PPL Oral Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What are the eligibility requirements for a private pilot (airplane) certificate? (14 CFR 61.103)

A

a. Be at least 17 years of age. b. Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language. c. Hold at least a current third-class medical certificate. d. Received the required ground and flight training endorsements. e. Meet the applicable aeronautical experience requirements. f. Passed the required knowledge and practical tests. Exam Tip: The evaluator may ask you to demonstrate that you’re current and eligible to take the practical test. When preparing for your practical test, verify that you have the required hours, that you’re current, and don’t forget to double-check all of your endorsements (especially the 90-day solo flight endorsement). Make sure you have totaled all of the logbook columns and that the entries make sense

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2
Q

What privileges and limitations apply to a private pilot? (14 CFR 61.113)

A

No person who holds a private pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft that is carrying passengers or property for compensation or hire; nor may that person, for compensation or hire, act as pilot in command of an aircraft.
A private pilot—
a. May act as PIC of an aircraft in connection with any business or employment if it is only incidental to that business or employment and does not carry passengers or property for compensation or hire.
b. May not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.
c. May act as PIC of a charitable, nonprofit, or community event flight described in 14 CFR §91.146, if the sponsor and pilot comply with the requirements of that regulation.
d. May be reimbursed for aircraft operating expenses that are directly related to search and location operations, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees, and the operation is sanctioned and under the direction and control of local, state, or Federal agencies or organizations that conduct search and location operations.
e. May demonstrate an aircraft in flight to a prospective buyer if the private pilot is an aircraft salesman and has at least 200 hours of logged flight time.
f. May act as PIC of an aircraft towing a glider or unpowered ultralight vehicle, provided they meet the requirements of 14 CFR §61.69.
g. May act as PIC for the purpose of conducting a production flight test in a light-sport aircraft intended for certification in the light-sport category under 14 CFR §21.190, provided they meet the requirements of §61.113.

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3
Q

Explain the statement “may not pay less than pro-rata share of the operating expenses of a flight.” (14 CFR 61.113)

A

Pro-rata means “proportional.” The pilot may not pay less than his or her proportional share of the flight’s operating expenses with the passengers, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures or rental fees.

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4
Q

The annual inspection for your aircraft is now due and you ask several friends that fly with you regularly to contribute money to help you pay for the inspection. Do the regulations allow for these contributions? (14 CFR 61.113)

A

No. A private pilot may not pay less than the pro rata (proportional) share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures or rental fees. Note: The regulation applies to “the operating expenses of a flight,” and does not allow for the sharing of fixed or long term operating costs of the airplane with passengers.

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5
Q

To act as a required pilot flight crewmember of a civil aircraft, what must a pilot have in his/her physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft? (14 CFR 61.3)

A

a. A pilot certificate (or special purpose pilot authorization). b. A photo identification. c. A medical certificate (with certain exceptions as provided in 14 CFR §61.3).

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6
Q

While you are performing a preflight inspection on your aircraft, an inspector from the FAA introduces herself and says she wants to conduct a ramp inspection. What documents are you required to show the inspector? (14 CFR 61.3)

A

Each person who holds an airman certificate, medical certificate, authorization, or license required by Part 61 must present it and their photo identification for inspection upon a request from the administrator, an authorized NTSB representative, any federal, state, or local law enforcement officer, or an authorized representative of the TSA.

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7
Q

What is the definition of a high-performance airplane, and what must you do to act as pilot-in-command of such an airplane? (14 CFR 61.31)

A

A high-performance is an airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower.
To act as PIC of a high-performance you must have:
a. Received and logged ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in a high-performance airplane, or in a flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a high-performance airplane, and have been found proficient in the operation and systems of that airplane.
b. Received and logged a one-time endorsement in your logbook from an authorized instructor who certifies you are proficient to operate a high-performance airplane.
Note: The training and endorsement required by this regulation is not required if the person has logged flight time as PIC of a high-performance airplane, or in a flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a high-performance airplane prior to August 4, 1997.

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8
Q

Other than high-performance and complex aircraft, what other types of aircraft (ASEL) require specific training and logbook endorsements from an appropriately rated flight instructor? (14 CFR 61.31)

A

High-altitude airplane—No person may act as pilot-in-command of a pressurized airplane that has a service ceiling or maximum operating altitude (whichever is lower), above 25,000 feet MSL unless that person has completed the ground and flight training specified and has received a logbook or training record endorsement from an authorized instructor certifying satisfactory completion of the training. Tailwheel airplane—No person may act as pilot-in-command of a tailwheel airplane unless that person has received and logged flight training from an authorized instructor in a tailwheel airplane and received an endorsement in the person’s logbook from an authorized instructor who found the person proficient in the operation of a tailwheel airplane. The training and endorsement is not required if the person logged pilot-in-command time in a tailwheel airplane before April 15, 1991.

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9
Q

What is the definition of a complex airplane, and what must you do to act as pilot-of-command of such an airplane? (14 CFR 61.1, 61.31)

A

A “complex airplane” is defined as an airplane that has a retractable landing gear, flaps, and a controllable pitch propeller; including airplanes equipped with a full-authority digital engine control (FADEC). To act as pilot-in-command of such an airplane, you must have: a. Received and logged ground and flight training from an authorized instructor in a complex airplane, or in a flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a complex airplane and have been found proficient in the operation and systems of the airplane. b. Received a one-time endorsement in your logbook from an authorized instructor who certifies you are proficient to operate a complex airplane. Note: The training and endorsement required by this regulation is not required if the person has logged flight time as PIC of a complex airplane, or in a flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a complex airplane prior to August 4, 1997

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10
Q

With respect to certification, privileges, and limitations of airmen, define the terms: category, class, and type. (14 CFR Part 1)

A

Category—a broad classification of aircraft; i.e., airplane, rotorcraft, glider, etc.
Class—a classification of aircraft within a category having similar operating characteristics; i.e., single-engine land, multi-engine land; etc.
Type—a specific make and basic model of aircraft including modifications that do not change its handling or flight characteristics; i.e., DC-9, B-737, C-150, etc.

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11
Q

What are the requirements to remain current as a private pilot? (14 CFR 61.56, 61.57)

A

a. Within the preceding 24 months, accomplished a flight review given in an aircraft for which that pilot is rated by an authorized instructor and received a logbook endorsement certifying that the person has satisfactorily completed the review.
b. To carry passengers, a pilot must have made, within the preceding 90 days: • three takeoffs and landings as the sole manipulator of flight controls of an aircraft of the same category and class and, if a type rating is required, of the same type. • if the aircraft is a tailwheel airplane, the landings must have been made to a full stop in an airplane with a tailwheel. • if operations are to be conducted during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and 1 hour before sunrise, with passengers on board, the PIC must have, within the preceding 90 days, made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop during that period in an aircraft of the same category, class, and type (if a type is required), of aircraft to be used.
Note: Takeoffs and landings required by this regulation may be accomplished in a flight simulator or flight training device that is approved by the Administrator and used in accordance with an approved course conducted by a certificated training center.

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12
Q

You have not kept up with logging each of your recent flights. Are you in violation of any regulation? (14 CFR 61.51)

A

No. You’re only required to document and record the training and aeronautical experience used to meet the requirements for a certificate, rating, or flight review, and the aeronautical experience required for meeting the recent flight experience requirements.

