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Food hygiene final > PQ > Flashcards

PQ Flashcards

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1
Q

Which of these documents are always checked during the official control of an establishment producing foods of plant origin?

  • Staff’s general health status
  • The founding documents of the given company
  • Documents of insect and rodent control
  • Certificates of work experiences of the staff
A
  • Staff’s general health status

- Documents of insect and rodent control

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2
Q

In case of foreign odor of meat

  • Meat is unfit for consumption in every case
  • If still present after 24 hours, the meat is unfit for consumption
  • It is possible to perform a cooking test for the decision of fitness for human consumption
  • A cooking test shall be performed for the decision on fitness for human consumption
A
  • If still present after 24 hours, the meat is unfit for consumption
  • It is possible to perform a cooking test for the decision of fitness for human consumption
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3
Q

What is true for the food safety control system (including meat inspection)?

  • The control system shall be scientific evidence-based, risk-based, process based and preventive
  • Meat inspection is a preventive measure
  • Meat inspection is a (final) check-point in the series of control measures
  • We can control everything and achieve zero risk with appropriate control measures
A
  • The control system shall be scientific evidence-based, risk-based, process based and preventive
  • Meat inspection is a preventive measure
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4
Q

Animals showing symptoms of a generalized disease

  • Cannot be slaughtered for human consumption
  • Their meat can only be fit for consumption after additional lab. Examination
  • Shall be transported back to the farm due to prohibition of slaughter
  • Their meat is unfit for consumption
A
  • Cannot be slaughtered for human consumption

- Their meat is unfit for consumption

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5
Q

Tuberculosis

  • The whole body is always unfit for consumption
  • If localized, only the affected organ or part should be declared unfit for human consumption
  • If localized, only the affected organ or part and its associated lymph nodes should be declared unfit for human consumption
  • If suspected, diagnostic slaughter shall be performed and sample sent to laboratory exam
A
  • If localized, only the affected organ or part and its associated lymph nodes should be declared unfit for human consumption
  • If suspected, diagnostic slaughter shall be performed and sample sent to laboratory exam
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6
Q

Echinococcus granulosus

  • The animals infected cannot be slaughtered
  • The meat is fit for consumption except for the affected parts
  • The infection is zoonosis, but humans may only be infested only by eggs released by carnivores
  • The liver unfit for human consumption can only be given as feed to dogs
A
  • The meat is fit for consumption except for the affected parts
  • The infection is zoonosis, but humans may only be infested only by eggs released by carnivores
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7
Q

Classical swine fever

  • Animals showing symptoms cannot be slaughtered
  • Animals showing symptoms shall be slaughtered immediately in closed slaughter
  • Animals showing symptoms shall be slaughtered immediately in separate slaughter
  • Whole body is unfit for consumption
A
  • Animals showing symptoms cannot be slaughtered

- Whole body is unfit for consumption

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8
Q

What is true about the zoonotic salmonella serotypes

  • In most cases they do not cause a disease in slaughter animals
  • In most cases they cause septicaemia in slaughter animals
  • They can cause enteritis, even septicaemia in young animals
  • The carcasses of animals showing the signs and symptoms of salmonellosis are fit for human consumption only after heat treatment
A
  • In most cases they do not cause a disease in slaughter animals
  • They can cause enteritis, even septicaemia in young animals
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9
Q

What are the responsibilities of the council?

  • Adoption of EU regulation in the framework of co-decision procedure
  • Preparation of legislative proposal
  • Representation of the interest of member states
  • Scientific advice
A
  • Adoption of EU regulation in the framework of co-decision procedure
  • Representation of the interest of member states
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10
Q

What is the Administrative Assistance and Cooperation System

  • IT tool
  • Group of appointed representative of Member States
  • The goal is to exchange information in relation to food fraud
  • The goal is to exchange information in unsafe food
A
  • IT tool

- The goal is to exchange information in relation to food fraud

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11
Q

Which lack of elements can cause mainly calcification disorders in egg?

  • Ca
  • Fe
  • P
  • Se
A
  • Ca

- P

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12
Q

What materials can be used beside metals for canning food?

  • Thermostable plastic
  • Recycled paper
  • Glass
  • Cardboard
A
  • Thermostable plastic

- Glass

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13
Q

What is the difference between salting and curing?

  • In case of salting only pure sodium chloride is applied
  • Salting can only be dry salting
  • In case of curing other additives than NaCl are also used
  • Curing can be only wet curing
A
  • In case of salting only pure sodium chloride is applied

- In case of curing other additives than NaCl are also used

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14
Q

What casing was used to stuff the peasant sausage manufactured during our prac?

  • Pork intestine
  • Sheep intestine
  • Edible collagen casing
  • Natural casing
A
  • Pork intestine

- Edible collagen casing

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15
Q

PSE meat

  • could be placed on the market as of decreased value
  • if the extent is small, it could be placed on the market
  • is suitable for consumption
  • is an effect of stress
A
  • is suitable for consumption

- is an effect of stress

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16
Q

Icterus

  • the intima of large blood vessels is yellow
  • could only be excluded with a cooking test
  • if still present after 24 hours, the meat is still fit for consumption
  • it is always a pathological process behind, which should be taken into account during decision making
A
  • the intima of large blood vessels is yellow

- it is always a pathological process behind, which should be taken into account during decision making

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17
Q

Anthrax

  • the whole body is always unfit for consumption
  • the body shall be buried immediately
  • in pigs, when only the throat is affected, the rest of the body is fit for consumption
  • in case of suspicion, the animal cannot be slaughtered
A
  • the whole body is always unfit for consumption

- in case of suspicion, the animal cannot be slaughtered

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18
Q

In case of systemic dispersal of microbes

  • the whole body is unfit for consumption
  • one symptom can be the septicaemic hemorrhages in the skin
  • if hemorrhages are found in the lungs, the meat is unfit for consumption
  • only in the case of pyaemia the meat is unfit for consumption
A
  • the whole body is unfit for consumption

- one symptom can be the septicaemic hemorrhages in the skin

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19
Q

Rabies

  • animals showing symptoms cannot be slaughtered
  • animals showing symptoms can be slaughtered in closed slaughter
  • except for the central nervous system and the biting site, the meat is fit for consumption
  • lethal zoonosis, high public health significance
A
  • animals showing symptoms cannot be slaughtered

- lethal zoonosis, high public health significance

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20
Q

Foot and mouth disease (FMD)

  • if confirmed at the slaughterhouse, the animals shall be slaughtered separately
  • whole body is unfit for consumption
  • the significance of the meat inspection is given by its Zoonotic nature
  • animals being diseased or suspected of being diseased must not be slaughtered
A
  • whole body is unfit for consumption

- animals being diseased or suspected of being diseased must not be slaughtered

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21
Q

​​Which pathogen is NOT Zoonotic?

  • Enterotoxic Escherichia coli strains
  • Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae
  • Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
A
  • Actinobacillusis pleuropneumonia
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22
Q

What are the responsibilities of the European Food Safety Authority?

  • Risk assessment
  • Controls of requirements relating to food safety
  • Adoption of EU regulations
  • Risk communication
A
  • Risk assessment

- Risk communication

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23
Q

Which activity could be fraudulent activity?

  • Online offered food
  • Unapproved enhancement
  • Processing of horse meat
  • Document forgery
A
  • Unapproved enhancement

- Document forgery

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24
Q

What is the maximum temperature where poultry meat can be? Only one answer is correct

  • 3 C
  • 4 C
  • 7 C
  • 10 C
A
  • 4 C
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25
Q

Which is hard cheese?

  • cheddar
  • edami
  • parmesan
  • gouda
A
  • cheddar

- parmesan

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26
Q

Which heavy metals are tested for fish and crustaceans?

  • Fe
  • Pb
  • Hg
  • Cu
A
  • Pb

- Hg

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27
Q

What do we put in the meat products?

  • Peaprotein
  • Soy
  • Milkprotein
  • Fishflour
A
  • Peaprotein

- Soy

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28
Q

Choose the correct statements:

  • Nitroimidazole are compounds that are permitted for therapeutic purposes but not for increase yields in food producing animals
  • Nitroimidazole may not be used for treatment or increase of yield in food producing animals
  • Nitrofurans re compounds that are permitted for therapeutic purposes but not for increase of yield in food producing animals
  • Nitrofuran shall not be used in food producing animals for therapeutic or yield enhancement purposes
A
  • Nitroimidazole may not be used for treatment or increase of yield in food producing animals
  • Nitrofuran shall not be used in food producing animals for therapeutic or yield enhancement purposes
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29
Q

Factors influencing deterioration

  • Internal factor such as ph, redox potential, water activity
  • External factors such as ph, redox potential, water activity
  • Internal factors of temperature, humidity, airspace composition
  • External factors of temperature, humidity, airspace composition
A
  • Internal factor such as ph, redox potential, water activity
  • External factors of temperature, humidity, airspace composition
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30
Q

What is the role of salt in Frankfurt manufacturing?

  • Reducing water content activity
  • Increasing water binding capacity
  • Taste development
A
  • Taste development
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31
Q

What is the characteristics of calpains?

  • Plays a role in maturation of poultry meat
  • Plays a role in ripening of fish meat
  • Breakdown of connective tissue proteins
  • Breakdown of sarcolemma proteins
A
  • Plays a role in maturation of poultry meat

- Breakdown of connective tissue proteins

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32
Q

In the antemorten examination we do?

