Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

BOARDS: Practice Exams - incorrect questions > Practice exam 1 > Flashcards

Practice exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Hypothyroidism presents with what type of musculoskeletal effects?

A

myalgia, PROXIMAL muscle weakness, stiffness, prolonged deep tendon reflexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Will a patient with uterine prolapse experience painful bowel movements?

A

yes, as well as pain with prolonged standing, and constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is a Lisfranc injury? When does it often occur?

A

when one or all metatarsal bones are displaced from tarsus (mid foot joint)

  • commonly cuased by crush injury, like heavy object falling onto midfoot, or landing on the foot after a high fall
  • often occurs when foot is plantarflexed in sports
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

RA is an autoimmune disease affecting primarily what? (2) And what extra articular complications can occur?

A

joints and synovial tissue

- extra articular issues include vasculitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Conjunctivities, iritis, and psoriatic skin and nail changes are extra-articular changes that can occur in what type of arthritis?

A

psoriatic arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What extra-articular issues can occur in DJD?

A

disc degeneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are changes in skin composition that occur with natural aging?

A
  • decreased sensitivity to touch
  • decreased perception of pain/temp
  • and increased risk of injury

dermis thins, and elasticity is DECREASED not increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

You have a C5 ASIA A SCI patient. Is the diaphragm working?

A

yes, remember it’s innervated by C3,4,5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What happens to abdominal viscera when the abdomen isn’t innervated, like in a SCI patient?

A

the abdominal viscera are displaced superiorly d/t no abdominal tone on the viscera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Does muscle weakness in an SCI patient cause a restrictive or obstructive breathing disorder?

A

restrictive b/c they’re unable to generate negative pressure

- obstructive is air trapping - that doesn’t occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Air trapping results from what kind of lung disorder, obstructive or restrictive? What happens to subcostal angle?

A

obstructive

- increases subcostal angle since ribs splay outward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the risk factors for metabolic system for men and women?

A

MEN

  • waist circumference >40in
  • elevated triglycerides >150mg/dL
  • <40mg/dL of HDL
  • fasting plasma glucose of >110mg/dL

WOMEN

  • waist circumference >35in
  • elevated triglycerides >150mg/dL
  • <50mg/dL of HDL
  • fasting plasma glucose of >110mg/dL
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is metabolic syndrome? (5 things)

A 
too much fat around waist
high BP
low HDL
high triglycerides
high blood sugar
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is ultrasound useful for?

A 
diagnose tendon tears
bleeding/fluid collection in muscles, bursae, joints
benign/malignant soft tissue tumors
early changes in RA
fluid in painful hip joint in children
lumps in neck muscles of infants
soft tissue masses in children

AKA more soft tissue stuff and fluid collection in joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

T/F: Ultrasound is able to penetrate bone.

A

false, they have difficulty penetrating bone thus poor internal bone visualization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

T/F: ultraosund disrupts cardiac pacemakers.

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

T/F: hyperpituitarism is associated with obesity.

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What muscle groups are needed to train for ambulation with crutches?

A

shoulder depressors and extensors, as well as elbow extensors
- aka lower trap, lat, and pec major

you chose middle trap, serratus, and triceps -> but middle trap isn’t a shoulder depressor, lower trap is.. also not really protracting, doing shoulder depression so that means not really serratus anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What’s the flexion synergy pattern in the LE for stroke pts?

A

hip/knee flexion, abduction, DF
- so any interventions in this position will produce movement within synergy, which we don’t want (marching, toe taps in sitting, foot slides using knee flexors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Light touch is carried in what pathway? What else is carried in this pathway

A

DCML

  • so is stereognosis (touching an object to tell what it is)
  • so is 2 point descrim
  • so is barognosis (evaluating weight of objects)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are indications for referral to radiology for potential ankle fracture?

A

inability to weight bear immediately and at ER

tenderness at posterior edge/tip medial/lateral malleolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are some symptoms of pneumonia?

A

tachycardia, signs of lung infection, abnormal breath sounds in lower lobes, dullness to percussion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are characteristics of adhesive capsulitis?

A

thickening of synovial capsule
adhesions within subacromial/deltoid bursa
adhesions to biceps tendon

commonly associated with other systemic/nonsystemic conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the capsular pattern of limitation for adhesive capsulitis?

