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PPL Revision Flashcards

0
Q
  1. What role do the piston rings play in the operation of an internal combustion engine?
A

Piston rings do Piston Rings do the following jobs:

  1. They seal the gasses in the chamber and prevent them from leaking around the sides of the piston. This improves power.
  2. They reduce friction by reducing the surface area of the piston that comes in contact with the cylinder wall. (If we didn’t have them then the entire piston would be rubbing against the cylinder wall.)
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1
Q
  1. What are the 4 stages in the Otto cycle?
A

Intake, Compression, Ignition, Exhaust.

Suck, Squeeze, Bang, Blow

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2
Q
  1. Why do modern aeroplanes user a dual ignition system?
A

A dual ignition system improves safety and provides better combustion, therefore, more power. (Notice the drop in RPM when each system is selected separately during engine run ups.) Each system is powered by a separate magneto. The magnetos are completely self sufficient once started and are independent from each other and the electrical system.

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3
Q
  1. How does air density effect the power output of a normally aspirated engine?
A

The air density will influence the fuel/air ratio being burnt in our engine. To operate correctly this ratio must be within certain limits. As air density reduces, the air being drawn into our cylinders reduces. This leads to a reduction in fuel so that the correct ratio can be maintained. This results in a lower volume of fuel and air being burnt in our cylinders and a reduction in power.

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4
Q
  1. A fluctuating oil pressure gauge is indicative of….?
A

Low oil level. The oil level in the sump naturally varies during engine operation as oil is pumped through the engine and returned to the sump. A fluctuating oil pressure occurs when the feeder pump (sucks the oil from the sump) is exposed to air as it leaves the sump and submerged again when the oil returns

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5
Q
  1. What is a-possible problem if a centre zero ammeter is showing a discharge and what action would you take?
A

Possible problems include: a failed alternator, a broken gauge.
Confirm that the alternator has failed by referring to the alternator warning light. Reduce electrical load as much as possible and check for any popped circuit breakers. Recycle the master switch. If the ammeter is still showing a discharge then turn the ALT side of the master switch off and land as soon as practical.

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6
Q
  1. State the atmospheric conditions conducive to the formation of throttle ice, induction ice and impact ice describe the symptoms that would alert you to their presence?
A

The formation of icing is dependent on humidity and temperature.
The highest risk of engine icing is when humidity is greater than 60% and temperature is between -5 and +15 degrees Celsius, but has been know to occur with the humidity greater than 20% and the temperature between -5 and + 35 degrees celsius.

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7
Q
  1. What is the danger of progressive throttle increments if engine ice is not diagnosed?
A

As the ice builds on ice that is already present, the throttle needs to be slowly increased in order to maintain power. Eventually full throttle will be required to maintain power. The power will then begin to decrease until the engine stops.

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8
Q
  1. What services are provided by the aeroplanes hydraulic and aeroplane systems?
A

In the Piper Tomahawk the hydraulic system provides for the aeroplanes braking system.
The Vacuum system powers the gyroscopes in the Artificial Horizon and the Directional Gyro. The Turn Coordinator is powered by the electrical system (spins up when the Master Switch is turned on).

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9
Q
  1. What potential problems can arise from mixing hydraulic fluids?
A

If mineral based and vegetable based Hydraulic fluids are mixed a heavy ‘gum’ will result. This will clog the hydraulic system and eventually lead to system failure.

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10
Q
  1. On an aircraft fitted with a ffixed pitch propeller, describe the correct method of leaning the mixture, both with EGT and without EGT?
A

Without an EGT: Slowly lean the mixture while listening to the engine note. The RPM will gradually increase as the fuel/air mixture approaches the chemically correct ratio (1:15). Once this point is passed the RPM will drop. Enrich the mixture until it is once again running at peak performance and then push the control in about another 15mm for better engine cooling.