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13
Q

You’re flying in a single-engine, high performance, complex airplane. You hold a Private Pilot certificate with an airplane single-engine land rating, but don’t have a high-performance or complex airplane endorsement. Your friend, who has those endorsements, is acting as PIC for the flight. Can you log PIC time for the time you act as sole manipulator of the controls? Explain.

A

Yes, 14 CFR §61.51 governs the logging of pilot-in-command (PIC) time and states that a sport, recreational, private, commercial, or airline transport pilot may log PIC time for the time during which that pilot is “sole manipulator of the controls of an aircraft for which the pilot is rated or has privileges.” Note: This means you can log PIC time, but you cannot act as PIC. For a pilot to act as PIC, he or she must be properly rated in the aircraft and authorized to conduct the flight which would include having the required endorsements for complex and high performance airplanes as required by 14 CFR §61.31.

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14
Q

Explain the difference between being “current” and being “proficient.” (FAA-H-8083-2, FAA-P-8740-36

A

Being “current” means that a pilot has accomplished the minimum FAA regulatory requirements within a specific time period so he or she can exercise the privileges of their certificate. It means that you’re “legal” to make a flight, but does not necessarily mean that you’re proficient or competent to make that flight. Being “proficient” means that a pilot is capable of conducting a flight with a high degree of competence; it requires that the pilot must have a wide range of knowledge and skills. Being proficient is not about just being “legal” in terms of the regulations, but is about being “smart” and “safe” in terms of pilot experience and proficiency.

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15
Q

How will establishing a personal minimums checklist reduce risk? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

Professional pilots live by the numbers, and so should you. Pre-established numbers can make it a lot easier to come to a smart go/no-go or diversion decision, than would the vague sense that you can “probably” deal with the conditions you face at any given time. A written set of personal minimums also make it easier to explain tough cancelation or diversion decisions to passengers who are, after all, trusting their lives to your aeronautical skill and judgment.

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16
Q

The airplane you normally rent has been grounded due to an intermittent electrical problem. You ask to be scheduled in another airplane. During preflight of the new airplane, you discover that it has avionics you’re unfamiliar with. Should you go ahead and depart on your VFR flight? (FAA-H-8083-2)

A

Pilot familiarity with all equipment is critical in optimizing both safety and efficiency. If a pilot is unfamiliar with any aircraft system, this will add to workload and can contribute to a loss of situational awareness. This level of proficiency is critical and should be looked upon as a requirement, not unlike carrying an adequate supply of fuel. As a result, pilots should not look upon unfamiliarity with the aircraft and its systems as a risk control measure, but instead as a hazard with high risk potential. Discipline is the key to success.

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17
Q

What flight time can a pilot log as second-in-command time? (14 CFR 61.51)

A

A person may log second-in-command (SIC) time only for that flight time during which that person: a. Is qualified in accordance with the SIC requirements of 14 CFR §61.55, and occupies a crewmember station in an aircraft that requires more than one pilot by the aircraft’s type certificate; or b. Holds the appropriate category, class, and instrument rating (if an instrument rating is required for the flight) for the aircraft being flown, and more than one pilot is required under the type certification of the aircraft or the regulations under which the flight is being conducted.

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18
Q

To exercise the privileges of a private pilot certificate, what medical certificate is required, and how long is it valid? (14 CFR 61.23 and Part 68

A

You must hold at least a third-class medical certificate. The medical certificate expires at the end of the last day of: a. The 60th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the certificate, if on the date of your most recent medical examination you were under the age of 40. b. The 24th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the certificate, if on the date of your most recent medical examination you were over the age of 40. Note: Third class medical reform went into effect in 2017, eliminating the need for a 3rd class medical certificate for many. Check faa.gov for updates on this Part 68 “BasicMed”

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19
Q

Spring has finally arrived and the weather looks great so you decide to rent an airplane and go fly. The problem is, your allergies are giving you a problem and you have just taken your medication. Can you still go fly? Explain. (14 CFR 61.53, 91.17, FAA-H-8083-25)

A

The safest rule is not to fly while taking any medication, unless approved to do so by the FAA. Some of the most commonly used over-the-counter (OTC) drugs, antihistamines and decongestants, have the potential to cause noticeable adverse side effects, including drowsiness and cognitive deficits. 14 CFR prohibits pilots from performing crewmember duties while using any medication that affects the body in any way contrary to safety. If there is any doubt regarding the effects of any medication, consult an Aviation Medical Examiner (AME) before flying. Note: Information on the FAA’s “Do Not Issue/ Do Not Fly” medications can be found at: faa.gov/about/office_org/headquarters_offices/avs/offices/aam/ame/guide/pharm/

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20
Q

Where can you find a list of the medical conditions that may disqualify you from obtaining a medical certificate? (14 CFR Part 67, FAA-H-8083-25

A

The standards for medical certification are contained in Part 67 and the requirements for obtaining medical certificates can be found in Part 61.

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21
Q

What requirements must be met to fly under BasicMed? (AC 68-1)

A

a. Hold a current and valid U.S. driver’s license. b. Hold or have held a medical certificate issued by the FAA at any point after July 14, 2006. c. Answer the health questions on the Comprehensive Medical Examination Checklist (CMEC).
d. Get your physical examination by any State-licensed physician, and have that physician complete the CMEC (be sure to keep your copy of the CMEC). e. Take a BasicMed online medical education course. Keep the course completion document issued to you by the course provider

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22
Q

What privileges and limitations apply when flying under BasicMed? (14 CFR 61.113, AC 68-1)

A

You can conduct any operation that you would otherwise be able to conduct using your pilot certificate and a third-class medical certificate, except you are limited to: a. Fly with no more than five passengers. b. Fly an aircraft that has a maximum takeoff weight of not more than 6,000 pounds. c. Fly an aircraft that is authorized to carry no more than six occupants (i.e. five passengers plus the pilot). d. Flights within the United States, at an indicated airspeed of 250 knots or less, and at an altitude at or below 18,000 feet MSL. e. You may not fly for compensation or hire

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23
Q

What is required to maintain BasicMed privileges? (AC 68-1)

A

Be sure you have a CMEC that shows that your most recent physical examination was within the past 48 months. Keep the completed, signed CMEC in a safe place. b. Be sure you are being treated by a physician for medical conditions that may affect safety of flight. c. Be sure you have a course completion certificate that was issued by a BasicMed medical training course provider within the past 24 calendar months.

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24
Q

What documents are required on board an aircraft prior to flight? (14 CFR 91.203, 91.9

A

Airworthiness Certificate (14 CFR §91.203) Registration Certificate (14 CFR §91.203) Radio Station License (if operating outside of U.S.; an FCC regulation) Operating Limitations—AFM/POH and supplements, placards, markings (14 CFR §91.9) Weight and balance data (current) Compass Deviation Card (14 CFR §23.1547) External Data Plate/Serial Number (14 CFR §45.11) Exam Tip: During the practical test your evaluator may wish to examine the various required aircraft documents (ARROW) during the preflight inspection, as well as the currency of any aeronautical charts, EFB data, etc. on board the aircraft. Prior to the test, verify that all of the necessary aircraft documentation, on-board databases and charts are current and available.

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25
Q

What is an airworthiness certificate? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

An airworthiness certificate is issued by the FAA to an aircraft that has been proven to meet the minimum design and manufacturing requirements and is condition for safe operation. Under any circumstances, the aircraft must meet the requirements of the original type certificate or it is no longer airworthy. These certificates come in two different classifications: standard airworthiness and special airworthiness.