  • Rectal examination
  • Visual inspection
  • Temperature measurement
A
  • Visual inspection

- Temperature measurement

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33
Q

Trichinella:

  • The meat of an infected animal shall be declared unfit for human consumption
  • Test must be performed in all cases to be carried out during meat inspection of pigs
  • In case of local infection the body other than the masseter is fit for human consumption
  • For testing the sample should be taken from foreleg or tongue of the wild boar
A
  • The meat of an infected animal shall be declared unfit for human consumption
  • For testing the sample should be taken from foreleg or tongue of the wild boar
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34
Q

Factors affecting the deterioration of minced meat?

  • Anaerobic psychrophilic
  • Aerobic psychrophilic
  • Redox potential increase during deterioration
  • Redox potential decrease during deterioration
A
  • Aerobic psychrophilic

- Redox potential decrease during deterioration

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35
Q

In which food does a primary infection occur?

  • Minced meat
  • Sausages
  • Eggs
  • Vegetables
A
  • Eggs

- Vegetables

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36
Q

Where staphylococcus aureus produces its toxin and causes?

  • Intestinal tract
  • Food
A
  • Food
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37
Q

Choose the correct statement:

  • Salmonella mainly in egg dishes
  • Salmonella mainly in raw poultry meat
  • Campylobacter mainly in eggs
  • Campylobacter mainly in raw poultry meat
A
  • Salmonella mainly in egg dishes

- Campylobacter mainly in raw poultry meat

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38
Q

Choose the correct statement:

  • The production areas of live bivalve molluscs are determined by the toxin producing capacity of planktons
  • The production areas for live bivalve molluscs are determined on the basis of the possibility of contamination with feces
  • Mussels collected from class C ares are only fit for human consumption only after heat treatment
  • Mussels collected from class A areas are fit for human consumption only after prolonged washing
A
  • The production areas for live bivalve molluscs are determined on the basis of the possibility of contamination with feces
  • Mussels collected from class C ares are only fit for human consumption only after heat treatment
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39
Q

Which one should be approved?

  • Egg packer
  • Egg collector
  • Laying houses
  • Egg production plant
A
  • Egg packer

- Egg production plant

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40
Q

Fast curing:

  • With nitrite
  • With nitrate
  • With nitrite and tumbler
  • Injected with nitrate and a needle
A
  • With nitrite

- With nitrite and tumbler

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41
Q

What is true for red meats:

  • Add ice in the cutter
  • Tap water in cutter
  • Can be stored refrigerated for a short time
  • Can be stored for long time without refrigeration
A
  • Add ice in cutter

- Can be stored refrigerated for a short time

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42
Q

Correct answer:

  • Salmonella is thermophilic
  • Salmonella is mesophilic
  • Listeria is mesophilic
  • Listeria is psychrotrophic/philic
A
  • Salmonella is mesophilic

- Listeria is psychrotrophic/philic

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43
Q

What remains in the end of the butter churning

  • Butter
  • Whey
  • Buttermilk
  • Water
A
  • Butter

- Buttermilk

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44
Q

Ostertag + Koch

A

Ostertag: father of meat inspection
Koch: discoverer of leprosy/anthrax(?)

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45
Q

Ante-mortem I inspection

  • The food chain information is provided by the veterinarian
  • Food chain information is provided by farmer
  • The food chain information is checked at the farm
  • The food chain information is checked at the slaughterhouse
A
  • Food chain information is provided by farmer

- The food chain information is checked at the slaughterhouse

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46
Q

Is there bacteria that survives pasteurization?

A

Coxiella burnetti + MAP

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47
Q

Which is true?
a) F0 is the heat treatment value
B) F0 ​​is the heat treatment equivalent
c) F0 is a microbiological characteristic
D) F0 is a technological characteristic

A

a) F0 is the heat treatment value

D) F0 is a technological characteristic

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48
Q

What does Salmonella break down?

  • Lysine
  • Carbamide
  • Lactose
  • Other
A
  • Lysine

- Other (glucose, produce H2S)

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49
Q

Which bacteria can be found physiologically in dairy cattle`s teat?

  • G+
  • G-
  • Aerob
  • Anaerobe
A
  • G+

- Aerob

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50
Q

What microbes should be tested for egg products under Regulation (EC) No 2073/2005?

  • Salmonella
  • Enterobacteriaceae
  • coagulase-positive Staphylococcus
  • E. coli
A
  • Salmonella

- Enterobacteriaceae

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51
Q

What is the x axis and what is the y axis on a heat penetration graph?

  • x axis: time
  • y axis: temperature
  • x axis: temperature
  • Y axis: time
A
  • x axis: time

- y axis: temperature

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52
Q

What are the roles of smoking?

  • Preservation.
  • Color development.
  • To fasten the oxidation process.
  • To inhibit the toxin production of Clostridium botulinum.
A
  • Preservation.

- Color development.

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53
Q

What are the characteristics of artificial casings from animal origin?

  • Their material is usually ceratine.
  • Their material is usually collagen.
  • They are impermeable to smoke and moisture.
  • They are digestable
A
  • Their material is usually collagen.

- They are digestable

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54
Q

What manufacturing steps are necessary for the appropriate general processing hygiene of food of plant origin?

  • Protection of vegetables/fruits against protection the harmful effects of the environment (moisture, dust, sunshine, insect)
  • Washing, cleaning to remove soil, weeds, stones and other foreign materials.
  • Computerized system is always needed to classify the vegetables/fruits according to the desirable color.
  • Computerized system is always needed to classify the vegetables/fruits according to the desirable shape/size.
A
  • Protection of vegetables/fruits against protection the harmful effects of the environment (moisture, dust, sunshine, insect)
  • Washing, cleaning to remove soil, weeds, stones and other foreign materials.
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55
Q

In case of organoleptic changes of meat

  • The meat is unfit for human consumption
  • The meat shall be placed on the market as of decreased value
  • Additional laboratory examinations might be needed for deciding on fitness for human consumption.
  • Official veterinarian shall make a decision on fitness for human consumption, based on professional evidences
A
  • Additional laboratory examinations might be needed for deciding on fitness for human consumption.
  • Official veterinarian shall make a decision on fitness for human consumption, based on professional evidences
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56
Q

DFD meat

  • In case of pork meat, it is unfit for human consumption
  • Is a quality issue, meat is fit for human consumption
  • Must be placed on the market as of decreased value
  • Usually an effect of chronic stress before slaughter
A
  • Is a quality issue, meat is fit for human consumption

- Usually an effect of chronic stress before slaughter

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57
Q

The official veterinarian shall declare fresh meat unfit for human consumption if it

  • Derives from animals affected by a generalized disease, such as generalized septicaemia, pyaemia, toxemia or viraemia
  • It is declared unfit based on the Commission Regulation B54/2004/EC
  • It is declared unfit based on the Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/627
  • Additional laboratory examinations cannot be performed
A
  • Derives from animals affected by a generalized disease, such as generalized septicaemia, pyaemia, toxemia or viraemia
  • It is declared unfit based on the Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2019/627
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58
Q

What flows traditional meat inspection has?

  • post-mortem procedures (eg incision of lymph nodes), could increased cross-contamination between different organs and consecutive carcasses
  • organoleptic judgments are objective
  • it is mainly based on final product control rather than considering the whole meat chain
  • it is a process-based approach
A
  • post-mortem procedures (eg incision of lymph nodes), could increased cross-contamination between different organs and consecutive carcasses
  • it is mainly based on final product control rather than considering the whole meat chain
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59
Q

Highly Pathogenic Avian Influenza (HPAI)

  • Birds showing symptoms shall be slaughtered separately
  • birds showing symptoms shall be slaughtered in a closed slaughter
  • infected animals cannot be slaughtered
  • Whole body is unfit for consumption
A
  • infected animals cannot be slaughtered

- Whole body is unfit for consumption

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60
Q

The inflammation of the intestines is not the main finding in which of these diseases?

  • Salmonellosis
  • Listeriosis
  • Erysipelas of swine
  • Vero-toxin producing Escherichia coli infection
A
  • Listeriosis

- Erysipelas of swine

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61
Q

Which regulations are in force in relation to official controls of foodstuffs

  • 882/2004/EC
  • 854/2004/EC
  • 178/2002/EC
  • 625/2017/EC
A
  • 178/2002/EC

- 625/2017/EC

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62
Q

Which findings make the egg unfit for human consumption?

  • Parasite
  • Foreign body
  • Meat spot
  • Contaminated shell
A
  • Parasite

- Foreign body

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63
Q

Which findings make egg unfit for human consumption?

  • Blood ring
  • Blood spot
  • Dented
  • Broken
A
  • Blood ring

- Broken

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64
Q

What methods are used to check the leakage after the storability tests?

  • Bubbles when squeezed under water
  • One end flips out when the can is struck against a solid object but snaps back to the normal under light pressure
  • Disappearance of vacuum (concavity) when heated to 38 C followed by slow cooling
  • Bulging of both can ends
A
  • Bubbles when squeezed under water

- Disappearance of vacuum (concavity) when heated to 38 C followed by slow cooling

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65
Q

Which is true?

  • Official control shall be performed more frequently in relation to food from third countries.
  • Official controls shall be performed with a high level of transparency
  • Official controls shall be performed without prior notice
  • It is not necessary to draw up written record of official controls.
A
  • Official controls shall be performed with a high level of transparency
  • Official controls shall be performed without prior notice
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66
Q

Which manufacturing steps of sausage production were part of our practical?

  • Mincing of pork shoulder and back fat.
  • Stuffing.
  • Smoking.
  • Ripening.
A
  • Mincing of pork shoulder and back fat.

- Stuffing.

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67
Q

Which of these statements are right for smoking?