With an EGT: Slowly lean the mixture while watching the EGT. As the fuel/air mixture approaches the chemically correct ratio the mixture will burn hotter, this is shown by a rise in the EGT. When the chemically correct point is passed the EGT will show a decrease in temperature. Enrich the mixture until it is once again running at peak temperature. Continue to enrich the mixture until the engine is running at 50 degrees below peak temperature.

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11
Q
  1. State 5th potential problems of prolonged idling at a high outside air temperature.
A

A high OAT will result in the air being less dense. A reduced density means that the fuel/air mixture will be rich. This will result in un-burnt fuel left in the cylinders. As this fuel evaporates it leaves behind impurities (carbon, lead etc) that can clog the spark plugs (carbon fouling) and in extreme cases lead to pre ignition. At very hot OATs the fuel air mixture can be heated to the point that it explodes during the compression stroke. This is known as detonation.

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12
Q
  1. Why is there a maximum oil temperature?
A

As oil heats up its viscosity becomes runnier. Above a certain temperature it will be too thin to do its job effectively.

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13
Q
  1. What are the cockpit indications of a an alternator failure?
A

A reading of zero or negative reading on the ammeter/voltmeter and illuminated alternator warning light.

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14
Q
  1. What are the cockpit indications of a magneto failure?

What actions should be taken?

A

Loss of RPM, rough running.
Check that the primer is locked (can cause a drop in RPM if not secured), avoid using high power settings and assume the other magneto will fail at any time. If there is no airport in the immediate surrounds then perform the forced landing procedure

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15
Q
  1. What could be the problem if the brakes have a spongy feel?
A

‘Spongy’ brakes are indicative of air in the hydraulic lines, as air is compressible and hydraulic fluid is not.

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16
Q
  1. What could bet the possible problems if the oil temperature reads high and the oil pressure reads normal?
A

High oil temperature can indicate low oil level, broken oil cooler, broken oil temperature gauge or an overheating engine; however, if the oil was low the pressure gauge would be reading low or fluctuating, so that leaves the oil cooler, the gauge or the engine.

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17
Q
  1. Why is the use of the carburetor heat restricted to air operations?
A

Carburetor Heat is unfiltered so if used on the ground there is a risk of sucking contaminants into the cylinder.

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18
Q
  1. When is the use of carburetor heat on the ground acceptable?
A

If icing is present on the ground then this takes priority over the risk of contaminants. Also, Carburettor Heat is tested during run ups.

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19
Q
  1. What is an “alternate air”source and how does it differ from carburetor heat?
A

Alternate air is often found in fuel injected engines. It provides an alternate source of air in the event of the air filter becoming blocked. Carburettor Heat can be used to the same effect, but also doubles as an anti-icing control.

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20
Q
  1. What effect will the application of carburetor heat have on engine operation?
A

Carburettor Heat uses hot air from around the exhaust. Hot air is less dense so it will enrich the mixture and cause a slight drop in RPM.

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21
Q
  1. What effect will low suction have on the gyroscopic instruments?
A

Low suction will cause the gyroscopic instruments to be sluggish and unreliable.

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22
Q
  1. What instruments will be effected?
A

Instruments that use the vacuum system (AI, DG)

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23
Q
  1. What gyroscopic instruments will be effected by a loss of electrical power?
A

The Turn Coordinator

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24
Q
  1. Define the terms Accident and Incident. What are the reporting
    Requirements?
A

O

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25
Q
  1. What are the reasons for and the general contents of the CARs,
    COAs, AIP and ERSA?
A

The CARs (Civil Aviation Regulations) contain the rules and regulations that govern aviation in Australia. It describes the scope that encompasses aviation. It is split into two parts, the CAR 1988 contains; Administration, Airworthiness, Maintenance, Licensing, Aerodromes, Rules of the Air, Operations and Prosecutions. The CASR (Civil Aviation Safety Regulations) contains; Rule enforcement, Aircraft Registration, Medical Certificates, Dangerous Goods and Air Traffic Services.

