PPTs Flashcards

1
Q

Drug class? Block the action of histamine by binding to H1 receptors

A

antihistamines

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2
Q

effect of antihistamines on capillary permeability?

A

Decreased

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3
Q

what receptors do antihistamines bind to?

A

H1 receptors

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4
Q

effect of antihistamines on respiratory muscle constriction?

A

decrease

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5
Q

effect of antihistamines on vascular muscle constriction?

A

decrease

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6
Q

effect of antihistamines on GI smooth muscle constriction?

A

decrease

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7
Q

which generation of antihistamines bind non-selectively to central H1 receptors?

A

1st generation

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8
Q

which generation of antihistamines bind selectively for peripheral H1 receptors?

A

2nd generation

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9
Q

what receptors do 1st generation H1 receptors bind to?

A

central H1 receptors

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10
Q

which generation of antihistamines binds to central H1 receptors?

A

1st generation

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11
Q

which generation of antihistamines bind to peripheral H1 receptors?

A

2nd generation

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12
Q

do 1st generation antihistamines bind non-selectively or selectively?

A

non-selectively

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13
Q

do 2nd generation antihistamines bind non-selectively or selectively?

A

selective

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14
Q

which generation of antihistamines bind to central H1 receptors?

A

1st generation

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15
Q

which generation of antihistamines bind to peripheral receptors?

A

2nd generation

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16
Q

where are antihistamines metabolized?

A

in the liver

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17
Q

where are antihistamines excreted?

A

in the urine

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18
Q

which generation of antihistamines is on the Beer’s criteria list?

A

1st generation

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19
Q

1st generation antihistmines and BPH?

A

contraindicated

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20
Q

1st generation antihistamines in narrow angle glaucoma?

A

contraindicated

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21
Q

1st generation antihistamines in newborns and premature infants?

A

contraindicated

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22
Q

why are 1st generation antihistamines contraindicated in newborns and premature infants?

A

convulsions

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23
Q

which generation of antihistamines can cause paradoxical CNS stimulation in young children?

A

1st generation

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24
Q

which generation of antihistamines is diphenhydramine?

A

1st generation

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25
Q

which generation of antihistamines is chlorpheniramine?

A

1st generation

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26
Q

which generation of antihistamines is hydroxyzine?

A

1st generation

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27
Q

three examples of 1st generation antihistamines?

A

diphenhydrame, chlorpheniramine, hydroxyzine

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28
Q

which generation of antihistamine is cetirizine?

A

2nd generation

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29
Q

which generation of antihistamine is levocetirizine?

A

2nd generation

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30
Q

which generation of antihistamine is loratidine?

A

2nd generation

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31
Q

which generation of antihistamine is desloratadine?

A

2nd generation

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32
Q

which generation of antihistamine is fexofenadine?

A

2nd generation

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33
Q

brand name of diphenhydramine?

A

benadryl

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34
Q

brand name of chlorpheniramine?

A

chlor-trimeton

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35
Q

brand name of hydroxyzine?

A

atarax

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36
Q

brand name of cetirizine?

A

zyrtec

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37
Q

brand name of levocetirizine?

A

xyzal

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38
Q

brand name of loratadine?

A

claritin

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39
Q

brand name of desloratadine?

A

clarinex

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40
Q

brand name of fexofenadine?

A

allegra

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41
Q

5 examples of 2nd generation antihistamines?

A

cetirizine, levocetirizine, loratadine, desloratadine, fexofenadine

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42
Q

drug class? Used for the treatment of seasonal allergic rhinitis and vasomotor rhinitis

A

intranasal antihistamines

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43
Q

what are two indications for intranasal antihistamines?

A

seasonal allergic rhinitis & vasomotor rhinitis

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44
Q

what is the systemic oral bioavailability of intranasal antihistamines?

A

0.4

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45
Q

describe protein binding of intranasal antihistamines?

A

high levels

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46
Q

metabolism of intranasal antihistamines?

A

metabolized into active metabolites

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47
Q

excretion of intranasal antihistamines?

A

excreted in the feces

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48
Q

three side effects of intranasal antihistamines?

A

somnolence, nasal irritation, bitter taste

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49
Q

two examples of intranasal antihistamines?

A

azelastine & olopatadine

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50
Q

class? Azelastine

A

intranasal antihistamines

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51
Q

class? Olopatadine

A

intranasal antihistamines

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52
Q

what is the MOA of nasal corticosteroids?

A

same as inhaled corticosteroids

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53
Q

class? Fluticasone

A

nasal corticosteroids

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54
Q

class? Budesonide

A

nasal corticosteroids

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55
Q

class? Triamcinolone

A

nasal corticosteroids

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56
Q

class? Ciclesonide

A

nasal corticosteroids

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57
Q

class? Mometasone

A

nasal corticosteroids

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58
Q

brand name? fluticasone

A

flonase

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59
Q

brand name? budesonide

A

rhinocort aqua

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60
Q

brand name? Triamcinolone

A

nasacort AQ

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61
Q

brand name? ciclesonide

A

omnaris

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62
Q

brand name? mometsone

A

nasonex

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63
Q

what class are these? Fluticasone, budesonide, triamcinolone, ciclesonide, mometasone

A

nasal corticosteroids

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64
Q

specific class? Kaolin & pectin, bismuth subsalicylate

A

absorbent antidiarrheals

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65
Q

two examples of absorbent drugs?

A

kaolin and pectin; bismuth subsalicylate

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66
Q

specific class? Kaolin & pectin

A

absorbent antidiarrheals

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67
Q

specific class? Bismuth subsalicylate

A

absorbent antidiarrheals

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68
Q

specific class? Diphenoxylate w/ atropine

A

opiate antidiarrheals

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69
Q

specific class? Difenoxin with atropine

A

opiate antidiarrheals

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70
Q

specific class? Loperamide

A

opiate antidiarrheals

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71
Q

general class? Kaolin and pectin

A

antidiarrheals

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72
Q

general class? Bismuth subsalicylate

A

antidiarrheals

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73
Q

general class? Diphenoxylate with atropine

A

antidiarrheals

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74
Q

general class? Loperamide

A

antidiarrheals

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75
Q

two classes of antidiarrheal drugs used in crohn’s and ulcerative colitis?

A

loperamide & anticholinergices

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76
Q

what is the action of pectin?

A

absorbs liquid in the stool and thickens the stool

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77
Q

when are kaolin/pectin usually used?

A

uncomplicated acute diarrhea

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78
Q

what antidiarrheal has antisecretory, antiinflammatory, and antimicrobial actions?

A

bismuth subsalicylate

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79
Q

what portion of bismuth subsalicylate is antisecretory?

A

salicylate portion

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80
Q

what portion of bismuth subsalicylate is antimicrobial?

A

bismuth portion

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81
Q

what antidiarrheal causes discoloration of stool and tongue?

A

bismuth

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82
Q

what antidiarrheal should not be given in febrile viral conditions?

A

bismuth subsalicylate

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83
Q

what antidiarrheal can precipitate Reye syndrome in febrile viral conditions?

A

bismuth subsalicylate

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84
Q

what color does bismuth subsalicylate change stools?

A

gray

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85
Q

what can stool discoloration with bismuth make patients think?

A

GIB

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86
Q

do diphenoxylate and difenoxin cause analgesia?

A

no

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87
Q

diphenoxylate- specific class?

A

opiate antidiarrheals

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88
Q

difenoxin- specific class?

A

opiate antidiarrheals

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89
Q

what is the second ingredient of diphenoxylate?

A

atropine

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90
Q

what is the second ingredient of difenoxin?

A

atropine

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91
Q

what is the main active metabolite of diphenoxylate?

A

difenoxin

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92
Q

what is the role of atropine with diphenoxylate or difenoxin?

A

antisecretory and slows peristalsis

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93
Q

drug? Slowing of peristalsis by binding of the drug to opioid receptors in the intestines

A

loperamide

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94
Q

what does loperamide do to the stool?

A

bulking & increased thickness; reduction in fecal volume

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95
Q

effect of loperamide on fecal volume?

A

reduction in fecal volume

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96
Q

drug? Used in mild cases of Crohn disease that is without any serious complications

A

loperamide

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97
Q

what class of antidiarrheals can cause toxic megacolon?

A

opiate antidiarrheals

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98
Q

children are especially prone to anticholinergic effects of what class of antidiarrheals?

A

opiate antidiarrheals

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99
Q

opiate antidiarrheals and narrow angle glaucoma?

A

contraindicated

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100
Q

opiate antidiarrheals and urinary obstruction?

A

contraindicated

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101
Q

why shouldn’t diphenoxylate and difenoxin not be used in intestinal infections?

A

can worsen the condition

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102
Q

brand name for olodaterol?

A

striverdi respimat

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103
Q

brand name for vilanterol?

A

breo ellipta

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104
Q

specific class? Block muscarinic cholinergic receptors by antagonizing acetylcholine

A

inhaled anticholinergics

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105
Q

what receptors do inhaled anticholinergics block?

A

muscarinic cholinergic receptors

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106
Q

what do inhaled anticholinergics antagonize?

A

acetylcholine

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107
Q

what respiratory med class decreases the formation of cyclic GMP?

A

inhaled anticholinergics

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108
Q

what respiratory class decreases the formation of cyclic GMP?

A

inhaled anticholinergics

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109
Q

what respiratory class causes decreased contractility of smooth muscle in the lungs?

A

inhaled anticholinergics

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110
Q

what do inhaled anticholinergics do to contractility of smooth muscle in the lungs?

A

decreased contractility

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111
Q

what muscle do inhaled anticholinergics act on?

A

smooth muscle of the lungs

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112
Q

describe absorption of inhaled anticholinergics?

A

poorly absorbed from lungs and GIT

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113
Q

what percentage of inhaled anticholinergic dose is swallowed?

A

0.9

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114
Q

where are inhaled anticholinergics excreted from?

A

feces

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115
Q

10% of inhaled anticholinergics are metabolized by WHAT?

A

hydrolysis

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116
Q

what drug class involves metabolism via hydrolysis?

A

inhaled anticholinergics

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117
Q

what do inhaled anticholinergics decrease the formation of?

A

cyclic GMP

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118
Q

what specific class involves cyclic GMP with MOA?

A

inhaled anticholinergics

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119
Q

what does the decreased formation of cyclic GMP cause with inhaled anticholinergics?

A

decreased contractility of smooth muscle in the lungs

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120
Q

three common side effects of inhaled anticholinergics?

A

dry mouth, cough, headache

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121
Q

which glaucoma needs to be avoided with inhaled anticholinergics?

A

closed-angle glaucoma

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122
Q

what specific drug class should not be used for acute bronchospasm unless in combination with albuterol?

A

inhaled anticholinergics

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123
Q

inhaled anticholinergics in urinary retention?

A

no

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124
Q

inhaled anticholinergics in BPH?

A

no

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125
Q

inhaled anticholinergics in closed-angle glaucoma?

A

no

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126
Q

what must you combine inhaled anticholinergics with in order to use for acute bronchospasm?

A

albuterol

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127
Q

can you use inhaled anticholinergics on their own for acute bronchospasm?

A

no

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128
Q

what does SAMA stand for?

A

short acting muscarinic antagonists

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129
Q

what does LAMA stand for?

A

long acting muscarinic antagonists

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130
Q

how long do SAMAs last?

A

4-6 hours

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131
Q

specific class? Ipratropium bromide

A

short acting muscarinic antagonists

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132
Q

ipratropium bromide/albuterol- specific class?

A

short acting muscarinic antagonists

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133
Q

tiotropium bromide-specific class?

A

long acting muscarinic antagonists

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134
Q

aclidinium bromide- specific class?

A

long acting muscarinic antagonists

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135
Q

umeclidinium bromide- specific class?

A

long acting muscarinic antagonists

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136
Q

revefenacin- specific class?

A

long acting muscarinic antagonists

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137
Q

which LAMA is the only one that can be nebulized?

A

revefenacin

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138
Q

what is the brand name for revefenacin?

A

yupelri

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139
Q

how long does revefenacin (yupelri) last?

A

24 hours

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140
Q

how long does umeclidinium bromide (incruse ellipta) last?

A

24 hours

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141
Q

how long does aclidinium bromide (tudorza pressair) last?

A

12 hours

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142
Q

how long does tiotropium bromide (spiriva) last?

A

24 hours

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143
Q

what is the brand name for ipratropium bromide?

A

atrovent

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144
Q

what is the brand name for ipratropium bromide/albuterol?

A

combivent

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145
Q

what is the brand name for tiotropium bromide?

A

spiriva handihaler/spiriva respimat

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146
Q

what is the brane name for aclidinium bromide?

A

tudorza pressair

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147
Q

what is the brand name for umeclidinium bromide?

A

incruse ellipta

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148
Q

what is the first long acting nebulized LAMA?

A

revefenacin

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149
Q

specific class? Preferentially bind to M3 receptors which are the primary muscarinic receptor involving bronchoconstriction in COPD

A

glycopyrrolates (LAMAs)

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150
Q

two examples of glycopyrronium bromide?

A

seebri neohaler & breztri (in combination with LABA and ICS)

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151
Q

which receptors are the primary muscarinic receptor involving bronchoconstriction in COPD?

A

M3 receptors

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152
Q

broad class of glycopyrrolates?

A

inhaled anticholinergics

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153
Q

specific class of glycopyrrolates?

A

long acting muscarinic antagonists

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154
Q

how long does seebri neohaler last?