  • Cold smoking is below 20°C.
  • It can only contribute to aroma development and will not change the taste of the product.
  • Liquid smoke is easy to handle and even environment friendly
  • Warm smoking is between 20-60°C
A
  • Cold smoking is below 20°C.

- Liquid smoke is easy to handle and even environment friendly

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68
Q

What manufacturing steps are necessary for the appropriate general Processing hygiene of heat-treated vegetables?

  • The manufacturing line should be disinfected minimum weekly.
  • The canned tomatoes were sterilized before put into the cans.
  • Weekly cleaning of the internal pipe lines, fittings, storage vessels is satisfactory without disinfection.
  • The sterilization of the canned tomatoes happened within the closed cans
A
  • The manufacturing line should be disinfected minimum weekly.
  • The sterilization of the canned tomatoes happened within the closed cans
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69
Q

In case of sexual odour of meat

  • poultry meat is unfit for consumption
  • pork meat is unfit for consumption in every case
  • if pronounced, meat is unfit for Consumption
  • official veterinarian shall determine the extent and make a decision on fitness for human consumption
A
  • if pronounced, meat is unfit for Consumption

- official veterinarian shall determine the extent and make a decision on fitness for human consumption

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70
Q

Cysticercosis

  • meat infected must be declared unfit for human consumption
  • meat infected must be declared unfit for human consumption only in case of cattle
  • if the animal does not suffer from generalized cysticercosis, the unaffected parts may be declared fit for human consumption after having undergone freezing treatment
  • Consuming infected meat does not pose public health risk, since humans could oniy be infected from carnivores
A
  • meat infected must be declared unfit for human consumption
  • if the animal does not suffer from generalized cysticercosis, the unaffected parts may be declared fit for human consumption after having undergone freezing treatment
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71
Q

Which statement is TRUE about Yersinia enterocolitica?

  • Animals are usually asymptomatic carriers of the bacterium
  • Poultry meat is the most important source of infection
  • It is psychrophilic
  • It usually causes generalized dermatitis in humans
A
  • Animals are usually asymptomatic carriers of the bacterium

- It is psychrophilic

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72
Q

Who are the members of the Rapid Alert System for Food and Feed?

  • Member States
  • European Parliament
  • European Commission
  • Council
A
  • Member States

- European Commission

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73
Q

How have to plan the official controls based on 625/2017/EC regulation?

  • Competent authorities have to plan the official controls on risk basis, regulary and with appropriate frequency.
  • Competent authorities have to plan the official controls on risk basis, regularly and with appropriate frequency to identify possible intentional violations.
  • Competent authorities have to plan the official controls on basis on the human resources.
  • Competent authorities have to plan the official controls on basis on the financial resources.
A
  • Competent authorities have to plan the official controls on risk basis, regulary and with appropriate frequency.
  • Competent authorities have to plan the official controls on basis on the financial resources.
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74
Q

In case of insufficient bleeding

  • Reason could be heart disorders
  • meat is generally unfit for consumption
  • there is always a foreign odour as well
  • there is no effect on fitness for human consumption
A
  • Reason could be heart disorders

- meat is generally unfit for consumption

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75
Q

Where can the quality grading of eggs be carried out?

  • At the site of production
  • In the retail market
  • In the egg packing plant
  • At the consumers before use
A
  • At the site of production

- In the egg packing plant

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76
Q

Which of the following statements are FALSE about the semi-preserved cans?

  • Only heat treatment is used for the preservation
  • They can be stored in room temperature
  • They must be stored in the fridge
  • Even vegetative bacteria can survive their heat treatment
A
  • Only heat treatment is used for the preservation

- They can be stored in room temperature

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77
Q

What is the role of nitrite salts in cured meat products?

  • Due to the addition of nitrite salts the multiplication of Clostridium botulinum is prohibited.
  • It has an antioxidant effect: stabilizes the fat level and therefore decreases the possibility of rancidity.
  • They can be used to have heat resistant brown color in meat.
  • They form nitrosamines, which are good for human health even in high concentration.
A
  • Due to the addition of nitrite salts the multiplication of Clostridium botulinum is prohibited.
  • It has an antioxidant effect: stabilizes the fat level and therefore decreases the possibility of rancidity.
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78
Q

What are the disadvantages of natural casings?

  • They are undigestable
  • They are perishable
  • Preparation is time consuming.
  • They are not permeable to smoke and vapor
A
  • They are perishable

- Preparation is time consuming.

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79
Q

OIE listed diseases

  • all have meat inspection significance
  • only the ones on the ‘A-list have meat inspection significance
  • have public health or animal health significance
  • not all have meat inspection significance
A
  • have public health or animal health significance

- not all have meat inspection significance

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80
Q

The organoleptic changes of meat

  • affect meat quality
  • only mean quality problems
  • indicates need for decision on fitness for human consumption
  • always mean safety problems
A
  • affect meat quality

- indicates need for decision on fitness for human consumption

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81
Q

Which are those molds in warehouse damaging the weat grains and corn the most often?

  • Aspergillus spp.
  • Pencillium spp.
  • Mucor spp.
  • Rhizopus spp.
A
  • Aspergillus spp.

- Pencillium spp.

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82
Q

What is the Rapid Alert System for Food and Feed?

  • IT tool
  • Group of appointed representative of Member States
  • The goal is to exchange information in relation to food fraud.
  • The goal is to exchange information in unsafe food.
A
  • IT tool

- The goal is to exchange information in unsafe food.

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83
Q

What kind of results have to be taken account of, during the planning of official controls, based on the regulation 625/2017/EC?

  • Results of official controls carried out earlier
  • Results of economic analysis
  • Results of own controls carried out by food business operator
  • Results of parliamentary elections
A
  • Results of official controls carried out earlier

- Results of own controls carried out by food business operator

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84
Q

Which steps are part of the preparation of raw, smoked and fermented meat products?

  • Deboning
  • Protein content measurement
  • Trichinella examination
  • Cutting and sometimes pre-chiling of the meat
A
  • Deboning

- Cutting and sometimes pre-chiling of the meat

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85
Q

Paratuberculosis

  • The whole body of wild game is unfit for consumption
  • If not systemic, only the affected organs are unfit for consumption
  • may lead to emaciation, and then the whole body is unfit for consumption
  • no septicaemia is developed, so there is no effect on public health
A
  • If not systemic, only the affected organs are unfit for consumption
  • may lead to emaciation, and then the whole body is unfit for consumption
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86
Q

Brucellosis

  • the whole body is unfit for consumption
  • if localized, only the affected organ or part should be declared unfit for human consumption
  • the genitals, mammary glands and blood are unfit, even if no lesions are visible during diagnostic slaughter
  • only investigation for the presence of B. abortus shall be performed
A
  • if localized, only the affected organ or part should be declared unfit for human consumption
  • the genitals, mammary glands and blood are unfit, even if no lesions are visible during diagnostic slaughter
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87
Q

What is TRUE about the F0 value?

  • It describes the heat resistance of a microbe species
  • It means the necessary time to reduce the microbial population with one magnitude
  • It is characteristic to the heat treatment process
  • The minimum requirement of heat treatments is set to achieve 12 magnitudes reduction of Clostridium botulinum spores (if pH > 4.5)
A
  • It is characteristic to the heat treatment process
  • The minimum requirement of heat treatments is set to achieve 12 magnitudes reduction of Clostridium botulinum spores (if pH > 4.5)
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88
Q

How did we judge the color changes after the curing?

  • With our human eyes and with instrumental analysis.
  • Only with subjective method.
  • Both with subjective and objective methods.
  • Only with objective method
A
  • With our human eyes and with instrumental analysis.

- Both with subjective and objective methods.

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89
Q

Yellow colour disorders

  • are always pathological
  • can be of alimentary (feed) origin
  • If of non-contagious origin, the meat is fit for consumption
  • mean that the possibility of bacterial spread shall be taken into account during decision making
A
  • can be of alimentary (feed) origin

- If of non-contagious origin, the meat is fit for consumption

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90
Q

Tularaemia

  • the whole body is unfit for consumption
  • If only the liver is affected, the meat of the rabbit is fit for consumption
  • if localized, only the affected organ or part and its associated lymph nodes should be declared unfit for human consumption
  • the significance of the meat inspection is given by its zoonotic nature
A
  • the whole body is unfit for consumption

- the significance of the meat inspection is given by its zoonotic nature

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91
Q

Which institutes adopt the regulations during the co-decision procedure?

  • European Parliament
  • European Commission
  • European Food Safety Authority
  • Council
A
  • European Parliament

- Council

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92
Q

What is typical of traditional raw sausage production technology?

  • They are produced with starter cultures
  • Lower water activity (<0,9), than fermented sausages
  • Higher pH (5,8-6) than fermented sausages
  • Some types contain added sugar
A
  • Lower water activity (<0,9), than fermented sausages

- Higher pH (5,8-6) than fermented sausages

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93
Q

Which microbial tests are required under Regulation (EC) No 2073/2005 for raw fermented meat products?

  • Salmonella spp.
  • E. coli
  • Enterobacteriaceae
  • Listeria monocytogenes
A
  • Salmonella spp.

- Listeria monocytogenes

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94
Q

What curing procedures were applied in the Technology Lab?

  • Dry salting, during which we have also applied black pepper beside salt to massage it into the given meat slice
  • Wet curing, in which we submerged the pork meatslice into the curing solution
  • Wet curing with needle injection, during which we have injected the brine solution directly into the pork meat slice
  • Tumblering, to prepare the meat for needle injection.
A
  • Dry salting, during which we have also applied black pepper beside salt to massage it into the given meat slice
  • Wet curing with needle injection, during which we have injected the brine solution directly into the pork meat slice
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95
Q

What heat treatments are needed to kill spores?

