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CompTIA A+ > Prac Question Flashcards > Flashcards

Prac Question Flashcards

1
Q

___ is the actual speed of the CPU is governed by a BIOS setting.

A

Clock speed

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2
Q

Processors can be overclocked by manually adjusting the _ _, __ and __ settings.

A

the clock rate, voltage, and memory

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3
Q

The __ __ is the portion of the CPU that performs calculations and operations

A

processor core

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4
Q

The __ is a temporary storage for the core so that it can “remember” the most recent processes

A

Cache

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5
Q

Level one cache (L1 cache) is located in the __ __.

A

CPU core.

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6
Q

L2 cache and L3 cache are part of the __ __.

A

CPU die.

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7
Q

same time.

A

Hyperthreading

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8
Q

on the same computer.

A

Virtualization

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9
Q

Intel uses the term ___ to identify processors that support virtualization,

A

VT-x

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10
Q

AMD uses the term ___ to identify processors that support virtualization,

A

AMD-V

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11
Q

Intel’s Core i3, Core i5, and some Core i7 desktop processors (and all mobile processor in these families) include integrated _____,

A

graphics

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12
Q

graphics.

A

Accelerated Processing Unit

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13
Q

to make actual contact.

A

Zero Insertion

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14
Q

processors that use contact-based rather than pin-based connections to the motherboard.

A

Land Grid Array and Ball Grid Array

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15
Q

CPU interface with the motherboard.

A

Pin Grid Array and Staggered Pin Grid Array

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16
Q

There are two major types of RAM (random access memory): __ and __.

A

dynamic and static

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17
Q

____ (_) loses information in a very short period of time in the absence of power.

A

Dynamic RAM

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18
Q

____ (_) retains its data for longer periods without power and is faster than DRAM, but is bulkier and is much more expensive

A

Static RAM

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19
Q

In general, _____ is used as system memory, and _____ is used for cache and storage devices.

A

DRAM , SRAM

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20
Q

____data transfer is timed to the system clock

A

Synchronous

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21
Q

the first type of SDRAM used in PCs had __ pins.

A

168

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22
Q

double data rate (DDR) memory has __ pins and is inserted as a ___.

A

184

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23
Q

DDR2 and DDR3 both contain __-pin modules.

A

240-pin modules

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24
Q

The memory modules used for SDRAM-class memory are known as _____

A

dual inline memory module (DIMM)

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25
Q

This module, ___, provides 64-bit-wide memory access.

A

(DIMM).

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26
Q

These processors that have a 64-bit data bus: ___ and ___.

A

x86 (32-bit) and x86-64 (64-bit)

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27
Q

DIMMs have a _____ data bus

A

64

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28
Q

RIMM stands for __ __ Memory Module

A

The RAMBUS Inline

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29
Q

(RIMM) uses a proprietary _____ pin slot

A

184- or 232

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30
Q

RAMBUS often called _____ is found in ___ ___ systems and a limited number of PCs. On such systems, empty RIMM slots must be filled with (CRIMM) _____modules.

A

RDRAM,game console,Continuity RIMM

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31
Q

__ ___ (VRAM)is used for ___ ___ ___ (_)

A

video RAM for the use of the graphic processing unit (GPU).

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32
Q

of what kind of RAM?

A

SDRAM

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33
Q

___ is used when the reliability of the data is more important than the speed at which it is written or read. ___ adds a bit to each byte so that every byte is an even number.

A

Parity

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34
Q

Parity is used in some ___ ___, ___ ___, and RAM,

A

network communications, hard drives,

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35
Q

__ __ ___ (_) detects and fixes corrupt data in RAM.

A

Error correction code (ECC)

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36
Q

CMOS stores the values that you select in the ___.

A

BIOS

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37
Q

the CPU.

A

Chipsets

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38
Q

The___ provides power to the CPU by adjusting the power received from the power supply to the appropriate voltage levels needed for a particular CPU.

A

motherboard

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39
Q

___ is the basis of all modern motherboards,including Micro-___ and ___

A

ATX , ATX and ITX

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40
Q

____ reverses the positions of components versus ATX and is designed for superior cooling of components such as memory and the CPU

A

BTX

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41
Q

____boards and ____ boards plug into the motherboard to expand the number of expansion slots or ports available, or in some cases, add devices.

A

Daughter and Riser

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42
Q

_ _ _ (AMR) and _ _ _ (CNR) riser cards provide I/O port connections

A

Audio Modem Riser (AMR) and Communications Network Risers

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43
Q

Internal hard drives mount in ___-inch or ___-inch bays

A

3.5-inch or 2.5-inch

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44
Q

Optical drives mount in ___-inch bays

A

5.25

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45
Q

External drives connect through many kinds of readers and ports. ___,___, and ____ are common.

A

USB, FireWire, and eSATA

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46
Q

Solid-state drives (SSD) contain chips that contain ____. This is often called __ __.

A

NVRAM,flash memory

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47
Q

flash memory cards, NVRAM, thumb drives, jump drives, and USB flash memory drives all use ___ memory.

A

Flash

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48
Q

SSDs contain ___ and a ___ controller to enable the drive to emulate a hard disk while providing much faster performanc

A

NVRAM and a SATA

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49
Q

____ ___ (SATA) drives are now the industry standard

A

Serial ATA

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50
Q

SATA hard disks are hot swappable when the host adapter is configured in the __ __ __ __ (AHCI) mode.

A

Advanced Host Controller Interface

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51
Q

A SATA host adapter can be converted into an eSATA port by connecting an eSATA header cable to an unused ___ ___ ____

A

SATA host adapter

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52
Q

Parallel ATA (PATA) has channels:____ and ____.Each channel can contain two drives: master and slave

A

primary and secondary

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53
Q

CS requires the use of an ___-wire PATA cable with a ___ connector at one end, a ___connector at the other end, and a ___connector in the middle.

A

80, black,blue,gray

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54
Q

The blue connector is used for the _ _ _on the motherboard and the __ and __ connectors for hard disks. The black connector is ____ , and the drive connected to the gray connector is ___.

A

PATA host adapter,

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55
Q

Standard ___PATA cables do not support CS

A

40-wire

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56
Q

Note that __-wire cables are also required for use with drives that run at Ultra ATA 66-100-133 speeds

A

80

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57
Q

SCSI is actually a __ __ of __ controlled by an SCSI controller

A

small network of devices

58
Q

SATA sometimes has __pins if it provides its own power

A

15

59
Q

SCSI cable will always be the __

A

widest ,68

60
Q

most narrow _(8-bit bus) SCSI use a __-pin cable. and a wide (16-bit bus) SCSI use a __-pin cable

A

50

61
Q

External SCSI devices have two connectors to allow the device to pass through SCSI signals intended for __ __

A

another device

62
Q

An SCSI array requires unique IDs, created using a binary code: __ bits for SCSI, and 4 bits for __ SCSI. This code is set by __ ,__ __ , push button switch, or can be configured with a separate SCSI BIOS. Just like on a network, every device needs a unique ID number from__ to __ .

A

3 bits, wide,jumper, dip switch, 0-15

63
Q

SCSI arrays also need a __ medium (SCSI cable), at each end a __, and a __ card.

A

common,termination,controller

64
Q

mentations use __ (__)terminators that plug into the unused SCSI post on the end of the daisy chain.

A

daisy-chains, HDD active (powered)

65
Q

striping. This increases speed, but does not provide any data protection

A

RAID 0

66
Q

__ (___), using two disks, simply copies changes from one HDD to the other in real time

A

RAID 1 (mirroring)

67
Q

Desktop computers with onboard RAID adapters (typically SATA in newer systems, PATA in older systems) support RAID_ RAID _ and some also support RAID 1+0 (RAID 10).

A

RAID 0, RAID 1,

68
Q

___require at least four disks, because they are either two striped disks that are mirrors to two others, 0+1, or they are two mirrored disks striped to two others, 1+0 (10)

A

RAID 10

69
Q

____ writes data across at least three HDDs.___ writes data across the drives and also stores information about the contents of each drive on the others. In the event of a drive failure, the data stored on the failed drive can be re-created from the information stored on the other drives. __is commonly used on servers, and typically uses SCSI, __, or __

A

RAID 5, RAID 5, RAID 5,SATA, or SAS

70
Q

Typical fan sizes range from __mm to __mm

A

80mm to 140mm

71
Q

Orange:power supply wire

A

—+3.3V

72
Q

Red:power supply wire

A

—+5V

73
Q

Yellow:power supply wire

A

—+12V

74
Q

Black:power supply wire

A

—Ground

75
Q

Gray:power supply wire

A

—Power Good

76
Q

Purple:power supply wire

A

—+5V standby

77
Q

White:power supply wire

A

5V or no connection

78
Q

Green:power supply wire

A

—PS-on

79
Q

Blue:power supply wire

A

PS-on

80
Q

Power Condition:Brownout

A

Too little voltage

81
Q

Power Condition:Sag

A

Very brief time (milliseconds) of too little voltage

82
Q

Power Condition:

A

Too much voltage

83
Q

Power Condition:

A

Very brief time (milliseconds) of too much voltage

84
Q

A CRT monitor has many manual adjustments that should all be set to __ level

A

Middle

85
Q

__ __ __ is when a beam sweeps sideways lines down the entire length of the screen 60 to 100 times a second

A

vertical refresh rate

86
Q

Brightness controls the intensity of the display

A

overall

87
Q

LOWS.

A

odd, one-sixtieth

88
Q

___ inside the CRT stores monitors settings for reuse

A

NVRAM

89
Q

__ __ __ monitors have chips that control the vertical and horizontal sets of wires. When a pixel is charged by both chips, it turns on

A

Passive matrix LCD

90
Q

__ __ monitors act like one big integrated circuit with a __for each group of three subpixels (red, green, and blue). Each group of subpixels equals a pixel.

A

Active matrix, transistor

91
Q

Data projectors use one of two technologies: __ or ___ (DLP)

A

LCD or digital light processing

92
Q

LCD projectors use three separate LCDs, one each for red, green, and blue light, along with a series of __ __ to reflect colors to each LCD

A

dichroic mirrors

93
Q

DLP uses an array of ___ on a specialized processing chip that reflect light either onto the screen or away, in much the same way optical drives read their media. A __ __spinning at high speed works with the micromirror array to create full-motion color images.

A

micromirrors, color wheel

94
Q

HDTVs might use LCD with fluorescent backlighting, LCD with LED backlighting (commonly known as LED), DLP, or plasma screen technologies and are interfaced to a computer through __, __-D, HDMI or __ __ __.

A

VGA, DVI-D, HDMI, or DisplayPort connectors

95
Q

___ ___and ___ are the most common types of video connectors used for monitors or projectors

A

VGA, DVI-D, and HDMI

96
Q

___ are instructions to teach the OS how to use and communi¬cate with a new piece of hardware.

A

Drivers

97
Q

The formal name for this port is a mini-DIN___ ___ ___ (TSR) 3.5mm jack.

A

Tip Sleeve Ring

98
Q

The formal name for this port is a mini-DIN Tip Sleeve Ring (TSR) __mm jack.

A

3.5

99
Q

The Microphones’s ___ moves in response to sound waves. That signal is converted into a digital signal inside the sound card

A

diaphragm

100
Q

PC99 color-coding for audio uses ___ for the microphone port

A

pink

101
Q

PC99 color-coding for audio uses ___ for line in like a stereo

A

blue

102
Q

PC99 color-coding for audio uses ___ color is audio out for speakers and headphones

A

green

103
Q

Still image, video, and webcams work on the same basic principal. A ___ ___ ___ (CCD) or ___ converts a visual input into a binary stream through an ___ ___ ___ (ADC). A significant difference is the way in which the camera transfers that image to the PC.

A

charged coupled device ,CMOS,analog-to-digital conversion

104
Q

Older types of video cameras don’t stream a digital signal. Instead, it sends an analog signal through RCA, S-video, network interfaces, or proprietary ports. In this case, the ADC takes place in a ___ ___ ___

A

video capture card.

105
Q

___ devices combine an input device with an application that compares a unique pattern (retina, fingerprint, palm print, and so on) to a password.

A

Biometric

106
Q

Computers should include powerful processor (high-end, six-core), high-end video (best available GPU from AMD or NVIDIA), and max¬imum RAM (16GB or more, depending on motherboard limitations, with a 64-bit operating system [Windows 7 Professional, Ultimate, and Enterprise support up to 192GB of RAM]).

A

Graphic/CAD CAM design workstation—

107
Q

Specialized audio and video card. Large (2TB or larger) and fast (10,000-15,000RPM) hard drive, dual monitors (22-inch or larger).

A

Audio/video editing workstation

108
Q

Maximum RAM (8GB to 16GB or more, depending on moth¬erboard limitations) and CPU cores (six cores or more).

A

Virtualization workstation

109
Q

processor (high-end AMD or Intel with four cores or more), high- end video/specialized GPU (high-end AMD or Nvidia chipset with 2GB of RAM or more), better sound card with onboard signal processing, high-end cooling on CPU and GPU (add additional fans or consider liquid cooling).

A

Gaming PC—Powerful

110
Q

audio (5.1, 7.1), HDMI output, HTPC compact form factor, TV tuner , BD drive

A

Home theater PC—Surround-sound

111
Q

Desktop applications (Microsoft Office or compatible suite), meets recommended requirements for running Windows

A

Standard thick client

112
Q

Basic applications (browser, Microsoft Office or compatible suite), meets minimum requirements for running Windows.

