PPL Revision Guide Flashcards
1
Q
What is the Maintenance Release?
A
Document which authorises the aircraft serviceable for flight
2
Q
What are the 3 parts of the Maintenance Release?
A
a) Maintenance specifications
b) Defects and damage
c) Daily Inspections
3
Q
For how long is the Maintenance Release Valid?
A
100 hours or 12 months (whichever is earliest)
4
Q
After completing the daily inspection, what is the procedure for signing the Maintenance Release for the aircraft?
A
As a PPL, you are able to sign the aircraft maintenance release for the whole day
5
Q
What should you do if the aircraft has unserviceability?
A
Report the fault to the owner/operator and write details in Maintenance Release
6
Q
If there is a fault found that is so severe that the aircraft should be grounded, what actions should be taken?
A
- Do not fly the aircraft!
- Make sure the fault is brought to the
attention of the appropriate people
ASAP (operations manager or
engineer) - Write the defect in Maintenance
Release - Placard the aircraft if necessary
7
Q
State the following speeds for your aircraft:
a) Normal Climb
b) Best Rate of Climb
c) Best Angle of Climb
d) Best Glide
e) Normal Approach
f) Flapless Approach
g) Performance Approach
A
a) 75-85kts
b) 75kts
c) 60kts
d) 70kts (no flap), 65kts (flap)
e) 70kts (base and final), 65kts (flap 30), 60kts (short final)
f) 70kts final, 65kts short final
g)
8
Q
What is the total fuel capacity of your aircraft (useable and unusable)?
A
200L usuable, 212L total capacity
9
Q
What is the useable fuel in your aircraft?
A
200L
10
Q
What is the fuel consumption and endurance in your aircraft?
A
172S - 200 LTRS @ 38 LPH = 315 315MIN – 45MIN = 270MIN
172 Carburettor - 200 LTRS @ 36 LPH = 333MIN - 45MIN = 288MIN
11
Q
What is the minimum oil required for flight in your aircraft?
A
6 Litres
12
Q
What is the empty weight and max all up weight of your aircraft?
A
Empty Basic - NEED TO CONFIRM PGL
MTOW - 1156KG
13
Q
Perform a weight and Balance calculation given the following conditions:
A
14
Q
What is the safe endurance with 3 male passengers on board?
A
15
Q
Can you carry more than 3 passengers in a C172? State the requirements.
A
Yes, the aircraft should not be over weight and each person must have a seatbelt except:
- a baby (0-3 years) may be seated on lap with a loop belt attached to adult harness
- 2 children (3-13 years) may share a seatbelt if they do not exceed 77kg when combined
16
Q
What is density altitude?
A
- Pressure height corrected for temp
- 120’ for every 1° deviation from ISA temp (e.g 4° warmer than ISA is therefore (4x120) = 480’ higher than PH
17
Q
You wish to land at a farm strip. What must you check prior to doing so?
A
- You should obtain as much
information about the airstrip,
including the length, slope, surface
and condition - Performance charts must be
completed - A runway inspection should be
performed on arrival
18
Q
Takeoff and landing charts in the flight manual are factored by 1:15. What does this mean?
A
Charts are drawn from test pilots, therefore the charts are factored to to allow for dickheads like you. I.e built in safety buffer
19
Q
You calculate the takeoff distance to be 680 meters. Will it take 680 meters to get airborne?
A
No - calculations are based on aircraft being at 50’ after 680m
20
Q
Explain the use of the CLIMB weight limitation on the TO and Landing Graphs
A
Your aircraft must not only be able to get airborne, it must be able to climb at a 6% gradient. If going around must be able to climb at 3.2% gradient.
21
Q
Given:
Runway - 600m
Bitumen - Level
Wind - 10kt Headwind
Pressure Height - 200’
Temp - 20°
What is the Max All Up Weight permissible in your aircraft?
A
22
Q
What are the minimum flight instruments required for a private VFR flight?
A
Designed by CASA:
- Serviceable watch or clock
- ASI
- Compass
- Altimeter
Plus those in flight manual:
- Temp and pressure gauges
- RPM indicator
- Fuel gauges for each tank
- Flap indicator
- Trim indicator
- Stall warning
23
Q
Outline the procedure for refuelling from a drum.
