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PPL Study Guide > PPL Study Guide > Flashcards

PPL Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

What is the purpose of wing flaps?

A

To enable the pilot to make steeper approaches to a landing without increasing the airspeed.

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2
Q

One of the main functions of flaps during approach and landing is to

A

Increase the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed.

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3
Q

What is the purpose of the rudder on an airplane?

A

To control the yaw.

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4
Q

Which is not a primary flight control surface?

A

Flaps

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5
Q

The elevator controls movement around which axis?

A

Lateral

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6
Q

Which statement is true concerning primary flight controls?

A

The effectiveness of each control surface increases with speed because there is more airflow over them.

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7
Q

Which of the following is true concerning flaps?

A

Flaps allow an increase in the angle of descent with out increasing airspeed.

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8
Q

Which device is a secondary flight control?

A

Spoilers.

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9
Q

Trim systems are designed to do what?

A

They relieve the pilot of the need to maintain constant pressure on the flight controls.

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10
Q

The four forces acting on an airplane in the flight are

A

lift, weight, thrust and drag.

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11
Q

When are the four forces that act on an airplane in equilibrium?

A

During unaccelerated level flight.

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12
Q

What is the relationship of lift, drag, thrust, and weight when the airplane is in straight-and-level flight?

A

Lift equals weight and thrust equals drag.

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13
Q

Which statement relates to Bernoulli’s principle?

A

Air traveling faster over the curved upper surface of an airfoil causes lower pressure on the top surface.

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14
Q

(Refer to figure on page 33) The acute angle A is the angle of

A

attack.

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15
Q

The term “angle of attack” is defined as the angle between the

A

chord line of the wing and the relative wind.

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16
Q

The angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the relative wind is known as the angle of

A

attack.

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17
Q

The angle of attack at which an airplane wing stalls will

A

remain the same regardless of gross weight.

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18
Q

As altitude increases, the indicated airspeed at which a given airplane stalls in a particular configuration will

A

remain the same regardless of altitude.

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19
Q

In what flight condition must an aircraft be placed in in order to spin?

A

Stalled.

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20
Q

During a spin to the left, which wing(s) are stalled?

A

Both wings are stalled.

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21
Q

What is ground effect?

A

The result of the interference of the surface of the Earth with the airflow patterns about an airplane.

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22
Q

Floating caused by the phenomenon of ground effect will be most realized during an approach to land when at

A

less than the length of the wingspan above the surface.

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23
Q

What must a pilot be aware of as a result of ground effect?

A

Induced drag decreases; therefore, any excess speed at the point of flare may cause considerable floating.

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24
Q

An aircraft leaving ground effect during takeoff will

A

experience an increase in induced drag and a decrease in performance.

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25
Q

Ground effect is most likely to result in which problem?

A

Becoming airborne before reaching recommended takeoff speed.

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26
Q

What force makes an airplane turn?

A

The horizontal component of lift.

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27
Q

What determines the longitudinal stability of an airplane?

A

The location of the CG (center of gravity) with respect to the center of lift.

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28
Q

An airplane said to be inherently stable will

A

require less effort to control.

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29
Q

Changes in the center of pressure of a wing affect the aircraft’s

A

aerodynamic balance and controllablility.

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30
Q

An airplane has been loaded in such a manner that the CG is located aft of the aft CG limit. One understandable flight characteristic a pilot might experience with this airplane would be

A

difficulty recovering from a stalled condition.

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31
Q

What causes an airplane (except a T-tail) to pitch nosedown when power is reduced and controls are not adjusted?

A

The downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced.

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32
Q

What is the effect of advancing the throttle during flight?

A

Both aircraft groundspeed and angel of attack will increase.

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33
Q

Loading an airplane to the most aft CG will cause the airplane to be

A

less stable at all speeds.

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34
Q

An airplane loaded with the Center of Gravity (CG) rear of the aft CG could

A

increase the likelihood of inadvertent overstress.

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35
Q

In what flight condition are torque effects more pronounced in a single-engine airplane?

A

Low airspeed, high power, high angle of attack.

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36
Q

The left turning tendency of an airplane caused by P-factor is the result of the

A

propeller blade descending on the right, producing more thrust than the ascending blade on the left.

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37
Q

When does P-factor cause the airplane to yaw to the left?

A

When at high angles of attack.

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38
Q

Which basic flight maneuver increases the load factor on an airplane as compared to straight-and-level flight?

A

Turns.

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39
Q

(Refer to figure 2 below on page 39) If an airplane weighs 3,300 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 30 degree banked turn while maintaining altitude?

A

3,900 pounds.

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40
Q

(Refer to figure 2 below on page 39) If an airplane weighs 2,300 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 60 degree banked turn while maintaining altitude?

A

4,600 pounds.

