ppt 2, 6: consumer choices (cardinal utility and ordinal preferences theory) Flashcards
budget constraint
the limit on the consumption bundles (combinations of products consumed) that a consumer can afford
utility
the capacity of a good to service a want (benefit/satisfaction, basically) -> SUBJECTIVE
marginal utility
an increase in utility when consumption of a good increases by one unit i.e. studying for 1 extra hour increases utility of exam score from 80 to 90, which means the marginal utility of 1 hour is 10
optimal consumption bundle
the consumption bundle that maximizes a consumer’s total utility given his or her budget constraint.
optimal consumption rule
when a consumer maximizes utility, the marginal utility per dollar spent must be the same for all goods and services in the consumption bundle.
MU(c) / P(c) = MU(p)/P(p)
indifference curve
a curve that shows consumption bundles that give the consumer the same level of satisfaction
marginal rate of substitution (MRS)
the rate at which a consumer is willing to trade one good for another
ex. marginal value of fish (in terms of mangos) = price of fish (in terms of mangos, aka the opportunity cost, aka budget constraint)
if P(f) - $4, and P(m) = $1, then the price of fish is 4/1 = $4
why are higher indifference curves preferred to lower ones?
because it represents larger quantities of goods -> consumers usually prefer more of something than less of it
why are indifference curves downward sloping?
slope of an indifference curve reflects the rate at which consumers are willing to substitute one good for the other -> quantity of one good decreasing increases quantity of other good to compensate (negative relationship)
why can’t indifference curves cross? Consider the case of points A, B, and C, where A is on a lower indifference curve and C is on a higher indifference curve, and they intersect at B.
because if A is on the same indifference curve as B, and B is on the same indifference curve as C, that implies the options of consumption bundles A and C would make the consumer equally happy (which is not true, as C for example would have more of both goods)
Why are indifference curves bowed inward?
slope of an indifference curve = MRS
people are mor willing to trade away goods that they have in abundance and less willing to trade away. goods of which they have little
perfect substitutes
two goods with straight-line indifference curves i.e. nickels and dimes
perfect complements
two goods with right-angle indifference curves i.e. left and right shoes
Why is the indifference curve tangent to the budget constraint?
Slope of indifference curve = MRS, and slope of budget constraint = relative price of Pepsi and pizza
Thus, the consumer chooses consumption of the two goods so that the MRS equals the relative price (the optimum point)
What do we mean when we say that the slope of the budget constraint is equal to the relative price of two goods?
we mean that the slope of the budget constraint reflects the opportunity cost of consuming one good in terms of the other.
i.e. if good X is $2 and good Y is $1, the slope is 2/1 = 2. For every unit of good X, the consumer must give up 2 units of good Y.