Practice Exam 1

Question 1

Although conclusions will vary across different studies, which of the following statements is most supported by the overall body of research on therapy outcome for African-American and Caucasian patients?

a. There is no significant difference in outcome between African-American and Caucasian patients.
b. African-American patients have better outcomes overall than Caucasian patients.
c. Caucasian patients have better outcomes overall than African-American patients.
d. Treatment outcomes for African-American patients are better but only when the therapist is also African-American.

Answer 1

a. There is no significant difference in outcome between African-American and Caucasian patients.

Questions like these are difficult to answer, because research in this area is contradictory, and the issue is not resolved. Research has clearly identified a number of variables that potentially interact with race in influencing therapy outcome. For instance, African-American patients tend to have poorer outcomes when working with therapists who are insensitive to or unknowledgeable about racial or cultural issues. There are also studies that show that African-Americans are more likely to terminate therapy prematurely than Caucasians, and even a few studies which show they are likely to have poorer outcomes. However, the bulk of the literature and thinking on this issue supports the notion that race, in and of itself, is not a good predictor of therapy outcome.

Question 2

Stimulus A is paired with stimulus B. Stimulus B is then paired with stimulus C until stimulus C elicits the same response that was elicited by stimulus A. This is an example of:

a. chaining
b. shaping
c. secondary reinforcement
d. higher-order conditioning

Answer 2

d. higher order conditioning

Higher-order conditioning is a classical conditioning procedure in which two stimuli (CS and US) are paired until the conditioned stimulus (CS) produces the conditioned response (CR) and then the CS (which is now referred to as a US) is paired with another CS to elicit the same response. All of the other choices in this question are operant conditioning terms.

Operant conditioning involves behaviors and the consequences that follow, rather than the pairing of stimuli. Chaining (A) is the operant procedure that enables complex behaviors to develop through reinforcement of a sequence of simple behaviors. That is, Behavior A is followed by a reinforcer, which serves as a discriminative stimulus for Behavior B, which is followed by a reinforcer, and so on. Shaping (B) involves reinforcing successive approximations of a desired behavior

Question 3

Recent longitudinal studies investigating the relationship between menopause and psychological well-being have suggested that:

a. women experiencing menopause are more likely to report significant depression than pre-menopausal or post-menopausal women.
b. post-menopausal women are likely to have higher general levels of psychological well-being than either pre-menopausal women or women in the midst of menopause.
c. pre-menopausal are likely to have higher general levels of psychological well-being than either post-menopausal women or women in the midst of menopause.
d. there is no evidence that menopause is linked to either depression or psychological well-being.

Answer 3

d. there is no evidence that menopause is linked to either depression or psychological well-being.

Choice D describes the results of a longitudinal study published in 1994. Though the study did not concern itself with short-term mood swings that may be caused by the menopausal transition, it did suggest that menopause does not have any effect on long-term psychological functioning.

Question 4

Transactional leaders who wait for mistakes to be brought to their attention before taking corrective action are engaging in:

a. corrective transactions
b. contingent rewarding
c. passive management-by-exception
d. active management-by-exception

Answer 4

c. passive management-by-exception

Transactional leadership, in its simplest form, is leadership by contingent reinforcement. The leaders’ rewards, promises and/or threats of disciplinary actions or punishments motivate the followers. In constructive transactions, the leader may participate in discussing what is to be done in exchange for implicit or explicit rewards and the allocation of desired resources, or they give out assignments, negotiate or contract with followers. The actions of the leader are contingent on whether the followers do what they have been “contracted” to do. Leaders that take corrective action with negative feedback or reprimand only after followers’ mistakes have been called to their attention are engaging in passive management-by-exception.

In corrective transactions (a.) or contingent rewarding (b.), leaders engage in active management-by-exception (d.) which means they monitor followers’ performance and correct their mistakes if and when they occur.

Question 5

Holland’s approach to vocational guidance is based on the assumption that:

a. interests motivate occupational choice
b. behavior is a function of personality-environment congruence
c. job satisfaction and performance are related to a match between aptitude and job requirements
d. interests change in a predictable way over the course of the lifespan

Answer 5

b. behavior is a function of personality-environment congruence

Holland’s six occupational themes represent both personality and environment types. According to Holland, job satisfaction, productivity, and other behaviors are affected by the congruence or fit between a person’s personality and the nature of the work environment.

Question 6

You see a substance abuser who has been referred to therapy as a condition of probation. The man tells you that he is seeking therapy only to avoid jail time and that he does not think he needs therapy. Regarding informed consent in this situation, which of the following statements is true?

a. You don’t have to get informed consent because the judge ordered treatment.
b. You don’t have to obtain informed consent because convicted criminals don’t have the right to refuse treatment.
c. You don’t have to obtain informed consent because there’s no way that consent can truly be informed in this situation.
d. You cannot treat the patient unless you obtain his informed consent.

Answer 6

d. You cannot treat the patient unless you obtain his informed consent.

In working with court-referred patients, psychologists must obtain informed consent from the patients before proceeding. This may seem ridiculous, since many court-referred clients face serious consequences if they don’t comply with the court’s recommendation to seek therapy. However, in court-referred cases, the client could, theoretically, at least, decline treatment and choose jail time or other consequences instead.

By contrast, in court-ordered evaluation or treatment, there is no need to get informed consent because the client is mandated by law to participate. However, in such cases, psychologists have other obligations, such as informing the client of the limits to confidentiality.

Question 7

A person’s reactions to stress are most negative when the stress is unexpected. Moreover, a person’s reactions are most affected by:

a. his or her actual capacity to cope with the stress.
b. his or her beliefs regarding his or her ability to cope with the stress.
c. the total number of stressors.
d. the actual availability of adequate social support.

Answer 7

b. his or her beliefs regarding his or her ability to cope with the stress.

It is a person’s perception of control or ability to cope that determines his or her response to stress. When a person believes he or she has no control over the situation or does not have the necessary coping mechanisms, stress will have a more detrimental effect.

Question 8

Which of the following is an example of assimilation?

a. Arranging flowers in a vase
b. Changing your clothes to please your spouse
c. Calling the daisies and ferns arranged in a vase “posies”
d. Putting on a coat in the winter

Answer 8

c. Calling the daisies and ferns arranged in a vase “posies”

Assimilation is when a child incorporates and interprets new information in terms of his or her existing schema.

Question 9

A three-year-old sees a tree with droopy leaves and tells her father that the tree is “tired.” This is an example of:

a. magical thinking
b. animistic thinking
c. egocentricity
d. centration

Answer 9

b. animistic thinking

All of the responses are factors in Piaget’s pre-operational stage. Animistic thinking is believing that objects, like the tree with droopy leaves, have life-like qualities such as thoughts and feelings.

Magical thinking is believing one has control over objects or events. Egocentricity is believing that others experience the world in the same way and centration refers to the tendency to focus on one detail while neglecting others.