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41
Q

(Refer to figure 2 below on page 39) If an airplane weighs 4,500 pounds airplane structure be required to support during a 45 degree banked turn while maintaining altitude?

A

6,750 pounds.

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42
Q

The amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing of an airplane depends on the

A

speed of the airplane.

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43
Q

During an approach to a stall, an increased load factor will cause the airplane to

A

stall at a higher speed.

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44
Q

Structural damage or failure is more likely to occur in smooth air speeds at above

A

Vne (Never exceed speed)

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45
Q

Limit load factor is the ratio

A

maximum sustainable load to the gross weight of the airplane.

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46
Q

(Refer to figure 72 below on page 41) A positive load factor of 2 at 80 mph would cause the airplane to

A

stall.

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47
Q

(Refer to figure 72 below on page 41) What load factor would be created if positive 15 feet per second gusts were encountered at 120 mph

A

2.0

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48
Q

(Refer to figure 72 below on page 41) The airspeed indicated by points A and J is

A

normal stall speed.

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49
Q

In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if

A

an aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west heading.

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50
Q

Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by the

A

magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force.

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51
Q

During flight, when are the indications of a magnetic compass accurate?

A

Only in straight-and-level unaccelerated flight.

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52
Q

Deviation error of the magnetic compass is caused by

A

certain metals and electrical systems within the aircraft.

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53
Q

In the Northern Hemisphere, if an aircraft is accelerated or decelerated, the magnetic compass will normally indicate

A

correctly when on a north or south heading.

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54
Q

In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the west if

A

a right turn is entered from a north heading.

55
Q

In the Northern Hemisphere, the magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the south when

A

the aircraft is decelerated while on a west heading.

56
Q

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

A

The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.

57
Q

In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the east if

A

a left turn is entered from a north heading.

58
Q

The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument?

A

Airspeed indicator.

59
Q

Which instrument will become inoperative is the pitot tube becomes clogged?

A

Airspeed indicator.

60
Q

If the pitot tube and outside static vents become clogged, which instruments would be affected?

A

The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.

61
Q

Which instrument(s) will become inoperative if the static vents become clogged.

A

Airspeed indicator, altimeter and vertical speed indicator.

62
Q

What is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators?

A

Maneuvering speed.

63
Q

What does the red line on an airspeed indicator represent?

A

Never-exceed speed.

64
Q

(Refer to figure 4 below on page 56) What is the caution range of the airplane?

A

165 to 208 kts. (yellow arc)

65
Q

(Refer to figure 4 below on page 56) The maximum speed at which the airplane can be operated in smooth air is

A

208 kts. (red radial line)

66
Q

(Refer to figure 4 below on page 56) What is the full flap operating range for the airplane?

A

55 to 100 kts (white arc)

67
Q

(Refer to figure 4 below on page 56) What is the maximum flaps-extended speed?

A

100 kts (upper limit of the white arc)

68
Q

(Refer to figure 4 below on page 56) Which marking identifies the never-exceed speed?

A

The red radial line (Vne)

69
Q

(Refer to figure 4 below on page 56) Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed in a specified configuration?

A

Lower limit of the green arc.

70
Q

(Refer to figure 4 below on page 56) Which color identifies the normal flap operating range?

A

The white arc.

71
Q

(Refer to figure 4 below on page 56) Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed with wing flaps and landing gear in the landing configuration?

A

Lower limit of the white arc.

72
Q

(Refer to figure 4 below on page 56) What is the maximum structural cruising speed?

A

165 kts (upper limit of the green arc)

73
Q

(Refer to figure 3 on page 58) Altimeter 1 indicates

A

10,500 feet

74
Q

(Refer to figure 3 on page 58) Altimeter 3 indicates

A

9,500 feet

75
Q

(Refer to figure 3 on page 58) Which altimeter(s) indicate(s) more than 10,000 feet

A

1 and 2 only.

76
Q

(Refer to figure 3 on page 58) Altimeter 2 indicates

A

14.500 feet.

77
Q

(Refer to figure 82 on page 59) Altimeter 3 indicates

A

9,500 feet

78
Q

(Refer to figure 82 on page 59) Altimeter 1 indicates

A

500 feet (both small white needles are below the 1)

79
Q

(Refer to figure 82 on page 59) Which altimeter(s) indicate(s) more than 9,000 feet

A

3 only.

80
Q

(Refer to figure 82 on page 60) Altimeter 2 indicates

A

1,500 feet

81
Q

What is absolute altitude?

A

The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface.

82
Q

What is true altitude?

A

The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level.

83
Q

What is density altitude?

A

The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.

84
Q

What is pressure altitude?

A

The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92.

85
Q

Altimeter setting is the value to which the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates

A

true altitude at field elevation.