A

12 hours

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155
Q

example of methylxanthine drug?

A

theophylline

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156
Q

theophylline- specific class?

A

methylxanthine

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157
Q

class? Inhibit phosphodiesterases that lead to an increase in cyclic AMP

A

methylxanthine

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158
Q

effect of theophylline on bronchial smooth muscle?

A

relaxation

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159
Q

effect of theophylline on pulmonary vessels?

A

relaxation

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160
Q

what does theophylline inhibit?

A

phosphodiesterases

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161
Q

inhibition of phosphodiesterases lead to an increase of what?

A

cyclic AMP

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162
Q

describe absorption of theophylline?

A

well and fully absorbed orally

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163
Q

describe first pass with theophylline?

A

very little

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164
Q

where is theophylline metabolized?

A

in the liver

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165
Q

four common side effects of methylxanthines?

A

headache, irritability, gastric irritation, N/V

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166
Q

describe drug interactions with methylxanthines?

A

multiple

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167
Q

what respiratory drug requires monitoring with serum drug levels to prevent toxicity?

A

theophylline

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168
Q

what are decongestants used for?

A

used to relieve nasal congestion

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169
Q

what two forms do decongestants come in?

A

oral and topical (nasal spray) forms

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170
Q

class? Alpha-adrenergic receptor agonists

A

decongestants

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171
Q

class? Stimulate alpha receptors of vascular smooth muscle, constricting dilated arterioles within the nasal mucosa

A

decongestants

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172
Q

what receptors do decongestants simulate?

A

alpha receptors

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173
Q

where do decongestants stimulate alpha receptors?

A

vascular smooth muscle

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174
Q

where do decongestants constrict dilated arterioles?

A

within the nasal mucosa

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175
Q

general class? Pseudoephedrine

A

decongestants

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176
Q

specific class? Pseudoephedrine

A

alpha-adrenergic receptor agonists

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177
Q

describe absorption of pseudoephedrine?

A

well absorbed from GI tract

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178
Q

describe distribution of pseudoephedrine?

A

widely distributed

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179
Q

does pseudoephedrine cross the BBB?

A

yes

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180
Q

describe metabolism of pseudoephedrine?

A

partially metabolized in the liver

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181
Q

describe excretion of pseudoephedrine?

A

excreted in urine with up to 75% as an active metabolite

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182
Q

what is pseudoephedrine used for?

A

to relieve nasal congestion

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183
Q

what are three adverse effects with oral decongestants?

A

anxiety, restlessness, tremors

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184
Q

what are four adverse effects with topical decongestants?

A

burning, stinging, dryness, sneezing

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185
Q

oral decongestants in severe HTN?

A

contraindicated

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186
Q

oral decongestants in cardiovascular disease?

A

contraindicated

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187
Q

what is the absolute contraindication to oral decongestants?

A

patients on MAOIs

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188
Q

can you take MAOIs with oral decongestants?

A

no (absolute contraindication)

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189
Q

can kids younger than 4 years take oral decongestants?

A

no

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190
Q

what age of children should not take topical decongestants?

A

younger than 6 years

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191
Q

what age of children should not take oral decongestants?

A

younger than 4 years

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192
Q

two examples of oral decongestants?

A

pseudoephedrine & phenylephrine

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193
Q

pseudoephedrine & phenylephrine are what type of drugs?

A

oral decongestants

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194
Q

does phenylephrine have an oral form?

A

yes

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195
Q

does phenylephrine have a topical form?

A

yes

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196
Q

does phenylephrine come in oral and topical forms?

A

yes

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197
Q

does pseudoephedrine have a topical form?

A

no

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198
Q

is oxymetazoline an oral or topical decongestant?

A

topical

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199
Q

is tetrahydrozoline an oral or topical decongestant?

A

topical

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200
Q

how is oxymetazoline given?

A

topical

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201
Q

how is tetrahydrozoline given?

A

topical

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202
Q

what are antitussives used for?

A

to suppress cough

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203
Q

general class? Used to suppress cough- but should be used judiciously

A

antitussives

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204
Q

two examples of nonopioid antitussives?

A

benzonatate and dextromethorphan

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205
Q

benzonatate- specific class?

A

nonopioid antitussive

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206
Q

dextromethorphan- specific class?

A

nonopioid antitussive

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207
Q

drug? D isomer of codeine analogue that acts in medulla to increase cough threshold

A

dextromethorphan

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208
Q

drug? Chemically related to tetracaine that acts by anesthetizing the cough receptors in the lungs

A

benzonatate

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209
Q

drug? Directly acts on receptors in the cough center of the medulla

A

codeine

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210
Q

example of opioid antitussive drug?

A

codeine

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211
Q

codeine-specific class?

A

opioid antitussive

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212
Q

where does dextromethorphan act?

A

in the medulla

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213
Q

what does dextromethorphan do in the medulla?

A

increase cough threshold

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214
Q

what does dextromethorphan do to the cough threshold?

A

increase cough threshold

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215
Q

what antitussive is chemically related to tetracaine?

A

benzonatate

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216
Q

what receptors does benzonatate act on?

A

cough receptors in the lungs

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217
Q

what does benzonatate do to cough receptors in the lungs?

A

anesthetizes them

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218
Q

what receptors does codeine act on?

A

receptors in cough center of the medulla

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219
Q

describe absorption of antitussives?

A

all well absorbed from GIT

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220
Q

describe distribution of codeine?

A

widely distributed including CNS

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221
Q

where is dextromethorphan metabolized?

A

liver

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222
Q

where is dextromethorphan excreted?

A

in the urine

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223
Q

where is codeine metabolized?

A

liver

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224
Q

where is codeine excreted?

A

in the urine

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225
Q

metabolism of benzonatate?

A

unknown

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226
Q

excretion of benzonatate?

A

unknown

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227
Q

can codeine cause dependence?

A

yes

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228
Q

can dextromethorphan cause dependence?

A

yes

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229
Q

when is benzonatate contraindicated?

A

patients who are allergic to any “caine” compound

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230
Q

patients who are allergic to any “caine” compound should not take what drug?

A

benzonatate

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231
Q

should antitussives be used in patients with respiratory disease with chronic cough?

A

no

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232
Q

what two antitussive drugs can cause dependence?

A

codeine and dextromethorphan

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233
Q

three side effects of antitussives?

A

drowsiness, dizziness, nausea

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234
Q

class? Used to reduce the viscosity of thick sputum in the symptomatic treatment of cough due to respiratory infections

A
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235
Q

what is the only FDA approved expectorant?

A

guaifenesin

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236
Q

thick bronchial secretions are composed of what?

A

mucins

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237
Q

what cells produce mucins?

A

goblet cells

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238
Q

what glands produce mucins?

A

submucosal glands

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239
Q

where are the submucosal glands located?

A

in the airways

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240
Q

what drug decreases mucin production from goblet cells?

A

guaifenesin

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241
Q

what drug indirectly stimulates GI vagal afferent nerves

A

guaifenesin

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242
Q

drug? Decreases mucin production from goblet cells and indirectly stimulates GI vagal afferent nerves that trigger reflex parasympathetic glandular secretion from submucosal cells and goblet cells increasing hydration of mucus layer for more effective mucociliary clearance

A

guaifenesin

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243
Q

what are the potential GI side effects of guaifenesin?

A

GI upset- N/V/D

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244
Q

should guaifenesin be taken with asthma?

A

no

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245
Q

should guaifenesin be taken with COPD?

A

no

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246
Q

should guaifenesin be taken with HF?

A

no

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247
Q

should guaifenesin be taken with ACE inhibitor therapy?

A

no

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248
Q

class? Inhibit IgE and mast cell mediated migration of inflammatory cells into bronchial mucosa

A

inhaled corticosteroids

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249
Q

which immunoglobulin is affected with inhaled corticosteroids?

A

IgE

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250
Q

what phase of allergic reaction is affected by inhaled corticosteroids?

A

late-phase allergic reaction

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251
Q

in what two places are inhaled corticosteroids absorbed?

A

lungs and GI tract

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252
Q

describe speed of absorption of inhaled corticosteroids?

A

rapid

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253
Q

how much of inhaled corticosteroid dose is deposited in the lungs?

A

less than one-fourth

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254
Q

less than one-fourth of dose of what class is deposited in the lungs?

A

inhaled corticosteroids

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255
Q

what happens to swallowed portion of inhaled corticosteroid dose?

A

undergoes extensive first-pass metabolism

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256
Q

where are inhaled corticosteroids excreted?

A

in urine and feces

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257
Q

migration of inflammatory cells with inhaled corticosteroids are mediated by what?

A

mast cells

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258
Q

how do inhaled corticosteroids come?

A

in multiple forms and delivery systems

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259
Q

what are five potential adverse effects of inhaled corticosteroids?

A

xerostomia; hoarseness; mouth irritation; dysgeusia; oral candidiasis

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260
Q

oral candiasis can occur with what class of respiratory medication?

A

inhaled corticosteroids

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261
Q

HPA suppression is a risk with what class of respiratory medication?

A

inhaled corticosteroids

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262
Q

can inhaled corticosteroids be given in status asthmaticus?

A

no

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263
Q

high-dose of what class of respiratory medication in children may inhibit growth?

A

inhaled corticosteroids

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264
Q

highest potency inhaled corticosteroid?

A

fluticasone furoate

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265
Q

what is the brand name for fluticasone furoate?

A

arnuity ellipta

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266
Q

specific class? Fluticasone furoate

A

inhaled corticosteroids

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267
Q

specific class? Mometasone furoate DIP

A

inhaled corticosteroids

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268
Q

specific class? Fluticasone propionate DIP

A

inhaled corticosteroids

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269
Q

specific class? Beclomethasone dipropioate

A

inhaled corticosteroids

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270
Q

specific class? Ciclesonide MDI

A

inhaled corticosteroids

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271
Q

specific class? Budesonide DPI

A

inhaled corticosteroids

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272
Q

what is the brand name of mometasone furoate DPI?

A

asmanex twisthaler

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273
Q

what is the brand name for fluticasone propionate DPI?

A

armonair digihaler

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274
Q

what is the brand name for beclomethasone dipropionate?

A

QVAR redihaler

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275
Q

four examples of stimulant laxatives?

A

cascara, senna, bisacodyl, castor oil

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276
Q

specific class- cascara?

A

stimulant laxative

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277
Q

specific class- senna?

A

stimulant laxative

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278
Q

specific class- bisacodyl?

A

stimulant laxative

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279
Q

specific class- castor oil?

A

stimulant laxative

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280
Q

four examples of osmotic laxatives?

A

magnesium hydroxide, magnesium citrate, sodium phosphate, PEG 3350

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281
Q

specific class- magnesium hydroxide?

A

osmotic laxative

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282
Q

specific class- magnesium citrate?

A

osmotic laxative

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283
Q

specific class- sodium phosphate?

A

osmotic laxative

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284
Q

specific class- polyethylene glycol 3350?

A

osmotic laxative

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285
Q

three examples of bulk-producing laxatives?

A

psyllium, methylcellulose, polycarbophil

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286
Q

specific class- psyllium?

A

bulk-producing laxative

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287
Q

specific class- methylcellulose?

A

bulk-producing laxative

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288
Q

specific class- polycarbophil?

A

bulk-producing laxative

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289
Q

example of lubricant laxative?

A

mineral oil

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290
Q

specific class- mineral oil?

A

lubricant laxative

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291
Q

example of surfactant laxative?

A

docusate

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292
Q

specific class- docusate sodium?

A

surfactant laxative

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293
Q

specific class- docusate calcium?

A

surfactant laxative

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294
Q

specific class- docusate potassium?

A

surfactant laxative

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295
Q

what are the three types of docusate?

A

docusate sodium, docusate calcium, docusate potassium

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296
Q

two examples of hyperosmolar laxatives?

A

glycerin and lactulose

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297
Q

specific class- glycerin?

A

hyperosmolar laxative

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298
Q

specific class- lactulose?

A

hyperosmolar laxative

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299
Q

example of chloride channel activator laxative?

A

lubiprostone

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300
Q

specific class- lubiprostone?

A

chloride channel activator laxative

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301
Q

example of opioid receptor antagonist laxative?

A

methylnaltrexone

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302
Q

specific class- methylnaltrexone?

A

opioid receptor antagonist laxative

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303
Q

what is the one class of laxatives that does not have abuse/dependency potential?

A

bulk-producing laxative

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304
Q

do stimulant laxatives have abuse/dependency potential?

A

yes

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305
Q

do osmotic laxatives have abuse/dependency potential?

A

yes

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306
Q

do bulk-producing laxatives have abuse/dependency potential?

A

no

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307
Q

do lubricant laxatives have abuse/dependency potential?

A

yes

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308
Q

do surfactant laxatives have abuse/dependency potential?

A

yes

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309
Q

do hyperosmolar laxatives have abuse/dependence potential?

A

yes

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310
Q

do chloride channel activator laxatives have abuse/dependency potential?

A

yes

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311
Q

do opioid receptor antagonist laxatives have abuse/dependency potential?

A

yes

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312
Q

electrolyte alterations, fluid alterations, steatorrhea, osteomalacia, vitamin/nutrient deficiences- can occur with what general class?

A

laxatives

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313
Q

tartrazine sensitivity can occur with what general class?

A

laxatives

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314
Q

what is an example of a tartrazine sensitivity reaction?

A

bronchospasm

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315
Q

tartrazine sensitivity is associated with sensitivity to what?

