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Production animal medicine PQ > PQ 2021/22 > Flashcards

PQ 2021/22 Flashcards

1
Q

oestrus induction in pigs

A

eCG and hCg

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2
Q

Aujeszjy’s disease

A

PHV-1

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3
Q

not a cause for hoflunds disease

A

Ruminal acidosis

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4
Q

Hannover method

A

standing restraint

right flank laparotomy

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5
Q

C-section in swine

A

right or left flank incision

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6
Q

in the treatment of milk fever

A

calcium injection in cattle IV

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7
Q

treatment of frothy bloat

A

antifoaming agents, tubing, hay, flaxseed

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8
Q

normal presentation in a cow

A

longitudinal anterior

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9
Q

gastric ulcer in swine

A

teeth grinding

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10
Q

IM injeciton in pig

A

neck area

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11
Q

laparotomy layers in skin

A 
skin
SC
internal
transverse
peritoneum
abdomnial cavity
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12
Q

gilt puberty

A

150-170 days

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13
Q

By which symptom can we differentiate CODD from foot rot in small ruminants (Contagious ovine digital dermatitis)

A

initial location of hoof wall sepration

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14
Q

lumbosacral in sheep

A

epidural space

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15
Q

ZnSO4 sheep disadvantage

A

action time

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16
Q

bovine respiratory disease complex

A

multifactorial

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17
Q

sperm volume of boar

A

100-300ml

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18
Q

teat cistern anaesthesia

A

procedures only affecting the MM

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19
Q

which gives scoliosis

A

proximal paralumbar nerve block

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20
Q

uterine toriosn palpation in the cow

A

pre-cervical torsion can be diagnosed with vaginal palpation

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21
Q

cornual nerve

A

under the crista orbitotemporal

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22
Q

consequence of abomasal displacement

A

hypokalemia

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23
Q

course of rabies

A

3-6 days

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24
Q

cause of lungworm disease in cattle

A

dictuocaulus viviparus

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25
Q

what can azeperone cause in pigs

A

peripheral vasodilation

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26
Q

transabdomnial US pregnancy check in the sheep

A

day 28-35

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27
Q

which symptom is not present in the case of acute traumatic reticuloperitonitis?

A

(tiptoing, heart murmur?)

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28
Q

which joint is affected most by osteochondrosis in swine?

A

elbow

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29
Q

what is the consequences of vasectomy

A

procedure that blocks t flow of spermatozoa

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30
Q

hepatosis dietica is caused by the deficiency of which vitmain

A

vitamin E

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31
Q

which of the following techniques is not used for the resection of the DIP joint in cattle

A

Axial approach

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32
Q

which of the following skin diseases can be diagnosed at birth by apparent clinical signs

A

epitheliogenesis imperfetca

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33
Q

which statement is true about footrot in ruminant

A

severity of the symptoms depends on the virulency of the strain of bacteria causing th eillness

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34
Q

what auses interdigital hyperplasia

A

genetic background

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35
Q

the obstipation of the swine can be caused by

A

long lasting fever

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36
Q

medicines/steps used in the treatment of swine gastric ulceration

A

eliminiation of technological stress

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37
Q

what cannot be the cause of vaginal prolaps in sheep?

A

low body condition

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38
Q

which of the following agents causes bowel edema in swine?

A

verotox-producing E.coli

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39
Q

which is tru for azaperone in pigs?

A

cheap, effective and licensed

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40
Q

what is acceptable pregnancy rate in a normal breeding season in sheep

A

> 90%

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41
Q

what is the palpation of the vas deference

A

cartilage

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42
Q

what is the optimal pH of the rumen

A

6.3-7.1

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43
Q

what disorders are the most common in the period around farrowin

A

uterine and cervical prolapse

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44
Q

where do we inject during proximal paravertebral anesthesia

A

4-5cm laterally from the midline, over and under the proc. transversus and under the skin

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45
Q

what is the sign of correct needle placement during epidural anesthesia of cattle

A

fluid drop are sucked in fromt he conus of the needle

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46
Q

when is the induction of parturition recommeneded in swine

A

after day 112 of the pregnancy

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47
Q

how can flunixin-meglumine be administered to farm animals

A

IV

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48
Q

in the case of acute traumatic reticuloperitonitis, what will be the hemotology finding

