Practice Exam #2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is a type of tissue force up?

A. Brown-Adson
B. Pean
C. Allow
D. Schnidt

A

A. Brown-Adson

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which endoscope is used to visualize the heart and major vessels?

A. Ventriculoscope
B. Bronchoscope
C. Mediastinoscope
D. Angioscope

A

D. Angioscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The goal of the surgical Scrub is to lower the population of which flora to an irreducible minimum?

A. Parasitic
B. Resident
C. Transient
D. Enteric

A

B. Resident

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which needle is used during the bladder suspension procedure for treating stress incontinence in women?

A. Stamey
B. Chiba
C. Dorsey
D. Tru-Cut

A

A. Stamey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which procedure can be performed without making an incision to treat varicose veins?

A. Sclerotherapy
B. Varicocelectomy
C. Vein ligation
D. Vein stripping

A

A. Sclerotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When repairing a direct hernia, the surgeon works within the anatomical triangle formed by the inguinal ligament, inferior epigastric vessels in the lateral border of the rectus abdominis called:

A. Femoral
B. Anterior
C. Hesselbach’s
D. Calot’s

A

C. Hesselbach’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following is the correct postoperative sequence of action completed by the surgical technologist?

  1. Assist with postoperative patient care.
  2. Remove drapes.
  3. Remove down in gloves.
  4. Breakdown sterile set up.
A

B. 2, 3, 1, 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What should be completed before sterile items are opened for the first procedure of the day?

A. Lower temperature in the OR.
B. Wipe down furniture and surfaces.
C. Test, sterilizer and sub sterile room.
D. Test anesthesia machine

A

B. Wipe down furniture and surfaces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Cardiac muscles are controlled by which division of the nervous system?

A. Sympathetic.
B. Somatic.
C. Autonomic.
D. Central.

A

C. Autonomic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Oophor/o is the root word for which of the anatomical structure?

A. Ovary.
B. Uterus.
C. Cervical OS.
D. Fallopian tube.

A

A. Ovary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In which of the following would absorbable suture be contraindicated?

A. Peritoneum.
B. Muscle.
C. Intestinal anastomosis
D. Vascular anastomosis.

A

D. Vascular anastomosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

During a cesarean section, which organ is free from the uterus to prevent injury?

A. Pelvic ligaments.
B. Ureters
C. Fallopian tubes
D. Bladder

A

D. Bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following refers to the absence of pathogens?

A. Pathological.
B. Aseptic.
C. Septic.
D. Nosocomial

A

B. Aseptic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What must be done prior to positioning a patient undergoing a posterior lumbar laminectomy?

A. Attachment of arm boards
B. Padding of knees.
C. Endotracheal intubation.
D. Skin prep.

A

C. Endotracheal intubation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following damages, the mass mastoid air cells, and obstacles of the ear?

A. Ménière’s disease
B. Acoustic neuroma
C. Cholesteatoma
D. Otosclerosis

A

C. Cholesteatoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When placing a wedge needle into a needle holder, the needle should be clamped:

A. 1/3 distance from swaged end of the needle.
B. 1/4 distance from the needlepoint.
C. At the junction of suture and needle.
D. Halfway distance from the needlepoint.

A

A. 1/3 distance from swadged in of needle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which endoscope is used for the removal of foreign bodies from the airway of a pediatric patient?

A. Flexible esophagoscope
B. Flexible broncoscope
C. Rigid esophagoscope
D. Rigid bronchoscope

A

D. Rigid bronchoscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following elements primarily make up the bodies mass?

A. Oxygen, carbon, magnesium, sodium.
B. Oxygen, potassium, hydrogen, sulfur.
C. Oxygen, carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen.
D. Oxygen, carbon, phosphorus, magnesium.

A

C. Oxygen, carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which instrument is used to contract the ribs for suturing purposes?