A
- Place drum on an angle (smallest point for water)
- Conduct paste test, check expiry date, pump some fuel to test for contaminants or water
- Ensure aircraft and drum have same electrical potential
- Pump through filter or cloth if available (1 pump approx 1L)
- Allow to settle and do drain tests
24
Q
When are you required to carry out a fuel drain?
A
Before first flight of the day and after every time you refuel
25
Is it mandatory to carry a radio operating?
In any class of airspace, aircraft must be fitted with a radio capable of communicating two way, by voice on all frequencies necessary to meet the reporting, broadcast and listening watch requirements from any point on the route of the flight, including in the event of any diversions on the aeronautical emergency frequency 121.5 MHz.
EXCEPTION - when flying VFR by day, in class G airspace, at or below 5000' AMSL. However when you don't have to maintain separation from cloud (below 3000ft AMSL or 1000ft AGL) you still need a radio.
26
Can the passengers remain onboard when refuelling?
No
27
State the requirements for positioning the aircraft while starting the engine.
Area surrounding the aircraft must be free from obstacles and litter ( which may damage aircraft and/or surrounding items)
Aircraft ready in a position ready to taxi out.
28
State the requirements for over water flights in a single engine aircraft.
1 Life jacket per person to be carried above 2000ft.
At or below 2000ft, must be worn.
RACWA life jackets must be worn for all over water flights
29
What points should be mentioned when you give your passengers a pre-flight brief?
Emergency Exits
Seatbelts
Smoking
Air/Ventilation
Dual Controls (Front passenger)
30
When would it be advisable to have a survival kit onboard?
When flying in a remote area or areas of extreme heat or cold
31
While you are cruising - do you have to wear a seatbelt?
32
Can you carry a passenger in the right hand seat? What are the requirements?
Yes, you must have constant communication and instruct them not to touch the controls.
33
Is it mandatory to log every flight?
Yes, if you are a member of the flight crew for that flight
34
How long does your PPL remain valid, how do you renew your license?
Validity dependent on:
- Current medical required every 4 years or 2 over 40
- Flight review/flight test/endorsement completed within last 2 years
- License must be endorsed
35
What are the 'recency' requirements before carrying passengers?
3 takeoffs and landings within 90 days
36
What is a flight review? How often must you do one? Can you use your PPL if you don't do one?
- Flight review to check you can fly safely and accurately and have not developed any 'bad habits'
- Every 2 years
- No (except if you have done a flight test, or completed an endorsement within the last 2 years)
37
State the privileges and limitations that apply to your PPL.
The holder of the PPL may act as a pilot in command for which his/her license is endorsed
38
State the actions you would take should your VHF and HF radio fail in CTA abeam Chidlow.
- Maintain assigned altitude
- Squawk 7600
- Listen out to VOR (113.7)
- Transmit intentions prefixed with "transmitting blind"
- Leave controlled airspace ASAP
- Proceed OCTA to Jandakot
39
Can you smoke in a light aircraft?
- According to CASA, yes except during take-off, landing and while refuelling
- According to RACWA, not at all. All aircraft and clubroom is smoke-free
40
What are the rules governing alcohol and flying?
0.00 BAC, 8 hours bottle to throttle. Can not be under the influence at all inc hungover
41
Define area QNH
A forecast altimeter setting which is representative of the QNH of any location within a particular area
42
What does 'HJ' mean
Hours of daylight - from sunrise to sunset
43
What time is first and last light in Perth on 15th of May?
First Light - 2231 UTC
Last light - 0953 UTC
44
Are you allowed to fly over cloud?
Yes - but VFR navigation is considered impractical when flying over 4 or more oktas of cloud
45
When navigating visually, how often must you maintain a positive fix?
Every 30 mins
46
How should 4000 and 4500 be pronounced on the radio?
Four thousand
Four thousand Five Hundred
47
Is it necessary to carry a radio when operating:
a) into a CTAF
b) Into a CTAF (R)
a) No - but it is a good idea
b) Yes
48
What charts show the expected range of a VHF radio?