A

haemoconcentration, neutrophilia, high levels of fibrinogen and total protein

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49
Q

which procedure cannot be done without anesthesis in calves

A

umbilical hernia

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50
Q

what are the characteristics of the discharge in clinical endometritis

A

yellowish-white (pus), viscous

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51
Q

the mulberry heart disease

A

is the degeneration of the cardiac muscle due to vitamin E and selenium deficiency

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52
Q

in which species do you expect to see the side effects of lidocain in a therapeutic dose

A

small ruminants

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53
Q

the position of the fetus

A

relation of the vertebral column of the fetus to that of the dam
the maternal spinal axis to that of the fetal spinal axis

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54
Q

how can we store boar semen

A

diluted ejaculate, cooled 16-17

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55
Q

which of the following statements is false regarding osteoporosis

A

it is caused by a Ca, P or vitamin d deficiency in GROWING animals

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56
Q

what is the place of the intercoccygeal epidural anesthesia

A

between the first C1 and second coccygeal vertebrae (C2)

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57
Q

the peripartal insulin resisitance in ruminants

A

a calculated index measureds it from blood parameters: RQUICKI

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58
Q

what is the consitency of the ruminal content in case of anterior funcitonal stenosis

A

foamy, cream like

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59
Q

how do we store boar semen

A

diluted ejaculate, cooled 16-17 degrees

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60
Q

how long is oestrus in pigs

A

2-3 days

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61
Q

what drug can be used for oestrus synchronization in pigs

A

long form pr os teratment with altrenogest

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62
Q

which period does the porcine oestrus cycle disappear

A

the summer heat

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63
Q

what could be an injection site in the pet pig

A

neck muscle

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64
Q

when should we have intervention during the parturition of pigs?

A

6-12h into labor

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65
Q

why is tail docking needed

A

to prevent tail biting

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66
Q

clinical signs of iron deficiency piglets

A

sudden death

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67
Q

what is true for the megacolon of swine

A

secondary is more common as consequences of chronic peritonitis

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68
Q

the position of the fetus |

A

the maternal spinal axis to that of the fetus spinal axis

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69
Q

traumatic reticulopericardidits expected fluid like

A

in 99/ exudate - water viscous, smelly, high protein

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70
Q

which agent is characterized by immune complex mediated vasculitis

A

PDNS

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71
Q

the epiphyseolysis in gilt, which bone is most affected

A

femur

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72
Q

estrus in cattle, uterine horn is

A

rigid due to high level of estrogen

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73
Q

in healthy animal hoof trimmin, which structure does not need to be cut

A

heel

74
Q

in swine acepromazine will cause

A

hypotension, hypthermia

75
Q

false in swine pox

A

it is a sporadic disease, notifiable in hungary

76
Q

proximal lumbar paravertebral erveblock in cattle

A

NT13, NL1, NL2

77
Q

position of fetus in cattle

A

upright dorsal is normal

78
Q

not notifiable diseases in small ru

A

IBR

79
Q

not a sign of chronic traumatic reticuloperitonitis

A

diarrrhe

signs: mandibular edema, tachycardia, cahexia

80
Q

induction of farrowing

A

PGF2a

81
Q

treatment of frothy bloat

A

antifoaming agent, tubing, hay, flaxseed

82
Q

fog fever

A

sudden onset, more animals

3-methylindole

83
Q

sacrococcygeal injection

A

S5 and C2

84
Q

eartag

A

before day 7

85
Q

worst case in IV regional anesthesia on extremeties in small ruminants

A

phlebitis

86
Q

when vaginal prolapse

A

last month of pregnancy

87
Q

thinner part of birth canal (narrowieing)

A

correct: cervix, hymen, vulva
incorrect: bifurcaiton

88
Q

carbohydrates gets digested to

A

VFA

89
Q

causes arthritis in swine

A

Erysipelas, Haemophilus parasuis, Mycoplasma hyorhinis,( M. Hyosynoviae)

90
Q

white line abscess in small ruminants can cause

A

DIP inflammaiton

91
Q

method for abomasal torsion recumbent sugery

A

ventral paramedian abomasopexy

92
Q

injection site for vena cranial in piglets

A

right side (vagus on left)

93
Q

incubation of rabies

A

2weeks-4 months

94
Q

not used for anesthesia of teat:

A

L block

are used: V, ring and regional Iv

95
Q

megacolon in swine

A

secondary due to chronic peritonitis

96
Q

false about thrombocytopaenic purpura

A

most common in gilts

97
Q

treat hyperglycemia in piglets

A

intraperitoneal glucose injection, oral tube/formulation, colostrum (not auricular IV injection)

98
Q

treat hypocalcemia in cattle

A

Ca-borogluconae IV

99
Q

what can not be used for pregnancy check in a sow

A

uterine biopsy

100
Q

TIVA in small Ru should be used seldomly because is causes

A

regugitation of rumen content –> aspiration –> pneumonia

ruminal bloat –> resp funciton

101
Q

zearalenone toxicosis - affecting estrus signs

A

the apperance of a red and swollen vulva in gilts and increased abortion and stillbirths during gestation may indicate zearalenone contamination of the feed

102
Q

what is not used to check the efficiency of colostrum

A

not routine hematology

103
Q

method for closure of uterus

A

seromuscularily

104
Q

last palpable vertebrae in a cow?

A

L5

105
Q

malignant catarrhal fever

A

OHV-2

106
Q

What is the most important step in postnatal treatment?

A

Breathing

107
Q

What is a vasectomy

A

cutting vas deferens

108
Q

when is the corpus luteum sensitive to prostaglandin

A

day 12

109
Q

vaginal prolaps, which phase is necrotic

A

grade 4

110
Q

rumen pH in SARA

A

pH 5.5-6.5

111
Q

newborn calf body temperature

A

39-40 degree celcius

112
Q

which of the following is zoonotic?

A

streptococcus suis

aujeszky, teschen

113
Q

what is the consequence of ruminal reflux?

A

Cl ion concentration increases

114
Q

which of the following diseases is caused by the disturbance of endochondral ossification?

A

osteochondrosis

115
Q

what do you not give to treat subclinical ketosis?

A

gamitrhomycin

116
Q

which parameter is used for early disease detection on herd level?

A

milk produciton

117
Q

which of the following skin diseases can be diagnosed at birth by apparent clinical signs

A

epitheliogenesis imperfecta

118
Q

xylazine efficacy in cows

A

10 times more efficient in cow than in horse

119
Q

the position of the fetus is

A

maternal spinal axis to that of the foetal spinal axis

120
Q

TRP occurence in modern farms compared to traditional farms?

A

decreased incidence since 1954. better in modern farms only when renovating

121
Q

the posture

A

is the situation of the head and the extremities to the body of the fetus

122
Q

which statement is false about the development of reticuloperitonitis

A

the foreign body can reach the reticulum from the omasum

123
Q

What is the recommended breeding age for gilts

A

220-240 days

124
Q

which disease can not cause hoflund syndrome

A

acute ruminal acidosis

125
Q

where do we make a uterine incision in a pig during c-section

A

near the bifurcation, but on the horn, on the large cuvature

126
Q

what is the threshold post-partum after which the retention of the fetal membrane is diagnosed in cows

A

24h

127
Q

something of the following is true for — in cows

A

usually caused by E.coli

128
Q

zoonotic in swine

A

streptococcus suis

129
Q

zoonotic in cattle

A

bovine variola (pox)
trichophytiasis (ringworm)
rabies
chlamydia psittaci

130
Q

the differential diagnosis of enteritis according to the age of the animal

A

E. coli infecion typically occurs in sows after weaning

131
Q

Neonatal infections in swine

A

E.coli

132
Q

infections in newborn piglet

A

rotavirus, clostridium perfringens, clostridium dificile, cryptosporidium, isospora suis

133
Q

infections occuring after weaning

A

E.coli, PCV-2, gastric ulceration, lawsonia intercellulrains, brachyspira, salmonella, oesophagostomaum dentatum, trichuris suis, yersinia spp