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26
Q

What is the difference between standard and special airworthiness certificates? (FAA-H-8083-25

A

Standard airworthiness certificates (white paper) are issued for normal, utility, acrobatic, commuter, or transport category aircraft. Special airworthiness certificates (pink paper) are issued for primary, restricted, or limited category aircraft, and light sport aircraft.

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27
Q

What is an experimental airworthiness certificate?

A

A special airworthiness certificate in the experimental category is issued to operate an aircraft that does not have a type certificate or does not conform to its type certificate yet is in a condition for safe operation. Additionally, this certificate is issued to operate a primary category kit-built aircraft that was assembled without the supervision and quality control of the production certificate holder.

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28
Q

Does an airworthiness certificate have an expiration date? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

No. A standard airworthiness certificate remains valid for as long as the aircraft meets its approved type design, is in a condition for safe operation, and the maintenance, preventative maintenance, and alterations are performed in accordance with Parts 21, 43, and 91.

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29
Q

Where must the airworthiness certificate be located? (14 CFR 91.203, FAA-H-8083-19)

A

The certificate must be displayed at the cabin or cockpit entrance so that it is legible to passengers or crew.

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30
Q

For an aircraft to be considered airworthy, what two conditions must be met? (FAA-H-8083-19)

A

a. The aircraft must conform to its type design (type certificate). This is attained when the required and proper components are installed consistent with the drawings, specifications, and other data that are part of the type certificate. Conformity includes applicable supplemental type certificate(s) (STC) and field-approval alterations. b. The aircraft must be in a condition for safe operation, referring to the condition of the aircraft in relation to wear and deterioration.

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31
Q

Explain how a pilot determines if an aircraft conforms to its approved type design and is in a condition for safe operation. (14 CFR Part 21)

A

a. For type design, a pilot must determine that the maintenance, preventive maintenance, and alterations have been performed in accordance Parts 21, 43, and 91 and that the aircraft is registered in the U.S. The pilot does this by ensuring that all required inspections, maintenance, preventive maintenance, repairs and alterations have been appropriately documented in the aircraft’s maintenance records. b. For safe operation, the pilot conducts a thorough preflight inspection of the aircraft for wear and deterioration, structural damage, fluid leaks, tire wear, inoperative instruments and equipment, etc. If an unsafe condition exists or inoperative instruments or equipment are found, the pilot uses the guidance in 14 CFR §91.213 for handling the inoperative equipment

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32
Q

What records or documents should be checked to determine that the owner or operator of an aircraft has complied with all required inspections and airworthiness directives? (14 CFR 91.405)

A

The maintenance records (aircraft and engine logbooks). Each owner or operator of an aircraft shall ensure that maintenance personnel make appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service.

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33
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition? (14 CFR 91.403)

A

The owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in an airworthy condition

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34
Q

Describe some of the responsibilities an aircraft owner has pertaining to aircraft documents, maintenance, and inspections of their aircraft. (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

Aircraft owners must: a. Have a current airworthiness certificate and aircraft registration in the aircraft. b. Maintain the aircraft in an airworthy condition including compliance with all applicable Airworthiness Directives. c. Ensure maintenance is properly recorded. d. Keep abreast of current regulations concerning the operation of that aircraft. e. Notify the FAA Civil Aviation Registry immediately of any change of permanent mailing address, or of the sale or export of the aircraft, or of the loss of citizenship. f. Have a current FCC radio station license if equipped with radios, including emergency locator transmitter (ELT), if operated outside of the United States

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35
Q

What are airworthiness directives (AD)? (FAA-H-8083-25

A

An AD is the medium by which the FAA notifies aircraft owners and other potentially interested persons of unsafe conditions that may exist because of design defects, maintenance, or other causes, and specifies the conditions under which the product may continue to be operated. ADs are regulatory in nature, and compliance is mandatory. It is the aircraft owner’s or operator’s responsibility to ensure compliance with all pertinent ADs.

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36
Q

What are the two types of ADs? (FAA-H-8083-19)

A

ADs are divided into two categories: Those of an emergency nature requiring immediate compliance prior to further flight, and those of a less urgent nature requiring compliance within a specified period of time.

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37
Q

When are emergency ADs issued? (FAA-H-8083-19)

A

An emergency AD is issued when an unsafe condition exists that requires immediate action by an owner/operator. The intent of an emergency AD is to rapidly correct an urgent safety-of-flight situation. All known owners and operators of affected U.S.-registered aircraft or those aircraft that have an affected product installed will be sent a copy of an emergency AD. Exam Tip: ADs and recurring ADs—Be capable of finding and explaining the status of all ADs and recurring ADs that exist for your aircraft. Locate and tab prior to the practical test

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38
Q

While reviewing the aircraft logbooks, you discover that your aircraft is not in compliance with an AD’s specified time or date. Are you allowed to continue to operate that aircraft until the next required maintenance inspection? Do the regulations allow any kind of buffer? (AC 39-7)

A

The assumption that AD compliance is only required at the time of a required inspection (e.g., at a 100-hour or annual inspection) is not correct. The required compliance time/date is specified in each AD and no person may operate the affected product after expiration of that stated compliance time without an Alternative Method of Compliance (AMOC) approval for a change in compliance time.

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39
Q

You determine that you need to fly your aircraft with an expired AD to another airport where a repair facility can do the work required by the AD. How can you accomplish this? (AC 39-7, 14 CFR 21.199 )

A

You determine that you need to fly your aircraft with an expired AD to another airport where a repair facility can do the work required by the AD. How can you accomplish this? (AC 39-7, 14 CFR 21.199 )

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40
Q

What is a type certificate data sheet? (FAA-H-8083-30)

A

The FAA issues a type certificate when a new aircraft, engine, propeller, etc., is found to meet safety standards set forth by the FAA. The type certificate data sheet (TCDS) lists the specifications, conditions and limitations under which airworthiness requirements were met for the specified product, such as engine make and model, fuel type, engine limits, airspeed limits, maximum weight, minimum crew, etc.

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41
Q

What is a supplemental type certificate? (FAA-H-8083-3, FAA-H-8083-30, AC 21-40)

A

A supplemental type certificate (STC) is the FAA’s approval of a major change in the type design of a previously approved type certificated product. The certificate authorizes an alteration to an airframe, engine, or component that has been granted an approved type certificate. Sometimes alterations are made that are not specified or authorized in the TCDS. When that condition exists, an STC will be issued. STCs are considered a part of the permanent records of an aircraft, and should be maintained as part of that aircraft’s logs.

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42
Q

What is an aircraft registration certificate? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

Before an aircraft can be flown legally, it must be registered with the FAA Aircraft Registry. The Certificate of Aircraft Registration, which is issued to the owner as evidence of the registration, must be carried in the aircraft at all times.

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43
Q

Does an aircraft’s registration certificate have an expiration date? (14 CFR 47.31, 47.40)

A

Yes. A Certificate of Aircraft Registration issued in accordance with 14 CFR §47.31 expires three years after the last day of the month in which it was issued. A temporary certification of registration is valid for no more than 90 days after the date the applicant signs the application

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44
Q

Where can you find information on the placards and marking information required to be in the airplane? (FAA-H-8083-25, AC 60-6, 14 CFR 91.9, 14 CFR 23.1541)

A

The principle source of information for identifying the required airplane flight manuals (AFM), approved manual materials, markings, and placards is the FAA type certificate data sheet or aircraft specification issued for each airplane eligible for an airworthiness certificate. The required placards are also reproduced in the “Limitations” section of the AFM or as directed by an AD.

