PQ 2021/22 Flashcards

1
Q

oestrus induction in pigs

A

eCG and hCg

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2
Q

Aujeszjy’s disease

A

PHV-1

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3
Q

not a cause for hoflunds disease

A

Ruminal acidosis

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4
Q

Hannover method

A

standing restraint

right flank laparotomy

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5
Q

C-section in swine

A

right or left flank incision

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6
Q

in the treatment of milk fever

A

calcium injection in cattle IV

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7
Q

treatment of frothy bloat

A

antifoaming agents, tubing, hay, flaxseed

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8
Q

normal presentation in a cow

A

longitudinal anterior

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9
Q

gastric ulcer in swine

A

teeth grinding

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10
Q

IM injeciton in pig

A

neck area

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11
Q

laparotomy layers in skin

A
skin
SC
internal
transverse
peritoneum
abdomnial cavity
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12
Q

gilt puberty

A

150-170 days

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13
Q

By which symptom can we differentiate CODD from foot rot in small ruminants (Contagious ovine digital dermatitis)

A

initial location of hoof wall sepration

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14
Q

lumbosacral in sheep

A

epidural space

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15
Q

ZnSO4 sheep disadvantage

A

action time

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16
Q

bovine respiratory disease complex

A

multifactorial

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17
Q

sperm volume of boar

A

100-300ml

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18
Q

teat cistern anaesthesia

A

procedures only affecting the MM

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19
Q

which gives scoliosis

A

proximal paralumbar nerve block

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20
Q

uterine toriosn palpation in the cow

A

pre-cervical torsion can be diagnosed with vaginal palpation

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21
Q

cornual nerve

A

under the crista orbitotemporal

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22
Q

consequence of abomasal displacement

A

hypokalemia

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23
Q

course of rabies

A

3-6 days

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24
Q

cause of lungworm disease in cattle

A

dictuocaulus viviparus

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25
what can azeperone cause in pigs
peripheral vasodilation
26
transabdomnial US pregnancy check in the sheep
day 28-35
27
which symptom is not present in the case of acute traumatic reticuloperitonitis?
(tiptoing, heart murmur?)
28
which joint is affected most by osteochondrosis in swine?
elbow
29
what is the consequences of vasectomy
procedure that blocks t flow of spermatozoa
30
hepatosis dietica is caused by the deficiency of which vitmain
vitamin E
31
which of the following techniques is not used for the resection of the DIP joint in cattle
Axial approach
32
which of the following skin diseases can be diagnosed at birth by apparent clinical signs
epitheliogenesis imperfetca
33
which statement is true about footrot in ruminant
severity of the symptoms depends on the virulency of the strain of bacteria causing th eillness
34
what auses interdigital hyperplasia
genetic background
35
the obstipation of the swine can be caused by
long lasting fever
36
medicines/steps used in the treatment of swine gastric ulceration
eliminiation of technological stress
37
what cannot be the cause of vaginal prolaps in sheep?
low body condition
38
which of the following agents causes bowel edema in swine?
verotox-producing E.coli
39
which is tru for azaperone in pigs?
cheap, effective and licensed
40
what is acceptable pregnancy rate in a normal breeding season in sheep
>90%
41
what is the palpation of the vas deference
cartilage
42
what is the optimal pH of the rumen
6.3-7.1
43
what disorders are the most common in the period around farrowin
uterine and cervical prolapse
44
where do we inject during proximal paravertebral anesthesia
4-5cm laterally from the midline, over and under the proc. transversus and under the skin
45
what is the sign of correct needle placement during epidural anesthesia of cattle
fluid drop are sucked in fromt he conus of the needle
46
when is the induction of parturition recommeneded in swine
after day 112 of the pregnancy
47
how can flunixin-meglumine be administered to farm animals
IV
48
in the case of acute traumatic reticuloperitonitis, what will be the hemotology finding
haemoconcentration, neutrophilia, high levels of fibrinogen and total protein
49
which procedure cannot be done without anesthesis in calves
umbilical hernia
50
what are the characteristics of the discharge in clinical endometritis
yellowish-white (pus), viscous
51
the mulberry heart disease
is the degeneration of the cardiac muscle due to vitamin E and selenium deficiency
52
in which species do you expect to see the side effects of lidocain in a therapeutic dose