134
Q

how can a toe granuloma be treated in small ru

A

compression bandage after excision

135
Q

vasectomy means

A

vas deferens is ligated an a section is removed

136
Q

which disorders are the most common i the period around farrowing

A

uterine and cervical prolapse

137
Q

what can be the consequence of a white line abscess in small ruminants

A

inflammation of the distal interphalangeal joint

138
Q

what type of transduer is used for the detection of early pregnancy in cows

A

linear rectal 5-7.5

139
Q

tha pathogen causing malignant catarrhal fever is

A

OHV-2

140
Q

which statement is false about the development of TRP

A

the foreign body can reach the retiuclum from the omasum

141
Q

what is the recommended breeding age for gilts

A

180-210 days

142
Q

we do not use this in the treatment of clinical ketosis

A

gamithromycin

143
Q

when does the cyclic corpus luteum become sensitive to prostaglandin in swine

A

after day 12

144
Q

where do we make a uterine incision in a pig during a caeceseran section

A

near the bifurcation

145
Q

therapy of the mulberry heart

A

vit E and selenum supplementation with the feed

146
Q

which is true for azeperone in pigs

A

cheap, effective and lisenced for pigs

147
Q

what is the threshold post-partum after which the retention of the fetal membrance is diagnosed in cows

A

24h

148
Q

the differential diagnosis of enteritis according tot he age of the animal

A

coccidiosis occurs in a few days of age

149
Q

which of the following disease is caused by disturbance of endochondral ossification

A

osteochondrosis

150
Q

What can be a consequence ofa white line abscess in small ruminants

A

inflammation of the distal interphalangeal joint

151
Q

causes of aujeszkys disease

A

PHV-1

152
Q

pyometra in cattle

A

occurs after day 21 post partum

trueperella pyogens

153
Q

why does pyometra occur

A

after endometritis, the inflammation leads to decreased produciton of PGF2a which means there is not enough to cause luteolysis.

The cervic is closed, there is a persistent CL which induces fluid secretion

154
Q

how to treat pyometra

A

be sure not pregnant, but PGF2a, and after 3 days the cervix opens and treat as a clinical endometritis (AB: uterine infusion
(e.g. Metricure – cephapirin)
o iodofoam/ozone
o PGF2α

155
Q

posterior stenosis

A

pylorus

156
Q

anterior stenosis

A

reticulo-omasal orifice

157
Q

fog fever

A

sudden onset, multiple animals

158
Q

TIVA risk small Ru

A

abomasal bloat, reflux

159
Q

closure uterus

A

seromuscular

160
Q

hypoglycemia pig not in

A

auricular IV ear vein

161
Q

infusion drop in pig

A

auricular vessels

162
Q

what is the age they get glassers disease

A

4-8 weeks

163
Q

scoliosis

A

proximal lumbar paravertebral

164
Q

induction farowing

A

PGF2a

165
Q

what if the head and neck in the birth canal is visible

A

bilateral shoulder flexion

166
Q

injectino site in commercial pig

A

neck

167
Q

in swine acepromazine will cause

A

hypotension and hypothermia

168
Q

which structure does not need to be cut in small Ru

A

heel

169
Q

the obstipation in swine can be cuased by

A

fever

170
Q

how do we treat uroliths

A

• obstruction → surgery or slaughter for salvage (spasmolytics might be tried in partial
obstruction)
• to dissolve struvit (?!): NH4Cl (10 g/sheep) per os (for flocks 1% of DM)

171
Q

hepatosis dietetica

A

vit E

172
Q

azeperone in pigs

A

peripheral vasodilation

173
Q

reasons for scoliosis in prox vertebral

A

unilateral desensitization of the longissiums dorsi muscle

174
Q

period which the estrus disappears in swine

A

summer

175
Q

content of anterior/posterior stenosis

A

foamy, creamy

176
Q

not correct about osteoporosis

A

characteristic symptoms is severe lameness

177
Q

not used for pregnancy check

A

uterine biopsy

178
Q

which of these statements are true regarding splayleg disease

A

affected piglets can die by starvation or be trampled by the sow

179
Q

which if the following pathogens do not cause arthritis in swine

which one does?

A

not: erysielothrix rhusiopathiae
does: mycoplasma hyorhinis, haemosuis, haemophilus parasuis (glassers)

180
Q

which i not true for flunixin (what is true)

A

sedative

antipyretic, analgesic, antiinflammatory, anti-endotoxin

181
Q

what is true of rolling used to solve the abomasal displacement

A

quick, easy and non invasive technique, but the probability of the redisplacement is high 50-70%

182
Q

the clinical signs of rabies is

A

behavioural change, donkey-like roaring, ascending paralysis

Production animal medicine PQ (1 decks)

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