PR3154 CA Recap Flashcards

This deck covers concepts you're weaker at

1
Q

what is the difference between plasma and serum

A

plasma has fibrinogen (sample will not clot); serum does not have fibrinogen (sample will clot)

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2
Q

what are granulocyte? describe how they look like.

A

basophil (blue, allergies, bilobed nucleus), eosinophil (red, parasitic inf, bilobed nucleus), neutrophil (bigger than rbc, most abundant wbc, usually first to arrive at site of inf)

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3
Q

what are agranulocytes?

A

monocyte and lymphocyte (M bigger than L but both bigger than RBC)

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4
Q

what is the fn of blood?

A

regulate, protect, transport

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5
Q

what are the components of blood

A

wbc, rbc, platelet, plasma

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6
Q

what makes up the plasma

A

water, soluble things, protein

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7
Q

what makes up the buffy coat?

A

wbc, platelets

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8
Q

what are some proteins found in plasma?

A

Ig, fibrinogen, albumin

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9
Q

define hematocrit and state the normal levels found in males and females

A

avg vol of rbc relative to vol of blood
males 46%
females 42%

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10
Q

where does erythropoiesis occur with age?

A

fetus: yolk sac then liver, spleen, lymph node
<5: all bone marrow
5-20: bone marrow of rib, sternum, vertebrae, prox end of long bone
>20: minus prox end of long bones

they eventually become fat

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11
Q

what conditions are required for erythropoiesis?

A

oxygen and erythropoeitin

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12
Q

identify some reasons for an incr in erythropoietin release?

A

any factors that result in more O2 needed to be generated (either incr O2 DD or decr O2 SS)
or any factors that result in more RBC needed (eg. anemia, reduced blood flow, blood donation)

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13
Q

explain how new RBC is made (the process of erythropoiesis)

A

erythroblast (ribo syn) –> late erythroblast (hb accum inside) –> normoblast (nucleus ejected) –> reticulocyte –> RBC

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14
Q

recall what it is called when there is too much/little rbc and wbc

A

too much rbc - polycythemia/erythemia
too much wbc - leukocytosis
too few wbc - leukopenia

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15
Q

explain the process of blood clotting

A

when platelet plug forms –> vwf secr by platelet binds to collagen –> GP on platelet binds to vwf –> platelet activation and platelet agonist released –>&raquo_space;» platelet –> joined via fibrinogen (weak) –> thrombin convert fibrinogen to fibrin –> stronger cross link –> stabilised using fibrin stabilising factor, factor 13 which is activated by thrombin too

can tell that thrombin is an impt key player hence, to keep thrombin supply, PF3 is impt (factor 3) which is incr when there is platelet aggregation! also need factor 10a to convert prothrombin to thrombin

this whole thing is a +ive feedback loop

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16
Q

name the factors involved in the ext and int pathway

also name the factors involved in the common pathway

A

ext: 3 - 7 - 10 - thrombin - fibrin - meshwork
int: 12 - 11 - 9 - 10 - thrombin - fibrin - meshwork

common: 10 - fibrin - meshwork

factor 3 is not usually found in blood and is only pr when there damaged tissue hence it belongs to (and starts) ext pathway

17
Q

what coagulation pathways (what factors) does each OAC work on

A

apix rivarox edoxaban - 10 (common)
enoxaparin - 10 (common)
warfarin - 2 7 9 10 (int and ext)
heparin - 2 10 (common)

recall ext path 3 7 10 and int path 12 11 9 10

18
Q

what kind of inhibitors are dabi and riva

A

competitive and reversible

19
Q

compare dabi to riva

A

riva has shorter t1/2 (effect reverse more quick)
riva need to be wary of cyp3a4 and pgp inhib/inducer
dabi has low bioF (give enteric coated)
dabi will cause more GI sx

20
Q

what is an adv the -teplases have over urokinase/streptokinase?

A

teplases are better because they BIND PREFERENTIALLY TO CLOT ASSOCIATED PLASMINOGEN hence activating plasmin in clots

21
Q

what should not be taken with fibrinolytics?

A

NO (may decr alteplase conc)
other apt/oac

22
Q

what is the dose to be used for dabi and edoxaban for VTET

A

dabi - 150mg bd
edox - 60mg od

23
Q

which pt population should not be started on edoxaban?

A

crcl > 95; high likelihood of tx failure

24
Q

what are the 3 sides of the virchows triad

A

blood stasis
hypercoagulability
vasc injury

25
Q

how does afib cause stroke?

A

uncontrolled contraction at left atrium - blood pool and conc of clotting factors at left atrium - clot break off and go to left vent then aorta then cerebral circ blocked

26
Q

what is mcha2ds2vasc

A

used to determine is oac shld be started
cong HF; HTN; =>75; DM; hx of stroke; vasc disease; 65-74

27
Q

what are some impt counselling points for sdm with pts when starting oac for spaf

A
  • highlight stroke risk using mchadsvasc
  • describe what can happen if not anticoaged
  • talk about se of oac and bleed risk, then look at HASBLED to see if modifiable bleed risk
  • compare between doacs and vka to do sdm
28
Q

recall SPAF dosing

A

apix 5 bd 2.5 bd (ABS)
riva 20 od 15 od (crcl)
dabi 150 bd 110 bd (age)
edox 60 od 30 od (crcl & bw)

29
Q

list the ddi with doacs

A

dual inhib of 3a4 and pgp
- rito, azole, clarith
dual inducer of 3a4 and pgp
- rifam, sjw
antiseizures
- valpro, cbz, pht

30
Q

list the ddi with warfarin

A

2c9 inhib
- amiodarone, bactrim, flucanazole, metronidazole, erythromycin
2c9 inducer
- rifam, sjw, cbz
no need dose adj
- amox clav, doxy, macrolides

31
Q

explain how different lifestyle factors might derange inr

A

inhib 2c9, decr met, incr warf, incr inr = alc binding
induce 2c9, incr met, decr warf, decr inr = chronic alc, smoke, sudden incr exercise

32
Q

provide impt warfarin counselling points

A

maintain diet, missed dose, when to go a&e, interchanging of meds, let dr/dentist know of warf tx

33
Q

recall ami dosing

A

load asp 100mg 300mg
load tica / clopi 180mg 600mg
tica 90 bd (12m) acs
clopi 75 od (6m) ccs
but if high bleed risk –> 3m

34
Q

when can thrombolytics be used in ais/ami

A

ami: when pci cnt be done
ais: within 4.5h, bp < 185/110 BG > 2.8, change in CT, disabling stroke

35
Q

describe the components of abcd2 for tia risk

A

age - 60-64 (0) vs 65 abv (1)
bp - htn (1) vs normal (0)
clinical sx - unilat weak (2), speech (1), others (0)
duration of tia - 60min abv (2), 10-59 (1), <10 (0)
dm - yes (1) vs no (0)

high risk tia is 4 and abv

36
Q
A