Practice Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following refers to the connection of events based on some common basis?

A

Correlation

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2
Q

A manufacturing company has hired a third-party team to discover and exploit it system vulnerabilities on two subnets used by devices in a tire manufacturing plant. Prior to the technical testing portion of the engagement, team members scanned public social media posts of plan employees and discovered specific versions of network infrastructure equipment in use at that plant.
After the testing, what phrase should testers include in the documented findings that are presented to the manufacturing company?
-Penetration tested a partially known environment
-Vulnerability scanned an unknown environment
-Penetration tested an unknown environment
-Vulnerability scanned a partially known environment

A

Penetration tested a partially known environment.

Something about the environment is known, makes it “partially known”.
Testers are attempting to identify and exploit discovered vulnerabilities, makes it “penetration testing”

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3
Q

What technique is used to identify and track patterns in human emotions, opinions, or attitudes that may be present in data?

A

Sentiment analysis

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4
Q

Your web application developers come to you and request affinity scheduling from the load balancers. Why does a web application benefit from affinity scheduling?

A

Affinity scheduling can allow a user to stay logged in to a session instead of opening a new session each time they are sent to a new server host.

Affinity scheduling sends each subsequent request to the same web server, allowing the server to track session state even though HTTP/HTTPS is a stateless protocol

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5
Q

Which of the following is an older form of attack where a malicious/compromised website places invisible controls on a page, giving users the impression they are clicking some safe item that actually is an active control for something malicious?

A

Clickjacking

This attack is almost never seen anymore as it’s easy to detect this type of attack

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6
Q

Which of the following is a software or a hardware appliance responsible for balancing user requests and network traffic among several different physical or virtualized hosts?

A

Load Balancer

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7
Q

What capability is used to check the origin of an email sender?

A

DNS

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8
Q

For which of the following should employees receive training to establish how they are to treat information of differing sensitivity levels?

A

Information classification

An organization’s information classification policy outlines what level of security protections certain data receives and instructs employees on how to treat sensitive data

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9
Q

Which of the following statements best defines the recovery point objective (RPO)?

A

The maximum allowable amount of data (measured in time) that the organization can afford to lose during a disaster or an incident

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10
Q

You have been tasked with conducting a security assessment of hosts on a n IP subnet. The subnet hosts run a variety of services including HTTP and SQL databases. When configuring the vulnerability scan, you enter a number of sets of valid credentials that will be used when probing hosts. After running the scan and reviewing the results, a colleague suggests the scan results are useless since the credentials were known.
Which IT security concept validates the scan results?

A

Zero Trust

This concept requires security experts to consider the insider threat; not to trust users and IT systems behind firewalls on internal networks

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11
Q

Which correctly describes the incident response team?

A

Personnel designated to respond to an incident

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12
Q

What role does the blue team play in exercises and competitions?

A

Defensive actions

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13
Q

Which of the following statements is not true about PUPs (potentially unwanted programs)?

A

PUPs are usually installed by worms.

PUPs are usually bundled with legitimate apps by third-party download sites and not spread by worms. Example- you may download and install a photo editing app but it also installs a browser toolbar that you don’t really want.

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14
Q

You have been tasked with planning a solution where cryptographic key generation and web application cryptographic operations are centralized on the network. What should you implement?

A

HSM

A network hardware security module (HSM) is a tamper-proof security device connected to the network that can perform cryptographic operations for many network hosts

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15
Q

You are preparing to begin an IT technical penetration test of a web application server. Which tasks relate to the reconnaissance phase of the testing?

A

Identify the web administrator

The reconnaissance phase focuses on learning as much as possible about the target. Knowing the web administrator can lead attackers to scour the web for anything related to that person

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16
Q

Which of the following terms indicates the length of time a device is expected to last in operation, and only a single, definitive failure will occur and will require that the device be replaced rather than repaired?

A

mean time to failure

The MTTF is the length of time a device is expected to last in operation

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17
Q

You get a new batch of servers into your network operations center. After you install the initial operating system (OS), what is your first step in applying system hardening to the servers?

A

Closing unused ports and disabling unused services

This reduces the attack vector and can prevent future vulnerabilities

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18
Q

Which of the following is the biggest risk involved in cloud computing?

A

Lack of control

lack of control over data and the infrastructure

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19
Q

Which type of cloud service is usually operated by a third-party provider that sells or rents “pieces” of the cloud to different entities, such as small businesses or large corporations, to use as they need?