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45
Q

What are several examples of placards and markings required in the airplane? (14 CFR 23.1545 through 23.1567)

A

Placards—Day-Night-VFR-IFR placard, “Flight Maneuvers Permitted” placard, “Caution Control Lock Remove before Starting,” “Maneuvering Speed,” “Compass Calibration Card,” etc. Markings—Airspeed indicator markings, cockpit control markings, fuel, oil, and coolant filler openings, etc.

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46
Q

What are the required tests and inspections to be performed on an aircraft? Include inspections for IFR. (14 CFR 91.409, 91.171, 91.411, 91.413, 91.207)

A

Annual inspection within the preceding 12 calendar months (14 CFR §91.409) Airworthiness directives and life-limited parts complied with, as required (14 CFR §91.403, §91.417) VOR equipment check every 30 days (for IFR ops) (14 CFR §91.171) 100-hour inspection, if used for hire or flight instruction in aircraft CFI provides (14 CFR §91.409) Altimeter, altitude reporting equipment, and static pressure systems tested and inspected (for IFR ops) every 24 calendar months (14 CFR §91.411) Transponder tests and inspections, every 24 calendar months (14 CFR §91.413) Emergency locator transmitter, operation and battery condition inspected every 12 calendar months (14 CFR §91.207) Exam Tip: Be prepared to locate all of the required inspections, ADs, life-limited parts, etc. in the aircraft and engine logbooks and be able to determine when the next inspections are due. Create an aircraft status sheet that indicates the status of all required inspections, ADs, life limited, parts, etc. and/or use post-it notes to tab the specific pages in the aircraft and engine logbooks. Write the due date of the next inspection on the post-it note.

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47
Q

What is an “annual” inspection and which aircraft are required to have annual inspections? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

An annual inspection is a complete inspection of an aircraft and engine, required by the regulations and is required to be accomplished every 12 calendar months on all certificated aircraft. Only an A&P technician holding an Inspection Authorization can conduct an annual inspection.

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48
Q

What aircraft are required to have 100-hour inspections? (FAA-H-8083-25, 14 CFR 91.409)

A

a. All aircraft under 12,500 pounds (except turbojet/turbopropeller-powered multi-engine airplanes and turbine powered rotorcraft), used to carry passengers for hire. b. Aircraft used for flight instruction for hire, when provided by the person giving the flight instruction.

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49
Q

If an aircraft is operated for hire, is it required to have a 100-hour inspection as well as an annual inspection? (14 CFR 91.409)

A

Yes, if an aircraft is operated for hire it must have a 100-hour inspection as well as an annual inspection when due. If not operated for hire, only an annual inspection is required.

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50
Q

What is the difference between an annual inspection and a 100-hour inspection? (14 CFR Part 43)

A

The main difference is who is allowed to perform these inspections. Only an A&P mechanic with an Inspection Authorization can perform an annual inspection. 100-hour inspections may be performed by any A&P mechanic (no IA required). Part 43, Appendix D (“Scope and Detail of Items to be Included in Annual and 100-Hour Inspections”) contains a list of items to be checked during inspections.

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51
Q

If an aircraft has been on a schedule of inspection every 100 hours, under what condition may it continue to operate beyond the 100 hours without a new inspection? (14 CFR 91.409)

A

The 100-hour limitation may be exceeded by not more than 10 hours while en route to a place where the inspection can be done. The excess time used to reach a place where the inspection can be done must be included in computing the next 100 hours of time in service.

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52
Q

If the annual inspection date has passed, can an aircraft be operated to a location where the inspection can be performed? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

An aircraft overdue for an annual inspection may be operated under a Special Flight Permit issued by the FAA for the purpose of flying the aircraft to a location where the annual inspection can be performed. However, all applicable ADs that are due must be complied with before the flight.

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53
Q

What are “Special Flight Permits,” and when are they necessary? (14 CFR 91.213, 14 CFR 21.197)

A

A Special Flight Permit may be issued for an aircraft that may not currently meet applicable airworthiness requirements but is capable of safe flight. These permits are typically issued for the following purposes: a. Flying an aircraft to a base where repairs, alterations or maintenance are to be performed, or to a point of storage. b. Delivering or exporting an aircraft. c. Production flight testing new-production aircraft. d. Evacuating aircraft from areas of impending danger. e. Conducting customer demonstration flights in new-production aircraft that have satisfactorily completed production flight tests.

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54
Q

How are “Special Flight Permits” obtained? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

If a special flight permit is needed, assistance and the necessary forms may be obtained from the local FSDO or Designated Airworthiness Representative (DAR).

55
Q

After aircraft inspections have been made and defects have been repaired, who is responsible for determining that the aircraft is in an airworthy condition? (14 CFR 91.7)

A

The pilot-in-command of a civil aircraft is responsible for determining whether that aircraft is in a condition for safe flight. The pilot-in-command shall discontinue the flight when un-airworthy, mechanical, electrical, or structural conditions occur.

56
Q

What regulations apply concerning the operation of an aircraft that has had alterations or repairs which may have substantially affected its operation in flight? (14 CFR 91.407)

A

No person may operate or carry passengers in any aircraft that has undergone maintenance, preventative maintenance, rebuilding, or alteration that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics or substantially affected its operation in flight until an appropriately-rated pilot with at least a private pilot certificate a. Flies the aircraft; b. Makes an operational check of the maintenance performed or alteration made; and c. Logs the flight in the aircraft records.

57
Q

Can a pilot legally conduct flight operations with known inoperative equipment onboard? (14 CFR 91.213)

A

Yes, under specific conditions. Part 91 describes acceptable methods for the operation of an aircraft with certain inoperative instruments and equipment that are not essential for safe flight—they are: a. Operation of an aircraft with a Minimum Equipment List (MEL), as authorized by 14 CFR §91.213(a); or b. Operation of an aircraft without a MEL under 14 CFR §91.213(d) Exam Tip: Know this regulation well—unfamiliarity with 14 CFR §91.213 is a common weakness of applicants at all levels. You must demonstrate that you know this regulation and how to apply it

58
Q

What limitations apply to aircraft operations conducted using the deferral provision of 14 CFR §91.213(d)? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

When inoperative equipment is found during preflight or prior to departure, the decision should be to cancel the flight, obtain maintenance prior to flight, or to defer the item or equipment. Maintenance deferrals are not used for inflight discrepancies. The manufacturer’s AFM/POH procedures are to be used in those situations

59
Q

During the preflight inspection in an aircraft that doesn’t have a MEL, you notice that an instrument or equipment item is inoperative. Describe how you will determine if the aircraft is still airworthy for flight. (14 CFR 91.213(d), FAA-H-8083-25)

A

I will ask myself the following questions to determine if I can legally fly the airplane with the inoperative equipment item: a. Are the inoperative instruments or equipment part of the VFR-day type certification? b. Are the inoperative instruments or equipment listed as “Required” on the aircraft’s equipment list or “Kinds of Operations Equipment List (KOEL)” for the type of flight operation being conducted? c. Are the inoperative instruments or equipment required by 14 CFR §91.205, §91.207 or any other rule of Part 91 for the specific kind of flight operation being conducted? (For example, VFR, IFR, day, night.) d. Are the inoperative instruments or equipment required to be operational by an AD? If the answer is “Yes” to any of these questions, the aircraft is not airworthy and maintenance is required before I can fly. If the answer is “No” to any of these questions, then the inoperative instruments or equipment must be removed (by an A&P) from the aircraft, or deactivated and placarded “Inoperative.” Note: See Appendix 3 for further explanation of this regulation. Exam Tip: If an instrument or equipment item is inoperative in your aircraft, be able to explain how you will determine if the aircraft is airworthy and legal for flight.

