Practicals and Tutorials Flashcards

1
Q

What is the structure of acyclovir?

A

Similar structure to deoxyguanosine but it does not have a 3’ -OH group

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2
Q

Why is acyclovir useful?

A

It has selective toxicity.
Acyclovir is activated by thymidine kinase which is only present in viruses.
Acyclo-GTP has a higher affinity for viral DNA polymerase than host cell polymerase so it only gets incorporated into viral DNA.
The lack of 3’ -OH group means that it halts production of viral DNA when it’s incorporated.

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3
Q

What are the isoenzymes of creatine kinase?

A

Creatine kinase is a dimer which is coded for by 2 different genes.
BB - Brain
MM - Skeletal muscle
MB - Myocardium

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4
Q

What causes creatine kinase to be found in the blood?

A

Cell membrane damage causes leakage - lack of ATP means active transport protein stops working so intracellular substances leak out.

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5
Q

How is creatine kinase activity detected?

A

Coupled assays are used to detect NADPH which is far more easily detected than creatine or creatine kinase.
NADPH is detectable by UV light.

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6
Q

How are the creatine kinase isoenzymes separated?

A

By electrophoresis.
SDS-PAGE gives the proteins uniform charge and separates them by mass.
ISOELECTRIC FOCUSSING makes the enzymes move across the gel to their isoelectric points.

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7
Q

How is myocardial damage diagnosed?

A

MB creatine kinase isoenzyme (elevated serum levels are directly proportional to the size of myocardial damage, 30 mins to 2.5 days).
Troponin I and T (specific to cardiac muscle, appear after 48 hours to 5 days).
Lactate dehydrogenase (not particularly specific and only peaks after 6 days).
Serum Glutamate Oxaloacetate Transaminase (peaks as CK goes down).

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8
Q

Why can DNOC and DNP pass through the inner mitochondrial membrane?

A

Undissociated DNOC and DNP are aromatic weak acids so they can easily pass through the phospholipid bilayer membrane and accept/donate H+

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9
Q

Why does DNOC cause an increase in respiratory rate?

A

Decrease in ATP synthesis results in the body trying to deliver more oxygen to the respiring cells so there’s a higher breathing rate.

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10
Q

Post mortem findings in the metabolic poisons tutorial

A

Absence of body fats - fatty acids and glycerols stored in adipose tissue are used in respiration.
Red marrow - excessive O2 consumption accompanying fat metabolism leads to tissue hypoxia so the body overcomes this by increasing ventilation and erythropoiesis in the bone marrow.
Rigor mortis - lack of ATP caused by DNOC means that the muscle is left contracted because ATP is required to displace ADP to relax muscle.

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11
Q

What is the main cause and feature of osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Point mutation in Type 1 collagen - GGC to TGC - Glycine to Cysteine which causes a kink in the triple helix, affecting fibre assembly, and there are also inappropriate disulphide bonds formed.
Repeated fracture of long bones which is easily misdiagnosed as child abuse.

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12
Q

What are the consequences of deformed collagen?

A

Affected bone formation:
Bone is formed by laying down hydroxyapatite on an ordered scaffold of type 1 collagen so the mutation causes defects in the mineralisation process.
Patient has skeletal deformities and generally weak bones.

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13
Q

Prenatal diagnosis of osteogenesis imperfecta

A

Biopsy is impractical.
Obtain foetal DNA by CVS or amniocentesis + PCR amplification and then screen the DNA by designing specific probes to bind with the part of the DNA sequence where the mutation is known to occur.

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14
Q

What is the pattern of inheritance for osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Autosomal dominant - because only one of the collagen chains needs to be affected to alter the entire collagen as the three chains are wound around each other.

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15
Q

What happens in Type 1 sensitivity?

A

Activation of Th2 cells causes switch to IgE production, IgE binds to mast cells, antigen binds to IgE and the cross-linking causes mast cells to degranulate.

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16
Q

Effects of histamines

A

Vasodilation
Extravasation of fluid
Bronchoconstriction
Force of heart contraction/inotropy decreases
Smooth muscle contraction in intestinal walls

17
Q

Symptoms of anaphylactic shock

A

Dilation of peripheral blood vessels causes rashes and oedema, resulting in a dramatic blood pressure drop.

18
Q

Treatment for anaphylactic shock

A

Emergency treatment aimed at HYPOTENSION and then underlying inflammation.
Patient laid down with feet raised to improve blood supply to the head and trunk.
Epi-pen (ADRENALINE) which binds to alpha 1 receptors and constricts peripheral blood vessels in order to direct blood towards the organs.
IV drip to control blood pressure.
Medications e.g. anti-histamines and corticosteroids to control the allergic response.

19
Q

What is absorbance?

A

A = log10 (light transmitted through blank solution/light transmitted through test solution).
Therefore, if A = 1.0, 10% of the light is transmitted through the solution and the other 90% is absorbed.

20
Q

Beer-Lambert Law

A
A = e x c x l
A = Absorbance. 
e = Extinction coefficient. 
c = Concentration of absorbing substance.
l = Path length.
21
Q

How to distinguish between the 5 types of leukocyte

A
Neutrophil = multi-lobed nucleus.
Eosinophil = bi-lobed nucleus, bright pink cytoplasmic granules.
Lymphocyte = near spherical nucleus.
Basophil = lobed nucleus, strong blue cytoplasmic granules.
Monocyte = indented nucleus, pale granules.
22
Q

Vmax and Km

A

Vmax is the maximum enzyme velocity which is approached asymptotically as substrate concentration increases.
Km is the substrate concentration at which Vmax is exactly 1/2.

23
Q

1/[S] vs 1/V0 graph

A

1/substrate concentration vs 1/initial enzyme velocity.
X intercept = -1/Km.
Y intercept = 1/Vmax.

24
Q

Effects of competitive and non-competitive inhibitors

A

Competitive inhibitor increases -1/Km (less negative) but does not change 1/Vmax. KM INCREASES.
Non-competitive inhibitor increases 1/Vmax but does not change -1/Km. VMAX DECREASES.

25
Q

Normal RBC parameters:

A

RBC count: Men = 4.3-5.9 x 10^12 per litre, Female = 3.7-5.3 x 10^12 per litre.
Haematocrit: Male = 40-52%, Female = 35-47%.
Haemoglobin concentration: Male = 133-177 g/l, Female = 117-157 g/l.
MCV = 80-100 fl.
MCH = 26-34 pg.
MCHC = 320-360 g/l.

26
Q

What is a condition called when its mode of inheritance is autosomal dominant but it involves the loss of function of a protein.

A

HAPLOINSUFFICIENCY.

27
Q

Bacterial biochemical tests

A

Oxidase test - strip turns purple if the bacteria is positive for cytochrome oxidase.
Catalase test - bubbles appear if the bacteria is positive for catalase.
Coagulase test - clumping/clots if the bacteria is positive for coagulase (indicates Staphylococcus aureus).

28
Q

RBC parameter equations

A
MCV = Hct/(RBC x 100) litres
MCH = Hb/RBC grams 
MCHC = (Hb x 100)/Hct grams per litre