86
Q

Under which condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude?

A

When at sea level under standard conditions.

87
Q

Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?

A

At standard temperature.

88
Q

Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?

A

When standard atmospheric conditions exist.

89
Q

If it is necessary to set the altimeter from 29.15 to 29.85, what change occurs?

A

77-foot increase in indicated altitude (1,000 feet for every 1 degree Hg)

90
Q

If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96 what is the approximate change in indication?

A

Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower.

91
Q

If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate

A

lower than the actual altitude above sea level.

92
Q

If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate

A

higher than the actual altitude above sea level.

93
Q

Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than true altitude?

A

Air temperature warmer than standard.

94
Q

Under which condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude?

A

In colder than standard air temperature.

95
Q

How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter?

A

Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude.

96
Q

(Refer to figure 5 on page 64) A turn coordinator provides an indication of the

A

movement of the aircraft about the yaw and roll axes.

97
Q

(Refer to figure 5 on page 64) To receive accurate indications during flight from a heading indicator, the instrument must be

A

periodically realigned with the magnetic compass as the gyro precesses.

98
Q

(Refer to figure 7 on page 65) The proper adjustment to make on the attitude indicator during level flight is to align the

A

miniature airplane to the horizon bar.

99
Q

(Refer to figure 7 on page 65) How should a pilot determine the direction of bank from an altitude indicator such as the one illustrated?

A

By the relationship of the miniature airplane (C) to the deflected horizon bar (B).

100
Q

What is a benefit of flying with a glass cockpit?

A

Situational awareness is increased.

101
Q

What steps must be taken when flying with glass cockpits to ensure safe flight?

A

Regularly scan both inside and outside, use all appropriate checklists, and cross-check with other forms of information.

102
Q

An aircraft which is equipped with an Electronic Flight Display (EFD) can

A

offer new capabilities and simplify the basic flying task.

103
Q

You are flying an aircraft equipped with an electronic flight display and the air data computer fails. What instrument is affected?

A

Airspeed indicator.

104
Q

An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by

A

the oil level being too low.

105
Q

Excessively high engine temperatures will

A

cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.

106
Q

Excessively high engine temperatures, either in the air or on the ground, will

A

cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.

107
Q

For internal cooling, air cooled engines are especially dependent on

A

the circulation of lubricating oil.

108
Q

If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with

A

too much power and with the mixture set too lean.

109
Q

What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating during a climb?

A

Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed.

110
Q

What is one procedure to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating?

A

Enrich the full mixture.

111
Q

How is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller?

A

The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine RPM.

112
Q

A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller is to

A

avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM.

113
Q

What is an advantage of a constant-speed propeller?

A

Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance.

114
Q

One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for

A

Improved engine performance.

115
Q

If the ignition switch ground wire becomes disconnected, the magneto

A

may continue to fire.

116
Q

The reason a 4-cylinder reciprocating engine continues to run after the ignition switch is positioned to OFF may be a

A

broken magneto ground wire.

117
Q

With regard to carburetor ice, float-type carburetor systems are generally considered to be

A

more susceptible to icing.

118
Q

Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing?

A

Temperature between 20 degrees F and 70 degrees F and high humidity.

119
Q

The possibility of carburetor icing exists even when the ambient air temperature is as

A

high as 70 degrees F and the relative humidity is high.

120
Q

If an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitched propeller and a float-type carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be

A

loss of RPM.

121
Q

The operating principle of float-type carburetors is based on the

A

difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the inlet air.

122
Q

The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting

A

a decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM.

123
Q

Generally speaking, the use of carburetor heat tends to

A

decrease engine performance.

124
Q

Applying carburetor heat will

A

enrich the fuel/air mixture.

125
Q

What change occurs in the fuel/air mixture when carburetor heat is applied?

A

The fuel/air mixture becomes richer.

126
Q

During the run-up at a high-elevation airport, a pilot notes a slight engine roughness that is not affected by the magneto check but grows worse during the carburetor heat check. Under these circumstances, what would be the most logical initial action?

A

Check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture.

127
Q

The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to

A

decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density.

128
Q

When cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture?

A

The fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean.

129
Q

Fuel/air ratio is the ratio between the

A

weight of fuel and weight of air entering the cylinder.

130
Q

Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when

A

the unburned change in the cylinders explodes instead of burning normally.

131
Q

Detonation may occur at high-power settings when

A

the fuel mixture ignites instantaneously instead of burning progressively and evenly.

132
Q

If a pilot suspects that the engine (with a fixed-pitch propeller) is detonating during climb-out after takeoff, the initial corrective action to take would be to

A

lower the nose slightly to increase airspeed.

133
Q

If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause

A

detonation.

134
Q

The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as

A

pre-ignition.

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