60
Q

What are Minimum Equipment Lists? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is a precise listing of instruments, equipment and procedures that allows an aircraft to be operated under specific conditions with inoperative equipment. The MEL is the specific inoperative equipment document for a particular make and model aircraft by serial and registration numbers; e.g., BE-200, N12345. The FAA-approved MEL includes only those items of equipment that the FAA deems may be inoperative and still maintain an acceptable level of safety with appropriate conditions and limitations. Note: Do not confuse an MEL with the aircraft’s equipment list. They are not the same.

61
Q

For an aircraft with an approved MEL, explain the decision sequence a pilot would use after discovering the position lights are inoperative. (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

With an approved MEL, if the position lights were discovered inoperative prior to a daytime flight, the pilot would make an entry in the maintenance record or discrepancy record provided for that purpose. The item is then either repaired or deferred in accordance with the MEL. Upon confirming that daytime flight with inoperative position lights is acceptable in accordance with the provisions of the MEL, the pilot would leave the position lights switch OFF, open the circuit breaker (or whatever action is called for in the procedures document), and placard the position light switch as INOPERATIVE.

62
Q

Explain the limitations that apply to aircraft operations being conducted using an MEL. (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

The use of an MEL for a small, non-turbine-powered airplane operated under Part 91 allows for the deferral of inoperative items or equipment. The FAA considers an approved MEL to be a supplemental type certificate (STC) issued to an aircraft by serial number and registration number. Once an operator requests an MEL, and a Letter of Authorization (LOA) is issued by the FAA, then the MEL becomes mandatory for that aircraft. All maintenance deferrals must be done in accordance with the terms and conditions of the MEL and the operator-generated procedures document

63
Q

What instruments and equipment are required for VFR day flight? (14 CFR 91.205)

A

For VFR flight during the day, the following instruments and equipment are required: Anticollision light system—aviation red or white for small airplanes certificated after March 11, 1996 Tachometer for each engine Oil pressure gauge for each engine Manifold pressure gauge (for each altitude engine, i.e. turbocharged) Altimeter Temperature gauge for each liquid-cooled engine Oil temperature gauge for each air-cooled engine Fuel gauge indicating the quantity in each tank Flotation gear—if operated for hire over water beyond power-off gliding distance from shore Landing gear position indicator, if the airplane has retractable gear Airspeed indicator Magnetic direction indicator Emergency locator transmitter (if required by 14 CFR §91.207) Safety belts (and shoulder harnesses for each front seat in aircraft manufactured after 1978)

64
Q

What instruments and equipment are required for VFR night flight? (14 CFR 91.205)

A

For VFR flight at night, all the instruments and equipment for VFR day flight are required, plus the following: Fuses—one spare set or three fuses of each kind required accessible to the pilot in flight Landing light—if the aircraft is operated for hire Anticollision light system—approved aviation red or white Position lights—(navigation lights) Source of electrical energy—adequate for all installed electrical and radio equipment

65
Q

Who can perform maintenance on an aircraft? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

FAA-certificated A&P mechanic, an A&P mechanic with Inspector Authorization, an appropriately-rated FAA-certificated repair station, or the aircraft manufacturer

66
Q

Define preventive maintenance. (FAA-H-8083-25, 14 CFR Part 43, AC 43-12)

A

Preventive maintenance means simple or minor preservation operations and the replacement of small standard parts not involving complex assembly operations. Certificated pilots, excluding student pilots, sport pilots, and recreational pilots, may perform preventive maintenance on any aircraft that is owned or operated by them provided that aircraft is not used in air carrier service. Part 43 Appendix A identifies typical preventive maintenance operations which include such basic items as oil changes, wheel bearing lubrication, hydraulic fluid (brakes, landing gear system) refills. Exam Tip: Know where to look in the regulations for items approved for preventive maintenance: Part 43, Appendix A, Paragraph C—Preventive Maintenance.

67
Q

. What logbook entry information is required of the person performing preventive maintenance? (FAA-H-8083-25, 14 CFR 43.3)

A

All pilots who maintain or perform preventive maintenance must make an entry in the maintenance record of the aircraft. The entry must include a description of the work, the date of completion of the work performed, and an entry of the pilot’s name, signature, certificate number, and type of certificate held.

68
Q

While inspecting the engine logbook of the rental aircraft you are planning to fly, you notice that the engine has exceeded its time between overhaul (TBO). Is it legal to fly this aircraft? (AC 20-105)

A

Yes. TBO is computed by the engine manufacturer and is a reliable estimate of the number of hours the engine could perform reliably within the established engine parameters and still not exceed the service wear limits for overhaul for major component parts such as the crankshaft, cam shaft, cylinders, connecting rods, and pistons. TBO times are make and model specific and the recommended overhaul times are usually identified in the engine manufacturer’s Service Bulletin or Letter. For Part 91 operations, compliance to the TBO is not a mandatory maintenance requirement.

69
Q

What are several good reasons for aircraft owners to comply with TBO times recommended by the manufacturer? (AC 20-105)

A

a. An overhaul at TBO will ensure safety and reliability. b. An engine overhaul at TBO is usually less expensive than an engine that has been run an additional 200 or 300 hours. c. Running the engine past TBO usually accelerates the overall wear of the engine due to bigger bearing tolerances, loss of protective materials such as plating or nitrating on the cylinder walls, and vibration caused by engine reciprocating parts that have worn unevenly and are now out of balance. Study Tip: Chapter 12 of the FAA-H-8083-30 provides an excellent overview as well as an in-depth explanation of the maintenance regulations, publications, forms, and records required to design, build, and maintain aircraft. Consider it as an additional reference when studying the ACS Airworthiness task prior to your checkride.

70
Q

State the general characteristics in regard to the flow of air around high and low pressure systems in the Northern Hemisphere. (AC 00-6)

A

Low pressure—inward, upward, and counterclockwise. High pressure—outward, downward, and clockwise.

71
Q

If your route of flight takes you towards a low-pressure system, in general, what kind of weather can you expect? What if you were flying towards a high-pressure system? (AC 00-6)

A

A low-pressure system is characterized by rising air, which is conducive to cloudiness, precipitation and bad weather. A high-pressure system is an area of descending air which tends to favor dissipation of cloudiness and good weather.

72
Q

Describe the different types of fronts. (AC 00-6

A

Cold front—occurs when a mass of cold, dense, and stable air advances and replaces a body of warmer air. Occluded front—A frontal occlusion occurs when a fast-moving cold front catches up with a slow-moving warm front. Two types: cold front occlusion and warm front occlusion. Warm front—The boundary area formed when a warm air mass contacts and flows over a colder air mass. Stationery front—When the forces of two air masses are relatively equal, the boundary or front that separates them remains stationary and influences the local weather for days. The weather is typically a mixture of both warm and cold fronts

73
Q

What are the general characteristics of the weather a pilot would encounter when operating near a cold front? A warm front? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

Cold front—As the front passes, expected weather can include towering cumulus or cumulonimbus, heavy rain accompanied by lightning, thunder and/or hail; tornadoes possible; during passage, poor visibility, winds variable and gusting; temperature/dew point and barometric pressure drop rapidly. Warm front—As the front passes, expected weather can include stratiform clouds, drizzle, low ceilings and poor visibility; variable winds; rise in temperature. Note: The weather associated with a front depends on the amount of moisture available, the degree of stability of the air that is forced upward, the slope of the front, the speed of frontal movement, and the upper wind flow.