PCA
49
Operating OCTA from JT:
a) What are the departure points?
b) What is the radius of the zone, and to what height does it extend?
a) Armadale, Fremantle Golf COurse or Yangebup Lake
b) Radius of 3nm from aerodrome reference point, up to a height of 1500' AMSL
50
Operating on an airways clearance from JT:
a)when should you request your transponder code and from whom?
b) When are your required to contact 'approach'?
c) When should you change to JT frequency?
a) on the ground at Jandakot Perth Centre
b) At Class D depature point (ie. either Fremantle Golf Course or Armadale) - ask for clearance
c) Outside the Class D and allowing for possible conflicting inbound traffic
51
Must you obtain a forecast for:
a) Beaches and city run
b) Flight to RTI
c) Trip to Kalgoorlie
a) No
b) Yes
c) Yes - More than 50nm from departure aerodrome
52
What does CAVOK mean?
- Cloud and Visibility ok
- No significant cloud below 5000' AGL
- Vis of 10km or more
53
What is a TTF?
Trend Type Forecast
Aerodrome weather report to which a statement of trend is added. Relates to weather conditions expected to affect the aerodrome of origin for 3 hours following the time of report.
54
With reference to cloud cover, explain the following terms:
a) SCT
b) BKN
c) OVC
a) Scattered - 3-4 OKTAs
b) Broken - 5-7 OKTAs
c) Overcast - 8 OKTAs
55
What are the VMC requirements below 10 000' AMSL:
a) OCTA
b) CTA
c) Class D aerodromes
a) OCTA - 1000' above, 1000' below and 1500m horizontal from cloud, 5km vis
b) CTA - 1000' above, 1000' below and 1500m horizontal from cloud, 5km vis
c) Class D - 1000' above, 500' below & 600m horizontally from cloud with 5000m vis
56
Explain the terms:
a) INTER
b) TEMPO
c) GRADU
d) RAPID
a) Intermittent (lasting <30mins)
b)Temporary (lasting 3060mins)
c) Gradual
d) Rapid - refers to weather changes of a permanent nature from a given time.
May require alternates, or extra time/fuel for holding
57
Explain the terms:
a) METAR
b) SPECI
c) SIGMET
d) AIRMET
a) MET routine reports issued at fixed times
b) Met special reports when conditions fluctuate around or below specified criteria
c) Information about certain MET occurrences, e.g severe thunderstorms etc
d) Information about certain MET occurrences below FL120
58
Where do you find information on restricted areas?
ERSA
59
Can you fly in a prohibited area?
NO!!! Unless you have prior written permission
60
What are the hemispherical levels OCTA and CTA.
East VFR - 1500, 3500, 5500, 7500, 9500
EAST IFR - 3000, 5000, 7000, 9000
West VFR - 2500, 4500, 6500, 8500
West IFR - 2000, 4000, 6000, 8000
61
What are the fuel reserves required for a private VFR flight?
RACWA: Fixed reserve of 45 mins, holding reserves as req
CASA: Fixed reserve 30 mins, holding reserves as req.
62
If flying a C172, when are you required to plan for an alternate?
When destination aerodrome has one or more of the following:
- more than 4 oktas of cloud at or below 1500' AGL
- Vis less than 8km or forecast probability of mist, dust, fog, etc
- Crosswind more than specified in the flight manual
63
Can you fly a single engine aircraft to RTI?
State the requirements.
- must obtain a forecast
- must wear life jackets
- must carry ELT
- must either plan SARTIME, or leave a flight note
64
When is it mandatory to carry an ELT?
When flying more than 50nm from departure, over water and in remote areas
65
What are the requirements when flying through a remote area?
Where are these areas shown?
- Minimum Sarwatch - SARTIME
- ELT must be carried
- Survival Gear and water must be carried
- Must obtain current MET forecasts
- Areas shown in ERSA
66
When should a transponder be activated?
- When flying OCTA, squawk code 1200
- In class D, squawk code 3000
- When told to squawk particular code by ATC
67
If you have a radio failure whilst being radar vectored, what should you do?