  • 110 °C/30 min
  • 80 °C/ 30 min
  • 121 °C/3 min
  • 90 °C/10 min
A
  • 110 °C/30 min

- 121 °C/3 min

96
Q

The XL size eggs according to the 589/2008 EC regulation…

  • They are the “Class A” eggs
  • In case of small-scale producers it is not obligatory to use the producer’s code on their shells
  • It is always obligatory to use the producer’s code on their shells
  • They must be kept below 5°C during transportation and distribution
A
  • They are the “Class A” eggs

- In case of small-scale producers it is not obligatory to use the producer’s code on their shells

97
Q

Which is true?

  • The central competent authority shall prepare the official control plan
  • The local competent authority shall prepare the official control plan.
  • There is not special requirements on the responsibilties of different leves of competent authorities in relation of planning of official controls.
  • Competent authorities have to plan the official controls on risk basis, regulary and with appropriate frequency
A
  • The central competent authority shall prepare the official control plan
  • Competent authorities have to plan the official controls on risk basis, regulary and with appropriate frequency
98
Q

Which areas are within the scope of the regulation of 625/2017/EC?

  • Controls of requirements relating to food safety.
  • Controls of requirements relating to animal health.
  • Controls of requirements relating to soil protection.
  • Controls of requirements relating to producing of veterinary medicinal products
A
  • Controls of requirements relating to food safety.

- Controls of requirements relating to animal health

99
Q

Which Salmonella serotype is zoonotic?

  • Salmonella Typhimurium
  • Salmonella Typhi
  • Salmonella Typhisuis
  • Salmonella Infantis
A
  • Salmonella Typhimurium

- Salmonella Infantis

100
Q

Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE)

  • animals showing symptoms can be slaughtered in the presence of official veterinarian
  • animals killed at a slaughterhouse and the cadavers shall be destroyed (incinerated) as SRM
  • all cattle have to be tested
  • animals being diseased or suspected of being diseased or infected must not be slaughtered
A
  • animals killed at a slaughterhouse and the cadavers shall be destroyed (incinerated) as SRM
  • animals being diseased or suspected of being diseased or infected must not be slaughtered
101
Q

African Swine Fever (ASF)

  • it is not possible to differentiate ASF and CSF by clinical or post-mortem examination
  • animals showing symptoms shall be slaughtered immediately in separate slaughter
  • whole body is unfit for consumption
  • except for the affected organ or part and its associated lymph nodes, the meat is fit for human consumption after heat treatment
A
  • it is not possible to differentiate ASF and CSF by clinical or post-mortem examination
  • whole body is unfit for consumption
102
Q

What are the criteria of egg products set by the 853/2004 EC regulation?

  • Below the limit Escherichia coli
  • Abscence of 3-OH-butyric acid
  • Below the limit shell, shell membrane and other pieces
A
  • Abscence of 3-OH-butyric acid

- Below the limit shell, shell membrane and other pieces

103
Q

What is the difference between yeast dough and sourdough pasta?

  • The sourdough pasta has lower pH value and therefore more acidic taste and more stable, than the yeast dough pasta.
  • There is a difference in the microflora, as in case of sourdough pasta, there are also other microbes present beside Saccharomyces cerevisiae, namely Lactobacillus, Leuconostoc, Pediococcus spp.
  • The yeast dough pasta has lower pH value and therefore more acidic taste and more stable, than the sOurdough pasta.
  • There is a difference in the microflora, as in case of yeast dough pasta, there are also other microbes present beside Saccharomyces cerevisiae, namely Lactobacillus, Leuconostoc, Pediococcus spp.
A
  • The sourdough pasta has lower pH value and therefore more acidic taste and more stable, than the yeast dough pasta.
  • There is a difference in the microflora, as in case of sourdough pasta, there are also other microbes present beside Saccharomyces cerevisiae, namely Lactobacillus, Leuconostoc, Pediococcus spp.
104
Q

How changes the color and how changes the form of myoglobin?

  • If myoglobin reacts with nitrite, the effect wont be visible after heat treatment
  • If myglobin reacts with oxygen, it will turn to oxymyoglobin, which is bright pink
  • If myoglobin has long exposure to oxygen, it wont get brown color, but stay bright pink.
  • If myoglobin reacts with nitrite, it will form a nitrosomyoglobin, which is dark red and will turn to light pink after heat treatment.
A
  • If myoglobin reacts with nitrite, the effect wont be visible after heat treatment
  • If myglobin reacts with oxygen, it will turn to oxymyoglobin, which is bright pink
105
Q

What factors are important for the modelling of heat treatment for canned foods?

  • The size of label on the can.
  • Rate of heat penetration at the center of the can.
  • The origin of the food to be canned.
  • pH of the food
A
  • Rate of heat penetration at the center of the can.

- pH of the food

106
Q

What steps are belonging to the control of Ready-To-Eat food products?

  • Microbiological analysis of applied spices
  • Controlling the packaging and labeling on plant-based foods
  • Determination of damages caused by insects and/or rodents
  • Sensory analysis
A
  • Controlling the packaging and labeling on plant-based foods
  • Sensory analysis
107
Q

Which of these hygienic requirements are essential in the bottling and bottle washing areas?

  • The wall and the ceiling should be clean, to avoid the contamination of the product.
  • To provide clean and white working clothes, appropriate handwashing, restroom
  • The temperature of these areas, which can not exceed 10 degrees
  • Staff can work only wearing fixed earing and head protection, so that the product can not be damaged or contaminated during filling and packaging.
A
  • The wall and the ceiling should be clean, to avoid the contamination of the product.
  • To provide clean and white working clothes, appropriate handwashing, restroom
108
Q

What is TRUE about the thermostat test of canned products?

  • Incubation is used to aid the growth and gas production of the surviving bacteria.
  • A temperature logger is used to measure the core temperaturenof the cans.
  • Any deformation of the cans mean insufficient treatment and unfit for human consumption.
  • If the bulge can be pressed back (flipper) the can is fit for human consumption.
A
  • A temperature logger is used to measure the core temperaturenof the cans.
  • Any deformation of the cans mean insufficient treatment and unfit for human consumption.
109
Q

Pasteurellosis

  • the whole body is unfit for consumption due to bacterial dispersal
  • in rabbits, only the respiratory organs are affected, therefore the meat is fit for consumption
  • in poultry (fowl cholera) the ill animals shall be slaughtered separately
  • in poultry (fowl cholera) the animals suspected of having the disease could be slaughtered separately
A
  • the whole body is unfit for consumption due to bacterial dispersal
  • in poultry (fowl cholera) the animals suspected of having the disease could be slaughtered separately
110
Q

Which belongs to the four criteria of agri-food frauds?

  • Intention
  • Food safety risk
  • Deception of consumer
  • Non-compliance in relation on export requirements of third country
A
  • Intention

- Deception of consumer

111
Q

Which of these are critical control points in case of cooked ham production?

  • Injection of brine
  • Tumbling
  • Heat processing
  • Cooling down
A
  • Heat processing

- Cooling down

112
Q

Which statement is TRUE about swine erysipelas?

  • It usually causes generalized urticaria and septicaemia in humans
  • In most cases it is an occupational hazard
  • It is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes
  • In chronic cases, the whole carcass of the pig is unfit for human consumption
A
  • In most cases it is an occupational hazard

- In chronic cases, the whole carcass of the pig is unfit for human consumption

113
Q

What are the responsibilities of the European Commission?

  • Adoption of EU regulation in the framework of co-decision procedure
  • Preparation of legislative proposal
  • Representation of the interest of the EU
  • Scientific advice
A
  • Preparation of legislative proposal

- Representation of the interest of the EU

114
Q

During the mincing and mixing of the meat.

  • a vacuum is created to slow the deterioration.
  • oxygen-rich conditions are created against germination of anaerobic spores (eg. Clostridium perfringens). nope
  • the meat mass is heated to 30-35 °C for better mixing of the ingredients.
  • the meat mass is chilled to reduce microbiological risk.
A
  • a vacuum is created to slow the deterioration.

- the meat mass is chilled to reduce microbiological risk.

115
Q

Which of these statements are right for tumbling?

  • Tumbler is applied right after needle injection.
  • Tumblering the meat is necessary for both long and fast curing.
  • It is a mechanical treatment of meat, which helps the efficiency of brine injection.
  • It is a rotating vessel, which is massaging the meat if it is fast curied.
A
  • Tumbler is applied right after needle injection.
  • It is a rotating vessel, which is massaging the meat if it is fast curied.

C? «Tumbling = a mechanical treatment in a special equipment, and helps the homogenous distribution of the salt, releases the proteins, and results in more stable structure after the heat treatment»

116
Q

What are the advantages of plant-based casing?

  • Mechanically resistant
  • All of them are edible.
  • They widen in water and shrinking when dried out.
  • They are easily chewable.
A
  • Mechanically resistant

- They widen in water and shrinking when dried out.

117
Q

What is the Food Fraud Network?

  • IT tool
  • Group of appointed representative of Member States
  • The goal is to exchange information in relation to food fraud.
  • The goal is to exchange information in unsafe food.
A
  • Group of appointed representative of Member States

- The goal is to exchange information in relation to food fraud.