Question 10

Alzheimer’s is related to an under production of:

a. serotonin
b. GABA
c. Acetylcholine
d. Glutamate

Answer 10

c. Acetylcholine

Acetylcholine plays a role in learning and memory. Loss of acetylcholine receptors in the cortex and hippocampus occur in Alzheimer’s disease.

Question 11

According to recent meta-analyses of child psychotherapy outcome studies, which of the following statements is most true?

a. There are no differences between the effectiveness of behavioral and non-behavioral interventions in the treatment of children.
b. Girls respond better to psychotherapy than boys, with adolescent girls responding best.
c. Girls respond better to psychotherapy than boys, with younger girls responding best.
d. At all age levels, boys respond better to psychotherapy than girls.

Answer 11

b. Girls respond better to psychotherapy than boys, with adolescent girls responding best.

This is one of the many areas where the results of research are contradictory and somewhat controversial. However, the most recent meta-analyses of research in this area have found that across treatment approaches, girls respond better than boys, with adolescent girls responding best of all. This is somewhat contradictory to earlier research, which found that younger children respond better than older children.

Because the findings of research sometimes contradict each other, it can be frustrating to decide which is the best answer to questions such as these. Of course, you’d want to find an answer that is consistent (or not inconsistent, at least) with the results of all the research. However, if such a response is not available, you should go with the results of more recent research.

Question 12

When random assignment of subjects to groups is not possible, researchers use:

a. Experimental design
b. Quasi-experimental design
c. Developmental research
d. Longitudinal research

Answer 12

b. Quasi-experimental design

Quasi-experimental designs are used when random assignment of subjects to groups is not possible. In true experimental design the investigator randomly assigns subjects to different groups which receive different levels of the manipulated variable.

Developmental research involves assessing variables as a function of time. A type of developmental research is longitudinal–in these studies the same people are studied over a long period of time.

Question 13

According to Huesmann et al. (2003), the long-term effects of TV violence on children growing up in the 1970-80’s, indicate childhood exposure to media violence:

a. predicts young adult aggressive behavior only for males
b. predicts young adult aggressive behavior for males and females
c. predicts young adult aggressive behavior only for males with low social economic status or intellectual ability
d. predicts young adult aggressive behavior only for males and females with low social economic status or intellectual ability

Answer 13

b. predicts young adult aggressive behavior for males and females

Unlike studies on children growing up in the 1960’s, which found aggressive behavior only in males, Huesmann et al. (2003) found childhood exposure to TV violence is stimulating an increase in adult aggression in males and females.

This effect persists even when the effects of socioeconomic status, intellectual ability, and a variety of parenting factors are controlled. More childhood exposure to TV violence, greater childhood identification with same-sex aggressive TV characters, and a stronger childhood belief that violent shows tell about life “just like it is” predicted more adult aggression regardless of the initial aggressiveness of the child.

Question 14

In most species of animals the differences between males and females in body size and shape is referred to as:

a. androgyny
b. sexual bifurcation
c. gender dichotomy
d. sexual dimorphism

Answer 14

d. sexual dimorphism

The term “sexual dimorphism” may be new to you, but now you know that it refers to any consistent differences between males and females in size or shape. Sexual dimorphism enables animals to readily identify males and females of their species, which serves to facilitate mating.

Question 15

The cortex is the least developed part of the brain at birth. Subsequent development is due primarily to:

a. the growth of new neurons

b the growth of new neurons and glial cells.

c. increases in the size of existing neurons.
d. myelination of existing neurons.

Answer 15

d. myelination of existing neurons.

Nearly all of the neurons are present at birth, and continued development of the brain following birth is due primarily to an increased number of dendrites and myelination of the existing neurons.

Question 16

The symptoms of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder can be alleviated through cognitive-behavioral treatments and medication interventions that reduce activity in the:

a. reticular activating system.
b. inferior colliculus.
c. caudate nucleus.
d. locus coeruleus.

Answer 16

c. caudate nucleus

The caudate nucleus appears to be overactive in people diagnosed with OCD. L.R. Baxter reports that both behavioral interventions and drug therapy affect metabolic rate in the caudate nucleus.

The reticular activating system (answer A) is involved in attention and arousal. The inferior colliculus (answer B), controls auditory reflexes, and the locus coeruleus (answer D) may be associated with Depression and Panic Disorder.

Question 17

A psychologist receives a request for information about treatment for a patient from the patient’s insurance carrier. The request for a treatment report includes the appropriate signed authorization from the patient. The psychologist should:

a. not provide the information because this is still an unsettled issue.
b. provide only the dates of service and the diagnosis.
c. refuse the request unless the patient himself or herself asks that it be sent.
d. provide the information requested.

Answer 17

d. provide the information requested

This ethics question will have some of you stumped unless you deal with these types of clinical situations regularly. In practice, clinicians often get requests for information, especially with insurance companies using managed-care organizations to approve visits.

Similar authorizations are necessary when information is released from a hospital, from a clinic, and so forth. The confidentiality of information belongs to the patient. It is up to him or her to waive that confidentiality, which we assume that he or she has done by signing the release. In addition, such authorizations should specify the type and extent of information that the patient authorizes to be released, for what purposes, and to whom.

Question 18

Memory for the rules of logic and inference is part of:

a. procedural memory.
b. semantic memory.
c. episodic memory.
d. read-only memory

Answer 18

b. semantic memory

Long-term memory has been divided into three components: semantic memory, procedural memory, and episodic memory. Semantic memory includes memory for the rules of logic and inference, as well as knowledge about language (e.g., what words mean and how they are used).

Procedural memory includes information about how to do things, such as how to drive a car. Episodic memory contains information about events that have been personally experienced. Read-only memory (ROM) is not part of long-term memory – it is a computer term.

Question 19

Typically, the onset of the SSRIs antidepressant effect begins within a few:

a. months
b. weeks
c. days
d. hours

Answer 19

b. weeks

Current clinical practice indicates that at least 2 to 3 weeks of continuous SSRI use are necessary for the antidepressant effects to manifest in patients.

The results of a meta-analysis conducted by Posternak & Zimmerman (2005), of 47 double-blind, placebo-controlled trials conducted between 1981 and 2000, found most of the antidepressant effects occurred during the first 2 weeks. Review of the studies, found only 13 cohorts (19.7%) from 8 studies showed a pattern where there was an increased antidepressant effect from weeks 3 to 6 compared with weeks 1 to 3.

Question 20

A diagnosis of Mental Retardation requires the person to have subaverage intelligence and:

a. an I.Q. score of 55 or below
b. two or more Learning Disorders
c. onset before age 18
d. clinically significant deficits in social skills

Answer 20

c. onset before age 18

According to the DSM-IV-TR, the three criteria for a diagnosis of Mental Retardation are (1) significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning (an IQ score of 70 or less), (2) deficits in at least two areas of adaptive functioning, and (3) onset before age 18.

A person with MR could also be diagnosed with one or more Learning Disorders (B) (if the specific deficit is out of proportion to the severity of the MR), but this is not required for a MR diagnosis. Deficits in social skills (D) may be present, but this is only one of several possible deficits in adaptive functioning.