A

Public

A public cloud is operated by a third-party provider who leases the space in the cloud to anyone who needs it

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20
Q

You are asked to prepare a brief to senior management about insider threats. You detail the use of data loss prevention (DLP) as a major factor in identifying and protecting against insider threats. What is the primary reason DLP can protect against these threats?

A

Prevention of sensitive data being transferred in an unauthorized manner

DLP is designed to prevent sensitive data from being moved unto storage that could allow it to be transferred outside an organization, or to prevent sensitive data from being sent via email

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21
Q

To reduce the configuration management burden of user devices, your manager has decided a security monitoring solution must be implemented where technician stations can scan and query user devices on demand. The installation, configuration, and maintenance of security monitoring software on user devices is not desirable. What type of device security monitoring solution should be considered?

A

Agentless

An agentless solution does not require software running on user devices. Instead, security actions can be initiated from servers or technician stations

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22
Q

Which of the following terms represents the manufacturer’s best guess (based on historical data) regarding how much time will pass between major failures of a component produced by that manufacturer?

A

Mean time between failures

MTBF represents the manufacturer’s best guess (based on historical data) regarding how much time will pass between major failures of that component. This is assuming that more than one failure will occur, which means that the component will be repaired, rather than replaced

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23
Q

You are part of a penetration testing red team that will attempt to discover and exploit IT service vulnerabilities. Due to the sensitive nature of data on the network to be pen tested, the red team has been asked to sign a legal document. Which document is the most likely to be signed?

A

Non-disclosure agreement

An NDA is common with penetration testing teams. It assures the data custodians that any sensitive data exposed during the testing will not be disclosed to third parties under any circumstances

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24
Q

Which of the following solutions allow applications that users can download, install, and execute to be added to a safe list?

A

Whitelisting

Applications that users are allowed to download, install, and execute are added a whitelist (“allow list”) by an administrator. The opposite of blacklisting

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25
Which of the following refers to the collecting of information in a central place, in a common format, to facilitate analysis and decision making?
Aggregation
26
Which of the following correctly defines a combination of hardware and software that classify and analyze data from numerous sources?
SIEM Security Information and Event Management systems consist of a combination of hardware and software that classify and analyze data from numerous sources
27
Your monitoring and patch management was put together in house. It has multiple scripts that need to log in to servers and network devices to query for certain information. It currently uses Telnet to establish these connections using credentials stored in a flat file. In improving security of the monitoring system, what are some reason you would mandate switching to SSH? -Uses asymmetric keys for authentication -Allows access to superuser commands -Does not require the use of pre-shared keys -Uses an encrypted connection
-Uses asymmetric keys for authentication -Uses an encrypted connection The connections between the client and server are encrypted. This prevents the credentials from being observed in the packets on the network. SSH performs authentication using server asymmetric keys
28
You have received an unsolicited email message from a website stating that you should click a button to rest your password. What would you do?
Visit the vendor website and, if needed, update your password there.
29
Why is event deduplication an important function of a SIEM system?
A SIEM system can record events in a central store and eliminate redundant events to produce more accurate statistics and analysis
30
Which of the following types of network connected systems can managed heating, ventilation, and air conditioning controls?
Supervisory control and data acquisition
31
What is one major disadvantage external actors have when compared to internal actors?
External actors have to establish access to the systems they want to attack
32
Which of the following formal management efforts is designed to remediate security flaws discovered in applications and operating systems?
Patch management It is the formal management effort designed to remediate vulnerabilities and other software flaws on a regular basis
33
Which of the following are used to back up files that have changed since the last full backup of a virtual machine? Select two. -Differential backup -Incremental backup -System state backup -Snapshot
-Differential backup -Incremental backup
34
Your organization wants you to create and implement a policy that will detail proper use of its information systems during work hours. Which of the following is the best choice?
Acceptable use policy The policy details what is and what is not acceptable for users to do during their working hours, including personal use and unacceptable activities on the company network, such as gambling
35
You have received reports that a number of hosts in your company's internal network are sluggish and unresponsive. After troubleshooting other items, you decide to use a sniffer to examine the network traffic coming into the host. You see that massive amounts of ICMP broadcasts are being sent on the network. The switch is having trouble processing all of this traffic, due to repeated ICMP replies, causing it to slow down. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this?
Flood attack This is a type of network attack based upon confusing a switch with ICMP traffic
36
The installation guide for your new antivirus includes a section on encryption/decryption loop-monitoring options. The guide says these options may use more resources if enabled, so why should you enable them?
Encrypted executables cannot be scanned with traditional mean. Therefore, watching for unusual encryption/decryption loops can indicate a program is malicious. Encryption prevents antivirus programs from scanning the files used by the malware, thus preventing detection. Scanning for encryption operations when most programs do not use encryption regularly in a good way to identify potential threats.
37
Which of these items are considered "unsecure" protocols? Select three. -HTTP -SSH -Telnet -FTP
-HTTP -Telnet -FTP SSH is incorrect, it stands for Secure Shell
38
Which of the following statements best describes a buffer overflow attack?
An attack that exceeds the memory allocated to an application for a particular function, causing it to crash.
39
You are conducting a penetration test for a vehicle repair shop. The environment consists of a guest Wi-Fi network requiring a security code, which is printed on a piece of paper in the guest waiting area. The employee computers are connected to a separate wired network in the office. After posing as a legitimate customer, you wait in the guest lounge connected to the Wi-Fi network, and capture network traffic using a network protocol analyzer program. After analyzing traffic, you realize that the Wi-Fi router appears to be using vulnerable network protocols. To which penetration testing phase does this activity apply?
Reconnaissance Reconnaissance means learning as much as possible about attack targets. Capturing network traffic is considered passive; there is no reaching out and scanning of some or all hosts and devices on the network
40
What resides on network devices and filters traffic coming into and out of the device?
ACL An Access Control List
41
If you are trying to collect information about a company in the stealthiest manner possible without being discovered, you might use which of the following?
Passive reconnaissance This is performed using methods to gain information about targeted computers and networks without actively engaging with the target system, thus avoiding detection. May gain less information than other methods, but is quieter
42
Travis just got promoted to network administrator after the previous administrator left rather abruptly. There are three new hires that need onboarding with user accounts. When Travis looks at all the existing account names, he notices there is no common naming system. Where should he look to try to give the new hires user accounts with proper naming conventions?
The company's account policy
43
Which of the following is a form of intentional interference with a wireless network?
Jamming This is an intentional interference with the signal of a wireless network. Often part of DoS attack
44
Public legers are used to track transactions for which of the following?
Cryptocurrency
45
Which of the following types of factors could be used to describe a fingerprint-based method of logging in and authenticating to a touchscreen device?
Something you are A biometric factor
46
Why is time synchronization an important function for a SIEM system to perform?
It's important to compare events in both local time for local events and UTC SIEM systems can simplify the maintenance and correlation of local events to UTC
47
Which of the following involves the use of rules and analytical engines to identify predetermines patterns and react to them?
Automated alerting
48
What type of control assists and mitigates the risk an existing control is unable to mitigate?
Compensating control A compensating control assists and mitigates the risk an existing control is unable to mitigate
49
For security purposes, how are network hosts typically separated? Choose two. -Physically -Functionally -Logically -Geographically
-physically -logically Networks are typically separated for security purposes either physically, logically, or both. Physical separation involves separating network hosts by connecting them to different devices. Logical separation involves separating them through segmented IP subnetworks
50
Your company is in the midst of negotiating a business partnership with an organization specializing in secure software development for the medical industry. The partner organization has requested proof that your organization is compliant with HIPAA data privacy standards. What type of documentation
Security Attestation This is a formal verification that a given party has achieved a specified security status, or compliance, with a security regulation such as HIPAA in the medical industry. Attestation letters can be provided by third party security auditors or data privacy officers within an organization
51
Jewel's team located a compromised system. Their SIEM software successfully disconnected the system, but her team hasn't yet cleaned up the compromised system. What point of the incident response process has Jewel's team completed?
containment containment separates the incident from the rest of the enterprise
52
Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between the elements of risk?
Threats exploit vulnerabilities
53
Your compnay has deployed Linux virtual machines in the public cloud. After recent attempts at SSH brute-forcing against the Linux hosts were detected, you decide to mitigate the possiblity of attacks initiated from the Internet while allowing secured remote management connections over the Internet. What should you configure?
Jump Server A jump server allows secured and authenticated connections from a public network such as the Internet, and it serves as a launching pad from which remote service management, including Linux SSH remote management, is possible using only private IP addresses. The use of only private Ip addresses for cloud-based virtual machines means they are not even visible from the Internet
54
Which of the following algorithms won the US government-sponsored competition to become the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)?
Rijndael
55
What are the IPSec modes of connection? Select three. -Server to network -Hose to host -Host to server -Server to server
-host to host -host to server -server to server IPSec can establish tunnels between different networks by using servers as endpoints and establishing a server-to-server connection, or it performs transport between hosts
56
The Morris finger work, Code Red, and Slammer all used what type of attack to compromise systems?
Buffer overflow Each of the worms used buffer overflow attacks. In a buffer overflow attack, the input buffer used to hold program input is overwritten with data that is larger than the buffer can hold. This can lead to things such as program crashes and execution of malicious code
57
When information is converted to an unreadable state using cryptography, in what form is the information?
Ciphertext
58
If a person knows a control exists, and this control keeps him or her from performing a malicious act, what type of control would this be classified as?
Deterrent control A deterrent control keeps someone from performing a malicious act, provided that he or she knows the control is there and is aware of the consequences of violating it
59
You are working on a project to implement VPNs between all remote offices that are part of the corporate network. The choices made here will be in place for at least five years. Due to its open framework, you are wanting to implement IPSec. How does the open framework affect your choice?
An open framework allows the underlying cipher suites to be updated as needed IPSec has an open framework that does not specify any specific algorithm. This allows IPSec to use modernized versions of ciphers and hashes when an issue is found with older algorithms
60
Which of the following are characteristics of hashing? Select three. -hashing can be used to protect data integrity -hashes are decrypted using the same algorithm and key that encrypted them -hashes are cryptographic representations of plaintext -hashes produce fixed-length digests for variable-length text
-hashing can be used to protect data integrity -hashes are cryptographic representations of plaintext -hashes produce fixed-lenght digest for variable-length text not -hashes are decrypted using the same algorithm and key that encrypted them they are one-way mathematical functions and cannot be decrypted
61
Which of the following is a point-in-time backup of certain key configuration settings of a virtual machine, allowing the VM to be restored back to that point in time if it suffers a crash or other issue?
Snapshot Snapshot is a quick backup of critical configuration files, used by the hypervisor to restore the virtual machine back to its point-in-time status should it become unstable or suffer any other issues
62
Which of the following statements about EOSL items is true?
An EOSL item is no longer supported by the OEM End of Service Life item is something that is no longer supported by the original equipment manufacturer (OEM)
63
Which of the following concepts should be the most important consideration when determining how to budget properly for security controls?
Risk likelihood and impact
64
You are in a meeting with a vendor selling antivirus products. You are interested in heuristic-based antivirus, but this vendor is heavily pushing signature-based antivirus. What is the strongest reason you might avoid this product?
Signature antivirus can only detect known malware Antivirus programs that use signature detection can only protect against threats that are known
65
Why is remote wiping of mobile devices so important?
They are more susceptible to loss than other devices
66
Which type of assessment looks at events that could exploit vulnerabilities?
threat assessment
67
Rules of engagement for a penetration test are primarily used for the following?
to establish boundaries associated with the testing What systems and actions are in scope, what should never be done, who should be contacted if vulnerabilities are found, etc.
68
Your company plans on opening three new branch offices in different parts of the world. Devices on each branch office network must be able to securely connect to services on all other branch office networks with the least amount of network latency. The solution must include web filtering and firewall rule capabilities. Each branch office currently has a secured connection into a public cloud provider. Which solution should you implement? -cloud-based reverse proxying -SASE -site-to-site VPN -SD-WAN
SASE A secure-access-service edge solution combines cloud-based wide area network virtualization and network security services, such as firewall rules and web filtering. Branch offices already connecting to the public cloud can route traffic through a cloud-based SASE configuration that uses the public cloud provider global network backbone to get traffic to other branch offices with standard Internet network congestion issues
69
What does WPA3 use Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE) to do?
It is used as a password-based key exchange to create strong shared secrets SAE is an enhancement to the WPA2 pre-shared key weakness; it creates a strong shared secret without needing to pre-share a key
70
You are a security technician participating in a penetration testing red team. What is another name for a pen test red team?
Offensive team Called offensive teams because they actively scan for and attempt to exploit vulnerabilities in business processes and IT systems
71
Which of the following is a list of known vulnerabilities in software systems?
Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures THE CVE enumeration is a list of known vulnerabilities in software systems. Each vulnerability in the list has an identification number, a description, and reference
72
What type of organizations are the main users of an interconnection service agreement (ISA)?
Telecommunication companies Companies will use an interconnection service agreement (ISA) when connecting to each other's network to handle essential details about technology and personnel
73
Which of the following allows for the mixing of business and personal matters?
Containerization Containerization divides a device into containers-one holding company information, and the other holding personal information
74
Which of the following provides the capability to capture and analyze traffic passing through a network?
Protocol analyzer
75
You have successfully deployed antivirus to all client workstations but are still dealing with virus problems. What would be your next target for antivirus filtering?
Email servers Antivirus programs are almost always deployed as part of a modern email server package. The email system has been a large vector for malware, as it delivers external data directly to internal endpoints.
76
What are two major causes of weak encryption?
Developing your own, proprietary algorithm and using weak cipher suites Self-developed or proprietary cryptographic algorithms that do not undergo widespread scrutiny and testing are often inferior to widely tested and scrutinized algorithms, as weaknesses are not discovered by the algorithm's inventors. Weak cipher suites are suites that were once considered to be secure but are no longer secure due to discovered weakness or advancements in computational power
77
It has been discovered that you have an attacker in your systems that has been performing LDAP injection attacks against your directory in an attempt to escalate their privileges onto other systems. After the initial response, you consider using LDAPS to make a future injection attack more difficult. What is required to make LDAP traffic secure with LDAPS and how can it help prevent injection attacks?
A certificate provided by a certificate authority (CA); encrypting the LDAP traffic prevents attackers from knowing attribute names LDAPS utilizes a TLS connection in LDAPSv2 and SASL in LDAPSv3. This requires a certificate to be applied that has been signed by a CA that is trusted by the client. This method makes injection attacks more difficult by preventing an attacker from monitoring the network for LDAP attribute streams.
78
Which is a specific element of an incident response plan?
Roles and responsibilities
79
The incident response team is activated because the load balancing system failed after the installation of a new application. The only difference with the new application is that it required active/active load balancing. What likely caused this issue?
A poor capacity plan. Because active/active load balancing is handling all traffic, any failure will cause all traffic to go through a single node, potentially overloading the system. As active/active load balancing handles a portion of all traffic, the system should not exceed 50% of total capacity to avoid being overloaded should a node go offline
80
Which of the following DES/AES encryption modes is considered the weakest?
ECB With ECB mode, a give piece of plaintext will always produce the same corresponding piece of ciphertext. The predictability makes it weak.
81
Which technique is employed when executing a distributed denial-of-service attack?
Spoofing Attackers will spoof, or forge, the source IP address of the victim device when requesting responses from servers (reflectors), which in turn send the responses (reflections) to victim devices. Specifically crafted requests sent to vulnerable network services running on a reflector server can result in very large amounts of useless network traffic.
82
In a vulnerability scan, a reported vulnerability that is not actually a vulnerability is known as which of the following?
False positive A reported vulnerability that is not actually a real vulnerability is known as a false positive. You get an indicator for something, but that indicator is wrong and should not have been reported
83
Which of the following statements about bug bounty programs are true? Select two. -Companies pay people to find vulnerabilities in their software -They are not used by reputable companies -Discovered bugs are worth very little -They are usually open
-companies pay people to find vulnerabilities in their software -they are usually open to the public Bug bounty programs are mechanisms where companies pay hackers for revealing the details of vulnerabilities that they discover in software and/or hardware products, providing the company an opportunity to correct an issue before it is exploited for malicious purposes. They are usually open to the public as companies like to have as many people testing their software as possible.
84
What does the A in the CIA triad stand for?
Availability
85
What is the main goal of an APT?
To establish and maintain a presence on the target network for a long period of time Advanced Persistent Threat attacks are characterized by using toolkits to achieve a presence on a target network and then, instead of just moving to steal information, focusing on the long game by maintaining a persistent presence on the target network for as long as possible.
86
What is the largest advantage host-based firewalls have over network-based firewalls?
Host-based firewalls have knowledge of the functions of the endpoint and can tune the traffic management to match. Host-based firewalls can be tuned to the specific applications on the endpoint and the normal traffic on the endpoint.
87
Which of the following is generally a script planted by a disgruntled employee or other malicious actor that is set to execute at a certain time?
Logic bomb A logic bomb is simply a script that is set to execute at a certain time. Logic bombs are usually created by rogue administrators or disgruntled employees.
88
Which of the following processes is concerned with validating credentials?
Authentication Authentication is the process of validating that a user's credentials are authentic, after the user has presented them through the identification process.
89
Which of the following formal management efforts is a formalized process that involves both long-term and short-term infrastructure changes?
Change management
90
Which is not a specific type of recovery site?
Geographic site