small ruminants
53
the position of the fetus
relation of the vertebral column of the fetus to that of the dam the maternal spinal axis to that of the fetal spinal axis
54
how can we store boar semen
diluted ejaculate, cooled 16-17
55
which of the following statements is false regarding osteoporosis
it is caused by a Ca, P or vitamin d deficiency in GROWING animals
56
what is the place of the intercoccygeal epidural anesthesia
between the first C1 and second coccygeal vertebrae (C2)
57
the peripartal insulin resisitance in ruminants
a calculated index measureds it from blood parameters: RQUICKI
58
what is the consitency of the ruminal content in case of anterior funcitonal stenosis
foamy, cream like
59
how do we store boar semen
diluted ejaculate, cooled 16-17 degrees
60
how long is oestrus in pigs
2-3 days
61
what drug can be used for oestrus synchronization in pigs
long form pr os teratment with altrenogest
62
which period does the porcine oestrus cycle disappear
the summer heat
63
what could be an injection site in the pet pig
neck muscle
64
when should we have intervention during the parturition of pigs?
6-12h into labor
65
why is tail docking needed
to prevent tail biting
66
clinical signs of iron deficiency piglets
sudden death
67
what is true for the megacolon of swine
secondary is more common as consequences of chronic peritonitis
68
the position of the fetus |
the maternal spinal axis to that of the fetus spinal axis
69
traumatic reticulopericardidits expected fluid like
in 99/ exudate - water viscous, smelly, high protein
70
which agent is characterized by immune complex mediated vasculitis
PDNS
71
the epiphyseolysis in gilt, which bone is most affected
femur
72
estrus in cattle, uterine horn is
rigid due to high level of estrogen
73
in healthy animal hoof trimmin, which structure does not need to be cut
heel
74
in swine acepromazine will cause
hypotension, hypthermia
75
false in swine pox
it is a sporadic disease, notifiable in hungary
76
proximal lumbar paravertebral erveblock in cattle
NT13, NL1, NL2
77
position of fetus in cattle
upright dorsal is normal
78
not notifiable diseases in small ru
IBR
79
not a sign of chronic traumatic reticuloperitonitis
diarrrhe signs: mandibular edema, tachycardia, cahexia
80
induction of farrowing
PGF2a
81
treatment of frothy bloat
antifoaming agent, tubing, hay, flaxseed
82
fog fever
sudden onset, more animals | 3-methylindole
83
sacrococcygeal injection
S5 and C2
84
eartag
before day 7
85
worst case in IV regional anesthesia on extremeties in small ruminants
phlebitis
86
when vaginal prolapse
last month of pregnancy
87
thinner part of birth canal (narrowieing)
correct: cervix, hymen, vulva incorrect: bifurcaiton
88
carbohydrates gets digested to
VFA
89
causes arthritis in swine
Erysipelas, Haemophilus parasuis, Mycoplasma hyorhinis,( M. Hyosynoviae)
90
white line abscess in small ruminants can cause
DIP inflammaiton
91
method for abomasal torsion recumbent sugery
ventral paramedian abomasopexy
92
injection site for vena cranial in piglets
right side (vagus on left)
93
incubation of rabies
2weeks-4 months
94
not used for anesthesia of teat:
L block | are used: V, ring and regional Iv
95
megacolon in swine
secondary due to chronic peritonitis
96
false about thrombocytopaenic purpura
most common in gilts
97
treat hyperglycemia in piglets
intraperitoneal glucose injection, oral tube/formulation, colostrum (not auricular IV injection)
98
treat hypocalcemia in cattle
Ca-borogluconae IV
99
what can not be used for pregnancy check in a sow
uterine biopsy
100
TIVA in small Ru should be used seldomly because is causes
regugitation of rumen content --> aspiration --> pneumonia | ruminal bloat --> resp funciton
101
zearalenone toxicosis - affecting estrus signs
the apperance of a red and swollen vulva in gilts and increased abortion and stillbirths during gestation may indicate zearalenone contamination of the feed
102
what is not used to check the efficiency of colostrum
not routine hematology
103
method for closure of uterus
seromuscularily
104
last palpable vertebrae in a cow?
L5
105
malignant catarrhal fever
OHV-2
106
What is the most important step in postnatal treatment?
Breathing
107
What is a vasectomy
cutting vas deferens
108
when is the corpus luteum sensitive to prostaglandin
day 12
109
vaginal prolaps, which phase is necrotic
grade 4
110
rumen pH in SARA
pH 5.5-6.5
111
newborn calf body temperature
39-40 degree celcius
112
which of the following is zoonotic?
streptococcus suis | aujeszky, teschen
113
what is the consequence of ruminal reflux?
Cl ion concentration increases
114
which of the following diseases is caused by the disturbance of endochondral ossification?
osteochondrosis
115
what do you not give to treat subclinical ketosis?
gamitrhomycin
116
which parameter is used for early disease detection on herd level?
milk produciton
117
which of the following skin diseases can be diagnosed at birth by apparent clinical signs
epitheliogenesis imperfecta
118
xylazine efficacy in cows
10 times more efficient in cow than in horse
119
the position of the fetus is
maternal spinal axis to that of the foetal spinal axis
120
TRP occurence in modern farms compared to traditional farms?
decreased incidence since 1954. better in modern farms only when renovating
121
the posture
is the situation of the head and the extremities to the body of the fetus
122