Question 21

The factor loading for Test A and Factor II is .80 in a factor matrix. This means that:

a. only 80% of variability in Test A is accounted for by the factor analysis
b. only 64% of variability in Test A is accounted for by the factor analysis
c. 80% of variability in Test A is accounted for by Factor II
d. 64% of variability in Test A is accounted for by Factor II

Answer 21

d. 64% of variability in Test A is accounted for by Factor II

The correlation coefficient for a test and an identified factor is referred to as a factor loading. To obtain a measure of shared variability, the factor loading is squared. This example, the factor loading is .80, meaning that 64% (.80 squared) of variability in the test is accounted for by the factor.

The other identified factor(s) probably also account for some variability in Test A, which is why (b.) is not the best answer.

Question 22

A psychologist is asked by the attorney for the father in a divorce procedure to determine, in his expert opinion, which parent is better able to care for the children. The father is in the same state as the psychologist but the mother is in a distant state. The psychologist should:

a. agree to evaluate the father and give his opinion as requested as long as the conclusions are not influenced by who pays the
fee.

b. evaluate the father but not send the report until asked for it by the judge.
c. evaluate the children and both parents before giving such an opinion.
d. refuse to accept this work since there can be no firm predictions made as to which parent would be better able to care for the children.

Answer 22

c. evaluate the children and both parents before giving such an opinion.

The basic principle is that you can’t give an opinion as to which parent will be better able to care for the children unless you interview both parents and the children. Otherwise, all you can attest to is your findings about the psychological health of whomever you evaluate. You can’t, if you only see one of the parents, state which one is better as you would have no basis to come to such a conclusion.

Question 23

A pianist comes to your office for therapy after having sustained a head injury in a recent car accident. He has lost sensation in the fingers of his left hand and feels he “must be going crazy” because this is such a strange occurrence. Before you pull out the DSM-IV, you refer him to a neurologist because you suspect the head injury may have caused damage to the:

a. precentral gyrus
b. postcentral gyrus
c. lateral fissure
d. central sulcus

Answer 23

b. postcentral gyrus

Loss of sensation due to brain injury is likely to involve the somatosensory cortex. You are also aware that the somatosensory cortex is located on the postcentral gyrus in the parietal lobe.

The lateral fissure (answer C) separates the temporal lobe from the overlying frontal and parietal lobes and the central sulcus (answer D) divides the frontal and parietal lobes.

Question 24

Which of the following is one of the first signs of AIDS-related dementia?

a. loss of abstract thinking functions
b. mild memory loss for recent events
c. seizures
d. apathy

Answer 24

b. mild memory loss for recent events

AIDS dementia complex occurs in about 2/3 of all AIDS patients. Usually, one of the first cognitive signs of dementia (both in AIDS and non-AIDS patients) is a loss of concentration and a mild memory loss, especially for recent events.

Question 25

According to APA’s Guidelines for Providers of Services to Ethnic, Linguistic, and Culturally Diverse Populations, which of the following suggestions is most useful when working with a client from a minority background?

a. Therapists should treat the client just like any other client.
b. Therapists should remember that culture and ethnicity are significantly related to therapeutic issues.
c. Therapists should downplay their own culture and emphasize the client’s culture.
d. Therapists should assume that the client’s problems are due to discrimination and bias.

Answer 25

b. Therapists should remember that culture and ethnicity are significantly related to therapeutic issues.

APA’s Guidelines for Providers of Service to Ethnic, Linguistic, and Culturally Diverse Populations were designed to provide suggestions to psychologists working with ethnic, linguistic, and culturally diverse populations. One of the suggestions is to “recognize ethnicity and culture as significant parameters in understanding psychological processes.”

Question 26

A therapist using Beck’s cognitive approach to therapy would rely primarily on which of the following to induce desirable changes in a depressed client?

a. Socratic questioning
b. interpretation
c. reflecting
d. clarification and explanation

Answer 26

a. Socratic questioning

Questioning is a very important strategy in Beck’s cognitive therapy and, in fact, the majority of communications by the therapist take the form of questions designed to help the client consider particular issues, options, and so on.

Question 27

Approximately 50% of children with Autism fail to speak or develop language skills. Those that do speak are most likely to show:

a. pronoun reversal
b. phoneme omissions
c. phonological errors
d. syllable reversal

Answer 27

a. pronoun reversal

Children with Autistic Disorder are often mute and, if they speak, they exhibit a number of language abnormalities. A common abnormality is echolalia; another is the reversal of pronouns (e.g., using “you” instead of “I”).

Question 28

The technique which allows a researcher to identify the underlying (latent) factors that relate to a set of measured variables and the nature of the causal relationships between those factors is:

a. structural equation modeling (SEM)
b. cluster analysis
c. Q-technique factor analysis
d. survival analysis

Answer 28

a. structural equation modeling (SEM)

Structural equation modeling is a multivariate technique used to evaluate the causal (predictive) influences or test causal hypotheses about the relationships among a set of factors.

Cluster analysis (b) is used to identify homogeneous subgroups in a heterogeneous collection of observations. Q-technique factor analysis (c) determines how many types of people a sample of people represents. Survival analysis (d) is used to assess the length of time to the occurrence of a critical event.

Question 29

___________________ may result in a job performance measure having low validity, even though it is reliable.

a. differential validity
b. criterion contamination
c. criterion deficiency
d. researcher deficiency

Answer 29

c. criterion deficiency

Criterion deficiency refers to what is missed or deficient in the criterion used. For example, if typing speed is used as the sole criterion for determining successful job performance by a secretary, it would be a deficient criterion, since typing speed is only one of several skills needed to be a successful secretary.

Differential validity (“A”) refers to a test which has significantly different validity coefficients for different subgroups. Criterion contamination (“B”) occurs when a rater’s knowledge of an employee’s performance on a predictor biases how the employee is rated on a criterion.

Question 30

In a job selection decision, age can be used as an exclusionary criterion:

a. never
b. if there is a ruling from the appropriate federal agency allowing it
c. if there is a significant difference in mean ages of incumbents and applicants
d. if age is directly related to job performance

Answer 30

d. if age is directly related to job performance

Any limiting criterion is acceptable in a job selection procedure as long as the criterion is shown to be job-related. For instance, you could exclude people with very poor eyesight as air traffic controllers, you could exclude people with very little stamina and strength as firefighters, and so forth. Thus, if an employer can empirically demonstrate that being a certain age is a bona-fide occupational requirement, it could be used as a job criterion. Let’s say you were hiring painters to work on the Golden Gate Bridge. You might very well find that people over age 60 couldn’t do the job safely and well. If you could prove this finding empirically, you could use age as a criterion. Note, however, that if an employer is challenged on the use of a discriminatory exclusionary criterion, the employer bears the legal burden of demonstrating that it is job relevant.