A. Bailey.
B. Semb
C. Matson
D. Doyen

A

A. Bailey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The largest muscle of the upper calf is the?

A. Tibialis
B. Peroneus
C. Gastrocnemius
D. Quadriceps

A

C. Gastronemius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the length of time when Robbin loses its potency?

A. 30 min
B. 60 min
C. 2 hours
D. 3 hours

A

D. 3 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The function of the small intestine is?

A. Antithesis of vitamins.
B. Absorption of nutrients
C. Production of bacteria.
D. Excretion of bile

A

B. Absorption of nutrients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The teeth are composed primarily of?

A. Dentin
B. Cementum
C. Enamel
D. Pulp

A

A. Dentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The basis for the design of electrical equipment in the OR is:

A. Alternating current.
B. Isolated circuit.
C. Electron theory.
D. Ohm’s law.

A

C. Electron theory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which of the following procedures is performed to decrease gastric secretion?

A. Pyloroplasty
B. Vagotomy
C. Billroth l
D. Gastrostomy

A

B. Vagotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A patient who underwent appendectomy enters the emergency department with severe abdominal pain, constipation, and vomiting. Which of the following is occurring?

A. Cholecystitis
B. Obstruction bowel
C. Diverticulitis
D. Strangulated hernia

A

B. Obstructed bowel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which organ shares the same blood supply with a pancreas it must be removed during a Whipple procedure?

A. Kidney
B. Duodenum
C. Bladder
D. Spleen

A

B. Duodenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

During a cleft palate procedure, which equipment should the surgical technologist be prepared to set up quickly?

A. Drill
B. Microscope
C. Nerve stimulator
D. Saw

A

A. Drill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The muscle that flexes and supinates, the forearm and covers the anterior portion of the upper arm is the:

A. Flexor radialis
B. Biceps brachii
C. Brachioradialis
D. Theres major

A

B. Biceps brachii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A surgeon tells a patient that she has a terminal cancer, but requires prophetic surgery to prevent a bowel obstruction and the patient replies, “this can’t be happening to me” which stage of grief is the patient displaying?

A. Denial
B. Depression
C. Bargaining
D. Anger

A

A. Denial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the purpose of inserting a urinal stent catheter?

A. Monitor urine output.
B. Bypass calculi obstruction.
C. Excise calculi
D. Prevent postoperative hemorrhage.

A

B. Bypass calculi obstruction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which of the following is used to create the trough on the anterior glenoid rim during a bank card procedure?

A. Periosteal elevator
B. Bone cutting forceps
C. Shaver with abrader
D. Reciprocating saw

A

C. Shaver with abrader

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which of the following secretes hydrochloric acid?

A. Parietal cells
B. Salivary glands
C. Pancreas
D. Duodenum

A

A. Parietal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which of the following perioperative diagnostic test would be administered to a patient with a brain injury?

A. EEG
B. EMG
C. SAO2
D. TEE

A

A. EEG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which of the following is a type of frustrated drape?

A. Incise
B. Three-quarter
C. Extremity
D. Split

A

C. Extremity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The walls of the vagina are lined with?

A. Fascia
B. Mucosa
C. Serosa
D. Peritoneum

A

B. Mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which type of scalpel uses electro energy to cut and coagulate tissue?

A. Fulguration
B. Hemostatic
C. Harmonic
D. Plasma

A

C. Harmonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

A Fogarty catheter is used during a/an:

A. Gastrectomy
B. Thoracotomy
C. Embolectomy
D. Craniotomy

A

C. Embolectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which of the following positioning devices is needed when placing the patient in the supine position?

A. Kidney rest
B. Elbow pads
C. Mayfield headrest
D. Beanbag

A

B. Elbow pads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

During a trabeculectomy, which two layers are incised at the beginning of the procedure?

A. Cornea; iris
B. Pupil; lens
C. Conjunctiva; Tenon’s capsule
D. Sclera; retina

A

C. Conjunctiva; Tendon’s capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What instrument sent should the surgical technologies have available in the OR when preparing for an inguinal herniorraphy?

A. Rectal
B. Bowel
C. Vascular
D. Biliary

42
Q

Which of the following is used to obtain specimens during a bronchoscopy?

A. Test tube
B. Suction container
C. Lukens tube
D. 4x4 raytec sponges

A

C. Lukens tube

43
Q

Which structure material would be used in the presence of infection?

A. Polyglycolic acid.
B. Silk
C. Chronic gut
D. Steel

44
Q

Which of the following hernias can result in necrosis of viscera?

A. Irreducible
B. Strangulated
C. Femoral
D. Sliding

A

B. Strangulated

45
Q

When the surgeon makes a McBerney incision, which muscle is encountered first and divided in the direction of its fibers?

A. Transverse abdominis
B. Rectus abdominis
C. Internal oblique
D. External oblique

A

D. External oblique

46
Q

Which of the following maintains the position of the uterus?

A. Suspensory ligament.
B. Levator muscle.
C. Broad ligament.
D. Pubic symphysis

A

C. Broad ligament

47
Q

Transverse colectomy is incised through which incision?

A. Upper midline
B. Oblique
C. Paramedian
D. Thoracoabdominal

A

A. Upper midline

48
Q

Which kind of uterine tissue can grow in abdominal locations, including the ovaries, pelvic peritoneum, and small intestine?

A. Perimentrial
B. Cervical
C. Endometrial
D. Myometrial

A

C. Endometrial

49
Q

Which preoperative diagnostic exam is quickly completed to confirm ectopic pregnancy?

A. Colposcopy
B. Fluoroscopy
C. Ultrasound
D. MRI

A

C. Ultrasound

50
Q

How would you position a patient with an intertrochanteric fracture?

A. Lateral
B. Prone
C. Supine
D. Trendelenburg

51
Q

When repairing a direct hernia, the surgeon works with the anatomical triangle formed by the inguinal ligament, inferior epigastric vessels in the lateral border of the rectus abdominis called:

A. Femoral
B. Anterior
C. Hesselbach’s
D. Calot’s

A

C. Hesselbach’s

52
Q

What position allows optimal exposure of the retroperitoneal area of the flank?

A. Prone
B. Trendelenburg
C. Supine
D. Lateral

A

D. Lateral

53
Q

Which of the following is the correct sequence of instruments for placing a screw into a bone?
1. Depth gauge
2. Drill
3. Screwdriver
4. Tap

A

2, 1, 4, 3

54
Q

The removal of fibrous thickening of the visceral pleura is?

A. Pericardiectomy
B. Poudrage
C. Decortication
D. Segmentectomy

A

C. Decortication

55
Q

The only depolarizing muscle relaxant in clinical use is?

A. Cisatracurium (Nimbex)
B. Vecuronium (Norcuron)
C. Rocuronium (Zemuron)
D. Succinylcholine (Anectine)

A

D. Succinylcholine (Anectine)

56
Q

What type of hernia involves a direct and indirect inguinal hernia?

A. Reducible
B. Umbilical
C. Epigastric
D. Pantaloon

A

D. Pantaloon

57
Q

How are the legs of the patient position for lateral position?

A. Lower leg straight; upper leg flex
B. Lower leg flexed; upper leg straight
C. Both legs straight.
D. Both legs flexed.

A

B. Lower leg flexed; upper leg straight

58
Q

The neuroglia of the nervous system?

A. Produce CSF
B. Support and bind.
C. Conduct impulses.
D. Initiate reflexes.

A

B. Support and bind.

59
Q

The method of inhalation anesthesia that allows complete re-breathing and expired gases is?

A. Mask inhalation.
B. Closed.
C. Semi closed.
D. Open.

60
Q

Which member of the surgical team is responsible for protecting in un splinted fracture during positioning?

A. Circulator.
B. Surgical technologist preceptor.
C. Surgeon.
D. Anesthesia provider.

A

C. Surgeon

61
Q

What personal protective equipment should the surgical technologies Dan prior to the start of an extrocorporeal shockwave lithotripsy procedure?

A. Fluid proof apron.
B. Eye protect protection.
C. Non-Sterile gloves.
D. Lead apron.

A

D. Lead apron

62
Q

Another name for tonsil suction is?

A. Poole
B. Baron.
C. Frazier
D. Yankauer

A

D. Yankauer

63
Q

Which muscles relax when a small pad is placed under a patient’s head in the supine position?

A. Cremaster
B. Deltoid
C. Strap
D. Pyramidal

64
Q

When a medication or local anesthetic is passed to the surgeon, the surgical technology should?

A. Show the surgeon the medicine bottle.
B. State how much the medication the circular dispensed.
C. Hand surgeon with cap on the needle for safety.
D. State the name and the dosage of the medication.

A

D. State the name and the dosage of the medication.

65
Q

A type of bone holding force is?

A. Dingman.
B. Langenbeck
C. Smilie
D. Slocum

A

A. Dingman

66
Q

According to OSHA standards, protective eyewear of some form must be worn?

A

D. On all cases

67
Q

Which pathological condition of the small intestine could be misdiagnosed as acute appendicitis?

A. Gastritis.
B. Carcinoma
C. Crohn’s disease.
D. Meckel’s diverticulum

A

D. Meckel’s diverticulum

68
Q

Which piece of equipment is required for an administration of a bier block?

A. Pulse oximeter.
B. Pain control anesthesia pump.
C. Double cups tourniquet.
D. Electrosurgical unit.

A

C. Double cuffed tourniquet.

69
Q

Which sub category of drug preparation is a combination of two liquids that cannot mix?

A. Solution
B. Emulsion
C. Suspension
D. Semisolid

A

B. Emulsion

70
Q

What is the average normal respiration rate for children?

A. 10-17
B. 18 to 30.
C. 30 to 40.
D. 40 to 50

A

B. 18 to 30.

71
Q

The introduction of radio peg contrast medium into an artery or vein is called a/N?

A. Ultrasonography.
B. Angiography
C. Cholangiography.
D. Echocardiography.

A

B. Angiography.

72
Q

What anatomical structure must be approximated after a ectomy to prevent herniation of abdominal contents?

A. Omentum.
B. Pylorus.
C. Mesentery
D. Jejunum

A

C. Mesentery

73
Q

To prevent density, instrument sets should not exceed?

A. 15 pounds.
B. 20 pounds.
C. 25 pounds.
D. 10 pounds.

A

C. 25 pounds

74
Q

When surgically treating hydrocephalus, where is the shunt placed?

A. Third ventricle.
B. Lateral ventricle.
C. Aquatic of Sylvius.
D. Foreman of Monro

A

B. Lateral ventricle.

75
Q

Which of the following is the type of uterine fibroid?

A. Endometrium.
B. Cystocele.
C. Leiomyoma
D. Rectrocele

A

C. Leiomyoma

76
Q

The yarders enter the bladder medially?

A. At the distal aspect
B. At the superior aspect.
C. From the posterior aspect.
D. From the anterior aspect.

A

C. From the posterior aspect.

77
Q

The pathogen that most often causes postoperative surgical site infections is?

A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Escherichia coli
C. Candida albicans
D. Staphylococcus aureus

A

D. Staphylococcus aureus

78
Q

Which organ is the most frequent injured during a motor vehicle accident?

A. Spleen.
B. Liver
C. Kidney.
D. Heart.

79
Q

Where would the surgical technologist find potent information for pulling a case?

A. Laboratory reports.
B. Surgical consent.
C. Preference card.
D. Hospital medical records.

A

C. Preference card.

80
Q

Suture material that becomes encapsulated by fibrous tissue during the healing stage is?

A. Multi filament.
B. Fascia lata.
C. Ligatures.
D. Nonabsorbable.

A

D. Nonabsorbable.

81
Q

If a Mento plasty is being performed, the surgical technologist should confirm a prosthesis is available for the?