A

aspirin

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316
Q

can you give laxatives when nausea, vomiting, and/or abdominal pain of unknown cause are present?

A

no

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317
Q

when might you especially want to avoid giving laxatives?

A

n/v or abdominal pain of unknown cause, especially if may have bowel obstruction

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318
Q

can all laxatives be given in pregnancy?

A

no

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319
Q

specific class? Thought to possible cause stimulation/irritation of the myenteric nerves

A

stimulant laxative

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320
Q

specific class? Irritation of intestinal smooth muscle

A

stimulant laxative

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321
Q

effect of stimulant laxatives on peristalsis?

A

increased

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322
Q

do stimulant laxatives affect peristalsis?

A

yes

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323
Q

specific laxative class? Increased prostaglanding release and an increase in cAMP concentration?

A

stimulant laxative

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324
Q

what nerves are effected by stimulant laxatives?

A

myenteric nerves

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325
Q

effect of stimulant laxatives on prostaglandin release?

A

increased

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326
Q

effect of stimulant laxatives on cAMP concentration?

A

increased

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327
Q

effect of stimulant laxatives on electrolyte secretion?

A

increased

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328
Q

why do stimulant laxatives cause increased electrolyte secretion?

A

increased prostaglandin release and an increase in cAMP concentration

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329
Q

four adverse effects of stimulant laxatives?

A

diarrhea, flatulence, abdominal cramping, bloating

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330
Q

why should castor oil not be used in pregnancy?

A

can stimulate uterine contractions

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331
Q

which stimulant laxative can stimulate uterine contractions?

A

castor oil

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332
Q

which stimulant laxative can cause diarrhea in lactating infants?

A

cascara

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333
Q

cascara can cause what in lactating infants?

A

diarrhea

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334
Q

cardiovascular disease is a relative contraindication to which stimulant laxative?

A

bisacodyl

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335
Q

cascara should not be used if the patient cannot ingest WHAT?

A

alcohol

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336
Q

why should cascara not be used if the patient cannot ingest some alcohol?

A

cascara contains some alcohol

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337
Q

can bisacodyl be used in pregnancy?

A

yes

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338
Q

which stimulant laxative can be used in pregnancy?

A

bisacodyl

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339
Q

can castor oil be used in pregnancy?

A

no

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340
Q

what are two indications for osmotic laxatives?

A

constipation and bowel prep

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341
Q

specific class? Increased intraluminal pressure due to water being drawn more inside the intestines

A

osmotic laxative

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342
Q

effect of osmotic laxatives on peristalsis?

A

increased

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343
Q

do osmotic laxatives affect peristalsis?

A

yes

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344
Q

four side effects of osmotic laxatives?

A

diarrhea, flatulence, abdominal cramping, bloating

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345
Q

why should magnesium-containing laxatives be avoided in renal dysfunction?

A

kidneys may not be able to excrete the magnesium adequately

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346
Q

what effect on magnesium happens if magnesium-containing laxatives are used in renal dysfunction?

A

hypermagnesemia

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347
Q

magnesium-containing laxatives should not be used in patients with what calcium imbalance?

A

hypocalcemia

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348
Q

what cardiac issues contraindicate magnesium-containing laxatives?

A

cardiac dysrhythmias or conduction disturbances

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349
Q

cardiac dysrhythmias or conduction disturbance contraindicate laxatives containing what?

A

magnesium hydroxide, magnesium citrate, sodium phosphate, PEG 3350

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350
Q

pediatric use of PEG 3350?

A

caution

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351
Q

why do osmotic laxatives cause increased intraluminal pressure?

A

water being drawn more inside the intestines

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352
Q

what laxative class can be used in chronic, watery diarrhea?

A

bulk-producing laxative

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353
Q

why are bulk-producing laxatives used in chronic, watery diarrhea?

A

to bulk the stool

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354
Q

specific class? Act physiologically like increased fiber in the diet would by combining with water in the intestines

A

bulk-producing laxative

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355
Q

specific class? Mechanical distention of the intestinal wall

A

bulk-producing laxative

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356
Q

do bulk-producing laxatives affect peristalsis?

A

yes

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357
Q

effect of bulk-producing laxatives on peristalsis?

A

increased

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358
Q

do side effects of bulk-producing laxatives dissipate with time?

A

usually

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359
Q

can bulk-producing laxatives be used in pregnancy?

A

yes

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360
Q

can bulk-producing laxatives be used if a bowel impaction?

A

no

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361
Q

why should bulk-producing laxatives not be used in a bowel impaction?

A

feces cannot get around impacted stool

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362
Q

specific class? Some may be contraindicated in clinical settings where either salt or sugar is restricted

A

bulk-producing laxative

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363
Q

what specific class of laxatives may contain salt or sugar?

A

bulk-producing laxative

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364
Q

what specific class of laxatives should be used cautiously when patient may have strictures or other narrowing of esophagus or intestine?

A

bulk-producing laxative

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365
Q

what specific class of laxatives may be used long-term for simple, chronic constipation?

A

bulk-producing laxative

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366
Q

what are four potential adverse effects of bulk-producing laxatives?

A

diarrhea, flatulence, abdominal cramping, bloating

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367
Q

specific class? Used to soften impacted stool

A

lubricant laxative

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368
Q

what is the main component of lubrican laxatives?

A

mineral oil

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369
Q

MOA of lubricant laxatives?

A

used to soften impacted stool

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370
Q

what is the purpose of lubrication with these laxatives?

A

to help stool move more easily via the presence of mineral oil

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371
Q

what are four potential adverse effects of lubricant laxatives?

A

diarrhea, flatulence, abdominal cramping, bloating

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372
Q

which specific laxative class can cause decreased absorption of fat-soluble vitamins if used chronically?

A

lubricant laxative

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373
Q

decreased absorption of what can occur with chronic use of lubricant laxatives?

A

fat-soluble vitamins

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374
Q

which specific laxative class can cause lipid pneumonia if aspirated?

A

lubricant laxative

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375
Q

who is at risk for lipid pneumonia with lubricant laxatives?

A

very young and any patient at risk for aspiration

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376
Q

which class of laxatives would you not want to give in someone with impaired swallowing?

A

lubricant laxative

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377
Q

can lubricant laxatives be taken in pregnancy?

A

no

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378
Q

why shouldn’t lubricant laxatives be taken in pregnancy?

A

fat-soluble vitamins may not be absorbed as well

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379
Q

which class of laxatives can cause vitamin K deficiency in newborns?

A

lubricant laxative

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380
Q

which class of laxatives can cause hypoprothrombinemia in newborns?

A

lubricant laxative

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381
Q

what is another name for surfactant laxatives?

A

stool softeners

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382
Q

what is the class name for stool softeners?

A

surfactant laxative

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383
Q

specific class? Used to soften stool and prevent constipation, especially stool that is dry and difficult to evacuate and when straining at stool must be stopped

A

surfactant laxative

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384
Q

which laxative class is useful when stool is dry and difficult to evacuate?

A

surfactant laxative

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385
Q

which laxative class is useful when straining at stool must be stopped?

A

surfactant laxative

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386
Q

specific class? Assist with lipids and water being mixed into stool

A

surfactant laxative

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387
Q

what is the MOA of surfactant laxatives?

A

assist with lipids and water being mixed into stool

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388
Q

do surfactant laxatives have precautions?

A

no

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389
Q

do surfactant laxatives have contraindications?

A

no

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390
Q

which class of laxatives? Usually well-tolerated and without precautions or contraindications

A

surfactant laxative

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391
Q

can surfactant laxatives be used in pregnancy?

A

yes

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392
Q

which class of laxatives are used for fecal impaction and neurogenic bowel?

A

hyperosmolar laxative

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393
Q

which class of laxatives is indicated with neurogenic bowel?

A

hyperosmolar laxative

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394
Q

which class of laxatives is used with chronic constipation and increased excretion of ammonia in the stool?

A

hyperosmolar laxative

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395
Q

specific class? Glycerin

A

hyperosmolar laxative

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396
Q

specific class? Lactulose

A

hyperosmolar laxative

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397
Q

drug? Bacteria in the gut transform this dissarchide into lactic, acetic, and formic acids

A

lactulose

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398
Q

drug? Local colonic irritation and more water drawn into the stool

A

glycerin

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399
Q

what are the four adverse effects of hyperosmolar laxatives?

A

diarrhea, flatulence, abdominal cramping, bloating

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400
Q

what patient population is at risk for dehydration with hyperosmolar laxatives?

A

older adults

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401
Q

what laxative class is associated with dehydration risk in older adults?

A

hyperosmolar laxative

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402
Q

when should you monitor blood glucose with lactulose?

A

those taking lactulose chronically and acutely in patients with diabetes mellitus

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403
Q

which laxative drug involves blood glucose monitoring?

A

lactulose

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404
Q

hyperosmolar laxatives in lactation?

A

avoid

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405
Q

lactulose in pregnancy?

A

only when benefits > risks

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406
Q

glycerin in pregnancy?

A

no

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407
Q

why do older adults get dehydration with hyperosmolar laxatives?

A

intravascular volume depletion

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408
Q

specific class? Activation of CIC-2 chloride channels in the intestinal epithelium

A

chloride channel activator laxative

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409
Q

effect of chloride channel activators on chloride secretion?

A

more chloride is secreted

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410
Q

what helps soften the stool and improve intestinal movement with chloride channel activators?

A

increased chloride

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411
Q

three indications for chloride channel activators?

A

chronic constipation d/t unknokwn cause; chronic constipation d/t IBS; opioid-induced constipation

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412
Q

these are indications for what laxative class? Chronic constipation d/t unknown cause; chronic constipation d/t IBS; opioid-induced constipation

A

chloride channel activator laxative

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413
Q

what channels do chloride channel activators activate?

A

CIC-2

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414
Q

what part of GIT do chloride channel activators work in?

A

intestinal epithelium

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415
Q

four potential adverse effects of chloride channel activators?

A

diarrhea, flatulence, abdominal cramping, bloating

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416
Q

how can you avoid nausea with chloride channel activators?

A

avoid by giving the drug with a meal

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417
Q

which laxative class is associated with dyspnea?

A

chloride channel activator laxative

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418
Q

chloride channel activators in pregnancy?

A

avoid

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419
Q

indication for opioid receptor antagonist laxatives?

A

chronic constipation due to opioids

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420
Q

this is an indication for which laxative class? Chronic constipation due to opioids

A

opioid receptor antagonist laxative

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421
Q

what receptors do opioid receptor antagonists act on?

A

mu opioid receptors

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422
Q

where are the mu opioid receptors located that opioid antagonist laxatives act on?

A

in the gut

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423
Q

effect of opioid receptor antagonist laxatives on peristalsis?

A

increased

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424
Q

do opioid receptor antagonist laxatives cross the BBB?

A

no

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425
Q

do opioid receptor antagonist laxatives cause analgesia?

A

no

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426
Q

four adverse effects of opioid receptor antagonist laxatives?

A

diarrhea, flatulence, abdominal cramping, bloating

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427
Q

can opioid receptor antagonists induce opioid withdrawal?

A

yes

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428
Q

what is the concern with abdominal pain and constipation?

A

concern for bowel rupture

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429
Q

when is opioid withdrawal syndrome more likely with opioid receptor antagonist laxatives?

A

if alterations of the BBB have occurred

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430
Q

specific class? Antagonist at the mu-opioid receptors in the gut– speeds up peristalsis

A

opioid receptor antagonist laxative

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431
Q

why shouldn’t diphenoxylate and difenoxin not be used in intestinal infections?

A

can worsen the condition

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432
Q

which two drugs should not be used with intestinal infection? (antidiarrheals)

A

diphenoxylate and difenoxin

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433
Q

children with Down syndrome are especially prone to anticholinergic adverse effects of what antidiarrheals?

A

opiate antidiarrheals

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434
Q

what type of glaucoma is a contraindication for opiate antidiarrheals?

A

narrow angle glaucoma

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435
Q

loss of WHAT in the GIT is prevented by loperamide?

A

fluid and electrolyte loss

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436
Q

what effect does loperamide have on peristalsis?

A

slowing

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437
Q

rebound constipation can progress to what?

A

serious impaction

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438
Q

what population is especially prone to serious impaction with rebound constipation?

A

older adults

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439
Q

general class? Eluxadoline

A

antidiarrheals

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440
Q

general class? Alosetron

A

antidiarrheals

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441
Q

drug? Mu and kappa opioid receptor agonist

A

eluxadoline

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442
Q

drug? Delta opioid receptor antagonist

A

eluxadoline

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443
Q

drug? Mu and kappa opioid receptor agonist and delta opioid receptor antagonist

A

eluxadoline

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444
Q

what antidiarrheal drug should be avoided in: hx of biliary disorders, pancreatitis, severe liver impairment, and heavy alcohol use?

A

eluxadoline

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445
Q

drug? Selective 5-HT3 receptor antagonist

A

alosetron

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446
Q

describe MOA of alosetron?

A

selective 5-HT3 receptor antagonist

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447
Q

drug? Decreased intestinal motility and secretions and a decrease in any associated abdominal pain

A

alosetron

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448
Q

what drug is used for females with diarrhea-predominant IBS not responsive to other therapies?

A

alosetron

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449
Q

when is alosetron used?

A

diarrhea-predominant IBS not responsive to other therapies

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450
Q

four examples of antihistamines used as antiemetics?