The CAOs (Civil Aviation Orders) are the next step down and contain information that is of greater relevance to us as pilots. Items that can be found in the CAOs include: Air Service Operations, Carriage of Dangerous Goods, License Ratings, Flight Time Limitations, Flying School Licenses, Safety Precautions.

The AIP (Aeronautical Information Publication) is the next step down again. It contains information only relevant to flying the aeroplane. Items that are found in the AIP include: Information on charts, Sunrise/Sunset Tables, Air Traffic Services, Communication Services, Search and Rescue, Operations in Controlled Airspace, General Operation Requirements, Flight Planning, Air Traffic Incidents, Interpreting Weather, Aerodrome Descriptions, Markings and Lighting. Additionally the AIP contains SUP (supplementary) information that is released ahead of major events (wings over wagga etc). The AIP is carried with us during navigational flights.

The ERSA (En-Route Supplement Australia) contains information on all the licensed aerodromes in Australia as well as restricted airspace information and an emergency survival guide. The ERSA must be carried with us if we are flying to an unfamiliar aerodrome.

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26
Q
  1. State

The minimum VMC for flight in all airspace.

A

CLASS D

CLASS G

CLASS E

CLASS D

CLASS G

CLASS E

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27
Q
  1. State the limitations imposed on a holder of a PPL?
A

A private pilot (aeroplane) licence authorises the holder of the licence:

                 (a) to fly an aeroplane as pilot in command, or as copilot, while the aeroplane is engaged in a private operation; and
                 (b) to fly an aeroplane as pilot in command while the aeroplane is engaged in flying training operations for the purpose of increasing the holder’s flying skill.

      (1)  Subject to subregulation (2), a private pilot (aeroplane) licence does not authorise the holder of the licence to fly an aeroplane as pilot in command, or as copilot, unless the holder also holds:
                 (a)  a type endorsement or class endorsement; and
                 (b)  if the aeroplane has a special design feature—a special design feature endorsement; that authorise the holder to fly the aeroplane in that capacity.
         (2)  A private pilot (aeroplane) licence authorises the holder of the licence to fly an aeroplane without holding an aircraft endorsement for the aeroplane:
                 (a)  in dual flying—for the purpose of satisfying the requirements for the issue of an aircraft endorsement for the aeroplane; or
                 (b)  in any capacity—for the purpose of:
                          (i)  testing the aeroplane; or
                         (ii)  carrying out an experiment in relation to the aeroplane;
                        if CASA has given the holder permission under subregulation 5.50(1) to fly the aeroplane in those circumstances; or
                 (c)  as pilot in command—for the purpose of satisfying the requirements for the issue of an aircraft endorsement for the aeroplane if:
                          (i)  the aeroplane is a single place aeroplane; and
                         (ii)  CASA has given the holder permission under subregulation 5.23(5) to fly the aeroplane
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28
Q
  1. What are the recency requirements for the holder of a PPL?
A

(1) A private (aeroplane) pilot must not fly an aeroplane as pilot in command if the pilot has not, within the period of 2 years immediately before the day of the proposed flight, satisfactorily completed an aeroplane flight review.
Penalty: 50 penalty units.
(2) An aeroplane flight review must be conducted only by an appropriate person and, unless the person otherwise approves having regard to the circumstances of the case, must be conducted in:
(a) an aeroplane:
(i) of the type in which the pilot flew the greatest amount of flight time during the 10 flights the pilot undertook as pilot in command immediately before the flight review; and
(ii) unless the type of aeroplane mentioned in subparagraph (i) is a single place aeroplane—that is fitted with fully functioning dual controls; and
(iii) unless the type of aeroplane mentioned in subparagraph (i) is a single place aeroplane or is not fitted with wheel brakes—that is fitted with dual control brakes; or
(b) an approved synthetic flight trainer appropriate to the type of aeroplane mentioned in subparagraph (a)(i).
Note: For appropriate person see subregulation (8).
(3) If:
(a) a private (aeroplane) pilot undertakes an aeroplane flight review; and
(b) the requirements of subregulation (2) are not satisfied in relation to the review;
the pilot is taken not to have satisfactorily completed the review.
(4) If a private (aeroplane) pilot satisfactorily completes an aeroplane flight review, the person conducting the review must make an entry in the pilot’s personal log book to the effect that the pilot has satisfactorily completed the aeroplane flight review