which statement is false about the development of reticuloperitonitis
the foreign body can reach the reticulum from the omasum
123
What is the recommended breeding age for gilts
220-240 days
124
which disease can not cause hoflund syndrome
acute ruminal acidosis
125
where do we make a uterine incision in a pig during c-section
near the bifurcation, but on the horn, on the large cuvature
126
what is the threshold post-partum after which the retention of the fetal membrane is diagnosed in cows
24h
127
something of the following is true for --- in cows
usually caused by E.coli
128
zoonotic in swine
streptococcus suis
129
zoonotic in cattle
bovine variola (pox) trichophytiasis (ringworm) rabies chlamydia psittaci
130
the differential diagnosis of enteritis according to the age of the animal
E. coli infecion typically occurs in sows after weaning
131
Neonatal infections in swine
E.coli
132
infections in newborn piglet
rotavirus, clostridium perfringens, clostridium dificile, cryptosporidium, isospora suis
133
infections occuring after weaning
E.coli, PCV-2, gastric ulceration, lawsonia intercellulrains, brachyspira, salmonella, oesophagostomaum dentatum, trichuris suis, yersinia spp
134
how can a toe granuloma be treated in small ru
compression bandage after excision
135
vasectomy means
vas deferens is ligated an a section is removed
136
which disorders are the most common i the period around farrowing
uterine and cervical prolapse
137
what can be the consequence of a white line abscess in small ruminants
inflammation of the distal interphalangeal joint
138
what type of transduer is used for the detection of early pregnancy in cows
linear rectal 5-7.5
139
tha pathogen causing malignant catarrhal fever is
OHV-2
140
which statement is false about the development of TRP
the foreign body can reach the retiuclum from the omasum
141
what is the recommended breeding age for gilts
180-210 days
142
we do not use this in the treatment of clinical ketosis
gamithromycin
143
when does the cyclic corpus luteum become sensitive to prostaglandin in swine
after day 12
144
where do we make a uterine incision in a pig during a caeceseran section
near the bifurcation
145
therapy of the mulberry heart
vit E and selenum supplementation with the feed
146
which is true for azeperone in pigs
cheap, effective and lisenced for pigs
147
what is the threshold post-partum after which the retention of the fetal membrance is diagnosed in cows
24h
148
the differential diagnosis of enteritis according tot he age of the animal
coccidiosis occurs in a few days of age
149
which of the following disease is caused by disturbance of endochondral ossification
osteochondrosis
150
What can be a consequence ofa white line abscess in small ruminants
inflammation of the distal interphalangeal joint
151
causes of aujeszkys disease
PHV-1
152
pyometra in cattle
occurs after day 21 post partum | trueperella pyogens
153
why does pyometra occur
after endometritis, the inflammation leads to decreased produciton of PGF2a which means there is not enough to cause luteolysis. The cervic is closed, there is a persistent CL which induces fluid secretion
154
how to treat pyometra
be sure not pregnant, but PGF2a, and after 3 days the cervix opens and treat as a clinical endometritis (AB: uterine infusion (e.g. Metricure – cephapirin) o iodofoam/ozone o PGF2α
155
posterior stenosis
pylorus
156
anterior stenosis
reticulo-omasal orifice
157
fog fever
sudden onset, multiple animals
158
TIVA risk small Ru
abomasal bloat, reflux
159
closure uterus
seromuscular
160
hypoglycemia pig not in
auricular IV ear vein
161
infusion drop in pig
auricular vessels
162
what is the age they get glassers disease
4-8 weeks
163
scoliosis
proximal lumbar paravertebral
164
induction farowing
PGF2a
165
what if the head and neck in the birth canal is visible
bilateral shoulder flexion
166
injectino site in commercial pig
neck
167
in swine acepromazine will cause
hypotension and hypothermia
168
which structure does not need to be cut in small Ru
heel
169
the obstipation in swine can be cuased by
fever
170
how do we treat uroliths
• obstruction → surgery or slaughter for salvage (spasmolytics might be tried in partial obstruction) • to dissolve struvit (?!): NH4Cl (10 g/sheep) per os (for flocks 1% of DM)
171
hepatosis dietetica
vit E
172
azeperone in pigs
peripheral vasodilation
173
reasons for scoliosis in prox vertebral
unilateral desensitization of the longissiums dorsi muscle
174
period which the estrus disappears in swine
summer
175
content of anterior/posterior stenosis
foamy, creamy
176
not correct about osteoporosis
characteristic symptoms is severe lameness
177
not used for pregnancy check
uterine biopsy
178
which of these statements are true regarding splayleg disease
affected piglets can die by starvation or be trampled by the sow
179
which if the following pathogens do not cause arthritis in swine which one does?
not: erysielothrix rhusiopathiae does: mycoplasma hyorhinis, haemosuis, haemophilus parasuis (glassers)
180
which i not true for flunixin (what is true)
sedative antipyretic, analgesic, antiinflammatory, anti-endotoxin
181
what is true of rolling used to solve the abomasal displacement
quick, easy and non invasive technique, but the probability of the redisplacement is high 50-70%
182
the clinical signs of rabies is
behavioural change, donkey-like roaring, ascending paralysis