118
Q

Trichinella

  • The meat of animals infected must be declared unfit for human consumption
  • Every pig shall be tested for the presence
  • If the infection is minor, the meat of animals infected can be declared fit for human consumption, except for the masseter muscle.
  • Sample from wild boar shall be taken from the foreleg, tongue or diaphragm
A
  • The meat of animals infected must be declared unfit for human consumption
  • Sample from wild boar shall be taken from the foreleg, tongue or diaphragm
119
Q

What tests are required for official inspection of frozen fish?

a) Cooking
b) Muscle parasite infection
c) Water retention/binding capacity
d) Flotation test

A

a) Cooking

b) Muscle parasite infection

120
Q

Which heavy metals are tested for muscles (?) mussels elle mollusc?

a) Hg
b) Cu
c) Pb
d) Cd

A

c) Pb

d) Cd

121
Q

Which of the following statements are TRUE?
a) In all cases, the lymph nodes of the head must be palpated during the examination of the
meat of bovine/ruminants
b) In all cases, the lymph nodes of the head must be palpated in swine meat
c) Feeling/examinating organs during meat testing, there can be cross-contamination
d) Incision of organs during meat testing may cause unwanted cross-contamination

A

a) In all cases, the lymph nodes of the head must be palpated during the examination of the
meat of bovine/ruminants
d) Incision of organs during meat testing may cause unwanted cross-contamination

122
Q

What is the histamin limit of fish products?

a) General products 100-200 mg/kg
b) General products 200-400 mg/kg
c) Enzymatically mature products, 100-200 mg/kg
d) Enzymatic matured products 200-400 mg/kg

A

a) General products 100-200 mg/kg

d) Enzymatic matured products 200-400 mg/kg

123
Q

What is typical of forced slaughter (emergency)?

a) Suspected of infection
b) May be suitable for consumption
c) Not a bloody method, way
d) Injured animals, emergency slaughter

A

b) May be suitable for consumption

d) Injured animals, emergency slaughter

124
Q

What lesion prohibits the use of the whole body /carcass of the animal?

a) Melanosis
b) Pale soft exudate meat
c) Boar odor/sex odor
d) Animals younger than 7 days

A

c) Boar odor/sex odor

d) Animals younger than 7 days

125
Q

What does the meat stamp contain? Health mark

a) Meat plant licensing number
b) The shortening of the European communities
c) The bovine ENAR number
d) The country of origin encoded

A

b) The shortening of the European communities

d) The country of origin encoded

126
Q

Which technique can be used to detect ammonia?

a) Reder test (imperfect bleeding)
b) Nessler test
c) Lead acetate test (stuffiness, acidic or neutral Ph)
d) Eber test

A

b) Nessler test

d) Eber test

127
Q

Which method can be used to measure water holding and binding capacity in meat?

a) Eber test (ammonia in meat)
b) Grau-Hamm device pressure with blotting paper
c) Warner bratzler shear device (tenderness)
d) Measure drip loss

A

b) Grau-Hamm device pressure with blotting paper

d) Measure drip loss

128
Q

How to distinguish icterus from carotenoids?

a) Live animal testing, conjunctiva mucous membrane yellow for icterus
b) Loffiler test (imperfect bleeding test)
c) With a cooking test
d) By examining solubility of pigment, ether solubility, positive for carotenoids

A

a) Live animal testing, conjunctiva mucous membrane yellow for icterus
d) By examining solubility of pigment, ether solubility, positive for carotenoids

129
Q

Packing does/is/has: active packaging

a) fungicide maturing film/antimicrobial film
b) Packaging with QR code
c) Dye indicating the effect of heat, temperature change
d) absorbent pad/ moisture absorbant

A

a) fungicide maturing film/antimicrobial film

d) absorbent pad/ moisture absorbant

130
Q

Is essential so as not to pose a danger to consumers in which cases if the oval marking mandatory?

a) Minced porkmeat
b) Chocolate waste
c) Bread
d) Fermented dairy products

A

a) Minced porkmeat

d) Fermented dairy products

131
Q

What is not typical of food waste

a) low in water content
b) they are geographically dispersed
c) they contain rapidly decomposing organic matter
d) all can be recovered by the natural circulation of biomass

A

a) low in water content

d) all can be recovered by the natural circulation of biomass

132
Q

Which information is given on the label on the box of eggs in shell?

a) the approval of the egg packing center /country of origin /farmer ID
b) housing technology / method of production
c) oval identification mark
d) date of laying

A

a) the approval of the egg packing center /country of origin /farmer ID
b) housing technology / method of production

133
Q

What is true of the concept of reuse

a) it takes place in the same sector as the original recovery
b) the waste in its original form or with little modification
c) only original reuse is included here
d) only the reuse of waste at source is included here

A

a) it takes place in the same sector as the original recovery
b) the waste in its original form or with little modification

134
Q

Which of the following are typical additives in the meat industry?

a) Tartrazin (E102)
b) Sodium gluconate (E621)
c) Natrium sulphite (E221)
d) Ascorbic acid (E300)

A

b) Sodium gluconate (E621)

d) Ascorbic acid (E300)

135
Q

We are characterized by farmed wild meat at the slaughterhouse

a) rules different from domestic species apply to antemortem testing
b) rules differentiate in the post mortem testing
c) the rules for domesticated species apply to antemortem testing
d) the rules for domesticated species is applied to post mortem testing

A

c) the rules for domesticated species apply to antemortem testing
d) the rules for domesticated species is applied to post mortem testing

136
Q

Which fishery product is to be stored under ice on the melting ice?

a) Fresh fish
b) Edible liver, roe, milt
c) Canned fish
d) The finished products

A

a) Fresh fish

b) Edible liver, roe, milt

137
Q

What are the reasons for the highest possible boiling water when slaughtering pigs

a) at higher temperatures the decrease in germ count is more significant
b) the appearance of the meat is improved by using a high boiling point
c) the hair follicles loosen better
d) it uses less energy and therefore costs more

A

a) at higher temperatures the decrease in germ count is more significant
c) the hair follicles loosen better

138
Q

The meat examination of the head of the adult bovine animal must always be cut / sliced

a) retropharyngeal ln
b) tongue
c) the masticatory muscles
d) the parotid ln or salivary gland

A

a) retropharyngeal ln

c) the masticatory muscles

139
Q

Where is the identification mark for poultry and rabbits?

a) The poultry and rabbit has mark on the package

A

a) The poultry and rabbit has mark on the package

140
Q

In which cases is slaughtering outside of the slaughterhouse allowed?

a) village guest table
b) small scale poultry and rabbit farms
c) in the case of buffalo up to 8 months of age -
d) in the case of pigs up to 6 weeks of age

A

a) village guest table

b) small scale poultry and rabbit farms

141
Q

What is true:

a) the myoglobin content of horsemeat is higher than that of pork
b) the myoglobin concentration in beef is higher than that of horsemeat
c) in cows, the content of grilled myoglobin is lower than in calves
d) myoglobin content in elderly animals is higher

A

a) the myoglobin content of horsemeat is higher than that of pork
d) myoglobin content in elderly animals is higher

142
Q

Which processes can be performed in the clean area?

a. Heading
b. Fileting
c. Gutting
d. Cutting

A

b. Fileting

d. Cutting

143
Q

What is the maximum allowable temperature for ruminant meat?

a. 7 C for the carcass
b. 4 C for the carcass
c. 4 C the offal
d. 3 C for offal

A

a. 7 C for the carcass

d. 3 C for offal

144
Q

Which parts of the body can be removed from the pig before the meat inspection?

a. Mandibula
b. Ear roots
c. Tail
d. Eyes

A

b. Ear roots

d. Eyes

145
Q

What is characteristic of BSE?

a. It is really widespread in Europe, vaccination is mandatory once a year
b. It is caused by abnormal prions
c. The carcass of a cattle suspected for the disease can only be fit after heat treatment
d. It is caused by abnormal proteins

A

b. It is caused by abnormal prions

d. It is caused by abnormal proteins

146
Q

What conditions must animal transport meet?

a. Ad libitum drinking water must be provided for the animals
b. Adequate ventilation
c. Ensuring a species- specific posture
d. Adequate feed supply

A

b. Adequate ventilation

c. Ensuring a species- specific posture

147
Q

What is characteristic for calpains?

a. They have a role in aging of poultry meat
b. They can be found in lysosomes
c. they catalyse the degradation of interstitial tissue proteins
d. they particularly catalyse the degradation of actomyosin complex

A

a. They have a role in aging of poultry meat

c. they catalyse the degradation of interstitial tissue proteins

148
Q

what pathogens are part of the food safety criteria for live marine molluscs

a. L. monocytogenes
b. Salmonella
c. E. coli
d. Coagulase- positive staphylococcus

A

b. Salmonella

c. E. coli

149
Q

Which of these abnormalities are fit for Human consumption?

a. DFD meat ageing
b. Insufficient bleeding
c. Emaciated animals
d. Lipochromatosis

A

a. DFD meat ageing

d. Lipochromatosis

150
Q

Which of these informations are mandatory?

a. All ingredients with their ratios in percentages
b. The date of manufacturing, given in day/month/year format
c. Energy content in 100g or 100ml product
d. Storage conditions

A

b. The date of manufacturing, given in day/month/year format
c. Energy content in 100g or 100ml product
d. Storage conditions

151
Q

What are the main points of the food chain information?

a. Treatments and their withdrawal periods
b. The dates of all vaccinations
c. The size of the farm
d. The information about the authorized veterinarian responsible for the farm

A

a. Treatments and their withdrawal periods

d. The information about the authorized veterinarian responsible for the farm

152
Q

What is the TRACES system?

a. The aim to track the movement of animals and animal products (among other things)
b. It must be used during the trade between member states
c. It must be used when importing from a third country
d. The aim is to find

A

a. The aim to track the movement of animals and animal products (among other things)
c. It must be used when importing from a third country

153
Q

Which of the following is true about emergency slaughter?