Question 31

A psychologist compliments several of his co-workers on their clothing. One of his female co-workers indicates that she is not comfortable with these type of comments and asks him to stop. He complies with her request. His behavior is:

a. Unacceptable
b. Unethical
c. Sexual harassment
d. Acceptable

Answer 31

d. Acceptable

His behavior is acceptable. According to Standard 3.02 (Sexual Harassment): “Sexual harassment is sexual solicitation, physical advances, or verbal or nonverbal conduct that is sexual in nature, that occurs in connection with the psychologist’s activities or roles as a psychologist, and that either (1) is unwelcome, is offensive, or creates a hostile workplace or educational environment, and the psychologist knows or is told this or (2) is sufficiently severe or intense to be abusive to a reasonable person in the context. Sexual harassment can consist of a single intense or severe act or of multiple persistent or pervasive acts.” In this case the co-worker evidently found the psychologist’s comments offensive. The psychologist upon learning this stopped his behavior.

Question 32

If a job selection test has lower validity for Hispanics as compared to White or African-Americans, you could say that ethnicity is acting as a:

a. confounding variable
b. criterion contaminator
c. discriminant variable
d. moderator variable

Answer 32

d. moderator variable

A moderator variable is any variable which moderates, or influences, the relationship between two other variables. If the validity of a job selection test is different for different ethnic groups (i.e. there is differential validity), then ethnicity would be considered a moderator variable since it is influencing the relationship between the test (predictor) and actual job performance (the criterion).

A confounding variable (A) is a variable in a research study which is not of interest to the researcher, but which exerts a systematic effect on the DV. Criterion contamination (B) is the artificial inflation of validity which can occur when raters subjectively score ratees on a criterion measure after they have been informed how the ratees scored on the predictor.

Question 33

Which of the following would be used to determine the probability that examinees of different ability levels are able to answer a particular test item correctly?

a. criterion-related validity coefficient
b. item discrimination index
c. item difficulty index
d. item characteristic curve

Answer 33

d. item characteristic curve

Item characteristic curves (ICCs), which are associated with item response theory, are graphs that depict individual test items in terms of the percentage of individuals in different ability groups who answered the item correctly. For example, an ICC for an individual test item might show that 80% of people in the highest ability group, 40% of people in the middle ability group, and 5% of people in the lowest ability group answered the item correctly. Although costly to derive, ICCs provide much information about individual test items, including their difficulty, discriminability, and probability that the item will be guessed correctly.

Question 34

The suicide rate for African-American adolescent males over the past few decades has been:

a. higher than the rate for white adolescent males, but there has recently been an increase in the rates for both groups.
b. lower than the rate for white adolescents males, but there has been an increase in the rates for both groups.
c. higher than the rate for white adolescent males, but there has recently been a decrease in the rates for both groups.
d. lower than the rate for white adolescent males, but there has been a decrease in the rates for both

Answer 34

b. lower than the rate for white adolescents males, but there has been an increase in the rates for both groups

Across all age groups and both genders, the suicide rate is higher for whites than for African-Americans. Of all demographic groups, the one associated with the highest increase in suicide rate over the past few decades is young white male – the rate has almost tripled. The rate has also gone up among African-American males, but not by as much.

And here’s an additional piece of information that’s not directly related to this question: In African-Americans, suicide occurs at the highest rate among individuals between the ages of 20-34; among whites, the highest rate of suicide occurs near the end of the life cycle.

Question 35

As an organizational psychologist, Dr. Jobb will recommend frame-of-reference training in order to:

a. improve the accuracy of selection decisions.
b. enhance communication among team members.
c. reduce rater biases on performance appraisals.
d. improve leadership effectiveness.

Answer 35

c. reduce rater biases on performance appraisals

Frame-of-reference training is used to improve rater accuracy by teaching raters to focus on the various characteristics and requirements that contribute to good job performance.

Question 36

Korsakoff’s syndrome is a form of Alcohol-Induced Persisting Amnestic Disorder that is due to:

a. dehydration.
b. thiamine deficiency.
c. vitamin C deficiency.
d. sensory impairment.

Answer 36

b. thiamine deficiency

The DSM-IV refers to Korsakoff’s syndrome as Alcohol-Induced Persisting Amnestic Disorder due to Thiamine Deficiency. The disorder is characterized by anterograde and often retrograde amnesia, and causes damage to neurons in the thalamic and hypothalamic brain regions. When a person displays early signs of the disorder, it can sometimes be prevented through large doses of thiamine. However, once brain neurons become damaged, thiamine treatment cannot reverse the syndrome.

Question 37

If someone achieves a score of 30 on a standardized test with a standard error of measurement of 5 points, what is the approximate probability that the person’s true score is between 20 and 40?

a. 2/3
b. 4/5
c. 9/10
d. 19/20

Answer 37

d. 19/20

The range given in the question encompasses the obtained score plus and minus two standard errors of measurement. That is, the standard error of measurement is 5, and the range is 10 points (2 X 5) below the obtained score to 10 points above the obtained score. One thing you should memorize is that there is about a 95% probability that a person’s true score lies within two standard errors of measurement of the obtained score. But even if you knew that, you might have had trouble with this question, since the choices are given as fractions, not percentages. To answer it correctly, you needed to figure out that 19/20 is the fractional equivalent of 95%.

Question 38

A woman who was in a serious car accident six months ago sees a picture of a car in a newspaper and becomes anxious. This is an example of:

a. mediated generalization.
b. higher-order conditioning.
c. classical conditioning.
d. Post-traumatic Stress Disorder.

Answer 38

a. mediated generalization

The question describes an example of a phenomenon that called stimulus generalization. That is, the woman has been conditioned to respond with anxiety to cars and therefore exhibits the same response to a similar stimulus – a picture of a car. This process is also sometimes referred to as mediated generalization. In this context, the term “mediated” means that the picture has never been paired with the original source of anxiety (i.e., the accident). Therefore, in order for the picture to cause anxiety, some cognitive mediation must be taking place.

Question 39

The primary associated feature of the Somatoform Disorders is:

a. panic attacks
b. anxiety and depression
c. addiction to analgesics or mild tranquilizers
d. somatic delusions

Answer 39

b. anxiety and depression

The Somatoform Disorders (such as Somatization Disorder, Conversion Disorder, Somatoform Pain Disorder, Hypochondriasis, and Body Dysmorphic Disorder) are characterized by physical symptoms, which have no known physical cause and are believed to be caused by psychological factors. The DSM identifies anxiety and depression as associated features of each of these disorders.

You might have gone for addiction to analgesics or tranquilizers, since it seems to make sense. However, excessive use of analgesics (which are not addictive anyway) is identified as a possible associated feature of Somatoform Pain Disorder only.

Question 40

A patient with right hemisphere damage is most likely to respond to jokes with which of the following reactions?

a. indifference
b. indifference or exaggerated jocularity
c. frustration and irritation
d. rage

Answer 40

b. indifference or exaggerated jocularity

The two hemispheres appear to have different functions in terms of emotions – the left hemisphere governs positive emotions, while the right hemisphere governs negative ones. Consequently, damage to the right hemisphere can produce apathy or undue cheerfulness, which may be reflected in the individual’s response to humor.