(1) A private (aeroplane) pilot must not fly an aeroplane as pilot in command if the aeroplane is carrying any other person and the pilot has not satisfied whichever of the following requirements is applicable:
(a) if the flight is undertaken in daylight—the pilot has, within the period of 90 days immediately before the day of the proposed flight, carried out at least 3 takeoffs and 3 landings while flying an aeroplane as pilot in command or as pilot acting in command under supervision, or in dual flying;
(b) if the flight is undertaken at night—the pilot has, within the period of 90 days immediately before the day of the proposed flight, carried out at least 3 takeoffs and
3 landings at night while flying an aeroplane as pilot
in command or as pilot acting in command under supervision, or in dual flying.

29
Q
  1. What flight operations are not permitted by a PPL holder?
A

Missing on Khaled,s

30
Q
  1. What are the responsibilities of the Pic before, during and after flight?
A

The PIC is responsible for the overall safety of the flight. The PIC must carry out any checks that need to be done on the aircraft (pre-flight inspection).

31
Q
  1. What conditions are imposed on the carriage of children?
A 
Two children (3-13) may occupy one seat provided their combined weight does not exceed 77kg, they are seated side by side and they are secured with a lap belt only.
An infant (less than 3) may be carried in the arms of a passenger provided the passenger is secured by a seat belt. The infant must be held by the passenger only.
32
Q
  1. Who may occupy the control seat of a dual controlled aeroplane?
A

A student undergoing flight instruction, a licensed pilot or a passenger provided a brief on not interfering with the controls is carried out

33
Q
  1. What safety precautions must be carried out before fuelling can take place? (Including safe distances)
A

All fuelling equipment must be at the same electrical potential.
All ignitions switches must be OFF.
Where the fuelling equipment is not mobile; the aeroplane must be positioned so that it can be moved to a position of safety.
The person conducting the fuelling shall not carry any ignition source.
The aeroplane shall not be fuelled within: 5m of any sealed building, 6m of another aircraft, 15m of an exposed public area and 9m of any unsealed building.

34
Q
  1. What is the closest an aeroplane can be to another aeroplane during engine start?
A

Not less than 8 metres.

35
Q
  1. When are seat belts required to be worn?
A

During take-off, landing, turbulence, flights over water and at the discretion of the pilot.
(Note: At least one crew member must wear a seatbelt at all times).

36
Q
  1. Differentiate between IAS, CAS, TAS, and GS
A

IAS is the measure of air particles hitting the airframe. It is the aerodynamic speed.
CAS is the IAS corrected for instrument error (friction in the gears etc). It is usually not more than 1 or 2kts and for practical purposes is considered the same.
TAS is CAS corrected for air density. If the same IAS is maintained, but the air density decreases (say in a climb) then the aircraft has to be travelling faster to get the same amount of air particles to hit the airframe.
GS is the TAS corrected for wind.

37
Q
  1. Describe the types of drag which effect a subsonic aircraft in
    Flight?
A

Induced is incurred through the production of lift and proportionally related to the Angle of Attack and Parasitic is incurred due to the friction of the aircraft moving through the air.

38
Q
  1. How does total drag vary with airspeed?
A

As airspeed increases, induced drag reduces and parasitic drag increases. The result is that an aircraft accelerating from its stalling speed will experience a reduction in drag followed by an exponential increase in drag. This is known as the ‘J’ curve.