A

ER > shoulder flexion/IR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Does a PTA have to seek permission of the PT for the patient to see the PT's notes?
nope, law states pt has access to medical record
26
What can occur if a chest tube gets dislodged?
pneumothorax
27
If a patient has atelectasis, what should breathing techniques be focused on?
promoting deep breathing with increased inhales
28
Will paced breathing help atelectasis?
no, since it doesn't improve the depth of breathing, just the rate, which won't help atelectasis
29
Following a tendon reattachment of the flexor tendons of the fingers, when can you begin passive extension/flexion?
passive extension = WAIT until adequate strength of repair (>3wks?) passive flexion = can perform 72 hours afters surgery
30
Following a tendon reattachment of the flexor tendons of the fingers, when can you begin ROM exercises in general, whether passive or active?
need to wait 48-72 hours after surgery d/t severe edema after surgery - edema can increase tendon drag and likelihood of rupture
31
Following a tendon reattachment of the flexor tendons of the fingers, what type of ROM can you first initiate after 72hours?
``` PASSIVE flexion (active could damage repair) ACTIVE extension (passive could break repair) ```
32
What is the nerve supply to the calcaneus?
tibial n. (calcaneal branch)
33
How should you administer acetate with ionto - what kind of pole? What kind of current?
``` direct current (always used in ionto) negative pole (acetate is negative, so need negative to drive it in) ```
34
What are mechanisms of injury for the ACL?
hyperextension with severe medial rotation noncontact deceleration injury with valgus twisting (pivoting in opposite direction)
35
Osgood-schlatter disease occurs in what kind of pediatric population?
kids playing sports that require lots of running, jumping, and swift change of direction - main symptom is swelling/tenderness over tibial tubercle
36
How do compression garments reduce edema?
exceeds internal tissue hydrostatic pressure - original lack of extravascular pressure causes tissue fluid leakage out - now with garment there's increased amount of pressure on tissue, causing increase in hydrostatic pressure in extravascular space (causing less leakage)
37
Osmotic pressure is most directly related with what?
protein content (unaffected by compression garments)
38
What metabolic abnormalities occur with adrenal insufficiency? (4, think ions)
hyponatremia hyperkalemia hypoglycemia maybe acidosis
39
Where is the adrenal gland located, and with which hormones does it interact?
located above kidney | primary hormones are cortisol and aldosterone
40
What joints are more affected in progressive lyme disease?
large joints of body, especially knee | - arthritic changes
41
What do heart murmurs sound like?
swishing sound is systole, diastole, or both
42
When are S3/4 sounds heard, if at all?
``` S3 = beginning of diastole; turbulence S4 = end of diastole; low frequency sound ```
43
When is pericardial rub heard in heart, if at all? What does it sound like?
leathery rub heard during systole
44
At what month can decreasing flexion posturing be expected in an infant?
1mo | - typical to see them in flexion/abduction at shoulders/hips
45
What general type of exercise is beneficial for those with osteoporosis?
weightbearing in extended postures to lay more bone d/t stress on bone - water exercises decrease these forces, so not as appropriate - high-load/short duration exercises like running/jumping don't provide as high of stimulus to bone and cause potential for injury
46
What does Kumpke's paralysis affect, spinal cord wise?
C8 and T1 (wrist flexion/intrinsic hand muscle fxn affected) - typically see claw hand aka intrinsic minus hand - see this dysfunction from ulnar nerve issue also
47
Involvement of TI can also result in what syndrome, besides just claw hand?
horner's syndrome: inability to dilate pupil and ptosis
48
Where is McBurney's point and what's associated with tenderness of it?
located midway between R ASIS and umbilicus | - indicates acute appendicitis
49
What does a positive Murphy's sign indicate? How do you do this test?
pain an tenderness over costovertebral angle (left or right) can indicate achute cholecycstitis (gallbladder inflammation) or acute pyelonephritis - costovertebral angle = pt prone, angle from vertebra to ribs on either side
50
What is a hiatal hernia? Where does pain from this localize to?
when stomach heriates up through diaphragm | - pain sharp and localizes to lower esophagus/upper stomach area
51
Where does stomach sit in body?
makes a c on L side of body; with convexity to the left
52
Burning pain in the esophagus, throat, or chest can indicate what issue?
GERD
53
What would be a normal apgar score at one minute?
8-10 | - max score is 10
54
What does the opisthotonos position look like in a comatose patient?
neck/spine in extreme hyperextension | legs flexed with heels touching butt
55
GERD can be irritated in what positons?
supine, prone, or bridging | - get them upright to limit exacerbations
56
What is semi fowler position?
trunk, head, neck elevated 30deg
57
Turning while walking is assessed on what objective test?
tinetti and DGI | - not Berg
58
Pursed lip breathing is used for what kind of lung disorder - restrictive or obstructive?
obstructive = gives resistance to exhalation which helps prevent airway collapse (causing air trapping/obstruction)
59
Is asbestosis restrictive or obstructive?
restrictive = interstitial lung disease where there's fibrotic changes within lung tissue