Question 41

The findings from longitudinal research on divorce risk factors by John M. Gottman and his colleagues indicate:

a. suppression of negative affect is associated with a high risk of divorce
b. suppression of negative and positive affect is associated with a high risk of early divorce
c. criticism, defensiveness, contempt and stonewalling predicts a high risk of early divorce
d. criticism, defensiveness, contempt and stonewalling predicts a high risk of later divorce

Answer 41

c. criticism, defensiveness, contempt and stonewalling predicts a high risk of early divorce

Longitudinal research by John M. Gottman, PhD and his colleagues investigated the interactions between married couples that predict divorce. The results indicated a combination of criticism, defensiveness, contempt and stonewalling, referred to as the “four horseman of the Apocalypse,” is associated with a high risk for early divorce. This is considered to be the first seven years of marriage, which is when half of all divorces are known to occur.

Question 42

Research by Sue and his colleagues (1991) suggests that which of the following clients is most likely to return for a second session of psychotherapy?

a. an African-American client
b. a Latino-American client
c. an Anglo-American client
d. an Asian-American client

Answer 42

d. an Asian-American client

Studies on therapy dropout rates have produced inconsistent results. This question is asking about a particular study, however (Sue et al., 1991), which found that African-Americans have the highest dropout rates, while Asian-Americans have the lowest dropout rates.

Question 43

A patient uses similar phonemes or words instead of the specific words required. What impairment does the patient have?

a. apraxia
b. dysarthria
c. paraphasias
d. dysprosody

Answer 43

c. paraphasias

Paraphasias involves the production of unintended syllables, words, or phrases during the effort to speak. Verbal paraphasia is a dominant symptom within the more general category of anomia which refers to word finding difficulty. When an individual is unable to evoke, retrieve, or recall a particular word then an incorrect word or phrase is substituted for an intended or target word.

Apraxia (a) of speech (AOS) is a disorder of articulation in which individuals have difficulty planning, initiating, and sequencing speech movements accurately. Dysarthria (b) is the collective name for a group of motor speech disorders caused by a disturbance in the neuromuscular control of speech, due to either central or peripheral nervous system damage, and manifested as weakness, slowness, or incoordination of speech. It involves difficulty in articulation, not in word finding or grammar. Prosody is the variation in stress, pitch, and rhythm of speech by which different shades of meaning are conveyed. Dysprosody (d) includes difficulties in rhythm and intonation, affecting enunciation, pronunciation and patterns of stress.

Question 44

Which of the following is the most likely an indicator that a person is feigning a memory disorder?

a. The person has lost memory of personal identity but his memory for most other past events is intact.
b. The person’s semantic memory is impaired but his procedural memory is intact.
c. Verbal memory is intact but non-verbal memory is impaired.
d. Memory for recent events in impaired but memory for remote events is intact.

Answer 44

a. The person has lost memory of personal identity but his memory for most other past events is intact

The symptom of loss of personal identity is rare. When it does occur (e.g., in Dissociative Fugue, Dissociative Identity Disorder, and sometimes in Dissociative Amnesia) it is almost always associated with loss of memory for other information. The DSM-IV warns clinicians first to rule out malingering when a person presents with loss of personal identity. Intact memory for most other past events would be a strong indicator that such a person is malingering.

Question 45

Stuart’s operant interpersonal therapy:

a. is based on object relations theory
b. encourages couples to focus on positive aspects of one’s partner
c. discourages the use of a “quid pro quo” approach among couples
d. maintains that successful marriages are based on contingent punishments

Answer 45

b. encourages couples to focus on positive aspects of one’s partner

Richard Stuart applied operant conditioning and social exchange theory in the context of marital therapy. He encourages couples to focus on positive aspects of each other and to use reciprocal reinforcement or “quid pro quo.” He maintained that in successful marriages rewards exceed costs and are built on positive reinforcement, rather than negative reinforcement, punishment, or coercion.

Question 46

The research has shown that, in the treatment of nicotine dependence, adding a behavioral intervention to nicotine replacement therapy:

a. has little or no effect in terms of either short- or long-term abstinence.
b. has little additional effect in terms of short-term abstinence but does improve long-term abstinence.
c. has some additional effect in terms of short-term abstinence but doesn’t improve long-term abstinence.
d. has a substantial effect on both short- and long-term abstinence.

Answer 46

b. has little additional effect in terms of short-term abstinence but does improve long-term abstinence.

This question is difficult since the research on this issue has been inconsistent. However, there is evidence that a combined treatment (behavioral intervention plus nicotine replacement therapy) is best, especially in terms of long-term abstinence (abstinence for six months or more).

Question 47

You have been attempting to collect payment from a former patient of yours who did not pay for his final two months of therapy. One day, you get a letter from a state hospital where that former patient is now currently a patient. The letter includes a request for a copy of your records of the patient’s treatment along with a signed release of information. In this situation, you should:

a. refuse to supply any information to the hospital until the bill is paid.
b. send a summary of the records to the hospital along with a copy of a bill for the unpaid therapy fees.
c. go to the hospital and talk to the patient about the situation.
d. provide the information requested by the hospital.

Answer 47

d. provide the information requested by the hospital.

The issue here is that you can’t withhold records under your control that are “requested and needed for a client’s/patient’s emergency treatment solely because payment has not been received (Ethical Standard 6.03). Thus, you must provide the requested information in this instance.

Question 48

The basic assumption of Howard Gardner’s theory of intelligence is reflected best in which of the following statements:

a. Intelligence is best defined in terms of the ability to deal with abstract concepts.
b. Intelligence assessment requires the use of simple quantified measures such as paper-and-pencil tests.
c. In assessing intelligence, learning to be an efficient processor of information is more important than genetic factors.
d. In assessing intelligence, the society in which a person lives evaluates how intelligent a person is thought to be.

Answer 48

d. In assessing intelligence, the society in which a person lives evaluates how intelligent a person is thought to be.

Howard Gardner initially defined intelligence as an ability to solve real-life problems, to generate new problems, and to create something meaningful or offer a service that is valued within a person’s culture or local community. He developed the theory of multiple intelligences which currently lists eight intelligences: linguistic, logical-mathematical, musical intelligence, bodily-kinesthetic, spatial, interpersonal, intrapersonal and naturalist.

Question 49

National surveys comparing rural and urban areas rates of mental disorders indicate:

a. prevalence rates are not statistically different
b. prevalence rates are significantly higher in rural areas for most mental disorders
c. prevalence rates are significantly higher in urban areas for most mental disorders
d. prevalence rates are statistically different with some disorders more common in rural or urban areas

Answer 49

a. prevalence rates are not statistically different

While study to study reported rates of mental illness have varied somewhat, the most consistent finding is that there are few statistically significant differences in the rates of mental disorders in urban and rural areas. Epidemiological surveys like the National Comorbidity Survey, the Epidemiologic Catchment Area Study and a recent Healthcare for Communities (HCC) survey of 9,585 individuals living in rural and urban areas, found no significant differences in the prevalence of the major types of mental illness

Question 50

Which of the following is not a recommendation of APA’s Guidelines for Providers of Service to Ethnic, Linguistic, and Culturally Diverse Populations?

a. Psychologists should downplay their own culture and emphasize the client’s culture.
b. Psychologists should help clients understand, maintain, and resolve their own sociocultural identification.
c. Psychologists should seek to help determine whether a so-called “problem” stems from racism or bias in others so that clients don’t inappropriately personalize problems.
d. Psychologists should work to eliminate biases, prejudices, and discriminatory practices.