39
Q
  1. What effect does ground have on aircraft?
A

As airspeed increases, induced drag reduces and parasitic drag increases. The result is that an aircraft accelerating from its stalling speed will experience a reduction in drag followed by an exponential increase in drag. This is known as the ‘J’ curve.

40
Q
  1. What effect, if any, does the wind shear have on performance of
    Our aircraft?
A

An increase in headwind or a reduction in tailwind will result in a brief increase in performance. A reduction in headwind or an increase in tailwind will result in a brief reduction in aircraft performance.

41
Q
  1. What is meant by the term “Load Factor”?
A

Load factor is the ratio of lift being generated by the wings to the weight of the aircraft. If an aircraft weighs 100kg, but the wings are producing 200kg of lift the load factor would 2. This is measure in ‘G’.

42
Q
  1. List the factors that effect the strength of wing tip vortices.
A

Wing tip vortices are a direct result of the pressure differential between the upper and lower surfaces of the wing, the greater this differential the stronger the vortices. Stronger vortices are created by; increasing AoA, increasing aircraft weight, reducing speed and retracting flap

43
Q
  1. What is the approximate location of wing tip vortices during cruise flight?
A

Vortices will drift below the aircraft (about 100’) and slowly spread apart. They will move with any wind present.

44
Q
  1. What action should be taken to avoid wake encounters during cruise and during take off and landing?
A

During cruise fly at least 200’ above a passing aircraft or 1000’ below. During landing, land well past the point where the previous aircraft touched down or before the point where the previous aircraft took off. During take-off, leave the ground after the previous aircraft took off or before the previous aircraft landed.

45
Q
  1. What effect does wind and turbulence have on wing tip vortices?
A

The vortices will move with the wind. Turbulence will cause the vortices to decay quickly.

46
Q
  1. What information is contained in part one of the maintenence
    Release?
A

Type of aircraft, registration, operational category, validity period, scheduled maintenance to be carried out, who performed the last 100hr inspection.

47
Q
  1. Is a private pilot able to conduct a daily inspection and sign the maintenance release?
A

Yes

48
Q
  1. How can an altimeter be used to obtain the local QNH, pressure
    Height and aerodrome elevation?
A

To obtain the local QNH; adjust the altimeter so that it reads the aerodrome elevation, then read the QNH off the subscale.
To obtain the pressure height; dial 1013 into the subscale and read the pressure height off the altimeter.
To obtain the aerodrome elevation; dial the local QNH into the subscale and read the elevation off the altimeter.

49
Q
  1. What is the difference between BASIC EMPTY WEIGHT and

EMPTY WEIGHT?

A

Basic Empty Weight is the weight of the aircraft with unusable fuel and full operating fluids ect. Oil, hydraulics.

50
Q
  1. Discuss refuelling procedures.
A

Refer Civil Aviation Order 20.9.

51
Q
  1. Know requirements for an ALA.
A

Refer CAAP 92-1.

52
Q
  1. Are over the counter drugs legal? What precautions need to be taken before taking any medication?
A

No. However precaution needs to be taken with over the counter drugs. Some medicine may contain substances which could impair your flying capabilities to safely operate an aircraft. It’s recommended you always consult your DAME to insure it is safe to take.

53
Q
  1. Can I ave an alcoholic beverage before I go flying?

What are the requirements in reference to alcohols?

A

No. CAR and CASR state that a person must not be intoxicated before he or she can act as pilot in command. General rule is 8 hours throttle to bottle. (Note: Alcohol can still last up to 24 hours in the brain, if you feel that you’re still intoxicated you should not fly).