74
Q

What is a trough? (AC 00-6)

A

A trough (also called a trough line) is an elongated area of relatively low atmospheric pressure. At the surface when air converges into a low, it cannot go outward against the pressure gradient, nor can it go downward into the ground; it must go upward. Therefore, a low or trough is an area of rising air. Rising air is conducive to cloudiness and precipitation; hence the general association of low pressure and bad weather.

75
Q

What is a ridge? (AC 00-6)

A

A ridge (also called a ridge line) is an elongated area of relatively high atmospheric pressure. Air moving out of a high or ridge depletes the quantity of air; therefore, these are areas of descending air. Descending air favors dissipation of cloudiness; hence the association of high pressure and good weather.

76
Q

What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level? (AC 00-6)

A

59°F or 15°C and 29.92” Hg or 1013.2 millibars

77
Q

What are isobars? (AC 00-6)

A

An isobar is a line on a weather chart which connects areas of equal or constant barometric pressure.

78
Q

If the isobars are relatively close together on a surface weather chart or a constant pressure chart, what information will this provide? (AC 00-6)

A

The spacing of isobars on these charts defines how steep or shallow a pressure gradient is. When isobars are spaced very close together, a steep pressure gradient exists which indicates higher wind speeds. A shallow pressure gradient (isobars not close together) usually means wind speeds will be less.

79
Q

What is the name of the force that deflects winds to the right in the northern hemisphere and left in the southern hemisphere? (AC 00-6)

A

The Coriolis force. It is at a right angle to wind direction and is directly proportional to wind speed.

80
Q

Why do surface winds generally flow across the isobars at an angle? (AC 00-6)

A

Surface friction.

81
Q

At what rate does atmospheric pressure decrease with an increase in altitude? (AC 00-6)

A

1” Hg per 1,000 feet.

82
Q

What does dew point mean? (AC 00-6)

A

Dew point is the temperature to which a sample of air must be cooled to attain the state of saturation.

83
Q

When temperature and dew point are close together (within 5°), what type of weather is likely? (AC 00-6)

A

Visible moisture in the form of clouds, dew, or fog. Also, these are ideal conditions for carburetor icing

84
Q

What factor primarily determines the type and vertical extent of clouds? (AC 00-6)

A

The stability of the atmosphere.

85
Q

Explain the difference between a stable atmosphere and an unstable atmosphere. Why is the stability of the atmosphere important? (FAA-H-8083-25, AC 00-6)

A

The stability of the atmosphere depends on its ability to resist vertical motion. A stable atmosphere makes vertical movement difficult, and small vertical disturbances dampen out and disappear. In an unstable atmosphere, small vertical air movements tend to become larger, resulting in turbulent airflow and convective activity. Instability can lead to significant turbulence, extensive vertical clouds, and severe weather.

86
Q

List the effects of stable and unstable air on clouds, turbulence, precipitation and visibility. (AC 00-6)

A
87
Q

When significant precipitation is occurring at the surface, how thick can you expect the clouds to be? (AC 00-6)

A

Significant precipitation usually requires clouds to be at least 4,000 feet thick. The heavier the precipitation, the thicker the clouds are likely to be.

88
Q

During your preflight planning, what type of meteorological information should you be aware of with respect to icing? (AC 00-6)

A

a. Location of fronts—A front’s location, type, speed, and direction of movement. b. Cloud layers—The location of cloud bases and tops, which is valuable when determining if you will be able to climb above icing layers or descend beneath those layers into warmer air; reference PIREPs and area forecasts. c. Freezing level(s)—Important when determining how to avoid icing and how to exit icing conditions if accidentally encountered. d. Air temperature and pressure—Icing tends to be found in low-pressure areas and at temperatures at or around freezing.

89
Q

What is the definition of the term freezing level and how can you determine where that level is? (AC 00-45)

A

The freezing level is the lowest altitude in the atmosphere over a given location at which the air temperature reaches 0°C. It is possible to have multiple freezing layers when a temperature inversion occurs above the defined freezing level. A pilot can use current icing products (CIP) and forecast icing products (FIP), as well as the freezing level graphics chart to determine the approximate freezing level. Other potential sources of icing information are: GFAs, PIREPs, AIRMETs, SIGMETs, surface analysis charts, low-level significant weather charts, and winds and temperatures aloft (for air temperature at altitude).

90
Q

What conditions are necessary for structural icing to occur? (AC 00-6)

A

Visible moisture and below freezing temperatures at the point moisture strikes the aircraft.

91
Q

What are the two main categories of aircraft icing? (AC 00-6)

A

Aircraft icing in flight is usually classified as being either structural icing or induction icing. Structural icing refers to ice that forms on aircraft surfaces and components, and induction icing refers to ice that forms in the engine’s induction system.

92
Q

Name the three types of structural icing that may occur in flight. (AC 00-6)

A

Clear ice—forms after initial impact when the remaining liquid portion of the drop flows out over the aircraft surface, gradually freezing as a smooth sheet of solid ice. Rime ice—forms when drops are small, such as those in stratified clouds or light drizzle. The liquid portion remaining after initial impact freezes rapidly before the drop has time to spread out over aircraft surface. Mixed ice—forms when drops vary in size or when liquid drops are intermingled with snow or ice particles. The ice particles become imbedded in clear ice, building a very rough accumulation.

93
Q

What action is recommended if you inadvertently encounter icing conditions? (FAA-H-8083-15)

A

The first course of action should be to leave the area of visible moisture. This might mean descending to an altitude below the cloud bases, climbing to an altitude above the cloud tops, or turning to a different course.

94
Q

Is frost considered to be hazardous to flight? Why? (AC 00-6)

A

Yes, because while frost does not change the basic aerodynamic shape of the wing, the roughness of its surface spoils the smooth flow of air, thus causing a slowing of airflow. This slowing of the air causes early airflow separation, resulting in a loss of lift. Even a small amount of frost on airfoils may prevent an aircraft from becoming airborne at normal takeoff speed. It is also possible that, once airborne, an aircraft could have insufficient margin of airspeed above stall so that moderate gusts or turning flight could produce incipient or complete stalling.

95
Q

What factors must be present for a thunderstorm to form? (AC 00-6)

A

a. Sufficient water vapor. b. An unstable lapse rate. c. An initial upward boost (lifting) to start the storm process in motion.

96
Q

What are the three stages of a thunderstorm? (AC 00-6)

A

Cumulus stage—Updrafts cause raindrops to increase in size. Mature stage—Rain at earth’s surface; it falls through or immediately beside the updrafts; lightning; perhaps roll clouds. Dissipating stage—Downdrafts and rain begin to dissipate

97
Q

What is a temperature inversion? (AC 00-6)

A

An inversion is an increase in temperature with height—a reversal of the normal decrease with height. An inversion aloft permits warm rain to fall through cold air below. Temperature in the cold air can be critical to icing. A ground-based inversion favors poor visibility by trapping fog, smoke, and other restrictions into low levels of the atmosphere. The air is stable, with little or no turbulence.

98
Q

How does fog form? (AC 00-6)

A

Fog forms when the temperature and dewpoint of the air become identical (or nearly so). This may occur through cooling of the air to a little beyond its dewpoint (producing radiation fog, advection fog, or upslope fog), or by adding moisture and thereby elevating the dewpoint (producing frontal fog or steam fog).

99
Q

Name several types of fog. (AC 00-6)

A

a. Radiation fog.
b. Advection fog.
c. Upslope fog.
d. Frontal fog or precipitation-induced fog.
e. Steam fog.

100
Q

What causes radiation fog to form? (AC 00-6)

A

The ground cools the adjacent air to the dew point on calm, clear nights.

101
Q

What is advection fog, and where is it most likely to form? (AC 00-6)

A

Advection fog results from the transport of warm humid air over a cold surface. A pilot can expect advection fog to form primarily along coastal areas during the winter. Unlike radiation fog, it may occur with winds, cloudy skies, over a wide geographic area, and at any time of the day or night.

102
Q

What is upslope fog? (AC 00-6)

A

Upslope fog forms as a result of moist, stable air being cooled adiabatically as it moves up sloping terrain. Once the upslope wind ceases, the fog dissipates. Upslope fog is often quite dense and extends to high altitudes.

103
Q

Define the term wind shear, and state the areas in which it is likely to occur. (AC 00-6)

A

Wind shear is defined as the rate of change of wind velocity (direction and/or speed) per unit distance; conventionally expressed as vertical or horizontal wind shear. It may occur at any level in the atmosphere but three areas are of special concern: a. Wind shear with a low-level temperature inversion. b. Wind shear in a frontal zone or thunderstorm. c. Clear air turbulence (CAT) at high levels associated with a jet stream or strong circulation.

104
Q

Why is wind shear an operational concern to pilots? (AC 00-6)

A

Wind shear is an operational concern because unexpected changes in wind speed and direction can be potentially very hazardous to aircraft operations at low altitudes on approach to and departing from airports.

105
Q

What types of weather information will you examine to determine if wind shear conditions might affect your flight? (AC 00-54)

A

a. Terminal forecasts—any mention of low level wind shear (LLWS) or the possibility of severe thunderstorms, heavy rain showers, hail, and wind gusts suggest the potential for LLWS and microbursts. b. METARs—inspect for any indication of thunderstorms, rain showers, or blowing dust. Additional signs such as warming trends, gusty winds, cumulonimbus clouds, etc., should be noted. c. Severe weather watch reports, SIGMETS, and convective SIGMETS—severe convective weather is a prime source for wind shear and microbursts. d. LLWAS (low level windshear alert system) reports—installed at 110 airports in the U.S.; designed to detect wind shifts between outlying stations and a reference centerfield station. e. PIREPs—reports of sudden airspeed changes on departure or approach and landing corridors provide a real-time indication of the presence of wind shear.

106
Q

What is the primary means of obtaining a weather briefing? (FAA-H-8083-25, AIM 7-1-2)

A

A Flight Service Station (FSS) is the primary source of preflight weather information. Weather briefings are available via 1-800-WX-BRIEF and 1800wxbrief.com

107
Q

What are some examples of other sources of weather information? (AIM 7-1-8, 7-1-9, 7-1-11)

A

a. Weather and aeronautical information available from numerous private industry sources. b. Flight Information Services (FIS-B via ADS-B In). c. Aviation Weather Cameras (available throughout Alaska).

108
Q

You’re planning a cross-county flight. Does the weather data provided by commercial and/or third party vendors satisfy the preflight action required by 14 CFR §91.103? (AIM 7-1-3)

A

Pilots and operators should be aware that weather services provided by entities other than FAA, NWS, or their contractors may not meet FAA/NWS quality control standards. All operators and pilots contemplating using such services should request and/or review an appropriate description of services and provider disclosure. Pilots and operators should be cautious when using unfamiliar products, or products not supported by FAA/NWS technical specifications. When in doubt, consult with an FAA Flight Service Specialist.

109
Q

What types of weather briefings are available from an AFSS/FSS briefer? (AIM 7-1-5)

A

Standard briefing—Request when you are planning a flight and you have not received a previous briefing or have not received preliminary information through mass dissemination media. Abbreviated briefing—Request when you need information to supplement mass disseminated data, update a previous briefing, or when you need only one or two items. Outlook briefing—Request whenever your proposed time of departure is six or more hours from the time of the briefing; for planning purposes only. Inflight briefing—Request when needed to update a preflight briefing. Exam Tip: Some pilots prefer to print out their weather briefing and then highlight all pertinent METARs, TAFs, NOTAMs, etc., applicable to the departure, en route, destination, and alternate segments of their planned flight. When the examiner begins asking about the weather for the flight, you will be well prepared to demonstrate your knowledge.

110
Q

What pertinent information should a weather briefing include? (AIM 7-1-5)

A

a. Adverse Conditions. b. VFR Flight Not Recommended. c. Synopsis. d. Current Conditions. e. Enroute Forecast. f. Destination Forecast. g. Winds Aloft. h. Notices to Airmen (NOTAMs). i. ATC Delay. j. Pilots may obtain the following from FSS briefers upon request: information on special use airspace (SUA) and SUA-related airspace, including alert areas, MOAs, MTRs (IFR, VFR, VR, and SR training routes), warning areas, and ATC assigned airspace (ATCAA); a review of the printed NOTAM publication; approximate density altitude data; information on air traffic services and rules; customs/immigration procedures; ADIZ rules; search and rescue; runway friction measurement value NOTAMs; GPS RAIM availability; and other assistance as required.

111
Q

Describe the Flight Information Service – Broadcast (FIS-B). (AIM 7-1-11)

A

FIS-B is a ground-based broadcast service provided through the ADS-B Universal Access Transceiver (UAT) network. The service provides users with a 978 MHz data link capability when operating within range and line-of-sight of a transmitting ground station. FIS-B enables users of properly equipped aircraft to receive and display a suite of broadcast weather and aeronautical information products.

112
Q

Can onboard datalink weather (FIS-B) be useful in navigating an aircraft safely around an area of thunderstorms? (AC 00-24, AIM 7-1-11)

A

Weather data linked from a ground weather surveillance radar system is not real-time information; it displays recent rather than current conditions. This data is typically updated every 5 minutes, but can be as much as 15 minutes old by the time it displays in the cockpit. Therefore, FIS aviation weather products are not appropriate for tactical avoidance of severe weather such as negotiating a path through a weather hazard area.

113
Q

While en route, how can a pilot obtain updated weather information? (FAA-H-8083-25)

A

a. FSS on 122.2 and appropriate RCO (remote communication outlet) frequencies. b. ATIS/ASOS/AWOS broadcasts along your route of flight. c. Listen to ARTCC broadcasts—AWWs, Convective SIGMETs, SIGMETs, AIRMET, Urgent PIREPs, or CWA alerts are broadcast once on all frequencies, except emergency. d. Datalink weather—cockpit display of FIS-B information. e. ATC (workload permitting). Exam Tip: Be prepared to demonstrate how you would obtain inflight weather advisories and updates, and how you would communicate with a FSS while en route.