Answer 50

a. Psychologists should downplay their own culture and emphasize the client’s culture.

Although these Guidelines do emphasize the need to consider, respect, and understand the client’s cultural background, they don’t advise psychologists to downplay their own backgrounds. The other choices are all paraphrases of statements contained in these Guidelines.

Question 51

Meta-analyses on gender differences in leadership have found that female leaders are:

a. more effective than male leaders overall
b. less effective than male leaders overall
c. equally effective as male leaders overall
d. more effective than male leaders in first-level management positions, but males are more effective in middle management positions

Answer 51

c. equally effective as male leaders overall

Eagly and colleagues conducted a series of meta-analyses on the effects of gender on leadership. They found that overall, male and female leaders are equally effective.

However, certain gender differences in leadership were found to exist. For example, female leaders were more effective when the leadership role was defined as “feminine” and males were more effective when the role was defined as “masculine.” Contrary to D, males were found to be more effective in first-level management positions and females were more effective in middle management positions. One interpretation of this finding is that lower-level management requires more technical skills, whereas middle-level management requires more human relations skills

Question 52

The best example of a secondary prevention program is:

a. a rehabilitation program.
b. crisis intervention.
c. a community education program.
d. Head Start.

Answer 52

b. crisis intervention.

Secondary prevention involves early detection and intervention for a problem in order to reduce its duration and keep it from getting worse. Crisis intervention, suicide hotlines, and screening tests are all examples of secondary prevention.

Question 53

Children with a history of bilateral otitis media score lowest on which of the following WISC subtests?

a. freedom from distractibility
b. perceptual organization
c. processing speed
d. verbal comprehension

Answer 53

d. verbal comprehension

Bilateral otitis media means inflammation of the left and right middle ear. Middle ear infections in early childhood, especially severe infections, have been associated with the development of Learning Disorders later in childhood. As you might expect, hearing loss in children most often affects verbal comprehension. In a study of children 8- to 10-years-old who had a history of otitis media between birth and 3 ½ years of age, but have since been free of the disease, reading level was found to be more than a year below grade level and scores on the Verbal Comprehension factor for the WISC-R (now the WISC-III) were significantly lower than controls

Question 54

Which of the following is most associated with unusual perceptual experiences?

a. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
b. Panic Disorder
c. Adjustment Disorder
d. Dysthymic Disorder

Answer 54

b. Panic Disorder

Panic attacks are characterized by at least four of ten symptoms. These may include derealization or depersonalization, which are types of perceptual disturbances.

Question 55

The difference between insanity and psychosis is that:

a. insanity is a legal term and psychosis is a term used in mental health literature
b. insanity is an outdated term and is no longer applied in legal cases, while psychosis is used both in mental health and legal literature
c. insanity is legally a broader term, and subsumes the term psychosis
d. insanity refers to disturbances in thought and emotion, while a psychotic disturbance, by definition, affects thought only

Answer 55

a. insanity is a legal term and psychosis is a term used in mental health literature

Insanity is strictly a legal term; it usually means that a person is in such a mental state that he or she cannot distinguish between right or wrong. Psychosis, on the other hand, is a psychiatric term.

Question 56

Clomipramine and fluoxetine alleviate the symptoms of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder by affecting levels of

a. epinephrine.
b. norepinephrine.
c. dopamine.
d. serotonin.

Answer 56

d. serotonin.

If you’re unsure about the correct answer to a question about neurotransmitters, serotonin is usually a good guess since it’s involved in so many functions and activities. And, in fact, in OCD, the usefulness of the antidepressant drugs is believed to be due to their ability to increase serotonin activity.

Question 57

People with which of the following disorders experience a heightened recall of past experiences that have negative connotations with limited recall of past experiences that have neutral or positive connotations?

a. Major Depression
b. Hypochondriasis
c. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
d. Avoidant Personality Disorder

Answer 57

a. Major Depression

This one is so easy that you may have thought it was a trick question and picked the wrong answer! Depressed people are the ones who tend to focus on negative events while ignoring neutral and positive ones.

Question 58

The parents of a child with Mental Retardation are most likely to say that, during infancy, one of the earliest signs that something “was wrong” was:

a. the child’s failure to cuddle.
b. the child’s lack of eye contact.
c. the child's lack of interest in the environment.
d. the persistence of primitive reflexes.

Answer 58

c. the child’s lack of interest in the environment.

Answers A and B are more characteristic of Autistic Disorder, and answer D is more likely in cerebral palsy or other serious motor disorder. Lack of age-appropriate interest in the environment is one of the earliest signs of retardation

Question 59

In old age, the best predictor of adaptation would be:

a. health.
b. number of grandchildren.
c. marital status.
d. SES level.

Answer 59

a. health

This is tough. All of the distractors mentioned predict good adaptation in our older age. But the best answer is good health, according to the research.

Question 60

Patterson’s coercive family interactive model would predict:

a. parents who “bribe” their children to act
appropriately will meet with limited success.

b. hostile aggressive children change a parent’s disciplinary technique.
c. children initially learn aggressive behaviors from their parents.
d. children often learn aggressive behavior at school and then this generalizes.

Answer 60

c. children initially learn aggressive behaviors from their parents.

Patterson’s model attributes aggressiveness in children to certain parent-child interactions. According to this model, children initially learn aggressive behavior from their parents who model aggression through their use of harsh discipline and ignore or reinforce their child’s aggressiveness. In addition, these actions become increasingly coercive and eventually generalize to school.

Question 61

A man says that if he goes to watch his favorite baseball team play, his team will lose, despite the team’s excellent record. This man’s statement is an example of a(n):

a. delusion
b. fundamental attribution bias
c. illusory correlation
d. self-fulfilling prophesy

Answer 61

c. illusory correlation

An illusory correlation is the tendency to overestimate the association between variables that are uncorrelated or only slightly correlated. Because the man’s presence at the baseball game is unlikely to affect the outcome, his belief that it would cause the team to lose would be considered an illusory correlation.

There is insufficient evidence to indicate that the man’s statement represents a delusion (A), which is “a false belief based on incorrect inference about external reality that is firmly sustained despite what almost everyone else believes….and obvious proof or evidence to the contrary.” A fundamental attribution bias (B) refers to the tendency to overestimate dispositional (personality) factors and underestimate situational factors in explaining the behavior of others. Self-fulfilling prophesy effect (D) occurs when our expectations about another person affect that person’s behavior.