- Continue flying given heading for 2 mins whilst trying to re-establish radio contact. If no success, squawk 7600
- Fly visual, switch on landing lights, keeping a good lookout, and making radio calls as normal, land ASAP
68
You depart JT to CUN via Perth Control Zone at 7500':
a) when would you request an airways clearance?
b) What would be your initial call to Perth Approach?
c) On climb, you realise the cloud base is A055, what would you say and do?
d) What is the lowest altitude you could plan to request a clearance over the hills?
a) request transponder code prior to startup, request clearance at Armadale shop
b) PH approach, Romeo Oscar Charlie, overhead Armadale Shop, present height, request airways clearence
c) Romeo Oscar Charlie, request amended level three thousand five hundred due cloud
d) 2500, but conflicting traffic at this level
69
How accurately must you maintain track in CTA?
+/- 1 NM
70
When departing any airport, unless otherwise stated, how soon must you establish track?
ASAP after takeoff within 5nm of aerodrome
71
What chart shows VHF area frequencies?
ERC
72
What are the procedural requirements to follow when using the lane of entry into and out of Jandakot?
- Stay on the right (over land = northbound, over sea = southbound)
- Do not fly higher than CTA LL stated
- Maintain terrain clearance, and built up areas clearance
- Operate under VFR
73
What are the legal requirements prior to using an aerodrome other than a governments or license aerodrome?
- Ensure it fits RACWA requirements
- Seek permission from land owner
- Seek permission from RACWA to land
74
Describe your actions should you become completely lost.
- Check DG accurately set and flying correct hdg
- Check last 'fix' was accurate
- isolate area on map where you should be
- clim higher to increase range of visibility
- find a large feature on ground, orbit around until identified
- read from ground to map, and follow roads and railways to big town if necessary
- carry out pattern search and land
75
Where can you cancel your SARTIME on arrival at an aerodrome?
- In the circuit area
- On landing at Class D or primary aerodrome
- By phone from any CTAF
76
What does CTAF stand for and when should you monitor the frequency?
- Common Traffic Advisory Frequency
- Normally 10NM
- Refer to ERSA for changes to dimensions and heights
77
How do you find out what frequency is used at a CTAF?
ERSA
78
Inbound to Geraldton, what radio calls would you make and where?
Inbound on CTAF frequency after changing at or before boundary 10NM away from aerodrome
79
What chart shows controlled airspace in full?
ERC
80
Can you plan to fly through a Restricted Area? If so, what are the requirements? Where would you find information in regard to R143?
Depends on type of Restricted Airspace, refer to AIP
Be prepared for clearance not to be granted
ERSA PRD
81
How are accidents and incidents reported?
Incidents - using the prescribed form
Accidents - by the quickest means available followed by a written report
82
What is MOGAS? Can it be used in a C172?
Motor gasoline
No - octane rating too low
83
What visual aids are there at Jandakot if the visibility is poor?
NDB
Runway lighting
PAPI lights
84
What is T Vasis?
Lighting system used to indicate glide slope to landing aircraft. I.e lights will indicate whether you are too high, too low or on the correct slope
85
Which is the most accurate radio navigation aid?
VOR
86
List 5 errors of the ADF
- coastal refraction
- Night (i.e range)
- Thunderstorms
- Mountains
- Terrain effect
- Height effect
87
Where are the frequencies for NDBs and Broadcast stations listed?
ERSA
VTC
88
After selecting NDB station, how is it identified?
Tuned
Identified
Tested
89
Explain the procedure for tracking using the ADF.
- Keep the needle pointing to where the station should be
- Use only as a guide, not as sole reference
90
What are the conditions for using a commercial broadcast station as an aid to navigation?
Not for navigation use only, can only be used as a guide.
Sometimes, repeater stations are in use (which you may not be aware of), and the direction could be totally different to that expected
91
List 4 errors of the VOR
- site effect error
- ground station error
- vertical polarisation error
- airborne equipment error
92
What does VOR stand for?
Very high frequency Omni directional Radio range
93
What is a radial?
like spokes on a wheel, radials travel toward the station.
There are 360 radials
94
Explain the procedure for tracking using the VOR
- Place planned track at top of VOR
- If needle is left/right of centre - this indicates the direction to turn to regain track
- intercept in the direction of the needle (e.g for 090, needle is left, so turn onto 030)
- when needle centres, turn back onto original heading (e.g 090) and allow for any drift
95
On the VOR, one dot is how many degrees?
2 degrees
96
List the following frequencies:
