practice cen test

Question 1

Compartment syndrome
intervention is_____ at level of heart

Answer 1

elevation

Question 2

Cardiac tamponade is associated with low/narrowing ____ ______ As the pericardium fills with blood the heart looses its ability to____.

Answer 2

pulse pressure
pump

Question 3

Magnesium toxicity s/s include___, hypoxia, loss of____ reflexes, CNS depression and nausea

Answer 3

SOB
patellar

Question 4

TYPE 1 OR Wenckebach=

Answer 4

longer longer longer drop

Question 5

Second degree type II has a constant PR interval with a blocked P wave

Answer 5

has a constant PR interval with a blocked P wave

Question 6

Third degree heart block is characterized by a _____ ________

Answer 6

characterized by a complete dissociation

Question 7

A PaCO2 reading above__ mm Hg or above the patient’s baseline is indicative of respiratory failure.

Answer 7

.60

Question 8

An inevitable abortion occurs when the cervical os has opened and membranes have ruptured. The patient experiences vaginal______ and lower abdominal______.

Answer 8

bleeding
cramping

Question 9

an impaired gag reflex and difficulty with phonation following a traumatic brain injury is associated with_____ nerve

Answer 9

vagus

Question 10

Brown-Séquard syndrome is an _______ spinal cord lesion characterized by ipsilateral paralysis or paresis; loss of pressure, touch, and vibration perception; and______ loss of pain and temperature perception.

Answer 10

incomplete

contralateral

Question 11

Procalcitonin is a peptide precursor of the hormone_____. It rises in response to a proinflammatory stimulus, especially one of______ origin. It is part of the standard sepsis workup.

Answer 11

calcitonin

bacterial

Question 12

Activated charcoal is indicated for_______-release drugs:

Answer 12

extended

carbamazepine, dapsone, quinine, theophylline, and enteric-coated drugs.

Question 13

Interventions for a patient with a retinal detachment include ophthalmology_____, preparation for surgical______, and absolute______.

Answer 13

referral
intervention
bedrest

Question 14

Calcium gluconate gel is applied to skin having_______ acid burns because it reacts with the acid to create insoluble (non-toxic) calcium_____.

Answer 14

hydrofluoric

fluoride

Question 15

Topical fat emollient is used to remove_______ from the skin.

Answer 15

tar/asphalt

Question 16

The reticular activating system is a set of connecting nuclei in the brain responsible for regulating______ and sleep-wake transitions.

Answer 16

wakefulness

Question 17

______ kidney injury is caused by obstruction of the urinary tract. Based on his symptoms and history, a kidney stone is the most likely cause. Nephrolithiasis (kidney stone disease) can cause post-renal acute kidney injury (AKI) via obstruction of urinary outflow, often associated with rapid deterioration in renal function._______ kidney damage can result if urinary drainage is not corrected in a timely fashion.

Answer 17

Postrenal

Irreversible

Question 18

This patient has signs of a flail chest. Because of the pain and paradoxical chest wall movement, adequate______ is difficult. Intubation and mechanical ventilation with positive end-expiratory pressure will limit the risk of hypoventilation and development of pneumonia.

Answer 18

ventilation

Question 19

The disease most commonly associated with the catarrhal, paroxysmal, and_______ stages is pertussis. Pertussis is best treated with______ antibiotics.

Answer 19

convalescent

macrolide

Question 20

A patient with peritonitis presents with a____ abdomen, fever, and diminished or absent bowel sounds. This is the result of contaminated fluid leaking into the peritoneum following abdominal trauma.

Answer 20

rigid

Question 21

Wolff–Parkinson–White is a form of tachycardia with abnormal impulses that arise_____ the ventricles.

Answer 21

above

Question 22

Pancreatitis pain is located in the epigastrium and is described as____ and steady. Because of the pancreas’ retroperitoneal location, pain may radiate through the abdomen to the _____.

Answer 22

dull

dull

Question 23

Beck’s triad is a set of three clinical manifestations associated with ________ _______. The signs are distended _____ veins, _____ heart tones, and______.

Answer 23

pericardial tamponade

jugular
muffled
hypotension

Question 24

Cushing’s triad is a group of manifestations associated with increasing _______ pressure. The signs are____ pulse pressure, ____cardia, and______ breathing.

Answer 24

intracranial

widening
brady
abnormal

Question 25

Kehr's sign is referred pain to the _____ associated with blood in the peritoneal cavity.

Answer 25

shoulder

Question 26

Kussmaul's sign is an elevation of the neck_____ with inspiration

Answer 26

veins

Question 27

. Vigorous maternal______ provides the fetus with the best chance of survival.

Answer 27

resuscitation

Question 28

A patient presenting with duodenal ulcer is often between the ages of 20 and __. There is pain before eating that is often relieved by_____ or eating. Duodenal ulcers heal spontaneously but may recur frequently.

Answer 28

45 antacids

Question 29

A stress ulcer is caused by physical stress associated with a prolonged illness or trauma. A patient presenting with a stress ulcer may have clinical presentations that include "_____ ______" emesis or melena.

Answer 29

coffee ground

Question 30

Uterine fibroids are muscular _____ that grow in the wall of the uterus. They cause pain and _____ menstrual bleeding.

Answer 30

tumors heavy

Question 31

manifestations of pelvic inflammatory disease include abdominal __, dyspareunia, vaginal discharge ____, and cervical motion tenderness, not uterine bleeding.

Answer 31

pain fever

Question 32

Labyrinthitis is an ____ ear condition with clinical manifestations that include ear pain, nausea, vomiting, vertigo, and tinnitus. Labyrinthitis is treated with hydration, bed rest, corticosteroids, and antiemetics. Antibiotics are give only for a bacterial infection.

Answer 32

inner

Question 33

Immunoglobulin _ is the first line of defense in the resistance against infection.

Answer 33

A

Question 34

Immunoglobulin E (IgE) is responsible for Type 1_______ responses.

Answer 34

allergic

Question 35

Immunoglobulin G (IgG) is the most_____ antibody found in blood and other body fluids and protects against bacterial and____ infections.

Answer 35

common viral

Question 36

Immunoglobulin M (IgM) is found mainly in blood and____ fluid. This is the____ antibody the body makes when it fights a new infection.

Answer 36

lymph first

Question 37

An abnormal or pathologic _ wave is at least 0.04 seconds in duration and at least 25% the_____ of the R wave that follows and may be an indication of an old myocardial infarction.

Answer 37

Q height

Question 38

To limit the spread of all sexually transmitted infections, patients should inform all sexual partners in order for them to seek evaluation and treatment. Patients should not have sexual intercourse for _ days after treatment for gonorrhea has been completed because reinfection can occur.

Answer 38

7

Question 39

Patients who have a positive skin test require futher testing such as a sputum specimen to determine if the TB is latent or active. This patient has asymptomatic tuberculosis (TB) or latent TB and is____ contagious, therefore, they only require standard precautions.

Answer 39

NOT

Question 40

In Guillain-Barré syndrome, neuropathy usually begins in_____ extremities and ascends in a symmetrical pattern. Pain is usually worse at_____.

Answer 40

lower night

Question 41

_____ is inflammation of the uveal tract of the eye. Clinical manifestations include pain upon palpation,_____ vision, severe photophobia, tearing, _____ around the outer ring of the iris, and an ______ pupil. It can occur with trauma or in inflammatory or infectious situations. It is also associated with immune disease processes such as rheumatoid arthritis, lupus, ankylosing spondylitis, or syphilis.

Answer 41

iritis blurry redness irregular

Question 42

Pleural effusion is the collection of fluid in the pleural space, causing dyspnea, hemoptysis, cough, and pain. Patients presenting with pleural effusion have a history of heart failure, ______, and/or malignant disease. This patient's history is consistent with having a pleural effusion.

Answer 42

pneumonia

Question 43

______ heard over the left lung fields, indicate the presence of bowel sounds in the thoracic cavity and occurs with diaphragmatic rupture.

Answer 43

gurgling

Question 44

Narrow-angle closure glaucoma is defined as glaucoma from narrowing/closure of anterior chamber angle (usually due to pupillary block), leading to inadequate drainage of aqueous humor and, ultimately, atrophy/neuropathy of the optic nerve head secondary to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). This is one of the big causes of the ____ painful eye. This is not something to miss as this is the leading cause of irreversible blindness globally.

Answer 44

red

Question 45

This patient is exhibiting signs and symptoms of cardiogenic shock such as altered mental status, hypotension, ______ congestion, and ____ extremities. Myocardial ischemia or infarction are common causes of cardiogenic shock. The goal of treatment is to restore cardiac output and prevent the progression of end-organ damage, so initiating a vasopressor such as _____ should improve mycardial contractility and cardiac output.

Answer 45

pulmonary cool dopamine

Question 46

Sudden, sharp, stabbing pain in the chest, flank, and back that is unrelieved by analgesia and nitroglycerin can be a sign of an _____ ______. If the dissection is in the ______ aorta, there may also be signs of stroke. Another manifestation of this condition is a difference of 20 mm Hg in systolic blood pressure between the left and right arms.

Answer 46

aortic dissection ascending

Question 47

Hemodialysis is recommended for patients with renal failure due to the kidneys' inability to clear _____ from the body.

Answer 47

lithium

Question 48

A patient classifed as level 2 according the Emergency Severity Index (ESI) is considered high risk and should not wait. They are an emergent patient, with a potential threat to life, limb, or function. While in the waiting room, an HIV patient could become ______ if exposed to other patients with potential infections.

Answer 48

worse

Question 49

Mallory–Weiss syndrome is characterized by small tears in the junction of the ______ and stomach caused by violent retching and vomiting. A history of _____ consumption, aspirin use, heavy lifting, coughing, and ____ lead to this syndrome.

Answer 49

esophagus alcohol bulimia

Question 50

Elevated blood pressure is an absolute contraindication for tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) administration. If administered to a patient with an elevated blood pressure, it may increase the likelihood of intracerebral hemorrhage. Blood pressure must be less than ___ mm Hg (systolic) and ____ mm Hg (diastolic).

Answer 50

185 110

Question 51

Right-sided heart failure results in blood backing up into the systemic ______ system, causing peripheral edema, ascites, or abdominal distention, and jugular venous distention. Dobutamine is a positive ______ that will increase stroke volume and cardiac output

Answer 51

venous inotrope

Question 52

Application of acetic acid (________) may deactivate the cause of the stinging pain from certain species of jellyfish.

Answer 52

vinegar

Question 53

_____ asthma exacerbation is indicated by a peak expiratory flow of 61% to 79%.

Answer 53

Moderate

Question 54

A peak expiratory flow of___ or greater of the patient's personal best represents a mild exacerbation of asthma.

Answer 54

80%

Question 55

A severe exacerbation of asthma is indicated by a peak expiratory flow of ___ or less

Answer 55

60%

Question 56

Cyanide is a by-product of the combustion of _____ materials, including plastics, which results in hypoxia, hypotension, and ____.

Answer 56

synthetic seizures