60
What's the loose packed position of the humeroulnar joint?
70deg flexion | - full extension is closed packed
61
Where should the hands be placed in relation to the hips when completing a slide board transfer?
hands anterior to hips
62
What muscles assist with slide board transfer, helping get psuedo-elbow extension from muscles other than triceps?
anterior delt, shoulder ERs, clavicular pec major = all help adduct/flex shoulder and ER of shoulder `allows for locked elbow joint
63
Yellow/green discharge indicates what type of wound?
purulent (pus filled)
64
What does macerated skin look like?
white appearance, drained of its color (think of feet)
65
Excessive scapular abduction is counteracted by what muscles when performing shoulder flexion and abduction?
rhomboids - serratus anterior does concentric contraction during flexion/extension to provide scapular upward rotation, but doesn't do scapular adduction like rhomboids do
66
How can you differentially diagnose stress fracture vs shin splint?
``` shin splints (aka medial tibial stress syndrome) don't have edema, and they have nonfocal, diffuse tenderness - while stress fractures have edema after repetitive activity with little rest ```
67
What test can help identify a potential appendicitis?
besides mcburney's point, obturator sign - performed with R hip IR, and hip/knee in 90/90 - obturnator internus muscle may come into contact with inflamed appendix, eliciting pain
68
What reliability coefficient demonstrates good reliability?
.75 or above < .5 = poor .5 - .75 = moderate >.75 = good
69
What exercise restrictions are there for pts with sinus bradycardia?
none
70
What platelet count is contraindicated for percussion?
20,000 is very low (thrombocytopenia); percussion could cause microtrauma and result in increased risk of bleeding typical platelets: 150,000 - 450,000
71
What is the issue with thrombocytopenia?
issues with decreased platelets, thus poor clotting ability and risk of bleeding
72
What are the capsular patterns of the hip?
1) FAME = flexion, abduction, MR, extension | 2) MEAL = MR, extension, abduction
73
What are classifications for OA diagnosis?
1) hip IR <15 deg 2) HF <115deg 3) age >50yrs OR 1) hip IR > or equal to 15deg 2) pain with hip IR 3) morning stiffness < or equal to 60min 4) age >50yrs
74
How does Bouronniere deformity occur?
central extensor tendon of the involved finger ruptures (either from injury or disease) - falls palmarily (relative to the PIP joint) - "volar slippage" - this results in extension of DIP since tendon still attached distally - also results in flexion of PIP since flexor tendon now unopposed at PIP
75
Inadequate socket flexion causes what gait deviation in an amputee?
lordosis during stance
76
Lhermitte's sign is seen in what population(s)?
MS, compression disorders of c-spine (tumor, cervical myelopathy)
77
Crackles are heard with what types of issues?
atelectasis, secretions
78
What causes wheezing breath sounds?
limited airway opening, inflammation
79
Do you want to apply vigorous airway clearance technqiues for a patient with CF admitted for acute respiratory failure as a result of infection?
yes, need vigorous clearance to clear all secretions to help get rid of infection - complete every 2 hours
80
What's the first thing a PT should do when a patient falls?
check for responsiveness
81
Would moving the front castor wheels closer to the drive wheels increase stability of a wheelchair for a bariatric patient?
no, it would actually decrease stability because the castors would be moved back
82
How would you fix the rear axle to allow for a more efficient push for a bariatric patient in a wheelchair?
displace the rear axle more foreward
83
Are gaze stability and postural stability exercises used to treat BPPV?
no, they treat unilateral/bilateral vestibular hypofunction
84
When is habituation training used?
for patients with unilateral vestibular hypofunction or those with central vestibular lesions that present with continual complaints of dizziness
85
Why might a patient have swelling of unilateral inguinal lymph node?
most common cause is injury or infection involving distal foot, leg, thigh, or hip
86
What effects can statins have?
some can experience myalgia, cramps, stiffness, spasm, weakenss - need to watch for liver/muscle dysfunctions from statins
87
Do LMN injuries have spastic or flaccid bladder? How would you allow for independent voiding?
flaccid - timed voiding program - crede manuever (manual pressing on lower abdomen) - valsalva to increase intraabdominal pressure
88
Would timed voiding help an UMN patient? How do patients void with a UMN injury?
no, because they have a spastic bladder, not flaccid - spastic bladders (from UMN) only have reflexic emptying - reflexic emptying can be ellicited from manual emptying techniques (suprapubic stroking/tapping)
89
What are emptying techniques for a spastic bladder?
manual emptying techniques: suprapubic kneading, stroking, tapping
90
What are the stages of pressure ulcers? (IV)
``` I = nonblachable erythema of intact skin II = partial thickness skin loss involving epidermis/dermis III = full-thickness skin loss with damage to/necrosis of subcutaneous tissue IV = full thickness skin loss with tissue necrosis, damage to muscle/bone/supporting structures ```
91
How would you identify if two-joint hip flexors are shortened in thomas test?
if knee is unable to flex to at least 80 in dependent position

BOARDS: Practice Exams - incorrect questions (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions