Practice Exam Flashcards
Which devices would be more effective in detecting an intrusion into a network?
* HIDS
* Routers
* NIDS
* Firewalls
C. NIDS
Network intrusion detection systems (NIDS) are network devices that detect malicious traffic on a network. Host intrusion detection systems (HIDS) are applications that monitor computer systems for intrusion. Typically, HIDS are not concerned with network devices. A firewall is a device that filters incoming Internet traffic. Routers receive and forward traffic, but (typically) do not analyze it.
Which devices have the PRIMARY objective of collecting and analyzing security events?
* SIEM
* Firewalls
* Routers
* Hubs
A. SIEM
A Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system is an application that gathers security data from information system components and presents actionable information through a unified interface. Routers and Hubs aim to receive and forward traffic. Firewalls filter incoming traffic. Neither of these last three options aims at collecting and analyzing security events.
Which type of key can be used to both encrypt and decrypt the same message?
* An asymmetric key
* A symmetric key
* A private key
* A public key
B. A symmetric key
Symmetric-key algorithms are a class of cryptographic algorithms that use a single key for both encrypting and decrypting of data. Asymmetric cryptography uses pairs of related keys: the public and the corresponding private keys. A message encrypted with the public key can only be decrypted by its corresponding private key, and vice versa. The term ‘asymmetric key’ is not applicable here.
With respect to risk management, which of the following options should be prioritized?
* The expected probability of occurrence is high, and the potential impact is low
* The frequency of occurrence is high, and the expected impact value is low
* The expected probability of occurrence is low, and the potential impact is low
* The frequency of occurrence is low, and the expected impact value is high
D. The frequency of occurrence is low, and the expected impact value is high
The highest priority should be given to risks estimated to high impact and low probability over high probability and low impact value (ISC2 Study Guide, Chapter 1, Module 2). In qualitative risk analysis, the ‘expected probability of occurrence’ and the ‘frequency of occurrence’ refer to the same thing. The same goes for the concepts of expected impact value (NIST SP 800-30 Rev. 1 under Impact Value) and potential impact (NIST SP 800-60 Vol. 1 Rev. 1 under Potential Impact).
A web server that accepts requests from external clients should be placed in which network?
* Internal Network
* VPN
* Intranet
* DMZ
D. DMZ
In Cybersecurity, a DMZ (demilitarized zone) is a physical or logical subnetwork that contains and exposes external-facing services (such as web services). An Internal Network is an organization-controlled network that is isolated from external access. An Intranet is itself an internal network that supports similar protocols and services to the Internet, but only for the organization’s internal use. A Virtual Private Network (VPN) creates a secure tunnel between endpoints (whether between networks, or between networks and devices), allowing traffic to travel through a public network and creating the illusion that endpoints are connected through a dedicated private connection.
In order to find out whether personal tablet devices are allowed in the office, which of the following policies would be helpful to read?
* Privacy Policy
* Change Management Policy
* AUP
* BYOD
D. BYOD
The Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) policy establishes rules for using personal devices for work-related activities. The Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) defines the permissions and limitations that users must agree to while accessing the network and using computer systems or any other organizational resources. The Privacy Policy (PP) outlines the data security mechanisms that protect customer data. In the context of Cybersecurity, a Change Management Policy (CMP) establishes the use of standardized methods to enable IT and process change while minimizing the disruption of services, reducing back-out, and ensuring clear communication with all of the stakeholders in the organization.
Security posters are an element PRIMARILY employed in: (★)
* Incident Response Plans
* Business Continuity Plans
* Security Awareness
* Physical Security Controls
C. Security Awareness
Security posters are used to raise the awareness of employees regarding security threats, and thus are primarily employed in Security Awareness (see ISC2 Study Guide, chapter 5, module 4).
Which access control model can grant access to a given object based on complex rules?
* MAC
* ABAC
* RBAC
* DAC
B. ABAC (Attribute Based Access Control)
ABAC is an access control model that controls access to objects using rules that are evaluated according to the attributes of the subject, relevant objects, and attributes of the environment and action. The RBAC and MAC models are based on more straightforward and relatively less flexible rule systems, which are evaluated
Which type of attack will most effectively provide privileged access (root access in Unix/Linux platforms) to a computer while hiding its presence?
* Phishing
* Cross-Site Scripting
* Trojans
* Rootkits
D. Rootkits
A rootkit tries to maintain root-level access while concealing malicious activity. It typically creates a backdoor and attempts to remain undetected by anti-malware software. A rootkit is active while the system is running. Trojans can also create backdoors but are only active while a specific application is running, and thus are not as effective as a rootkit. Phishing is used to initiate attacks by redirecting the user to fake websites. Cross-Site Scripting is used to attack websites.