A

Thin client

113
Q

Media streaming, file sharing, print sharing, gigabit MC connected to gigabit switch/router, SATA RAID array (preferably 10 or 0+1 for speed and data safety).

A

Home server PC

114
Q

__ __-fiber-optic cable—Has a thin core (between 8 and 10 microns) designed to carry a single light ray long distances.

A

Single mode

115
Q

___ ___–fiber-optic cable—Has a thicker core (62.5 microns) than single-mode; carries multiple light rays for short distances.

A

multimode

116
Q

Fiber-optic connector type: __ uses square connectors

A

SC

117
Q

Fiber-optic connector type: __ Uses round connectors

A

ST

118
Q

Fiber-optic connector type: __ Uses round connector

A

FC

119
Q

Category 5e and 6 have more twists compared to Category 5 to improve protection from __ and __ ___and to enable faster transmission.

A

crosstalk and line noise

120
Q

Ethernet networks based on either type of TP cabling support a maximum distance of __meters. TIA/EIA standards allow for 90 m of horizontal run (in the walls, ceilings, and plenum). This leaves __m for patch cables (outside the walls).

A

100 ,90, 10

121
Q

A __-__ ___ ____directly maps the pins on both ends of the cable. Pin 1 goes to pin 1, pin 2 to pin 2, and so on.

A

A straight-through patch cable

122
Q

To create a crossover cable, wire one end to the __-_ standard, and the other end to the __-_ standard.

A

568-A , 568-B

123
Q

___Mbps Ethernet used coaxial cables and connectors

A

10

124
Q

Coaxial cabling creates a ___ topology; each end of the bus must be ___ , and if any part of the bus fails, the entire network fails.

A

bus, terminated

125
Q

10Mbps Ethernet ___ used coaxial cable with a vampire tap (___ ) or ___ with a BNC

A

RG-8 , Thicknet, RG-58

126
Q

Cable “F-connector” RG-59—Used in older cable TV or satellite TV installations; ___ resistance. Also used by the long-obsolete ___ LAN standard.

A

75ohm,ARCnet

127
Q

Cable “F-connector” RG-6—Uses same connectors as RG-59, but has a larger ___ with ___ ___ ; used in cable TV/Internet, satellite TV/Internet, and fixed wireless Internet/TV service; 75ohm resistance.

A

diameter,superior shielding

128
Q

IPv6 uses a ___ bit address, where¬as IPv4 uses only ___ bits,

A

128,32

129
Q

TCP/IP v6 uses___ addressing,

A

hexadecimal

130
Q

A ___ ___ is a number that the router uses to determine what part of the address is the name of the network and what part is the name of the host.

A

subnet mask

131
Q

When a computer or device on a private network needs to connect to the Internet, a router or gateway makes the connection and uses a feature called ___ ___ ___ (__) to convert the private IP address into a public one. The conversion process happens in reverse when the information is relayed back to the requesting device on a private network.

A

Network Address Translation (NAT)

132
Q

A DHCP server can be a routine running on a ___ or a feature of a router or gateway device.

A

server

133
Q

___ ___ ___ (__)assigns an IPv4 address in the 169.254.x.x address range.

A

Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA

134
Q

In IPv6, the equivalent to an APIPA address is a ___ ___ ___ . IPv6 can be routed over ___

A

link-local address, IPv4

135
Q

___ ___ ___ ___(__)is used to access and maintain distributed directo¬ries of information (directory services) such as the kind involved with Microsoft domains

A

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

136
Q

___ ___ ___ ___(__)is used as the standard for managing and monitoring devices on your network. It manages routers, switches, and computers and is often incorporated in software known as a network management system (NMS).

A

Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

137
Q

___ ___ ___ (__) protocol provides access to shared items such as files and printers.

A

The Server Message Blocks (SMB)

138
Q

___ ___ ___ (__) allows data to be exchanged between computers on a secured channel This protocol offers a more secure replacement to FTP and Telnet. The Secure Shell server housing the data you want to access would have port 22 open

A

Secure Shell (SSH)

139
Q

sessions are known as connection-oriented sessions. This means that every packet that is sent is checked for delivery. If the receiving computer doesn’t receive a packet, it cannot assemble the message, and will ask the sending computer to transmit the packet again. No one packet is left behind

A

Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

140
Q

___ ___ ___ (__) sessions are known as ___ sessions. UDP is used in streaming media sessions. In these cases, if a packet is dropped, it is not asked for again.

A

User Datagram Protocol (UDP) ,connectionless

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