54
Q
  1. What are the requirements needed to obtain a Private Pilots Licence?
A

(1) For the purposes of subregulation 5.09(1), a person is qualified to hold a private pilot (aeroplane) licence if the person:
(a) is at least 17 years old; and
(b) holds, or is qualified to hold, a flight radiotelephone operator licence; and
(c) has been awarded a pass in a private pilot (aeroplane) licence theory examination or a commercial pilot (aeroplane) licence theory examination; and
(d) has been awarded a pass in a private pilot (aeroplane) licence flight test; and
(e) has satisfied the requirements of the aeroplane syllabus that are relevant to the private pilot (aeroplane) licence; and
(f) has the aeronautical experience set out in regulation 5.84.
(2) In spite of subregulation (1), a person is qualified to hold a private pilot (aeroplane) licence if the person:
(a) satisfies the requirements of paragraphs (1)(a), (b) and (f); and
(b) holds, or has held, a pilot qualification:
(i) that CASA is satisfied is at least equivalent to a private pilot (aeroplane) licence; and
(ii) that was issued by the Defence Force of Australia.
(3) In spite of subregulation (1), a person is qualified to hold a private pilot (aeroplane) licence if:
(a) the person:
(i) holds, or has held, an overseas pilot licence that is at least equivalent to the private pilot (aeroplane) licence; and
(ii) satisfies the requirements of paragraphs (1)(a), (b), (d) and (f); and
(iii) has been awarded a pass in a private
pilot (aeroplane) licence overseas conversion examination; or
(b) the person:
(i) holds a current overseas pilot licence that is at least equivalent to the private pilot (aeroplane) licence; and
(ii) satisfies the requirements of paragraphs (1)(a), (b) and (f); and
(iii) is employed by, or is working under an arrangement with, an operator to whom regulation 217 applies; and
(iv) has satisfactorily completed an aeroplane proficiency check required by regulation 217; and
(v) has been awarded a pass in a private
pilot (aeroplane) licence overseas conversion examination.
(4) In spite of subregulation (1), a person is qualified to hold a private pilot (aeroplane) licence if:
(a) the person is qualified, under regulation 5.104, to hold a commercial pilot (aeroplane) licence; or
(b) the person is qualified, under regulation 5.165, to hold an air transport pilot (aeroplane) licence; or
(c) the person:
(i) is qualified, under regulation 5.207, to hold a multicrew pilot (aeroplane) licence; and
(ii) satisfies the requirements of paragraphs (1)(d) and (f).
(5) For the purposes of subparagraph (3)(b)(iv), a person is not taken to have satisfactorily completed an aeroplane proficiency check unless the operator who employs, or arranges the work of, the person gives CASA written notice that the person has satisfactorily completed the check.
(6) For the purposes of this regulation, an overseas pilot licence is equivalent to a private pilot (aeroplane) licence if it authorises the holder of the licence to fly aeroplanes as pilot in command in private operations.

55
Q
  1. What are the requirements for planning an alternative?
A

Except when operating under VFR by day within 5oNm of point of departure, the pilot in command must provide a suitable alternate aerodrome when arrival of destinations is during currency or up to 30 minutes prior to forecast commencement of the following weather conditions;

a. Cloud – more than SCT below the alternate minimum
b. Visibility – less than the alternate minima
c. Visibility – greater than the alternate minima but forecast endorses a percentage of dust, fog, mist
d. Wind – A crosswind or downwind component than the aircrafts maximum

56
Q
  1. Can you fly IFR on top of a cloud?
A

Yes. Pilot in command wishing to fly VFR on top of cloud may do so provided he or she can positively position fix themselves to reference of ground or water at interval not exceeding 30 minutes.

VMC can be maintained throughout the entire flight and pilot must ensure that forecast can provide an area where descent below the cloud layer can be made in VMC.

57
Q
  1. What is a special VFR?
A

Special VFR maybe be given by ATC unit responsible for a CTR where VMC doesn’t exist to allow an aircraft to enter or leave controlled airspace provided it won’t delay an IFR flight.

Pilots are responsible for ensuring that:

a. Flight is conducted clear of cloud
b. Visibility – Aeroplanes is not less than 1600M
c. The flight is conducted in accordance with the requirements of CAR 157 with regard to low flying.