Question 62

Use of which of the following strategies is most likely to increase a person’s level of chronic pain?

a. biofeedback
b. active coping
c. passive coping
d. cognitive-behavioral therapy

Answer 62

c. passive coping

Several studies have found that passive coping strategies (e.g., depending on others, restricting social activities, use of medication for immediate pain relief) result in an increase in subjective pain among chronic pain patients. Conversely, helping patients reduce the frequency of passive coping strategies is believed to result in decreased pain. Active coping strategies (e.g., staying busy or active, distracting attention from the pain), as well as biofeedback and cognitive-behavioral therapy, have most often been found to decrease pain

Question 63

In addition to tolerance and withdrawal, which of the following is a criterion for the diagnosis “Substance Dependence?”

a. daily use of the substance

b. the substance is taken in larger amounts or over a 
    longer period of time than was intended

c. frequent cravings to use the substance
d. recurrent substance-related legal problems

Answer 63

b. the substance is taken in larger amounts or over a longer period of time than was intended

Three (or more) of seven criteria are required for diagnosing Substance Dependence: Tolerance; Withdrawal; Substance use in larger amounts or over a longer period of time than was intended (B); Persistent desire to cut down or control substance use; Much time spent obtaining, using, or recovering from substance use; Important social, occupational, or recreational activities are given up or reduced because of substance use; Substance use is continued despite persistent or recurrent physical or psychological consequences caused by the substance use. None of the other choices in this question is a criterion of Substance Dependence; however, Choice D (recurrent substance-related legal problems) is one of the criteria for Substance Abuse.

Question 64

A psychologist is working for a company that changes health care providers due to cost-effectiveness. The new provider has a policy that compromises the employee’s future limits to confidentiality. The psychologist should:

a. refuse to follow the new procedures and leave immediately.
b. outline her points of dissatisfaction and send it to the new provider.
c. make clear with each client the company’s new limits to confidentiality.
d. organize a strike and call CNN.

Answer 64

c. make clear with each client the company’s new limits to confidentiality.

According to Standard 3.11 (Psychological Services Delivered To or Through Organizations), “Psychologists delivering services to or through organizations provide information beforehand to clients and when appropriate those directly affected by the services about (1) the nature and objectives of the services, (2) the intended recipients, (3) which of the individuals are clients, (4) the relationship the psychologist will have with each person and the organization, (5) the probable uses of services provided and information obtained, (6) who will have access to the information, and (7) limits of confidentiality. As soon as feasible, they provide information about the results and conclusions of such services to appropriate persons.” If you choose answer A and leave abruptly, you are abandoning your client. You may also want to do answer B—outline your points of dissatisfaction—but this wouldn’t be your first or most important consideration.

Question 65

A whisper being audible in a library reading room, but not in a busy cafeteria is explained by:

a. the all-or-nothing principle
b. the “law of effect”
c. Weber’s law
d. the “law of proximity”

Answer 65

c. Weber’s law

Weber’s law is one of the psychophysical laws that explains the relationship between physical stimuli and their psychological effects. According to Weber, the “just noticeable difference” in the stimulus is proportional to the magnitude of the original stimulus, explaining why a whisper can be heard in a quiet room but not in a noisy one.

Question 66

Children’s memory for early events:

a. cannot be recalled by most after age 3
b. is limited and constant
c. changes after age 2
d. changes as it develops over time

Answer 66

d. changes as it develops over time

Recent research has found that babies memories are not lost, rather they are updated continually as learning progresses. Their ability to recall is influenced by the same factors and conditions that impact recall in older children and adults. These include: the nature of the events; the number of times they experience them; and the availability of cues or reminders. Children from ages one to three are all capable of both immediate and long-term recall of specific events in their lives. Infants tested at two, four, and six months can recall details about hidden objects, their location, and size. The failure in retrieving memories from the first years of life (a.) refers to the phenomenon of infantile amnesia. Infantile amnesia has been theorized to be the result of a lack of schematic organization of experience, a different way of encoding in early childhood, and, more recently, the importance of language development.

Question 67

A mother, father, and teenage son come to see you for family therapy. The family emigrated to the United States from a Latin American country five years ago. The son is not getting along with his parents and disobeys them constantly. Which of the following is a likely explanation for their problem?

a. different levels of acculturation within the family
b. the son has Conduct Disorder
c. this is a common style of interaction in Latino families
d. the son is frustrated because he is having trouble with the English language

Answer 67

a. different levels of acculturation within the family

In immigrant families, a possible cause of conflict is differential levels of acculturation within the family – that is, some members of the family may adopt the values and behavioral patterns of the new culture faster than others. This is especially true when one of the family members is an adolescent, who will likely have both greater contact with and a stronger desire to be accepted by peers in the new culture.

Question 68

Componential, experiential, and practical are the three aspects of which intelligence model?

a. Gardner
b. Cattell and Horn
c. Sternberg
d. Perkins

Answer 68

c. Sternberg

Robert Sternberg’s triarchic model of intelligence consists of three interacting components: the componential, or analytical, aspect includes the methods used to process and analyze information; the experiential, or creative, aspect refers to how unfamiliar circumstances and tasks are dealt with; and the practical, or contextual, component refers to how people respond to their environment.

Howard Gardner (a.) developed the theory of multiple intelligences which currently lists eight intelligences: linguistic, logical-mathematical, musical intelligence, bodily-kinesthetic, spatial, interpersonal, intrapersonal and naturalist. Raymond Cattell and John Horn (b.) identified the dimensions fluid intelligence, crystallized intelligence, and visual-spatial reasoning. David Perkins identified three dimensions to intelligence: the neural, the experiential, and the reflective that are considered contrasting causal factors that all contribute to intelligence.

Question 69

According to Sue and Sue’s Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model, a person in the dissonance stage would experience:

a. appreciation of the self and depreciation of the dominant group
b. depreciation of the self and appreciation of the dominant group
c. appreciation of the self and the dominant group
d. conflict between appreciation and depreciation of the self and the dominant group

Answer 69

d. conflict between appreciation and depreciation of the self and the dominant group

Even if you were unfamiliar with Sue and Sue’s Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model, you may have been able to guess correctly if you realized that the term “dissonance” refers to conflict. Sue and Sue’s (1990) Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model (R/CID) is an elaboration of the Minority Identity Development model (MID) proposed by Atkinson, Morton, and Sue (1989). Both models describe the same stages (conformity, dissonance, resistance and immersion, introspection, and integrative awareness) but the R/CID model elaborates on individuals’ attitudes toward self and others. During the Conformity stage, a person depreciates the self (and others of the minority group) but appreciates the dominant majority group. During the Dissonance stage, minority individuals experience conflict between appreciation and depreciation of the self and the majority group. In the Resistance and Immersion stage, the individual appreciates the self and depreciates the majority group. In the Introspection stage, the person again experiences conflict and questions the basis of his or her appreciation and depreciation of self and others. And, finally, in the Integrative Awareness stage, the person experiences self-appreciation and selective appreciation of the majority group

Question 70

A seizure that begins with uncontrollable twitching of a small part of the body and gradually spreads throughout one side or the entire body is referred to as:

a. partial
b. petit mal
c. tonic-clonic
d. generalized

Answer 70

a. partial

Seizures are generally divided into two main types: “partial” or “focal,” and generalized. Partial (focal) seizures typically begin with uncontrollable twitching of a small part of the body, for example, one finger, which may start to jerk, followed by jerking of the entire arm and then the rest of that side of the body, and may lead to jerking of the entire body. Although it can eventually affect the entire body, it is referred to as a “partial” seizure because of how it initially developed. This is sometimes called “partial seizure with secondary generalization.” Partial seizures are further subdivided into “simple partial seizures,” which have no alteration of consciousness, and “complex partial seizures,” which do alter consciousness. The generalized type of seizures include the petit mal and tonic-clonic (grand mal) types. Petit mal (absence) seizures are characterized by minimal motor activity and a lack of awareness. Generalized tonic-clonic (grand mal) seizures begin as bilaterally symmetrical at onset and involve episodes of violent shaking, during which the person becomes blue and stiff.