Which cloud deployment model is suited to companies with similar needs and concerns?
* Community cloud
* Hybrid cloud
* Multi-tenant
* Private cloud
A. Community Cloud
The correct answer is B. Community cloud deployment models are where several organizations with similar needs and concerns (technological or regulatory) share the infrastructure and resources of a cloud environment. This model is attractive because it is cost-effective while addressing the specific requirements of the participating organizations.
A private cloud is a cloud computing model where the cloud infrastructure is dedicated to a single organization (and never shared with others). A hybrid cloud is a model that combines (i.e. orchestrates) on-premises infrastructure, private cloud services, and a public cloud to handle storage and service. Finally, multitenancy refers to a cloud architecture where multiple cloud tenants (organizations or users) share the same computing resources. Yet, while resources are shared, each tenant’s data is isolated and remains invisible to other tenants.
Which protocol uses a three-way handshake to establish a reliable connection?
* SMTP
* SNMP
* UDP
* TCP
D. TCP
TCP uses a three-way handshake to establish a reliable connection by exchanging three packets with theSYN, SYN/ACK, and ACK flags. SMTP uses a two-way handshake. Neither UDP nor SNMP require a handshake phase.
Which physical access control would be MOST effective against tailgating?
* Turnstiles
* Locks
* Barriers
* Fences
A. Turnstiles
Turnstiles are designed to allow only one person through at a time, making them the most effective physical access control against tailgating. Tailgating occurs when an unauthorized person follows an authorized person into a secured area.
For example, consider a secure corporate office that uses a turnstile at the main entrance. Each employee has a unique badge. When the card is swiped, the turnstile allows one person through. If another person tries to follow (or bypass) without swiping the card, the turnstile remains locked, effectively preventing unauthorized access.
The other options are not as effective against tailgating. Fences and barriers are wrong because while they can restrict access to an area, they do not prevent tailgating once an authorized person opens a gate or barrier. Locks are also incorrect because, like fences and barriers, they can secure an area but do not prevent tailgating. Once an authorized person unlocks a door, an unauthorized person can easily follow them inside.
An exploitable weakness or flaw in a system or component is a:
* Bug
* Vulnerability
* Risk
* Threat
B. Vulnerability
A Vulnerability is a weakness in an information system, system security procedures, internal controls or implementation that could be exploited by a Threat source (NIST SP 800-30 Rev 1). The Threat is the circumstance or event that can adversely impact operations. A Risk is a possible event that can negatively impact the organization. A Bug is a flaw causing an application to produce an unintended or unexpected result that may be exploitable.
How many data labels are considered manageable?
* 1
* 2 – 3
* 1 – 2
* > 4
B. 2-3
According to data handling and labeling best practices, two or three classifications for data are typically considered manageable for most organizations. In fact, in the ISC2 Study Guide, Chapter 5, Module 1, under Data Handling Practices in Labeling, we read that “two or three classifications are manageable, but more than four tend to be challenging to manage. These classifications could be labels such as Public, Confidential, and Restricted, each representing a different level of data sensitivity.
For example, in a healthcare organization, patient health information might be labeled “Confidential,” while general health advice published on the organization’s Web site might be labeled “Public. This labeling system allows the organization to easily identify and manage data based on its sensitivity level, ensuring that appropriate security measures are in place for each classification.
The principle is that labeling data based on its sensitivity level should be based on a limited, unambiguous set of labels that correspond to different levels of data sensitivity. The key is to have a system that differentiates data sensitivity levels without being overly complex to implement and maintain. Some organizations need more granularity in their data classification, while others are fine with a simpler system. However, having more than four labels (“>4”) can make the system overly complex and difficult to manage, increasing the risk of misclassification and potential data breaches.
Which of the following documents contains elements that are NOT mandatory?
* Regulations
* Procedures
* Policies
* Guidelines
D. Guidelines
Only guidelines contain elements that may not be mandatory. Compliance with policies, procedures and regulations is mandatory (see ISC2 Study Guide Chapter 1, Module 4).
The implementation of Security Controls is a form of:
* Risk reduction
* Risk avoidance
* Risk transference
* Risk acceptance
A. Risk Reduction
The implementation of Security Controls involves taking actions to mitigate risk, and thus is a form of risk reduction. Risk acceptance will take no action, risk avoidance will modify operations in order to avoid risk entirely, and risk transference will transfer the risk to another party.