58
Q
  1. Difference between TEMPO and INTER?
A

A TEMPO is used to indicate change in prevailing conditions expected to last for periods between of 30 and 60 minutes in each instance.

A INTER is used to indicate changes expected to occur frequently for periods of less than 30 minutes duration, the conditions fluctuating almost consistently between the times specified in the forecast.

59
Q
  1. Difference between TEMPO and INTER?
A

FM is used when rapid changes are expected at the specified time. BECMG is used when the changes are expected to develop at a regular or irregular rate during the specified time.

60
Q
  1. Requirements for flight over water?
A

In case of passenger carrying charter operations, the distance from land shall not exceed 25Nm in an event of emergency for suitable landing areas.
Each occupant must wear a life jacket during the flight over water.
A meteorological forecast is obtained and VFR flights are required to submit a SARTIME flight notification to ATS.

61
Q
  1. Carriage of ELT?
A

http://www.austlii.edu.au/au/legis/cth/consol_reg/car1988263/s252a.html%20/l%20exemphttp://www.austlii.edu.au/au/legis/cth/consol_reg/car1988263/s252a.html%20/l%20exempted_aircraftted_aircraft

62
Q
  1. When do you need to obtain a forecast?
A

You need to obtain and carry a forecast if your flight exceeds 50Nm from your departure point. You do not need to carry or obtain a forecast if your flight can be conducted within 1 hour return. If you wish to stay longer you need to obtain a forecast 30 minutes after you’ve departed to continue your flight.

63
Q
  1. What documents do you need to carry on a Private Pilots Licence?
A

a. Licence
b. Medical
c. Current maps, charts and weather forecast
d. Maintenance Release
e. Airworthiness Certificate
f. Approved POH

64
Q
  1. Define the difference between PRD areas?
A

Prohibited – This airspace is prohibited, clearance will not be given.
Restricted – This airspace is restricted, clearance will be given by ATS if the pilot has planned to do so in their FLIGHT NOTIFICATION.
Danger – Flights in these areas are permitted. It’s highly advisable that pilots who wish to fly through these areas familiarize themselves with the activities associated.

65
Q
  1. State radio failure procedures?
A

Refer ERSA Emergency – 4

66
Q
  1. Requirements required for carriage of a VHF radio?
A

Refer AIP GEN 1.5-1

67
Q
  1. Difference between TAF and TTF?
A

A Terminal Area Forecast is a statement of meteorological conditions expected for a specified period in the airspace for an allocated station and generally covers an area of 5Nm around the aerodrome reference point.

A (TTF) Trend Type Forecast is defined as an aerodrome weather report to which a statement of trend is appended. The validity period is usually three hours commencing at the time of observation. It supersedes the TAF for its validity period.

68
Q
  1. What does the term AIRMET and VOLMET mean?
A

An AIRMET is an air meteorological observation made by pilots, whilst a VOLMET is a broadcast that contains a METAR or SPECI when available. Individual VOLMET broadcast do not exceed 5 minutes duration.

69
Q
  1. Difference between an AWIS and ATIS?
A

Visual approach authorized by ATC if by day and VFR the aircraft is within 30Nm, tracking must be maintained until by day within 5Nm of the aerodrome. During the approach a pilot must not descend below lowest safe altitude until established within 3Nm and the aerodrome is in sight.

70
Q
  1. What does the term “Visual Approach” mean?
A

Visual approach authorized by ATC if by day and VFR the aircraft is within 30Nm, tracking must be maintained until by day within 5Nm of the aerodrome. During the approach a pilot must not descend below lowest safe altitude until established within 3Nm and the aerodrome is in sight.

71
Q
  1. What must a Pilot do to comply with lane of entry procedures?
A

When using these lanes, pilots must;

a. Operate under VFR
b. Conform general flight rules regarding terrain clearance
c. Operate not higher than the altitude specified as the upper limit step
d. Keep to the right

Flying (1 decks)

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