a. It means the slaughter of infected and suspected animals
b. It means the slaughter of injured animals
c. It means bloodless killing
d. The meat can be fit for human consumption

A

b. It means the slaughter of injured animals

d. The meat can be fit for human consumption

154
Q

Which of these statements are NOT characteristics of the primary packaging?

a. It is with indirect contact with the food, it is the outermost protection of batches
b. It provides useful information for the consumers
c. It can be divided into smaller units, called secondary packaging
d. It is important that it does not pose a human health risk

A

a. It is with indirect contact with the food, it is the outermost protection of batches
c. It can be divided into smaller units, called secondary packaging

155
Q

Which term does not belong to the definition of waste?

a. Hazardous material
b. Became redundant on the site of generation
c. It is not utilizable directly further
d. May be treated together with the main mass flow

A

a. Hazardous material

d. May be treated together with the main mass flow

156
Q

Which of the following sentences are true?

a. In cattle, the head lymph nodes must be palpated in every carcass
b. In pigs, the head’s lymph nodes must be palpated in every carcass
c. Palpation of the organ can cause cross- contamination of the carcass
d. Incision of the organs can cause cross-contamination of the carcass

A

c. Palpation of the organ can cause cross- contamination of the carcass
d. Incision of the organs can cause cross-contamination of the carcass

157
Q

Which of these are NOT mandatory on food label?

a. Name of producer
b. Nutritional claim
c. Alcohol content in case of bakery products
d. Weight of product

A

b. Nutritional claim

c. Alcohol content in case of bakery products

158
Q

Which of the egg’s attributes give information about its freshness?

a. The size of the air space
b. The size of the germinal disk
c. The size of the pores
d. The consistency of the albumen

A

a. The size of the air space

d. The consistency of the albumen

159
Q

What is the difference between slow and fast curing?

a. The main difference is in processing, as by slow curing the product is made with salt, nitrites or nitrates for preservation, colour and taste development. Therefore meat parts are merged or surface treated with (pickling) salts and ripened.
b. The main difference is in processing, as by slow curing the product is made with salt, nitrites and nitrates and other additives to help color and taste development. Curing solution is injected and/or added under vacuum to the tissues or surface treated with (pickling) salts and ripened
c. After slow curing the cured meat part can be ripened even for 1 year, which is not typical for fast curing
d. Foil-packaged ham and pressed ham is made with slow curing and cannot be produced by fats curing

A

a. The main difference is in processing, as by slow curing the product is made with salt, nitrites or nitrates for preservation, colour and taste development. Therefore meat parts are merged or surface treated with (pickling) salts and ripened.
c. After slow curing the cured meat part can be ripened even for 1 year, which is not typical for fast curing

160
Q

What can we use to differentiate between icterus and carotenosis?

a. With the Loeffer’s test
b. By checking the solubility of the yellow pigment
c. Looking for signs of disease, malaise in the live animal
d. With cooking test

A

b. By checking the solubility of the yellow pigment

c. Looking for signs of disease, malaise in the live animal

161
Q

Which of these are allergens

a. Sesame seeds
b. Parsley
c. Anise/ aniseed (Pimpinella anisum)
d. Mustard

A

a. Sesame seeds

d. Mustard

162
Q

Which conditions must be ensured on the farm?

a. The stock must be continuously investigated by a veterinarian
b. Evisceration of the game is prohibited on the farm
c. The game can be processed on the farm
d. Farm has to be adequate premises to perform the hygienic slaughter

A

a. The stock must be continuously investigated by a veterinarian
d. Farm has to be adequate premises to perform the hygienic slaughter

163
Q

Which countries operate the RASFF system?

a. EU member states
b. The European countries
c. Switzerland, Norway, Iceland and Liechtenstein
d. Turkey, Israel, Moldavia

A

a. EU member states

c. Switzerland, Norway, Iceland and Liechtenstein

164
Q

Which of the following statements are FALSE about the normal meat aging?

a. The decreased pH is due to lactic acid
b. The increased pH is due to ammonia
c. It takes around 45 mins
d. The final pH is well below 6

A

b. The increased pH is due to ammonia

c. It takes around 45 mins

165
Q 
The RASFF system contains alerts concerning safety of?
(Rapid alert system for food and feed) 
a.       Livestock
b.       Food industrial appliances
c.       Alcoholic beverages
d.       Food additives
A

c. Alcoholic beverages

d. Food additives

166
Q

Which of the following statements are TRUE of the PSE meat?

a. It usually occurs in cattle
b. There is a sudden pH drop at the beginning of the meat aging
c. The meat is fit for human consumption
d. The glycogen content of the muscles is decreased

A

b. There is a sudden pH drop at the beginning of the meat aging
c. The meat is fit for human consumption

167
Q

What are the notifiable diseases of fish?

a. Spring viraemia of carp
b. Viral haemorrhagic septicaemia of salmonids
c. Ichthyophthirius multifiliis
d. Bothriocephalosis

A

a. Spring viraemia of carp

b. Viral haemorrhagic septicaemia of salmonids

168
Q

What forms of biotoxins can occur in fishery products?

a. Paralytic shellfish poison (PSP)
b. Vomiting shellfish poison (VSP)
c. Fainting shellfish poison (FSP)
d. Amnesic shellfish poison (ASP)

A

a. Paralytic shellfish poison (PSP)

d. Amnesic shellfish poison (ASP)

169
Q

For which fish types is candling part of the official control?

a. Fillet
b. Herring
c. Flounder
d. Scomboid species

A

a. Fillet

c. Flounder

170
Q

In the case of fishery products, what sampling is required in case of doubtful results or organoleptic evaluation

a. Total volatile basic nitrogen (TVB-N)
b. Total protein (TP)
c. Cadaverine level (CL)
d. Trimethyl-amin nitrogen (TMA-N)

A

a. Total volatile basic nitrogen (TVB-N)

d. Trimethyl-amin nitrogen (TMA-N)

171
Q

The meat stamp contains the:

a. Approval number of the meat processing plant
b. The abbreviation of the ‘European communities’
c. The ISO code of the country of origin
d. The passport number of the cattle

A

b. The abbreviation of the ‘European communities’

c. The ISO code of the country of origin

172
Q

What are the characteristics of meat if the glycogen storage of the muscles was depleted?

a. The pH remains high
b. It is exsudative
c. It is unfit for human consumption- defo not this one
d. It is more suitable for bacterial growth

A

a. The pH remains high

d. It is more suitable for bacterial growth

173
Q

Which techniques can be used for ammonia detection?

a. Reder test
b. Nessler’s test
c. Lead acetate test
d. Eber’s test

A

b. Nessler’s test

d. Eber’s test

174
Q

Which of the following techniques can be used to evaluate the water holding capacity?

a. Eber’s test
b. Filter paper method with Grau-Hamm device
c. Warner- Bratzier shear force test
d. Measuring the dripping loss

A

b. Filter paper method with Grau-Hamm device

d. Measuring the dripping loss

175
Q

Which of these nutrients is a voluntary information on the label of food product?

a. Salt
b. Fibre
c. Protein
d. Glucose

A

b. Fibre

d. Glucose

176
Q

What is characteristic to intelligent packaging?

a. It gives information from the storage condition of food even before buying the product
b. It is capable to show the actual temperature of the given product
c. The consumer can only see it after opening the food packaging
d. It is mainly used for bakery products to absorb moisture

A

a. It gives information from the storage condition of food even before buying the product
b. It is capable to show the actual temperature of the given product

177
Q

Food industrial wastes are not typified by the following

a. Generally low water content
b. Are generated at geographically scattered locations
c. Contain quickly decomposing organic materials
d. All can get back to the nature with the natural cycling of biomass

A

a. Generally low water content

d. All can get back to the nature with the natural cycling of biomass

178
Q

Which word is not among the terms behind the abbreviation RASFF?

a. Livestock
b. Feed
c. Water
d. Food

A

a. Livestock

c. Water

179
Q

Which components are responsible for the protection of the egg?

a. Vitamin B
b. High pH
c. Cuticle
d. Chitin

A

b. High pH

c. Cuticle

180
Q

Which of these are red meat products?

a. Salami
b. Lyoner
c. Foil packaged ham
d. Bologna-type sausages

A

b. Lyoner

d. Bologna-type sausages

181
Q

What is characteristic for marketing of hunted game?

a. The hunted game can be marketed to final consumer in small amount only
b. The hunted game cannot be used for private consumption
c. The hunted game can be marketed to catering facility in small amount only
d. The hunted game can be marketed further by the private consumer

A

a. The hunted game can be marketed to final consumer in small amount only
c. The hunted game can be marketed to catering facility in small amount only

182
Q

Which statement is true?

a. Due to maintaining the flesh of fish will become softer with characteristic taste
b. Salting is not applied during the smoking
c. The fish bodies are ripened for 1-2 years in the metal can in case of canned products
d. The breaded marinating product is produced by cooking of fish

A

c. The fish bodies are ripened for 1-2 years in the metal can in case of canned products
d. The breaded marinating product is produced by cooking of fish

183
Q

Where is the identification mark (meat stamp) for poultry and rabbits?

a. In the case of poultry on the packaging
b. In the case of poultry on the carcass
c. In the case of rabbit on the packaging
d. In the case of rabbit on the carcass

A

a. In the case of poultry on the packaging

c. In the case of rabbit on the packaging

184
Q

During the inspection of adult cattle’s’ heads the ….. has to be incised/cut in every case

a. Retropharyngeal lymph nodes
b. Tongue
c. Masseter muscles
d. Parotid lymph nodes