How many layers does the OSI model have?
* 4
* 5
* 6
* 7
D. 7
The OSI model organizes communicating systems according to 7 layers: Physical layer, Data Link layer, Network layer, Transport layer, Session layer, Presentation layer, and Application layer (see Chapter 4 - Module 1 under Open Systems Interconnection).
An entity that acts to exploit a target organization’s system vulnerabilities is a:
* Attacker
* Threat Actor
* Threat Vector
* Threat
B. Threat Actor
A Threat Actor is defined as an individual or a group posing a threat (according to NIST SP 800-150 under Threat Actor). A Threat Vector is a means by which a Threat Actor gains access to systems (for example: phishing, trojans, baiting, etc.). An Attacker is always an individual, but a Threat Actor can be either a group or an entity. A Threat is a circumstance or event that can adversely impact organizational operations that a Threat Actor can potentially explore through a Threat Vector.
The last phase in the data security cycle is:
* Archival
* Backup
* Destruction
* Encryption
C. Destruction
According to the data security lifecycle model, the last phase is Data Destruction, which aims at guaranteeing that data contained in a given support is erased and destroyed in a way that renders it completely irrecoverable by any means (see ISC2 Study Guide, chapter 5, module 1, under Data Handling). Archival refers to the process whereby an organization creates a long-term data archive for compliance, storage reduction or business intelligence. A Backup is a copy of files and programs created to facilitate recovery. Encryption is the cryptographic transformation of data with the purpose of concealing its original meaning, and is not a phase of the data security lifecycle.
A best practice of patch management is to:
* Apply all patches as quickly as possible
* Test patches before applying them
* Apply patches every Wednesday
* Apply patches according to the vendor’s reputation
B. Test patches before applying them
Patches sometimes disrupt a system’s configurations and stability. One of the main challenges for security professionals is to ensure that patches are deployed as quickly as possible, while simultaneously ensuring the stability of running systems. To prevent flawed patches from negatively affecting running systems, it is good practice to test patches in a designated qualification environment before applying them to production systems (see ISC2 Study Guide, chapter 5, module 2 under Configuration Management Overview). Applying patches as quickly as possible is not a good practice. The vendor’s reputation can be useful to know, but is not in itself sufficient to qualify the patch. Applying patches on fixed days also does not guarantee the stability of functioning systems after the patch is applied.
Governments can impose financial penalties as a consequence of breaking a:
* Procedure
* Policy
* Regulation
* Standard
C. Regulation
Standards are created by governing or professional bodies (not by governments themselves). Policies and procedures are created by organizations, and are therefore not subject to financial penalties (see ISC2 Study Guide Chapter 1, Module 4)
Which port is used to secure communication over the web (HTTPS)?
* 80
* 25
* 69
* 443
D. 443
All options show examples of logical communication ports. Port 80 is reserved for plain HTTP connections, port 69 for TFTP protocol; and port 25 for SMTP protocol. Port 443 is the one reserved for HTTPS connections.
A device found not to comply with the security baseline should be:
* Disabled or isolated into a quarantine area until it can be checked and updated
* Placed in a demilitarized zone (DMZ) until it can be reviewed and updated
* Marked as potentially vulnerable and placed in a quarantine area
* Disabled or separated into a quarantine area until a virus scan can be run
A. Disabled or isolated into a quarantine area until it can be checked and updated
Security baselines are used to guarantee that network devices, software, hardware and endpoints are configured consistently. Baselines ensure that all such devices comply with the security baseline set by the organization. Whenever a device is found not compliant with the security baseline, it may be disabled or isolated into a quarantine area until it can be checked and updated (see ISC2 Study Guide, chapter 5, module 2, under Configuration Management Overview). A DMZ is a protected boundary network between external and internal networks. Systems accessible directly from the Internet are permanently connected in this network, where they are protected by a firewall
Which of the following attacks take advantage of poor input validation in websites?
* Trojans
* Cross-Site Scripting
* Phishing
* Rootkits
B. Cross-Site Scripting
Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) is a type of attack where malicious executable scripts are injected into the code of an otherwise benign website (or web application). Websites are vulnerable to XSS when they display data originating from requests or forms without validating it (and further sanitizing it, so that it is not executable). Trojans and phishing are attacks where software applications and messages try to appear legitimate but have hidden malicious functions, not necessarily relying on poor input validations. Finally, input validation does not even apply to a rootkit attack.