Question 71

Decisions made by a group are typically better than those made individually when:

a. the group is highly cohesive
b. the group leader is directive
c. the task requires a high degree of creativity
d. members of the group have complementary skills

Answer 71

d. members of the group have complementary skills

One of the major obstacles to good group decision-making is groupthink. Groupthink is an intensive tendency to seek agreement among members of the group, which prevents full consideration of alternative decisions, to the point where the decisions reached may become irrational. Some of the factors which contribute to groupthink include: high group cohesiveness, homogeneous backgrounds and values, and a strong, directive leader. A group consisting of members with complementary skills is not homogeneous, and would be less likely to succumb to groupthink. Contrary to Choice C, tasks which require a high degree of creativity tend to be performed better by individuals than groups.

Question 72

Which of the following would most indicate malingering (i.e., an attempt to “fake bad”) on the MMPI-2?

a. high K score
b. high F score
c. low F score
d. high L score

Answer 72

b. high F score

An elevated F score, particularly within the range of 80 to 99 suggests malingering (“faking bad”), exaggeration of difficulties, resistance to testing, or significant psychopathology. All of the other choices, i.e., high K, high L, and low F scores indicate the reverse, that is, an attempt to be viewed in an overly favorable light (“faking good”)

Question 73

Traditional Western approaches to individual psychotherapy can best be described as:

a. linear and reductionist
b. non-linear and holistic
c. relativistic and abstract
d. elitist and futile

Answer 73

a. linear and reductionist

Traditional Western approaches to individual psychotherapy emphasize linear causal relationships and are reductionistic, that is, they tend to explain complex phenomena in terms of relatively simple principles. Non-linear, holistic, and relativistic are terms used to describe non-western and systems approaches.

Question 74

Recent research indicates the most effective treatment for antisocial behavior in juvenile offenders is:

a. behavioral-reinforcement
b. structured family intervention with parental training
c. multi-systemic therapy
d. victims family therapy

Answer 74

c. multi-systemic therapy

Multisystemic Therapy (MST), targeting chronic, violent, or substance abusing juvenile offenders at high risk of out-of-home placement, is consistent with social-ecological models of behavior and findings from causal modeling studies of delinquency and drug use. The approach views individuals as being nested within a complex network of interconnected systems that encompass individual, family, and extrafamilial (peer, school, neighborhood) factors. MST is a goal-oriented, intensive family- and community-based treatment that addresses the multiple determinants and factors in each youth’s social network that are contributing to his or her antisocial behavior.

It is provided using a home-based model of services delivery with a typical treatment duration of approximately 4 months. Intervention strategies include strategic family therapy, structural family therapy, behavioral parent training, and cognitive behavior therapies. MST interventions typically aim to improve caregiver discipline practices, enhance family affective relations, decrease youth association with deviant peers, increase youth association with prosocial peers, improve youth school or vocational performance, engage youth in prosocial recreational outlets, and develop an indigenous support network of extended family, neighbors, and friends to help caregivers achieve and maintain such changes. MST has demonstrated long-term reductions in criminal activity, drug-related arrests, violent offenses, and incarceration. Controlled studies also showed that MST outcomes were similar for youths across the adolescent age range (i.e., 12-17 years), for males and females, and for African-American vs. white youths and families

Question 75

All of the following are factors that typically distinguish Dissociative Amnesia from amnesia due to known physical causes, except:

a. in Dissociative Amnesia, memory loss is primarily for autobiographical information.
b. in Dissociative Amnesia, cognitive abilities are usually preserved.
c. in Dissociative Amnesia, memory loss can be reversed.
d. in Dissociative Amnesia, memory impairment is typically limited to information occurring immediately before an emotional trauma.

Answer 75

d. in Dissociative Amnesia, memory impairment is typically limited to information occurring immediately before an emotional trauma.

In Dissociative Amnesia, memory loss is usually for information acquired after the emotional trauma that brings on the symptoms. There is typically a gap or a series of gaps in recall for the individual’s life history. By contrast, in some forms of Amnestic Disorder (e.g., in Amnestic Disorder Due to a Brain Injury), memory loss is typically for information in a circumscribed period of time immediately before the injury occurs. All of the other choices describe features that typically distinguish between Dissociative Amnesia and amnesia due to known physical causes.

Question 76

Which of the following structures develops last?

a. cerebellum
b. frontal lobe
c. occipital lobe
d. temporal lobe

Answer 76

b. frontal lobe

The brain develops in a predictable sequence from the least complex functions to the most complex. Although many areas of the brain are nearly fully developed at birth, the frontal lobe, which is responsible for higher-level thinking, motor behavior, and expressive language does not fully develop until young adulthood. The prefrontal cortex, located at the most anterior part of the frontal lobe, is responsible for most executive functions, and is the very last area of the brain to develop

Question 77

Behavioral assessments are useful for determining behavioral:

a. contingencies
b. consequences
c. constraints
d. interventions

Answer 77

a. contingencies

A behavioral assessment identifies “contingencies,” which is a term for the antecedents of and consequences that maintain the behavior one is planning to alter. While a behavioral assessment may be undertaken to determine the best behavioral treatment, it may also be done for research purposes with no goal of offering treatment, or to see if a previous treatment was effective. Behavioral contingencies is more inclusive than consequences (response “B”) or interventions (response ”D”), and therefore the correct answer.

Question 78

A culturally-encapsulated therapist:

a. exhibits a bias that involves interpreting all of the presenting problems of minority clients as the direct result of cultural factors.

b. has had little or no contact with members of minority groups and exhibits a lack of interest in working with these
individuals in therapy.

c. attempts to overcome his or her cultural biases by adopting a “culture-blind” perspective that may or may not be appropriate.
d. tends to accept cultural stereotypes about members of minority groups without question and is unaware of his or her cultural biases.

Answer 78

d. tends to accept cultural stereotypes about members of minority groups without question and is unaware of his or her cultural biases.

The notion of cultural encapsulation was originally described by Wrenn in 1962. A primary characteristic of a culturally-encapsulated counselor is an acceptance (usually unconscious) of traditional cultural stereotypes.