A

dimenhydrinate, diphenhydramine, hydroxyzine, meclizine

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451
Q

three examples of phenothiazine antiemetics?

A

prochlorperazine, perphenazine, promethazine

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452
Q

specific class? Prochlorperazine

A

phenothiazine antiemetics

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453
Q

specific class? Perphenazine

A

phenothiazine antiemetics

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454
Q

specific class? Promethazine

A

phenothiazine antiemetics

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455
Q

general class? Prochlorperazine

A

antiemetics

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456
Q

general class? Perphenazine

A

antiemetics

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457
Q

general class? Promethazine

A

antiemetics

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458
Q

can sedative-hypnotics be used as antiemetics?

A

antiemetics

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459
Q

general class? Dronabinol

A

cannabinoids

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460
Q

example of cannabinoid antiemetics?

A

dronabinol

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461
Q

specific class? Dronabinol

A

cannabinoid antiemetics

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462
Q

four examples of 5HT3 receptor antagonists? (antiemetics)

A

palonosetron, ondansetron, dolasetron mesylate, granisetron

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463
Q

general class? Palonosetron

A

antiemetics

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464
Q

general class? Ondansetron

A

antiemetics

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465
Q

general class? Dolasetron mesylate

A

antiemetics

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466
Q

general class? Granisetron

A

antiemetics

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467
Q

specific class? Palonosetron

A

5-HT3 receptor antagonists

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468
Q

specific class? Ondansetron

A

5-HT3 receptor antagonists

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469
Q

specific class? Dolasetron mesylate

A

5-HT3 receptor antagonists

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470
Q

specific class? Granisetron

A

5-HT3 receptor antagonists

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471
Q

example drug of anticholinergic antiemetic?

A

scopolamine

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472
Q

general class? Scopolamine

A

antiemetics

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473
Q

specific class? Scopolamine

A

anticholinergic antiemetics

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474
Q

general class? Aprepitant

A

antiemetic

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475
Q

specific class? Aprepitant

A

substance P/neurokinin 1 receptor antagonist

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476
Q

example of substance P/neurokinin 1 receptor antagonist?

A

aprepitant

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477
Q

example of a miscellaneous antiemetic?

A

trimetobenzamide

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478
Q

specific class? Most useful for motion sickness N/V due to slowing of neuronal communication in the vestibulocerebellar areas

A

antihistamine antiemetics

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479
Q

what class of antiemetics bind to histamine-1 receptors?

A

antihistamine antiemetics

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480
Q

antihistamine antiemetics; binding to histamine-1 receptors causes decreased what?

A

secretions in mouth and eyes

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481
Q

antihistamine antiemetics- binding to central cholinergic receptors causes what?

A

decreased nausea and vomiting

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482
Q

do antihistamine antiemetics cause anticholinergic effects?

A

yes

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483
Q

why should antihistamine antiemetics be avoided in the older adult population?

A

because of anticholinergic effects

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484
Q

what class of antiemetics can cause unexpected agitation in the pediatric population as opposed to sedation in adults?

A

antihistamine antiemetics

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485
Q

antihistamine antiemetics in hepatic dysfunction?

A

avoid

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486
Q

why should antihistamine antiemetics be avoided in hepatic dysfunction

A

because of liver metabolism

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487
Q

use of antiemetics in pregnancy and lactation?

A

weight risk benefit ration

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488
Q

which class of antiemetics is most useful for motion sickness?

A

antihistamine antiemetics

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489
Q

what class of antiemetics slows neuronal communication in the vestibulocerebellar areas

A

antihistamine antiemetics

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490
Q

where do antihistamine antiemetics slow neuronal communication?

A

vestibulocerebellar areas

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491
Q

indication for phenothiazine antiemetics?

A

prevent and treat N/V

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492
Q

what is the MOA of phenothiazine antiemetics?

A

antagonist at dopamine receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) (bind at multiple other receptors as well)

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493
Q

where are phenothiazines an antagonist?

A

dopamine receptors

494
Q

where do phenothiazines antagonize dopamine receptors?

A

in the chemoreceptor trigger zone

495
Q

what is the ultimate action of phenothiazine antiemetics?

A

decreased nausea and vomiting

496
Q

extrapyramidal side effects are associated with what class of antiemetics?

A

phenothiazine antiemetics

497
Q

who is at highest risk for EPS with phenothiazine antiemetics?

A

pediatric population

498
Q

what is the pediatric population at risk for with phenothiazine antiemetics?

499
Q

what is the black box warning with phenothiazine antiemetics?

A

respiratory depression in the pediatric population

500
Q

which specific class of antiemetics has black box warning for respiratory depression in the pediatric population?

A

phenothiazine antiemetics

501
Q

what class of antiemetics can cause agranulocytosis with long term use?

A

phenothiazine antiemetics

502
Q

how many months does it take to see agranulocytosis with phenothiazine antiemetics?

A

four months or more

503
Q

phenothiazines and Parkinson disease?

A

contraindicated

504
Q

phenothiazines and narrow-angle glaucoma?

A

contraindicated

505
Q

phenothiazines and bone marrow depression?

A

contraindicated

506
Q

phenothiazines and cardiovascular disease?

A

contraindicated

507
Q

what reflex is decreased with phenothiazine antiemetics?

A

cough reflex

508
Q

what class of antiemetics can decrease the cough reflex?

A

phenothiazine antiemetics

509
Q

what patients are at risk due to decreased cough reflex with phenothiazine antiemetics?

A

COPD or those prone to aspiration

510
Q

phenothiazines and pregnancy?

511
Q

what class of antiemetics can cause changes to urine color?

A

phenothiazine antiemetics

512
Q

what color can phenothiazines antiemetics change urine?

A

pink to reddish brown

513
Q

most adverse effects of phenothiazine antiemetics are not likely with only what?

A

short term use

514
Q

what kind of glaucoma is contraindicated with phenothiazine antiemetics?

A

narrow-angle glaucoma

515
Q

specific class? Used to treat N/V due to chemotherapy when other agents have failed; appetite stimulation

A

cannabinoid antiemetics

516
Q

where do cannabinoid antiemetics act?

A

at cannabinoid receptors centrally

517
Q

are cannabinoid receptors involved centrally or peripherally?

518
Q

describe adverse effects of cannabinoid antiemetics

A

THC-like adverse effects

519
Q

two possible mood changes with cannabinoid antiemetics?

A

euphoria; depression

520
Q

dronabinol may cause what effect on sensory experience/level?

521
Q

describe changes to thoughts with dronabinol?

522
Q

effect of dronabinol on concentration?

A

problems with concentration

523
Q

effect of dronabinol on memory?

A

memory alterations

524
Q

effect of dronabinol on time?

A

loss of time

525
Q

what antiemetic can cause seizures?

A

cannabinoid antiemetics

526
Q

why can dronabinol cause seizures?

A

lowering of the seizure threshold

527
Q

three CV adverse effects with dronabinol?

A

palpitations, tachycardia, hypotension

528
Q

effect of dronabinol on BP?

A

decreased blood pressure (hypotension)

529
Q

effect of dronabinol on heart rate?

A

increased heart rate (tachycardia)

530
Q

patients with a hx of an allergy to sesame oil should not take which antiemetic?

A

dronabinol

531
Q

what drug class is first-line therapy in the management of HTN and HF?

532
Q

are diuretics first-line therapy in HTN?

533
Q

are diuretics first-line therapy in HF?

534
Q

pathophysiologic effects of HTN and HF?

A

increased sodium and water retention

535
Q

pathophysiologic effect of HTN and HF on ECF volume?

536
Q

effect of diuretics on cardiac output?

537
Q

effect of diuretics on plasma volume?

538
Q

how do diuretics reduce cardiac output?

A

by decreasing plasma volume

539
Q

do the effects of diuretics stay the same over time?

A

no- they are reduced

540
Q

do diuretics always decrease peripheral resistance?

541
Q

effect of diuretics on peripheral resistance?

542
Q

effect of diuretics on afterload?

543
Q

effect of diuretics on BP?

544
Q

general class? Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

545
Q

general class? Osmotic diuretics

546
Q

general class? Aldosterone antagonists

547
Q

general class? Loop diuretics

548
Q

general class? Thiazides

549
Q

risk with diuretics re: potassium?

A

hypokalemia

550
Q

risk with diuretics re: calcium?

A

hypercalcemia

551
Q

risk with diuretics re: sodium?

A

hyponatremia

552
Q

risk with diuretics re: magnesium?

A

hypomagnesemia

553
Q

hypo or hyperkalemia with diuretics?

A

hypokalemia

554
Q

hypo or hypercalcemia with diuretics?

A

hypercalcemia

555
Q

hypo or hypernatremia with diuretics?

A

hyponatremia

556
Q

hypo or hypermagnesemia with diuretics?

A

hypomagnesemia

557
Q

what kind of diet exacerbates potassium loss with diuretics?

A

high sodium diet

558
Q

what happens with a high sodium diet on diuretics?

A

exacerbates potassium loss

559
Q

adverse effect associated with hypokalemia on diuretics?

A

metabolic alkalosis

560
Q

what causes metabolic alkalosis with diuretics?

A

hypokalemia

561
Q

effect of diuretics on uric acid?

562
Q

what two diuretic classes are most likely to cause glucose intolerance?

A

loop and thiazide

563
Q

glucose intolerance on diuretics is directly linked to what?

A

potassium level

564
Q

potassium level is directly linked to what with diuretics?

A

glucose intolerance

565
Q

what causes hypotension with diuretics?

A

decreased fluid volume

566
Q

decreased fluid volume causes what adverse effect with diuretics?

A

hypotension

567
Q

describe drug interactions with diuretics?

568
Q

what is the MOA of loop diuretics?

A

inhibit sodium reabsorption in the ascending loop of Henle

569
Q

where do loop diuretics act?

A

the ascending loop of Henle

570
Q

what do loop diuretics inhibit in the ascending loop of Henle?

A

sodium reabsorption

571
Q

which loop do diuretics act on?

A

ascending loop of Henle

572
Q

class? Inhibit sodium reabsorption in the ascending loop of Henle

A

loop diuretics

573
Q

what is the effect of loop diuretics on potassium?

A

increase potassium excretion

574
Q

are loop diuretics short or long-acting?

A

short acting

575
Q

are loop diuretics weak or powerful?

576
Q

do loop diuretics cause small or large natriuresis?

A

large natriuresis

577
Q

describe absorption of oral loop diuretics?

A

well-absorbed orally

578
Q

describe distribution of loop diuretics?

A

widely distributed

579
Q

where are loop diuretics metabolized?

580
Q

describe excretion of loop diuretics?

A

excreted unchanged in the urine

581
Q

class? Inhibit sodium reabsorption in the distal renal tubule

A

thiazide diuretics

582
Q

describe the MOA of thiazide diuretics?

A

inhibit sodium reabsorption in the distal renal tubule

583
Q

where do thiazide diuretics act in the kidney?

A

distal renal tubule

584
Q

effect of thiazide diuretics on potassium?

A

increase potassium excretion

585
Q

do loop diuretics effect potassium?

586
Q

do thiazide diuretics effect potassium?

587
Q

are thiazide diuretics short or long-acting?

A

longer lasting

588
Q

describe diuresis with thiazide diuretics?

A

less diuresis

589
Q

describe thiazide diuretic absorption?

A

well-absorbed orally

590
Q

what is the only diuretic to enter intracellular spaces?

A

thiazide diuretics

591
Q

which diuretic class can be used in refractory edema?

A

thiazide diuretics

592
Q

describe distribution of thiazide diuretics?

A

widely distributed

593
Q

why can you use thiazide diuretics in refractory edema?

A

only diuretic to enter intracellular spaces

594
Q

where are thiazide diuretics metabolized?

595
Q

where are thiazide diuretics excreted?

A

unchanged in urine

596
Q

which diuretic class can cause hyperlipidemia?

A

thiazide diuretics

597
Q

which diuretic class can cause photosensitive reactions?

A

thiazide diuretics

598
Q

how long can photosensitivity secondary to thiazide diuretics last?

A

years after discontinuing the drug

599
Q

are increased lipid levels permanent with thiazide diuretics?

A

elevations are transient

600
Q

class? Inhibit excretion in the distal tubule of the kidney

A

aldosterone antagonists

601
Q

describe MOA of aldosterone antagonists?

A

inhibit excretion in the distal tubule of the kidney

602
Q

are aldosterone antagonists weak or strong diuretics?

A

weak diuretics

603
Q

where do aldosterone antagonists act in the kidney?

A

distal tubule of the kidney

604
Q

what class of diuretics are most often used with thiazide diuretics?

A

aldosterone antagonists

605
Q

why are thiazide diuretics and aldosterone antagonists used together?

A

decrease potassium loss

606
Q

aldosterone antagonists are most often used with what class of diuretics to decrease potassium loss?

A

thiazide diuretics

607
Q

describe absorption of aldosterone antagonists?

A

absorption rates vary

608
Q

describe distribution of aldosterone antagonists?

A

widely distributed

609
Q

where are aldosterone antagonists metabolized?

610
Q

where are aldosterone antagonists excreted?

A

unchanged in urine

611
Q

gynecomastia is associated with what class of diuretics?

A

aldosterone antagonists

612
Q

gynecomastia occurs in 50% of patients taking what drug?

A

spironolactone

613
Q

spironolactone- specific class?

A

aldosterone antagonists

614
Q

impotence is a side effect of what specific class?