A

a. Retropharyngeal lymph nodes

c. Masseter muscles

185
Q

In the case of pig slaughter, which pathogens should be tested during the microbiological examination of slaughter hygiene?

a. Enterobacteriaceae
b. E. coli
c. Salmonella
d. L. monocytogenes

A

a. Enterobacteriaceae

c. Salmonella

186
Q

In which cases is the meat stamp not applied?

a. Before the arrival of the Trichinella results
b. Fit for human consumption carcass of a rabbit?
c. Non generalised Trichinella infection
d. If the carcass of the slaughtered cattle contain SRM

A

c. Non generalised Trichinella infection

d. If the carcass of the slaughtered cattle contain SRM

187
Q

The veterinarian may ban the slaughter until further measure if…..

a. The animals show signs of exhaustion
b. The animals come from a surveillance zone
c. The assessment of the health status of the animals requires further examination
d. The animals have been shown to carry a zoonotic pathogen

A

a. The animals show signs of exhaustion

c. The assessment of the health status of the animals requires further examination

188
Q

What is characteristic for chemical composition? Of meat?

a. It has high biological value
b. It is important source of vitamin E
c. It has high fat content
d. It has low carbohydrate content

A

a. It has high biological value

d. It has low carbohydrate content

189
Q

What characteristics does an official test include for live fish

a. Sex
b. Viability (movement, respiration)
c. Body length
d. General health status

A

b. Viability (movement, respiration)

d. General health status

190
Q

What tests are required for official inspection of frozen fish

a. Floating probe
b. Cooking/frying test
c. Muscle parasites
d. Water binding capacity

A

b. Cooking/frying test

c. Muscle parasites

191
Q

What is the histamine limit for fishery products?

a. 100-200 mg/kg for general products
b. 200-400 mg/kg for general products
c. 100-200 mg/kg after enzymatic maturation
d. 200-400 mg/kg after enzymatic maturation

A

a. 100-200 mg/kg for general products

d. 200-400 mg/kg after enzymatic maturation

192
Q

Which of the following sentences are true slaughterhouabout the integrated meat inspection?

a. It means the separated slaughter of suspicious animals
b. It greatly depends on food chain information
c. It depends on the live animal inspection at the farm
d. Slaughtering can only happen at the closet slaughterhouse

A

b. It greatly depends on food chain information

c. It depends on the live animal inspection at the farm

193
Q

Which document’s check is mandatory during every control?

a. Cattle passport
b. The permission of the transporting vehicle
c. Animal health certificate
d. Common veterinary document

A

a. Cattle passport

c. Animal health certificate

194
Q

Which of these are health claims?

a. It can contribute to fibre rich diet
b. It may contribute to healthy brain function
c. The consumption of this food can be inserted to low-salt diet
d. It plays a role in proper functions of the immune system

A

b. It may contribute to healthy brain function

d. It plays a role in proper functions of the immune system

195
Q

In which cases is the oval mark mandatory?

a. Sliced meat
b. Chocolate
c. Bakery products
d. Fermented dairy products

A

a. Sliced meat

d. Fermented dairy products

196
Q

What kind of rule shall be certainly kept if a material is intended to be used as by-product in the food industry?

a. Precise records shall be kept about it
b. Food hygiene rules shall strictly apply
c. It can only be processed on the same processing line as the main product was
d. Expiry/ use to dates are strictly observed

A

a. Precise records shall be kept about it

b. Food hygiene rules shall strictly apply

197
Q

What are the characteristics of grade ‘A’ eggs?

a. It certifies that the egg is fit for human consumption without heat treatment
b. It might be used for the manufacturing of egg products
c. The yolk is slightly mobile
d. It doesn’t have an air space

A

a. It certifies that the egg is fit for human consumption without heat treatment
c. The yolk is slightly mobile

198
Q

Which of these processing steps are considered as critical control points (CCP) by production of Bologna-type sausages?

a. Cutting, mixing, grinding
b. Shaping, stuffing
c. Smoking, cooking
d. Cold storage

A

c. Smoking, cooking

d. Cold storage

199
Q

Which statement is true?

a. Large game can be skinned on the site
b. Large game can be eviscerated on the site
c. Small game must be suspended in pair on metal rod
d. Small game can be eviscerated on the site

A

b. Large game can be eviscerated on the site

c. Small game must be suspended in pair on metal rod

200
Q

Which statement is true?

a. Live bivalves harvested from class ‘B’ production area can be transported to processing establishment without purification or relaying
b. The production areas are classified based on heavy metal content of the sediment
c. Shellfish collected from class ‘C’ production area must be treated with heat instead of purification in the processing establishment
d. Live bivalves harvested from class ‘A’ production area can be marketed only after heat treatment

A

b. The production areas are classified based on heavy metal content of the sediment
c. Shellfish collected from class ‘C’ production area must be treated with heat instead of purification in the processing establishment

201
Q

Typically, how are poultry placed in the transport vehicle

a. Tied up
b. Folded up on feet
c. In fixed cages
d. In mobile crates

A

c. In fixed cages

d. In mobile crates

202
Q

What are the signs of successful stunning in cattle?

a. The animal immediately collapses without trying to stand up
b. Torticollis
c. No cornea reflex
d. Automatic defecation

A

a. The animal immediately collapses with trying to stand up

c. No cornea reflex

203
Q

The stunning of pigs usually happens

a. Mechanically with a stunning gun
b. By carbon dioxide gas chambers
c. With electrodes placed on the head
d. Mechanically by a device that causes concussion

A

b. By carbon dioxide gas chambers

c. With electrodes placed on the head

204
Q

Which parts of the adult goat are considered SRM?

a. The spinal cord
b. The tonsils
c. The ileum
d. The skull

A

a. The spinal cord
d. The skull

but actually all?

205
Q

Choose the correct statement:

a. Rigor mortis develops as a result of anaerobic glycolysis
b. Rigor mortis develops because of the lack of ATP
c. Rigor mortis passes due to the pH increase caused by bacteria
d. Rigor mortis passes due to protease enzyme

A

b. Rigor mortis develops because of the lack of ATP

d. Rigor mortis passes due to protease enzyme

206
Q

Which criteria are specified in the 2073/2005 EC regulation?

a. 3-OH-butric acid
b. Salmonella spp.
c. Enterobacteriaceae
d. Campylobacter spp.

A

b. Salmonella spp.

c. Enterobacteriaceae

207
Q

Is there a difference in salmonella count between meat products intended to be eaten raw and between poultry meat products intended to be eaten cooked related to food safety criteria?

a. No, in both cases zero tolerance is defined, which means salmonella cannot be present
b. Yes, there is a difference as salmonella is non-compliant only in case of poultry meat products intended to be eaten cooked (0/25g)
c. No, as Salmonella count for meat products intended to be raw is 0/25g, for poultry meat intended to be eaten cooked is 0/25g
d. Yes, there is a difference as salmonella is non-compliant only in case of meat products intended to be eaten raw (0/25g)

A

a. No, in both cases zero tolerance is defined, which means salmonella cannot be present
c. No, as Salmonella count for meat products intended to be raw is 0/25g, for poultry meat intended to be eaten cooked is 0/25g

208
Q

What is characterised for a trained person?

a. Trained person must have 10-year experience
b. Trained person must have hunter’s certificate issued by the state and special exam for examination
c. Trained person can be veterinarian only
d. It is not necessary that the trained person must have special experience

A

a. Trained person must have 10-year experience

b. Trained person must have hunter’s certificate issued by the state and special exam for examination

209
Q

Which statement is TRUE?

a. Live bivalves harvested from class ‘C’ production area can be marketed directly for human consumption
b. Shellfish collected from class ‘A’ production area can be marketed directly for human consumption
c. Live bivalves harvested from class ‘C’ production area can be marketed after long period relaying process
d. Shellfish collected from class ‘B’ production area can be marketed directly for human consumption

A

b. Shellfish collected from class ‘A’ production area can be marketed directly for human consumption
c. Live bivalves harvested from class ‘C’ production area can be marketed after long period relaying process

210
Q

In the case of cattle under 8 months of age, which organs inspection is less relevant?

a. Umbilical area
b. Udder and genitals
c. Joints
d. Masseters

A

b. Udder and genitals

d. Masseters

211
Q

What permits must the animal transport vehicle have?

a. Animal transport vehicles must have a low emission cert in order to protect the quality of the meat
b. The official permission of the vehicle for the transport of live animals
c. A road use permit
d. With the appropriate qualifications of the vehicle crew

A

b. The official permission of the vehicle for the transport of live animals
d. With the appropriate qualifications of the vehicle crew

212
Q

What is characteristic for myofibrils?

a. They are found in the sarcoplasm
b. They are the contractile element of the muscle
c. The sarcoplasmic reticulum surrounded it stores the potassium
d. They are the structural unit of the striated muscle

A

a. They are found in the sarcoplasm

b. They are the contractile element of the muscle

213
Q

What is characteristic for aged meat?

a. It has paler brownish colour (Reddish, bright red)
b. It has odour of lactic acid
c. It has glassy shine
d. It is in elastic to touch

A

a. It has paler brownish colour (Reddish, bright red)

b. It has odour of lactic acid

214
Q

Which parts are considered SRM in every age group of cattle?

a. The last four meters of the colon
b. The spinal cord
c. The spleen
d. The tonsils

A

a. The last four meters of the colon (ILEUM)

d. The tonsils

215
Q

Choose the correct statement:

a) Aflatoxin is a genotoxic carcinogen, the main site of attack is the liver.
b) Aflatoxin is a genotoxic carcinogen, the main site of attack is the kidney.
c) Ochratoxin is a genotoxic carcinogen, the main site of attack is the liver.
d) Ochratoxin is a genotoxic carcinogen, the main site of attack is the kidneys.

