiles

A

heat-loving

143
Q

optimum growth

A

temperature at which it grows best

144
Q

minimum growth temperature

A

the lowest temperature at which a species will grow

145
Q

maximum growth temperature

A

highest temperature at which growth is possible

146
Q

most bacteria grow best at a pH value between _____ and ____

A

6.5-7.5

147
Q

in a ________ solution, most microbes undergo plasmolysis

A

hypertonic

148
Q

________ can tolerate high salt concentrations

A

halophiles

149
Q

_________ use an organic molecule as their carbon source

A

chemoheterotrophs

150
Q

________ typically use carbon dioxide as their carbon source

A

autotrophs

151
Q

microbes in biofilms are more resistant to ______ than are free-swimming microbes

A

antibiotics

152
Q

generation time

A

the time required for a cell to divide or a population to double

153
Q

bacterial division occurs according to a ______ progression

A

logarithmic

154
Q

during the _______ phase, there is little or no change in the number of cells, but metabolic activity is high

A

lag

155
Q

during the ______ phase, the bacteria multiply at the fastest rate possible under the conditions provided

A

log

156
Q

during the _______ phase, there is an equilibrium between cell division and death

A

stationary

BIO 208 Exam #2 (1 decks)

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