A

aldosterone antagonists

615
Q

furosemide- specific class?

A

loop diuretics

616
Q

furosemide- general class?

617
Q

bumetanide- specific class?

A

loop diuretics

618
Q

chlorthalidone- specific class?

A

thiazide diuretics

619
Q

hydrochlorothiazide- specific class?

A

thiazide diuretics

620
Q

indapamide- specific class?

A

thiazide diuretics

621
Q

metolazone- specific class?

A

thiazide diuretics

622
Q

spironolactone- specific class?

A

aldosterone antagonists

623
Q

triamterene- specific class?

A

aldosterone antagonists

624
Q

amiloride- specific class?

A

aldosterone antagonists

625
Q

eplerenone- specific class?

A

aldosterone antagonists

626
Q

what are the four goals of GERD therapy?

A

prevent/decrease symptoms; heal esophagitis or any erosive esophageal lesions; prevent complications; prevent recurrent symptoms

627
Q

esophageal carcinoma is a potential complication of what condition?

628
Q

smoking cessation is what?

A

a nonpharmacologic intervention for GERD

629
Q

weight loss to ideal body weight is what?

A

a nonpharmacologic intervention for GERD

630
Q

when should HOB be elevated with GERD?

A

at night or if lying down

631
Q

how long should patients remain supine after eating or drinking?

A

three hours

632
Q

do not overeat- is what?

A

a nonpharmacologic intervention for GERD

633
Q

how long should bending over be avoided after eating?

A

three hours

634
Q

how long should strenuous exercise be avoided after eating?

A

three hours

635
Q

class? Can be used as adjunctive therapy for frequent symptoms, as needed, and for non-frequent symptoms as needed

636
Q

class? Considered first line therapy for most patients with frequent GERD symptoms or other serious complications

A

proton pump inhibitors

637
Q

are PPIs first line therapy?

638
Q

are histamine-2 receptor antagonists first line for GERD?

A

not first line in most cases

639
Q

when are drugs that improve the LES tone used?

A

adjunctively with a drug that is suppressing the production of HCL

640
Q

when are prokinetic agents used?

A

reserved for use in those who still experience symptoms after maximal acid suppression therapy and max lifestyle modifications

641
Q

why are cytoprotective agents mostly used only in PUD?

A

since they affect the gastric mucosa

642
Q

which GERD drugs have serious potential adverse effects?

A

prokinetic agents

643
Q

what do H2RAs stand for?

A

histamine-2 receptor antagonists

644
Q

can antacids be used in GERD?

645
Q

can antacids be used in PUD?

646
Q

can antacids be used in hypersecretory states?

647
Q

can antacids be used in calcium deficiency?

648
Q

can antacids be used in hyperphosphatemia?

649
Q

what are the five indications for antacids?

A

GERD, PUD, hypersecretory states, hyperphosphatemia, calcium deficiency

650
Q

class? Weak bases that form salt and water when they interact with HCL

651
Q

what do antacids do to HCL?

A

neutralize

652
Q

what do antacids do to gastric ph?

653
Q

what do antacids do to duodenal bulb ph?

654
Q

what are the components of antacids?

A

metallic cation plus basic anion

655
Q

what effect do antacids have on pepsin?

A

inhibit pepsin’s proteolytic activity

656
Q

do antacids affect the LES tone?

657
Q

what effect do antacids have on LES tone?

658
Q

do aluminum based antacids affect gastric motility?

659
Q

what is the effect of aluminum based antacids on gastric motility?

660
Q

how do aluminum based antacids affect gastric motlity?

A

via inhibition of smooth muscle contraction locally in the stomach

661
Q

which type of antacid is the only type that affects gastric motility?

A

aluminum-based

662
Q

which two types of antacids are used in renal failure?

A

calcium-based and aluminum-based antacids

663
Q

why are antacids used in renal failure?

A

to bind phosphates and lower blood phosphate levels

664
Q

which two types of antacids can cause constipation?

A

aluminum-based and calcium-based

665
Q

diarrhea is caused by which type of antacids?

A

magnesium-based antacids

666
Q

when might alkalosis occur with antacids?

A

usually only in patients with renal failure

667
Q

patients with renal failure are at risk for what adverse effect of antacids?

668
Q

are antacids used as monotherapy for signficant disease?

669
Q

are antacids used as monotherapy for esophagitis?

670
Q

are antacids used as monotherapy for frequent symptoms?

671
Q

antacids can be used as needed in concert with what?

A

an acid suppressive drug

672
Q

can you use antacids without knowing the cause of abdominal pain?

673
Q

can you use antacids in the setting of severe abdominal pain of undetermined cause?

674
Q

can you use calcium-based antacids if a patient has hypercalcemia?

675
Q

can you use calcium-based antacids if a patient has a history of renal stones?

676
Q

hypercalcemia is a contraindication to what type of antacids?

A

calcium-based

677
Q

renal stones are a contraindication to what type of antacid?

A

calcium-based

678
Q

what two types of antacids should not be used in renal failure?

A

magnesium or aluminum-based antacids

679
Q

why should you not use magnesium-based antacids in renal failure?

A

hypermagnesemia

680
Q

why should you not use aluminum-based antacids in renal failure?

A

worsened osteomalacia

681
Q

worsened osteomalacia in patients with renal failure can occur with use of which type of antacid?

A

aluminum-based

682
Q

when should high sodium-containing antacids NOT be used?

A

in settings where fluid overload will exacerbate a condition

683
Q

describe drug interactions with antacids?

A

many drug interactions re: absorption- check drug information

684
Q

when should a patient call provider re: antacids?

A

if symptoms continue or worsen within two weeks; if new symptoms arise

685
Q

are PPIs used with GERD?

686
Q

are PPIs used with PUD?

687
Q

are PPIs used with hypersecretory states?

688
Q

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is an example of what?

A

hypersecretory state

689
Q

are PPIs used with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?

690
Q

what are three indications for PPIs?

A

GERD, PUD, hypersecretory states (e.g. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome)

691
Q

specific class? Suppression of gastric acid secretion by parietal cells by preventing the H+/K+ATPase enzyme system from secreting hydrogen ion needed to form hydrochloric acid

692
Q

what do PPIs suppress?

A

gastric acid secretion by parietal cells

693
Q

what cells do PPI suppress?

A

parietal cells

694
Q

what system is involved in PPIs?

A

H+K+ATPase enzyme system

695
Q

what class of GERD medications can result in achlorhydria?

A

proton pump inhibitors

696
Q

term? No gastric acid

A

achlorhydria

697
Q

less gastric acid results in decreased/increased blood flow to gastric antrum?

698
Q

less gastric acid results in decreased/increased blood flow to the pylorus?

699
Q

less gastric acid results in decreased/increased blood flow to the duodenal bulb?

700
Q

what effect does decreased gastric acid have on pepsinogen levels?

701
Q

less gastric acid results in decreased/increased pepsinogen levels?

702
Q

less gastric acid results in decreased/increased pepsin activity?

703
Q

what effect does less gastric acid have on pepsin activity?

704
Q

less gastric acid results in a compensatory increase in what?

A

gastrin levels

705
Q

are there any clinically significant effects with compensatory increase in gastric levels?

706
Q

what are four GI adverse effects with PPIs?

A

nausea, abdominal pain, flatulence, constipation/diarrhea

707
Q

what are two CNS type adverse effects with PPIs?

A

dizziness and drowsiness

708
Q

acute interstitial nephritis is associated with what GERD class?

A

proton pump inhibitors

709
Q

deficiences of what four nutrients can occur with PPIs?

A

iron, magnesium, vitamin B12, calcium

710
Q

what GERD medication has potential risk for hip fracture?

A

proton pump inhibitors

711
Q

acute kidney injury and chronic kidney disease can occur with long-term use of what GERD class?

A

proton pump inhibitors

712
Q

even short-term use increases the risk of pneumonia with what GERD drug class?

A

proton pump inhibitors

713
Q

what is the potentially respiratory consequence with even short-term use of PPIs?

714
Q

C diff infection can occur with what GERD class?

A

proton pump inhibitors

715
Q

what GERD class may pose a risk for gastric cancer?

A

proton pump inhibitors

716
Q

what GERD class is associated with chronic atrophic gastritis?

A

proton pump inhibitors

717
Q

chronic atrophic gastritis with PPIs may increase risk for what?

A

gastric cancer

718
Q

what GERD class has concern re: development of dementia?

A

proton pump inhibitors

719
Q

PPI effect on overall mortality?

A

potential increased risk

720
Q

PPIs in hepatic dysfunction?

A

cautious use

721
Q

PPIs in older patients?

A

cautious use

722
Q

PPIs in pregnancy?

A

avoid in pregnancy unless needed (requires favorable risk/benefit)

723
Q

PPIs in lactation?

A

cautious use only

724
Q

are any PPIs safe and effective in pediatrics?

A

some drugs in class

725
Q

any drug therapy for GERD must be combined with what?

A

ongoing lifestyle modifications

726
Q

if PPI response is not adequate, what should I do?

A

check for compliance with medication and with lifestyle modifications

727
Q

what class is almost always preferred over H2RAs?

A

proton pump inhibitors

728
Q

what are three indications for H2RAs?

A

GERD (w/ or w/o erosive esophagitis); PUD; hypersecretory states

729
Q

can H2RAs be used for GERD?

730
Q

can H2RASs be used for GERD with erosive esophagitis?

731
Q

can H2RAs be used for GERD without erosive esophagitis?

732
Q

can H2RAs be used for PUD?

733
Q

can H2RAs be used for hypersecretory states

734
Q

is ranitidine still used?

735
Q

why is ranitidine no longer used in the USA?

A

due to nitrosodimethylamine being found in the formulations

736
Q

what does NDMA stand for?

A

nitrosodimethylamine

737
Q

what is the problem with nitrosodimethylamine?

A

likely a human carcinogen

738
Q

specific class? Blockade of the histamine-2 receptor on gastric parietal cells

A

histamine-2 receptor antagonists

739
Q

less/more HCL is produced with H2RAs?

740
Q

effect of H2RAs on gastric PH?

741
Q

do H2RAs have effect on LES pressure?

A

yes- varied

742
Q

do H2RAs have effect on speed of gastric emptying?

A

yes-varied

743
Q

do H2RAs have effect on volume of gastric secretion?

A

yes-varied

744
Q

do H2RAs have effect on hydrogen ion concentration?

A

yes-varied

745
Q

which H2RA medication is the most potent at lowering gastric acid secretion?

A

famotidine

746
Q

is there any clinical benefit of famotidine’s potency at lowering gastric acid secretion?

747
Q

famotidine is the most potent at doing what?

A

lowering gastric acid secretion

748
Q

what GERD class can cause gynecomastia and erectile dysfunction?

A

histamine-2 receptor antagonists

749
Q

what GERD medication can cause gynecomastia and erectile dysfunction?

A

cimetidine

750
Q

what are two antiandrogenic side effects of cimetidine?

A

gynecomastia and erectile dysfunction

751
Q

oral and IV forms of what GERD drug class can cause potential rhythm and conduction abnormalities?

A

histamine-2 receptor antagonists

752
Q

can oral H2RAs cause rhythm and conduction abnormalities?

753
Q

can IV H2RAs cause rhythm and conduction abnormalities?

754
Q

the following are CNS ADEs with what drug class (GERD)? Alterations of cognitive function, agitation, psychosis, depression, headache, seizures

A

histamine-2 receptor antagonists

755
Q

CNS adverse effects with H2RAs are more likely to occur in who?

A

renal and/or hepatic dysfunction

756
Q

why should H2RAs be avoided in older population?

A

due to cognitive effects

757
Q

what is the hematologic adverse reaction to H2RAs?

A

individual cell line deficiencies to pancytopenia

758
Q

individual cell line deficiencies to pancytopenia can occur with what GERD drug class?

A

histamine-2 receptor antagonists

759
Q

why should we monitor CBC with H2RAs?

A

risk for individual cell line deficiencies to pancytopenia

760
Q

hepatic cell injury can occur with what GERD medication?

A

nizatidine

761
Q

why should we monitor LFTs with H2RAs?

A

hepatic cell injury (nizatidine)

762
Q

nizatidine is associated with what?

A

hepatic cell injury

763
Q

what is the vitamin deficiency that can occur with long-term use of H2RAs?

A

vitamin B12

764
Q

what can happen to vitamin B12 with long-term use of H2RAs?

A

deficiency

765
Q

vitamin B12 deficiency can cause what two consequences? (H2RAs)

A

anemia and neurologic deficits

766
Q

neurologic deficits with H2RAs can be due to what?

A

vitamin B12 deficiency

767
Q

three immune-related adverse effects with H2RAs?

A

polymyositis, nephritis, immune-related rashes

768
Q

immune-related rashes can occur with what GERD class?

A

histamine-2 receptor antagonists

769
Q

polymyositis can occur with what GERD class?

A

histamine-2 receptor antagonists

770
Q

nephritis can occur with what GERD class?

A

histamine-2 receptor antagonists

771
Q

fever can occur with what GERD class?

A

histamine-2 receptor antagonists

772
Q

do H2RAs block histamine-1 receptors?

773
Q

why are H2RAs not anticholinergic?

A

they do not block the histamine-1 receptors

774
Q

are H2RAs anticholinergic drugs?

775
Q

H2RA use in pregnancy?

A

not well studied, avoid (weigh risk benefit)

776
Q

H2RA use in lactation?