A. phagocytosis
B. Filtration.
C. Pinocytosis.
D. Osmosis.

A

A. Phagocytosis.

82
Q

Which nerve could be damaged when a patient is placed in Fowler’s position?

A. Ulnar
B. Femoral
C. Brachial
D. Sciatic

A

D. Sciatic

83
Q

What is the correct order for donning OR attire?

A. Scrub suit.
B. Shoe covers
C. Hair cover.
D. Mask.

A

3, 1, 4, 2

84
Q

The cranial nerve responsible for hearing and balance is the?

A. V
B. VIII
C. XI
D. XII

85
Q

Which of the following is not a hemostatic agent used in orthopedic surgery?

A. Bone wax.
B. Gelfoam.
C. Xeroform.
D. Thrombin

A

C. Xeroform

86
Q

Which of the following is responsible for discriminating intravascular coagulation?

A. Endotoxin.
B. Exotoxin.
C. Neurotoxin.
D. Enterotoxin

A

A. Endotoxin

87
Q

The copper wire in the electrosurgical unit that allows the flow of free electrons is called the?

A. Resistor
B. Ground wire
C. Conductor
D. Insulator

A

C. Conductor

88
Q

At the end of a procedure, the surgeon asked for the local anesthetic to inject intro articular. Where is the surgeon injecting the local drug?

A. Subcutaneous.
B. Dermal.
C. With joint.
D. Intravenous.

A

C. With joint

89
Q

Which preoperative diagnostic test is useful in diabetic patients with small vessel, arterial disease?

A. Plethysmography
B. Echocardiography
C. Capnography
D. Isotope scanning

A

A. Plethysmography

90
Q

Which of the following is the most effective method for sterilizing items that can be damaged by steam sterilization??

A. Plasma sterilization.
B. Ethylene oxide.
C. Glutaraldehyde
D. Practice acid

A

B. Ethylene oxide

91
Q

The mandible articulates with which bone?

A. Ethmoid.
B. Maxillae
C. Temporal
D. Zygomatic

A

C. Temporal

92
Q

What could result from crossing the patient’s arms across his/her chest in the supine position?

A. Interference with circulation.
B. Interference with respiration.
C. Postoperative discomfort.
D. Pressure on the median nerve.

A

B. Interference with respiration.

93
Q

Which of the following is correct from preparing a paper plastic peel pack?

A. Ring handles of clamps are placed at end.
B. Instruments are held together with autoclave tape within the peel pack.
C. End of peel pack is sealed with autoclave tape.
D. Inner peel pack of a double peel pack is not sealed.

A

B. Instruments are held together within autoclave tape within the peel pack.

94
Q

Which of the following degree in Celsius equals 98.6°F?

A. 34.
B. 37.
C. 30.
D. 40.

95
Q

When the surgical tech technologies is preparing surgical instruments for transport to the decontamination room, which statement is correct?

A. Instruments with multiple parts should be assembled.
B. In instruments with ratchets should be unratcheted.
C. String instruments with ring handles.
D. Heavy instrument should be placed on tray bottom

A

A. Instruments with multiple parts should be assembled.

96
Q

If a short bone is being removed from the wrist due to arthritis, what is being removed?

A. Carpal
B. Rib
C. Tibia
D . Patella

97
Q

Which of the following heals by contraction, granulation and connective tissue?

A. Primary union.
B. Delayed closure.
C. Maturation
D. Proliferation

A

B. Delayed closure

98
Q

Before transporting instruments to the decontamination room, what should the surgical technologies complete?

A. Confirm instruments are dry.
B. Pre-soak instruments in detergent solution.
C. Wipe off instruments with towel.
D. Rinse instruments with saline.

A

B. Pre-soak instruments and detergent solution.

99
Q

Which solution is best for pre-soaking instruments in the OR at the end of the procedure?

A. Iodine based.
B. Sterile water.
C. Enzyme.
D. Celine.

100
Q

A mesh that is contradicted in the presence of infection is?

A. Viral.
B. Stain stainless steel.
C. Proline.
D. PTFE