A

a) Aflatoxin is a genotoxic carcinogen, the main site of attack is the liver.
d) Ochratoxin is a genotoxic carcinogen, the main site of attack is the kidneys.

216
Q

Choose the correct statement (?) (Valdsstad heLTES sheep ??)

a) Yersinia enterocolitica is a psychophilic bacterium.
b) Yersinia enterocolitica is a mesophilic bacterium.
c) Staphylococcus aureus is a psychrophilic bacterium.
d) Staphylococcus aureus is a mesophilic bacterium.

A

a) Yersinia enterocolitica is a psychophilic bacterium.

d) Staphylococcus aureus is a mesophilic bacterium.

217
Q

Select the CORRECT statements.

a) Amethylmercury is magnified in the terrestrial food chain, reaching particularly high concentrations in predators,
b) Methylmercury is magnified in the aquatic food chain, reaching particularly high concentrations in predators.
c) Inorganic arsenic compounds are highly toxic.
d) Organic arsenic compounds are highly toxic.

A

b) Methylmercury is magnified in the aquatic food chain, reaching particularly high concentrations in predators.
c) Inorganic arsenic compounds are highly toxic.

218
Q

Select the CORRECT statements.

a) Nitroimidazoles are authorized compounds for therapeutic use, but not in food-producing animals.
b) Nitroimidazoles should not be used for food treatment or for crop production in food-producing animals.
c) Nitrofurans are compounds that are permitted for therapeutic use but are prohibited for increasing the yield of food-producing animals.
d) Nitrofurans should not be used in food-producing animals for therapeutic or yield-enhancing purposes.

A

b) Nitroimidazoles should not be used for food treatment or for crop production in food-producing animals.
d) Nitrofurans should not be used in food-producing animals for therapeutic or yield-enhancing purposes.

219
Q

Select the CORRECT statements.

a) Bacteria require less water activity than molds.
b) Bacteria need more water activity than molds.
c) The water activity requirements of yeasts are generally higher than those of bacteria.
d) The water activity requirements of yeasts are generally lower than those of bacteria

A

b) )Bacteria need more water activity than molds.

d) The water activity requirements of yeasts are generally lower than those of bacteria

220
Q

Select the CORRECT statements.

a) A significant proportion of the bacteria that cause damage are psychophilic.
b) The vast majority of spoilage bacteria are thermophilic.
c) A significant proportion of deteriorating molds are psychophilic.
d) Most deteriorating molds are thermophilic.

A

a) A significant proportion of the bacteria that cause damage are psychophilic.
c) A significant proportion of deteriorating molds are psychophilic.

221
Q

What conditions must the milk meet immediately before processing?

a) The temperature of raw milk up to processing may not exceed 6 ° C.
b) The CA temperature of raw milk can reach a maximum of 10 ° C until processing.
c) The germ count immediately before processing must not exceed 100 000 cells / ml.
d) The total number of germs immediately before processing must not exceed 300 000 cells / ml.

A

a) )The temperature of raw milk up to processing may not exceed 6 ° C.
d) The total number of germs immediately before processing must not exceed 300 000 cells / ml.

222
Q

Select the CORRECT statements.

a) Enterohaemorrhagic E. coli typically causes primary infection of raw milk.
b) Enterohaemorrhagic E. coli typically causes secondary contamination of raw milk.
c) Mycobacterium paratuberculosis typically causes a primary infection of raw milk.
d) Mycobacterium paratuberculosis typically causes secondary contamination of raw milk

A

b) Enterohaemorrhagic E. coli typically causes secondary contamination of raw milk.
d) Mycobacterium paratuberculosis typically causes secondary contamination of raw milk

223
Q

Select the CORRECT statements.

a) PSE is more prone to deterioration and has a shorter shelf life.
b) DFD meat is more prone to spoilage and has a shorter shelf life.
c) DED-type meat maturation is characterized by the rapid breakdown of glycogen after slaughter.
d) PSE-type meat maturation is characterized by the rapid breakdown of glycogen after slaughter.

A

b) DFD meat is more prone to spoilage and has a shorter shelf life.
d) PSE-type meat maturation is characterized by the rapid breakdown of glycogen after slaughter.

224
Q

Select the CORRECT statements.
a)Animals showing signs and symptoms of systemic disease or emaciation should be housed separately.

b) Animals showing signs and symptoms of systemic disease or thinness should only be slaughtered by emergency slaughter.
c) Bovine animals from a tuberculosis-free herd must be slaughtered separately in the case of a positive tuberculin test.
d) In the case of a positive tuberculin test, bovine animals from a tuberculosis-free herd must be slaughtered in a closed slaughterhouse.

A

Select the CORRECT statements.
a)Animals showing signs and symptoms of systemic disease or emaciation should be housed separately.

c)Bovine animals from a tuberculosis-free herd must be slaughtered separately in the case of a positive tuberculin test.

225
Q

Which egg disinfection procedure can be used in the EU?

a) Washing and drying
b) UV light
c) Chlorine
d) Ozone

A

Which egg disinfection procedure can be used in the EU?

b) UV light
d) Ozone

226
Q

Where can farmed game be slaughtered?

a) Slaughterhouse approved by the Authority.
b) In the holding of origin.
c) Location of forest fire.
d) Game processing plant.

A

Where can farmed game be slaughtered?

a) Slaughterhouse approved by the Authority.
b) In the holding of origin.

227
Q

Select the CORRECT statements.

a) The pH of the protein in fresh eggs is slightly alkaline, which becomes more alkaline during storage.
b) The pH of fresh egg white is slightly acidic, which becomes more acidic during storage, protecting its yolk from bacteria.
c) Salmonella Enteritidis can cause secondary contamination of eggs by passing through the feces adhering to the eggshell.
d) Campylobacter jejuni can cause secondary infection of eggs by passing it through the feces attached to the eggshell.

A

a) The pH of the protein in fresh eggs is slightly alkaline, which becomes more alkaline during storage.
c) Salmonella Enteritidis can cause secondary contamination of eggs by passing through the feces adhering to the eggshell.

228
Q

Which disease is zoonosis?

a) Atypical tuberculosis of pigs
b) Swine fever
c) Swine Mycoplasma pneumonia
d) Swine Actinobacillus pleuropneumonia

A

Which disease is zoonosis?

a) Atypical tuberculosis of pigs
b) Swine fever

229
Q

Paratuberculosis ..

a) .. always unfit for consumption.
b) .. in the absence of systemic lesions, only the organs involved are unfit.
c) … may cause abnormal emaciation, in which case the whole body must be declared unfit for consumption.
d) .. there is no dispersal of microbes and is therefore not relevant for the evaluation of meat

A

Paratuberculosis ..

b) .. in the absence of systemic lesions, only the organs involved are unfit.
c) … may cause abnormal emaciation, in which case the whole body must be declared unfit for consumption.

230
Q

Animals showing symptoms of BSE …

a) should only be slaughtered in the presence of an official veterinarian.
b) all parts of the animal killed as a result of the disease must be disposed of as SRM.
c) A sample must be taken from each bovine animal for analysis.
d) Only in certain cases should samples be taken at the slaughterhouse for testing, because the risk classification of TSEs in Hungary is negligible.

A

b) all parts of the animal killed as a result of the disease must be disposed of as SRM.
d) Only in certain cases should samples be taken at the slaughterhouse for testing, because the risk classification of TSEs in Hungary is negligible.

231
Q

What are the basic rules for controlling EU food trade?

a) Regulation (EU) No 1169/2011 on the provision of food information to consumers
b) Regulation (EC) No 852/2004 on the hygiene of foodstuffs. General Food Law
c) Regulation (EC) No 178/2002.
d) Regulation (EU) No 2017/625 on official controls.

A

c) Regulation (EC) No 178/2002.

d) Regulation (EU) No 2017/625 on official controls.

232
Q

What are the focal points of official control of catering establishments?

a) Avoid cross-contamination.
b) Ensuring traceability.
c) Check for clean and dirty routes.
d) Check the presence of the factory and consumer sink

A

What are the focal points of official control of catering establishments?

a) Avoid cross-contamination.
b) Ensuring traceability.

233
Q

The following applies to the Class 3 sampling plan:

a) Used primarily for pathogenic microbes b)Appropriate and unsatisfactory limits
c) Appropriate, acceptable and unsatisfactory limits
d) Used for hygiene assessment

A

c) Appropriate, acceptable and unsatisfactory limits

d) Used for hygiene assessment

234
Q

Choose the correct answers!

a) In the DA CAMP test, Listeria monocytogenes Rhodococcus equiv.
b) In the CAMP test, Listeria monocytogenes reacts positively with Staphylococcus
c) . Salmonella decarboxylates lysine.
d) Salmonella breaks down urea

A

b) In the CAMP test, Listeria monocytogenes reacts positively with Staphylococcus
c) . Salmonella decarboxylates lysine.

235
Q

What is the volume of the sample?

a) For 0.1 ml plate casting
b) For 1 ml plate casting
c) For 1 ml spraying
d) For 0.1 ml spraying

A

What is the volume of the sample?

b) For 1 ml plate casting
d) For 0.1 ml spraying

236
Q

Which test is based on microbiological inhibition?

a) ROSA test
b) Delvotest
c) SMALL test (Hungarian: KIS teszt)
d) Snap test

A

Which test is based on microbiological inhibition?

b) Delvotest
c) SMALL test (Hungarian: KIS teszt)

Food hygiene final (7 decks)

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