A

avoid (weight risk benefit)

777
Q

H2RA use in pediatrics?

778
Q

drug? Used for lower tiers of therapy due to serious adverse effects possible

A

metoclopramide

779
Q

EPS are possible with what GERD medication?

A

metoclopramide

780
Q

pediatric patients taking metoclopramide are at higher risk for what?

781
Q

is metoclopramide used as monotherapy for GERD?

782
Q

does metoclopramide have prokinetic properties?

783
Q

does metoclopramide affect LES tone?

A

improves LES tone

784
Q

does metoclopramide help heal esophageal lesions?

785
Q

is bethanechol used as GERD monotherapy?

786
Q

what two drugs are mostly used for gastroparesis therapy re: GI disorders?

A

metoclopramide and bethanechol

787
Q

what is the primary use for metoclopramide?

A

gastroparesis therapy re: GI disorders

788
Q

what is the primary use for bethanechol?

A

gastroparesis therapy re: GI disorders

789
Q

does bethanechol have prokinetic properties?

790
Q

does bethanechol help heal esophageal lesions?

791
Q

these are the goals of what? Eliminate H pylori (main cause of PUD); reduction/elimination of any symptoms; healing of ulcer; avoid complications; prevent recurrent disease

792
Q

what is the main cause of PUD?

793
Q

what organism causes PUD?

794
Q

what are three potential complications of PUD?

A

bleeding, perforation, carcinoma

795
Q

why are H2RAs rarely used for PUD?

A

because the PPIs are much more effective at gastric acid suppression

796
Q

what is the main class of antisecretory medication used in PUD treatment?

A

proton pump inhibitors

797
Q

what are the seven antimicrobials used for H pylori?

A

clarithromycin; amoxicillin; metronidazole; tetracycline; doxycycline; nitazoxanide; levofloxacin

798
Q

is bismuth subsalicylate used in PUD treatment?

799
Q

is clarithromycin used in PUD treatment?

800
Q

is amoxicillin used in PUD treatment?

801
Q

is metronidazole used in PUD treatment?

802
Q

is tetracycline used in PUD treatment?

803
Q

is doxycycline used in PUD treatment?

804
Q

is nitazoxanide used in PUD treatment?

805
Q

is levofloxacine used in PUD treatment?

806
Q

is vancomycin used in PUD treatment?

807
Q

is erythromycin used in PUD treatment?

808
Q

why might treatment failure occur in H pylori treatment?

A

microbial resistance to antibiotics

809
Q

what is the treatment regimen for H pylori?

A

various three and four-drug combinations with PPIs

810
Q

drug? Binds to the ulcer site to shield the area from HCL, pepsin, and bile salts

A

sucralfate

811
Q

can you use sucralfate in children?

A

safety not established

812
Q

what three things does sucralfate shield from?

A

HCL, pepsin, and bile salts

813
Q

drug? Inhibits formation of cAMP that occurs due to histamine stimulation?

A

misoprostol

814
Q

misoprostol MOA?

A

inhibits formation of cAMP that occurs due to histamine stimulation

815
Q

what does misoprostol do to gastric acid secretion?

816
Q

what effect does misoprostol have on gastric mucus?

A

promotes formation

817
Q

what effect does misoprostol have on bicarbonate?

A

promotes production

818
Q

does misoprostol protect mucosa?

819
Q

what PUD medication can induce uterine contractions?

A

misoprostol

820
Q

what PUD medication is absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy?

A

misoprostol

821
Q

why is misoprostol absolutely contraindicated in pregnancy?

A

can induce uterine contractions

822
Q

misoprostol in renal dysfunction?

A

cautious use

823
Q

misoprostol in pediatrics?

A

safety not established in < 18 years of age

824
Q

indication for misoprostol?

A

primarily used for prevention of NSAID-induced PUD

825
Q

what drug is primarily used for prevention of NSAID-induced PUD?

A

misoprostol

826
Q

class? Inhibit IgE and mast cell mediated migration of inflammatory cells into bronchial mucosa

A

inhaled corticosteroids

827
Q

which immunoglobulin is affected with inhaled corticosteroids?

828
Q

what phase of allergic reaction is affected by inhaled corticosteroids?

A

late-phase allergic reaction

829
Q

in what two places are inhaled corticosteroids absorbed?

A

lungs and GI tract

830
Q

describe speed of absorption of inhaled corticosteroids?

831
Q

how much of inhaled corticosteroid dose is deposited in the lungs?

A

less than one-fourth

832
Q

less than one-fourth of dose of what class is deposited in the lungs?

A

inhaled corticosteroids

833
Q

what happens to swallowed portion of inhaled corticosteroid dose?

A

undergoes extensive first-pass metabolism

834
Q

where are inhaled corticosteroids excreted?

A

in urine and feces

835
Q

migration of inflammatory cells with inhaled corticosteroids are mediated by what?

A

mast cells

836
Q

how do inhaled corticosteroids come?

A

in multiple forms and delivery systems

837
Q

what are five potential adverse effects of inhaled corticosteroids?

A

xerostomia; hoarseness; mouth irritation; dysgeusia; oral candidiasis

838
Q

oral candiasis can occur with what class of respiratory medication?

A

inhaled corticosteroids

839
Q

HPA suppression is a risk with what class of respiratory medication?

A

inhaled corticosteroids

840
Q

can inhaled corticosteroids be given in status asthmaticus?

841
Q

high-dose of what class of respiratory medication in children may inhibit growth?

A

inhaled corticosteroids

842
Q

highest potency inhaled corticosteroid?

A

fluticasone furoate

843
Q

what is the brand name for fluticasone furoate?

A

arnuity ellipta

844
Q

specific class? Fluticasone furoate

A

inhaled corticosteroids

845
Q

specific class? Mometasone furoate DIP

A

inhaled corticosteroids

846
Q

specific class? Fluticasone propionate DIP

A

inhaled corticosteroids

847
Q

specific class? Beclomethasone dipropioate

A

inhaled corticosteroids

848
Q

specific class? Ciclesonide MDI

A

inhaled corticosteroids

849
Q

specific class? Budesonide DPI

A

inhaled corticosteroids

850
Q

what is the brand name of mometasone furoate DPI?

A

asmanex twisthaler

851
Q

what is the brand name for fluticasone propionate DPI?

A

armonair digihaler

852
Q

what is the brand name for beclomethasone dipropionate?

A

QVAR redihaler

853
Q

four examples of stimulant laxatives?

A

cascara, senna, bisacodyl, castor oil

854
Q

specific class- cascara?

A

stimulant laxative

855
Q

specific class- senna?

A

stimulant laxative

856
Q

specific class- bisacodyl?

A

stimulant laxative

857
Q

specific class- castor oil?

A

stimulant laxative

858
Q

four examples of osmotic laxatives?

A

magnesium hydroxide, magnesium citrate, sodium phosphate, PEG 3350

859
Q

specific class- magnesium hydroxide?

A

osmotic laxative

860
Q

specific class- magnesium citrate?

A

osmotic laxative

861
Q

specific class- sodium phosphate?

A

osmotic laxative

862
Q

specific class- polyethylene glycol 3350?

A

osmotic laxative

863
Q

three examples of bulk-producing laxatives?

A

psyllium, methylcellulose, polycarbophil

864
Q

specific class- psyllium?

A

bulk-producing laxative

865
Q

specific class- methylcellulose?

A

bulk-producing laxative

866
Q

specific class- polycarbophil?

A

bulk-producing laxative

867
Q

example of lubricant laxative?

A

mineral oil

868
Q

specific class- mineral oil?

A

lubricant laxative

869
Q

example of surfactant laxative?

870
Q

specific class- docusate sodium?

A

surfactant laxative

871
Q

specific class- docusate calcium?

A

surfactant laxative

872
Q

specific class- docusate potassium?

A

surfactant laxative

873
Q

what are the three types of docusate?

A

docusate sodium, docusate calcium, docusate potassium

874
Q

two examples of hyperosmolar laxatives?

A

glycerin and lactulose

875
Q

specific class- glycerin?

A

hyperosmolar laxative

876
Q

specific class- lactulose?

A

hyperosmolar laxative

877
Q

example of chloride channel activator laxative?

A

lubiprostone

878
Q

specific class- lubiprostone?

A

chloride channel activator laxative

879
Q

example of opioid receptor antagonist laxative?

A

methylnaltrexone

880
Q

specific class- methylnaltrexone?

A

opioid receptor antagonist laxative

881
Q

what is the one class of laxatives that does not have abuse/dependency potential?

A

bulk-producing laxative

882
Q

do stimulant laxatives have abuse/dependency potential?

883
Q

do osmotic laxatives have abuse/dependency potential?

884
Q

do bulk-producing laxatives have abuse/dependency potential?

885
Q

do lubricant laxatives have abuse/dependency potential?

886
Q

do surfactant laxatives have abuse/dependency potential?

887
Q

do hyperosmolar laxatives have abuse/dependence potential?

888
Q

do chloride channel activator laxatives have abuse/dependency potential?

889
Q

do opioid receptor antagonist laxatives have abuse/dependency potential?

890
Q

electrolyte alterations, fluid alterations, steatorrhea, osteomalacia, vitamin/nutrient deficiences- can occur with what general class?

891
Q

tartrazine sensitivity can occur with what general class?

892
Q

what is an example of a tartrazine sensitivity reaction?

A

bronchospasm

893
Q

tartrazine sensitivity is associated with sensitivity to what?

894
Q

can you give laxatives when nausea, vomiting, and/or abdominal pain of unknown cause are present?

895
Q

when might you especially want to avoid giving laxatives?

A

n/v or abdominal pain of unknown cause, especially if may have bowel obstruction

896
Q

can all laxatives be given in pregnancy?

897
Q

specific class? Thought to possible cause stimulation/irritation of the myenteric nerves

A

stimulant laxative

898
Q

specific class? Irritation of intestinal smooth muscle

A

stimulant laxative

899
Q

effect of stimulant laxatives on peristalsis?

900
Q

do stimulant laxatives affect peristalsis?

901
Q

specific laxative class? Increased prostaglanding release and an increase in cAMP concentration?

A

stimulant laxative

902
Q

what nerves are effected by stimulant laxatives?

A

myenteric nerves

903
Q

effect of stimulant laxatives on prostaglandin release?

904
Q

effect of stimulant laxatives on cAMP concentration?

905
Q

effect of stimulant laxatives on electrolyte secretion?

906
Q

why do stimulant laxatives cause increased electrolyte secretion?

A

increased prostaglandin release and an increase in cAMP concentration

907
Q

four adverse effects of stimulant laxatives?

A

diarrhea, flatulence, abdominal cramping, bloating

908
Q

why should castor oil not be used in pregnancy?

A

can stimulate uterine contractions

909
Q

which stimulant laxative can stimulate uterine contractions?

A

castor oil

910
Q

which stimulant laxative can cause diarrhea in lactating infants?

911
Q

cascara can cause what in lactating infants?

912
Q

cardiovascular disease is a relative contraindication to which stimulant laxative?

913
Q

cascara should not be used if the patient cannot ingest WHAT?

914
Q

why should cascara not be used if the patient cannot ingest some alcohol?

A

cascara contains some alcohol

915
Q

can bisacodyl be used in pregnancy?

916
Q

which stimulant laxative can be used in pregnancy?

917
Q

can castor oil be used in pregnancy?

918
Q

what are two indications for osmotic laxatives?

A

constipation and bowel prep

919
Q

specific class? Increased intraluminal pressure due to water being drawn more inside the intestines

A

osmotic laxative

920
Q

effect of osmotic laxatives on peristalsis?

921
Q

do osmotic laxatives affect peristalsis?

922
Q

four side effects of osmotic laxatives?

A

diarrhea, flatulence, abdominal cramping, bloating

923
Q

why should magnesium-containing laxatives be avoided in renal dysfunction?

A

kidneys may not be able to excrete the magnesium adequately

924
Q

what effect on magnesium happens if magnesium-containing laxatives are used in renal dysfunction?

A

hypermagnesemia

925
Q

magnesium-containing laxatives should not be used in patients with what calcium imbalance?

A

hypocalcemia

926
Q

what cardiac issues contraindicate magnesium-containing laxatives?

A

cardiac dysrhythmias or conduction disturbances

927
Q

cardiac dysrhythmias or conduction disturbance contraindicate laxatives containing what?

A

magnesium hydroxide, magnesium citrate, sodium phosphate, PEG 3350

928
Q

pediatric use of PEG 3350?

929
Q

why do osmotic laxatives cause increased intraluminal pressure?

A

water being drawn more inside the intestines

930
Q

what laxative class can be used in chronic, watery diarrhea?

A

bulk-producing laxative

931
Q

why are bulk-producing laxatives used in chronic, watery diarrhea?

A

to bulk the stool

932
Q

specific class? Act physiologically like increased fiber in the diet would by combining with water in the intestines

A

bulk-producing laxative

933
Q

specific class? Mechanical distention of the intestinal wall

A

bulk-producing laxative

934
Q

do bulk-producing laxatives affect peristalsis?

935
Q

effect of bulk-producing laxatives on peristalsis?

936
Q

do side effects of bulk-producing laxatives dissipate with time?

937
Q

can bulk-producing laxatives be used in pregnancy?

938
Q

can bulk-producing laxatives be used if a bowel impaction?

939
Q

why should bulk-producing laxatives not be used in a bowel impaction?

A

feces cannot get around impacted stool

940
Q

specific class? Some may be contraindicated in clinical settings where either salt or sugar is restricted

A

bulk-producing laxative

941
Q

what specific class of laxatives may contain salt or sugar?

A

bulk-producing laxative

942
Q

what specific class of laxatives should be used cautiously when patient may have strictures or other narrowing of esophagus or intestine?

A

bulk-producing laxative

943
Q

what specific class of laxatives may be used long-term for simple, chronic constipation?

A

bulk-producing laxative

944
Q

what are four potential adverse effects of bulk-producing laxatives?

A

diarrhea, flatulence, abdominal cramping, bloating

945
Q

specific class? Used to soften impacted stool

A

lubricant laxative

946
Q

what is the main component of lubrican laxatives?

A

mineral oil

947
Q

MOA of lubricant laxatives?

A

used to soften impacted stool

948
Q

what is the purpose of lubrication with these laxatives?

A

to help stool move more easily via the presence of mineral oil

949
Q

what are four potential adverse effects of lubricant laxatives?

A

diarrhea, flatulence, abdominal cramping, bloating

950
Q

which specific laxative class can cause decreased absorption of fat-soluble vitamins if used chronically?

A

lubricant laxative

951
Q

decreased absorption of what can occur with chronic use of lubricant laxatives?

A

fat-soluble vitamins

952
Q

which specific laxative class can cause lipid pneumonia if aspirated?

A

lubricant laxative

953
Q

who is at risk for lipid pneumonia with lubricant laxatives?

A

very young and any patient at risk for aspiration

954
Q

which class of laxatives would you not want to give in someone with impaired swallowing?

A

lubricant laxative

955
Q

can lubricant laxatives be taken in pregnancy?

956
Q

why shouldn’t lubricant laxatives be taken in pregnancy?

A

fat-soluble vitamins may not be absorbed as well

957
Q

which class of laxatives can cause vitamin K deficiency in newborns?

A

lubricant laxative

958
Q

which class of laxatives can cause hypoprothrombinemia in newborns?

A

lubricant laxative

959
Q

what is another name for surfactant laxatives?

A

stool softeners

960
Q

what is the class name for stool softeners?

A

surfactant laxative

961
Q

specific class? Used to soften stool and prevent constipation, especially stool that is dry and difficult to evacuate and when straining at stool must be stopped

A

surfactant laxative

962
Q

which laxative class is useful when stool is dry and difficult to evacuate?

A

surfactant laxative

963
Q

which laxative class is useful when straining at stool must be stopped?

A

surfactant laxative

964
Q

specific class? Assist with lipids and water being mixed into stool

A

surfactant laxative

965
Q

what is the MOA of surfactant laxatives?

A

assist with lipids and water being mixed into stool

966
Q

do surfactant laxatives have precautions?

967
Q

do surfactant laxatives have contraindications?

968
Q

which class of laxatives? Usually well-tolerated and without precautions or contraindications

A

surfactant laxative

969
Q

can surfactant laxatives be used in pregnancy?

970
Q

which class of laxatives are used for fecal impaction and neurogenic bowel?

A

hyperosmolar laxative

971
Q

which class of laxatives is indicated with neurogenic bowel?

A

hyperosmolar laxative

972
Q

which class of laxatives is used with chronic constipation and increased excretion of ammonia in the stool?

A

hyperosmolar laxative

973
Q

specific class? Glycerin

A

hyperosmolar laxative

974
Q

specific class? Lactulose

A

hyperosmolar laxative

975
Q

drug? Bacteria in the gut transform this dissarchide into lactic, acetic, and formic acids

976
Q

drug? Local colonic irritation and more water drawn into the stool

977
Q

what are the four adverse effects of hyperosmolar laxatives?

A

diarrhea, flatulence, abdominal cramping, bloating

978
Q

what patient population is at risk for dehydration with hyperosmolar laxatives?

A

older adults

979
Q

what laxative class is associated with dehydration risk in older adults?

A

hyperosmolar laxative

980
Q

when should you monitor blood glucose with lactulose?

A

those taking lactulose chronically and acutely in patients with diabetes mellitus

981
Q

which laxative drug involves blood glucose monitoring?

982
Q

hyperosmolar laxatives in lactation?

983
Q

lactulose in pregnancy?

A

only when benefits > risks

984
Q

glycerin in pregnancy?

985
Q

why do older adults get dehydration with hyperosmolar laxatives?

A

intravascular volume depletion

986
Q

specific class? Activation of CIC-2 chloride channels in the intestinal epithelium

A

chloride channel activator laxative

987
Q

effect of chloride channel activators on chloride secretion?

A

more chloride is secreted

988
Q

what helps soften the stool and improve intestinal movement with chloride channel activators?

A

increased chloride

989
Q

three indications for chloride channel activators?

A

chronic constipation d/t unknokwn cause; chronic constipation d/t IBS; opioid-induced constipation

990
Q

these are indications for what laxative class? Chronic constipation d/t unknown cause; chronic constipation d/t IBS; opioid-induced constipation

A

chloride channel activator laxative

991
Q

what channels do chloride channel activators activate?

992
Q

what part of GIT do chloride channel activators work in?

A

intestinal epithelium

993
Q

four potential adverse effects of chloride channel activators?

A

diarrhea, flatulence, abdominal cramping, bloating

994
Q

how can you avoid nausea with chloride channel activators?

A

avoid by giving the drug with a meal

995
Q

which laxative class is associated with dyspnea?

A

chloride channel activator laxative

996
Q

chloride channel activators in pregnancy?

997
Q

indication for opioid receptor antagonist laxatives?

A

chronic constipation due to opioids

998
Q

this is an indication for which laxative class? Chronic constipation due to opioids

A

opioid receptor antagonist laxative

999
Q

what receptors do opioid receptor antagonists act on?

A

mu opioid receptors

1000
Q

where are the mu opioid receptors located that opioid antagonist laxatives act on?

A

in the gut

1001
Q

effect of opioid receptor antagonist laxatives on peristalsis?

1002
Q

do opioid receptor antagonist laxatives cross the BBB?

1003
Q

do opioid receptor antagonist laxatives cause analgesia?

1004
Q

four adverse effects of opioid receptor antagonist laxatives?

A

diarrhea, flatulence, abdominal cramping, bloating

1005
Q

can opioid receptor antagonists induce opioid withdrawal?

1006
Q

what is the concern with abdominal pain and constipation?

A

concern for bowel rupture

1007
Q

when is opioid withdrawal syndrome more likely with opioid receptor antagonist laxatives?

A

if alterations of the BBB have occurred

1008
Q

specific class? Antagonist at the mu-opioid receptors in the gut– speeds up peristalsis

A

opioid receptor antagonist laxative

1009
Q

class? Inhibit IgE and mast cell mediated migration of inflammatory cells into bronchial mucosa

A

inhaled corticosteroids

1010
Q

which immunoglobulin is affected with inhaled corticosteroids?

1011
Q

what phase of allergic reaction is affected by inhaled corticosteroids?

A

late-phase allergic reaction

1012
Q

in what two places are inhaled corticosteroids absorbed?

A

lungs and GI tract

1013
Q

describe speed of absorption of inhaled corticosteroids?

1014
Q

how much of inhaled corticosteroid dose is deposited in the lungs?

A

less than one-fourth

1015
Q

less than one-fourth of dose of what class is deposited in the lungs?

A

inhaled corticosteroids

1016
Q

what happens to swallowed portion of inhaled corticosteroid dose?

A

undergoes extensive first-pass metabolism

1017
Q

where are inhaled corticosteroids excreted?

A

in urine and feces

1018
Q

migration of inflammatory cells with inhaled corticosteroids are mediated by what?

A

mast cells

1019
Q

how do inhaled corticosteroids come?

A

in multiple forms and delivery systems

1020
Q

what are five potential adverse effects of inhaled corticosteroids?

A

xerostomia; hoarseness; mouth irritation; dysgeusia; oral candidiasis

1021
Q

oral candiasis can occur with what class of respiratory medication?

A

inhaled corticosteroids

1022
Q

HPA suppression is a risk with what class of respiratory medication?

A

inhaled corticosteroids

1023
Q

can inhaled corticosteroids be given in status asthmaticus?

1024
Q

high-dose of what class of respiratory medication in children may inhibit growth?

A

inhaled corticosteroids

1025
Q

highest potency inhaled corticosteroid?

A

fluticasone furoate

1026
Q

what is the brand name for fluticasone furoate?

A

arnuity ellipta

1027
Q

specific class? Fluticasone furoate

A

inhaled corticosteroids

1028
Q

specific class? Mometasone furoate DIP

A

inhaled corticosteroids

1029
Q

specific class? Fluticasone propionate DIP

A

inhaled corticosteroids

1030
Q

specific class? Beclomethasone dipropioate

A

inhaled corticosteroids

1031
Q

specific class? Ciclesonide MDI

A

inhaled corticosteroids

1032
Q

specific class? Budesonide DPI

A

inhaled corticosteroids

1033
Q

what is the brand name of mometasone furoate DPI?

A

asmanex twisthaler

1034
Q

what is the brand name for fluticasone propionate DPI?

A

armonair digihaler

1035
Q

what is the brand name for beclomethasone dipropionate?

A

QVAR redihaler

1036
Q

four examples of stimulant laxatives?

A

cascara, senna, bisacodyl, castor oil

1037
Q

specific class- cascara?

A

stimulant laxative

1038
Q

specific class- senna?

A

stimulant laxative

1039
Q

specific class- bisacodyl?

A

stimulant laxative

1040
Q

specific class- castor oil?

A

stimulant laxative

1041
Q

four examples of osmotic laxatives?

A

magnesium hydroxide, magnesium citrate, sodium phosphate, PEG 3350

1042
Q

specific class- magnesium hydroxide?

A

osmotic laxative

1043
Q

specific class- magnesium citrate?

A

osmotic laxative

1044
Q

specific class- sodium phosphate?

A

osmotic laxative

1045
Q

specific class- polyethylene glycol 3350?

A

osmotic laxative

1046
Q

three examples of bulk-producing laxatives?

A

psyllium, methylcellulose, polycarbophil

1047
Q

specific class- psyllium?

A

bulk-producing laxative

1048
Q

specific class- methylcellulose?

A

bulk-producing laxative

1049
Q

specific class- polycarbophil?

A

bulk-producing laxative

1050
Q

example of lubricant laxative?

A

mineral oil

1051
Q

specific class- mineral oil?

A

lubricant laxative

1052
Q

example of surfactant laxative?

1053
Q

specific class- docusate sodium?

A

surfactant laxative

1054
Q

specific class- docusate calcium?

A

surfactant laxative

1055
Q

specific class- docusate potassium?

A

surfactant laxative

1056
Q

what are the three types of docusate?

A

docusate sodium, docusate calcium, docusate potassium

1057
Q

two examples of hyperosmolar laxatives?

A

glycerin and lactulose

1058
Q

specific class- glycerin?

A

hyperosmolar laxative

1059
Q

specific class- lactulose?

A

hyperosmolar laxative

1060
Q

example of chloride channel activator laxative?

A

lubiprostone

1061
Q

specific class- lubiprostone?

A

chloride channel activator laxative

1062
Q

example of opioid receptor antagonist laxative?

A

methylnaltrexone

1063
Q

specific class- methylnaltrexone?

A

opioid receptor antagonist laxative

1064
Q

what is the one class of laxatives that does not have abuse/dependency potential?

A

bulk-producing laxative

1065
Q

do stimulant laxatives have abuse/dependency potential?

1066
Q

do osmotic laxatives have abuse/dependency potential?

1067
Q

do bulk-producing laxatives have abuse/dependency potential?

1068
Q

do lubricant laxatives have abuse/dependency potential?

1069
Q

do surfactant laxatives have abuse/dependency potential?

1070
Q

do hyperosmolar laxatives have abuse/dependence potential?

1071
Q

do chloride channel activator laxatives have abuse/dependency potential?

1072
Q

do opioid receptor antagonist laxatives have abuse/dependency potential?

1073
Q

electrolyte alterations, fluid alterations, steatorrhea, osteomalacia, vitamin/nutrient deficiences- can occur with what general class?

1074
Q

tartrazine sensitivity can occur with what general class?

1075
Q

what is an example of a tartrazine sensitivity reaction?

A

bronchospasm

1076
Q

tartrazine sensitivity is associated with sensitivity to what?

1077
Q

can you give laxatives when nausea, vomiting, and/or abdominal pain of unknown cause are present?

1078
Q

when might you especially want to avoid giving laxatives?

A

n/v or abdominal pain of unknown cause, especially if may have bowel obstruction

1079
Q

can all laxatives be given in pregnancy?

1080
Q

specific class? Thought to possible cause stimulation/irritation of the myenteric nerves

A

stimulant laxative

1081
Q

specific class? Irritation of intestinal smooth muscle

A

stimulant laxative

1082
Q

effect of stimulant laxatives on peristalsis?

1083
Q

do stimulant laxatives affect peristalsis?

1084
Q

specific laxative class? Increased prostaglanding release and an increase in cAMP concentration?

A

stimulant laxative

1085
Q

what nerves are effected by stimulant laxatives?

A

myenteric nerves

1086
Q

effect of stimulant laxatives on prostaglandin release?

1087
Q

effect of stimulant laxatives on cAMP concentration?

1088
Q

effect of stimulant laxatives on electrolyte secretion?

1089
Q

why do stimulant laxatives cause increased electrolyte secretion?

A

increased prostaglandin release and an increase in cAMP concentration

1090
Q

four adverse effects of stimulant laxatives?

A

diarrhea, flatulence, abdominal cramping, bloating

1091
Q

why should castor oil not be used in pregnancy?

A

can stimulate uterine contractions

1092
Q

which stimulant laxative can stimulate uterine contractions?

A

castor oil

1093
Q

which stimulant laxative can cause diarrhea in lactating infants?

1094
Q

cascara can cause what in lactating infants?

1095
Q

cardiovascular disease is a relative contraindication to which stimulant laxative?

1096
Q

cascara should not be used if the patient cannot ingest WHAT?

1097
Q

why should cascara not be used if the patient cannot ingest some alcohol?

A

cascara contains some alcohol

1098
Q

can bisacodyl be used in pregnancy?

1099
Q

which stimulant laxative can be used in pregnancy?

1100
Q

can castor oil be used in pregnancy?

1101
Q

what are two indications for osmotic laxatives?

A

constipation and bowel prep

1102
Q

specific class? Increased intraluminal pressure due to water being drawn more inside the intestines

A

osmotic laxative

1103
Q

effect of osmotic laxatives on peristalsis?

1104
Q

do osmotic laxatives affect peristalsis?

1105
Q

four side effects of osmotic laxatives?

A

diarrhea, flatulence, abdominal cramping, bloating

1106
Q

why should magnesium-containing laxatives be avoided in renal dysfunction?

A

kidneys may not be able to excrete the magnesium adequately

1107
Q

what effect on magnesium happens if magnesium-containing laxatives are used in renal dysfunction?

A

hypermagnesemia

1108
Q

magnesium-containing laxatives should not be used in patients with what calcium imbalance?

A

hypocalcemia

1109
Q

what cardiac issues contraindicate magnesium-containing laxatives?

A

cardiac dysrhythmias or conduction disturbances

1110
Q

cardiac dysrhythmias or conduction disturbance contraindicate laxatives containing what?

A

magnesium hydroxide, magnesium citrate, sodium phosphate, PEG 3350

1111
Q

pediatric use of PEG 3350?

1112
Q

why do osmotic laxatives cause increased intraluminal pressure?

A

water being drawn more inside the intestines

1113
Q

what laxative class can be used in chronic, watery diarrhea?

A

bulk-producing laxative

1114
Q

why are bulk-producing laxatives used in chronic, watery diarrhea?

A

to bulk the stool

1115
Q

specific class? Act physiologically like increased fiber in the diet would by combining with water in the intestines

A

bulk-producing laxative

1116
Q

specific class? Mechanical distention of the intestinal wall

A

bulk-producing laxative

1117
Q

do bulk-producing laxatives affect peristalsis?

1118
Q

effect of bulk-producing laxatives on peristalsis?

1119
Q

do side effects of bulk-producing laxatives dissipate with time?

1120
Q

can bulk-producing laxatives be used in pregnancy?

1121
Q

can bulk-producing laxatives be used if a bowel impaction?

1122
Q

why should bulk-producing laxatives not be used in a bowel impaction?

A

feces cannot get around impacted stool

1123
Q

specific class? Some may be contraindicated in clinical settings where either salt or sugar is restricted

A

bulk-producing laxative

1124
Q

what specific class of laxatives may contain salt or sugar?

A

bulk-producing laxative

1125
Q

what specific class of laxatives should be used cautiously when patient may have strictures or other narrowing of esophagus or intestine?

A

bulk-producing laxative

1126
Q

what specific class of laxatives may be used long-term for simple, chronic constipation?

A

bulk-producing laxative

1127
Q

what are four potential adverse effects of bulk-producing laxatives?

A

diarrhea, flatulence, abdominal cramping, bloating

1128
Q

specific class? Used to soften impacted stool

A

lubricant laxative

1129
Q

what is the main component of lubrican laxatives?

A

mineral oil

1130
Q

MOA of lubricant laxatives?

A

used to soften impacted stool

1131
Q

what is the purpose of lubrication with these laxatives?

A

to help stool move more easily via the presence of mineral oil

1132
Q

what are four potential adverse effects of lubricant laxatives?

A

diarrhea, flatulence, abdominal cramping, bloating

1133
Q

which specific laxative class can cause decreased absorption of fat-soluble vitamins if used chronically?

A

lubricant laxative

1134
Q

decreased absorption of what can occur with chronic use of lubricant laxatives?

A

fat-soluble vitamins

1135
Q

which specific laxative class can cause lipid pneumonia if aspirated?

A

lubricant laxative

1136
Q

who is at risk for lipid pneumonia with lubricant laxatives?

A

very young and any patient at risk for aspiration

1137
Q

which class of laxatives would you not want to give in someone with impaired swallowing?

A

lubricant laxative

1138
Q

can lubricant laxatives be taken in pregnancy?

1139
Q

why shouldn’t lubricant laxatives be taken in pregnancy?

A

fat-soluble vitamins may not be absorbed as well

1140
Q

which class of laxatives can cause vitamin K deficiency in newborns?

A

lubricant laxative

1141
Q

which class of laxatives can cause hypoprothrombinemia in newborns?

A

lubricant laxative

1142
Q

what is another name for surfactant laxatives?

A

stool softeners

1143
Q

what is the class name for stool softeners?

A

surfactant laxative

1144
Q

specific class? Used to soften stool and prevent constipation, especially stool that is dry and difficult to evacuate and when straining at stool must be stopped

A

surfactant laxative

1145
Q

which laxative class is useful when stool is dry and difficult to evacuate?

A

surfactant laxative

1146
Q

which laxative class is useful when straining at stool must be stopped?

A

surfactant laxative

1147
Q

specific class? Assist with lipids and water being mixed into stool

A

surfactant laxative

1148
Q

what is the MOA of surfactant laxatives?

A

assist with lipids and water being mixed into stool

1149
Q

do surfactant laxatives have precautions?

1150
Q

do surfactant laxatives have contraindications?

1151
Q

which class of laxatives? Usually well-tolerated and without precautions or contraindications

A

surfactant laxative

1152
Q

can surfactant laxatives be used in pregnancy?

1153
Q

which class of laxatives are used for fecal impaction and neurogenic bowel?

A

hyperosmolar laxative

1154
Q

which class of laxatives is indicated with neurogenic bowel?

A

hyperosmolar laxative

1155
Q

which class of laxatives is used with chronic constipation and increased excretion of ammonia in the stool?

A

hyperosmolar laxative

1156
Q

specific class? Glycerin

A

hyperosmolar laxative

1157
Q

specific class? Lactulose

A

hyperosmolar laxative

1158
Q

drug? Bacteria in the gut transform this dissarchide into lactic, acetic, and formic acids

1159
Q

drug? Local colonic irritation and more water drawn into the stool

1160
Q

what are the four adverse effects of hyperosmolar laxatives?

A

diarrhea, flatulence, abdominal cramping, bloating

1161
Q

what patient population is at risk for dehydration with hyperosmolar laxatives?

A

older adults

1162
Q

what laxative class is associated with dehydration risk in older adults?

A

hyperosmolar laxative

1163
Q

when should you monitor blood glucose with lactulose?

A

those taking lactulose chronically and acutely in patients with diabetes mellitus

1164
Q

which laxative drug involves blood glucose monitoring?

1165
Q

hyperosmolar laxatives in lactation?

1166
Q

lactulose in pregnancy?

A

only when benefits > risks

1167
Q

glycerin in pregnancy?

1168
Q

why do older adults get dehydration with hyperosmolar laxatives?

A

intravascular volume depletion

1169
Q

specific class? Activation of CIC-2 chloride channels in the intestinal epithelium

A

chloride channel activator laxative

1170
Q

effect of chloride channel activators on chloride secretion?

A

more chloride is secreted

1171
Q

what helps soften the stool and improve intestinal movement with chloride channel activators?

A

increased chloride

1172
Q

three indications for chloride channel activators?

A

chronic constipation d/t unknokwn cause; chronic constipation d/t IBS; opioid-induced constipation

1173
Q

these are indications for what laxative class? Chronic constipation d/t unknown cause; chronic constipation d/t IBS; opioid-induced constipation

A

chloride channel activator laxative

1174
Q

what channels do chloride channel activators activate?

1175
Q

what part of GIT do chloride channel activators work in?

A

intestinal epithelium

1176
Q

four potential adverse effects of chloride channel activators?

A

diarrhea, flatulence, abdominal cramping, bloating

1177
Q

how can you avoid nausea with chloride channel activators?

A

avoid by giving the drug with a meal

1178
Q

which laxative class is associated with dyspnea?

A

chloride channel activator laxative

1179
Q

chloride channel activators in pregnancy?

1180
Q

indication for opioid receptor antagonist laxatives?

A

chronic constipation due to opioids

1181
Q

this is an indication for which laxative class? Chronic constipation due to opioids

A

opioid receptor antagonist laxative

1182
Q

what receptors do opioid receptor antagonists act on?

A

mu opioid receptors

1183
Q

where are the mu opioid receptors located that opioid antagonist laxatives act on?

A

in the gut

1184
Q

effect of opioid receptor antagonist laxatives on peristalsis?

1185
Q

do opioid receptor antagonist laxatives cross the BBB?

1186
Q

do opioid receptor antagonist laxatives cause analgesia?

1187
Q

four adverse effects of opioid receptor antagonist laxatives?

A

diarrhea, flatulence, abdominal cramping, bloating

1188
Q

can opioid receptor antagonists induce opioid withdrawal?

1189
Q

what is the concern with abdominal pain and constipation?

A

concern for bowel rupture

1190
Q

when is opioid withdrawal syndrome more likely with opioid receptor antagonist laxatives?

A

if alterations of the BBB have occurred

1191
Q

specific class? Antagonist at the mu-opioid receptors in the gut– speeds up peristalsis

A

opioid receptor antagonist laxative

1192
Q

what are leukotrienes?

A

inflammatory mediators

1193
Q

a type of inflammatory mediator?

A

leukotrienes

1194
Q

what two types of cells produce leukotrienes?

A

eosinophils and mast cells

1195
Q

what are the three potential effects of leukotrienes?

A

bronchospasm, airway hyperresponsiveness, and vascular leakage

1196
Q

what substance can cause bronchospasm, airway hyperresponsiveness, and vascular leakage?

A

leukotrienes

1197
Q

specific class? Montelukast

A

leukotriene receptor antagonists

1198
Q

drug? Inhibits the cysteinyl leukotriene receptor

A

montelukast

1199
Q

drug? Blocks action of LTD4

A

montelukast

1200
Q

what is a component of SRS-A?

1201
Q

what is the MOA of montelukast?

A

inhibits the cysteinyl leukotriene receptor- blocks action of LTD4

1202
Q

what does montelukast block the action of?

1203
Q

what is LTD4?

A

a component of SRS-A

1204
Q

drug? Inhibits 5-lipoxygenase

1205
Q

what is 5-lipoxygenase?

A

enzyme responsible for the formation of leukotrienes from arachidonic acid

1206
Q

name? enzyme responsible for the formation of leukotrienes from arachidonic acid

A

5-lipoxygenase

1207
Q

what does zileuton inhibit?

A

5-lipoxygenase

1208
Q

specific class? Zileuton

A

5-lipoxygenase pathway inhibitors

1209
Q

example of 5-lipoxygenase pathway inhibitor?

1210
Q

example of leukotriene receptor antagonist?

A

montelukast

1211
Q

general class? Montelukast

A

leukotriene modifiers

1212
Q

general class? Zileuton

A

leukotriene modifiers

1213
Q

what are two examples of leukotriene modifiers?

A

montelukast and zileuton

1214
Q

describe absorption of the leukotriene modifiers?

A

rapidly from the GI tract

1215
Q

describe the protein binding of the leukotriene modifiers?

A

highly protein bound

1216
Q

describe the metabolism of the leukotriene modifiers?

A

extensively metabolized in the liver

1217
Q

describe the excretion of the leukotriene modifiers?

A

in the urine

1218
Q

what two enzyme systems metabolize montelukast?

A

CYP3A4 & CYP2C9

1219
Q

what three enzyme systems metabolize zileuton?

A

CYP1A2, CYP2C9, CYP3A4

1220
Q

which leukotriene modifier is metabolized by CYP3A4 and CYP2C9?

A

montelukast

1221
Q

which leukotriene modifier is metabolized by CYP1A2, CYP2C9, & CYP3A4?

1222
Q

two side effects of montelukast?

A

headache, sore throat

1223
Q

one side effect of zileuton?

1224
Q

what respiratory drug class is associated with post-marketing neuropsychiatric events?

A

leukotriene modifiers

1225
Q

these are symptoms of what type of adverse effect? Irritability, agitation, tremors, insomnia, depression, suicidality

A

neuropsychiatric events

1226
Q

leukotriene receptor antagonists and severe liver disease?

1227
Q

can montelukast chewable tabs be given in PKU?

1228
Q

why shouldn’t montelukast chewable tablets be given in PKU?

A

they contain phenylalanine

1229
Q

which leukotriene modifier (chewable form) shouldn’t be given in PKU?

A

montelukast

1230
Q

can 5-lipoxygenase pathway inhibitors be given in active liver disease?

A

no, contraindicated

1231
Q

examples of neuropsychiatric event symptoms associated with leukotriene modifiers?

A

irritability, agitation, tremors, insomnia, depression, suicidality