114
Q

What is a METAR and what are the two types? (AC 00-45)

A

A METAR is an hourly surface observation of conditions observed at an airport. There are two types of METAR reports—a routine METAR report that is transmitted every hour and an aviation selected special weather report (SPECI). This is a special report that can be given at any time to update the METAR for rapidly changing weather conditions, aircraft mishaps, or other critical information

115
Q

Describe the basic elements of a METAR. (AC 00-45)

A

A METAR report contains the following elements in order as presented: a. Type of reports—the METAR, and the SPECI (aviation special weather report). b. ICAO station identifier—4-letter station identifiers; in the conterminous U.S., the 3-letter identifier is prefixed with K. c. Date and time of report—a 6-digit date/time group appended with Z (UTC). First two digits are the date, then two for the hour, and two for minutes. d. Modifier (as required)—if used, the modifier AUTO identifies the report as an automated weather report with no human intervention. If AUTO is shown in the body of the report, AO1 or AO2 will be encoded in the remarks section to indicate the type of precipitation sensor used at the station. e. Wind—5-digit group (6 digits if speed is over 99 knots); first three digits = wind direction, in tens of degrees referenced to true north. Directions less than 100 degrees are preceded with a zero; next two digits are the average speed in knots, measured or estimated (or, if over 99 knots, the next three digits). f. Visibility—surface visibility in statute miles, space, fractions of statute miles (as needed), and the letters SM. g. Runway visual range (RVR), as required. h. Weather phenomena—broken into two categories: qualifiers, and weather phenomena. i. Sky condition—amount/height/type (as required) or indefinite ceiling/height (vertical visibility). Heights are recorded in feet AGL. j. Temperature/dew point group—2-digit format in whole degrees Celsius, separated by a solidus (/). Temperatures below zero are prefixed with M. k. Altimeter—4-digit format representing tens, units, tenths, and hundredths of inches of mercury prefixed with A. The decimal point is not reported or stated. l. Remarks (RMK), as required—operational significant weather phenomena, location of phenomena, beginning and ending times, direction of movement. Example: METAR KLAX 140651Z AUTO 00000KT 1SM R35L/4500V6000FT -RA BR BKN030 10/10 A2990 RMK AO2

116
Q

Describe several types of weather observing programs available. (AIM 7-1-12)

A

a. Manual Observations—with only a few exceptions, these reports are from airport locations staffed by FAA personnel who manually observe, perform calculations, and enter their observations into the communication system. b. AWOS—Automated Weather Observing System; consists of various sensors, a processor, a computer-generated voice subsystem, and a transmitter to broadcast local, minute-by-minute weather data directly to the pilot. Observations will include the prefix AUTO in data. c. AWOS Broadcasts—Computer-generated voice is used to automate the broadcast of minute-by-minute weather observations. d. ASOS/AWOS—Automated Surface Observing System/Automated Weather Observing System (AWOS); the primary U.S. surface weather observing systems.
Both systems provide continuous minute-by-minute observations that generate METARs and other aviation weather information. Transmitted over a discrete VHF radio frequency or the voice portion of a local NAVAID, and receivable to a maximum of 25 NM from the station and a maximum altitude of 10,000 feet AGL. Observations made without human intervention will include the modifier “AUTO” in the report data. A maintenance indicator ($) is coded when an automated system detects that maintenance is needed on the system.

117
Q

What are PIREPs (UA), and where are they usually found? (AC 00-45)

A

A pilot report (PIREP) provides valuable information regarding the conditions as they actually exist in the air, which cannot be gathered from any other source. Pilots can confirm the height of bases and tops of clouds, locations of wind shear and turbulence, and the location of inflight icing. There are two types of PIREPs: routine or “UA,” and urgent or “UUA.” PIREPs should be given to the ground facility with which communications are established (i.e., FSS, ARTCC, or terminal ATC). Altitudes are MSL, visibilities SM, and distances in NM. PIREPs are available from an FSS and on the internet via the ADDS web page at: aviationweather.gov/airep.

118
Q

What are terminal aerodrome forecasts (TAFs)? (AC 00-45)

A

A terminal aerodrome forecast (TAF) is a concise statement of the expected meteorological conditions significant to aviation for a specified time period within 5 statute miles (SM) of the center of the airport’s runway complex (terminal). The TAFs use the same weather codes found in METAR weather reports, in the following format: a. Type of reports—a routine forecast (TAF), an amended forecast (TAF AMD), or a corrected forecast (TAF COR). b. ICAO station identifier—4-letter station identifiers. c. Date and time of origin—the date/time of forecast follows the terminal’s location identifier. It contains the day of the month in two digits and time in four digits in which the forecast is completed and ready for transmission, with a Z appended to denote UTC. Example: 061737Z—the TAF was issued on the 6th day of the month at 1737 UTC. d. Valid period date and time—The first two digits are the day of the month for the start of the TAF followed by two digits indicating the starting hour (UTC). The next two digits indicate the day of the month for the end of the TAF, and the last two digits are the ending hour (UTC) of the valid period. Scheduled 24- and 30-hour TAFs are issued four (4) times per day, at 0000, 0600, 1200, and 1800Z. Example: A 00Z TAF issued on the 9th of the month and valid for 24 hours would have a valid period of 0900/0924. e. Forecasts—wind, visibility, significant and vicinity weather, cloud and vertical obscuration, non-convective low level wind shear, forecast change indicators (FM, TEMPO and PROB).

119
Q

Define aviation area forecast (FA). (AC 00-45)

A

FAs are issued for the Gulf of Mexico, the Caribbean Sea, and Alaska. An FA is an abbreviated plain language forecast concerning the occurrence or expected occurrence of specified enroute weather phenomena. The FA (in conjunction with AIRMETs, SIGMETs, Convective SIGMETs, CWAs, etc.) is used to determine forecast enroute weather over a specified geographic region. FAs cover an 18- to 24-hour period, depending on the region, and are issued three to four times daily, depending on the region, and are updated as needed.

120
Q

Describe the Graphical Forecasts for Aviation (GFA). (AIM 7-1-4)

A

The GFA is a set of web-based graphics that provide observations, forecasts and warnings that can be viewed from 14 hours in the past to 15 hours in the future. The GFA covers the continental United States (CONUS) from the surface up to FL480. Wind, icing, and turbulence forecasts are available in 3,000-foot increments from the surface up to 30,000 feet MSL, and in 6,000-foot increments from 30,000 feet MSL to 48,000 feet MSL. Turbulence forecasts are also broken into LO (below FL180) and HI (at or above 18,000 feet MSL) graphics. A maximum icing graphic and maximum wind velocity graphic (regardless of altitude) are also available. The GFA interactive web tool can be viewed at aviationweather.gov/gfa.

121
Q

What type of aviation forecasts are available when selecting the “Forecast” tab of the GFA? (AIM 7-1-4)

A

The “Forecasts” tab will provide gridded displays of various weather parameters as well as NWS textual weather observations, forecasts, and warnings out to 15 hours. Icing, turbulence, and wind gridded products are three-dimensional. Other gridded products are two-dimensional and may represent a “composite” of a three-dimensional weather phenomenon or a surface weather variable, such as horizontal visibility. Selecting the “Forecasts” tab will provide the following forecasts: a. TAF—terminal aerodrome forecast. b. CIG/VIS—Ceiling and visibility. c. Clouds. d. PCPN/WX—Precipitation and weather. e. TS—Thunderstorms. f. Winds. g. Turb—Turbulence. h. Ice.

122
Q

Describe some of the weather products available when selecting the “Obs/Warn” tab of the GFA. (AIM 7-1-4)

A

Selecting the “Obs/Warn” tab provides an option to display weather data for the current time and the previous 14 hours (rounded to the nearest hour). Selecting the “Obs/Warn” tab will provide the following observations/warnings: a. METAR b. PCPN/WX—Precipitation and weather. c. CIG/VIS—Ceiling and visibility d. PIREP—Pilot reports. e. RAD/SAT—Radar and Satellite.

123
Q

What are the four types of inflight aviation weather advisories? (AIM 7-1-6)

A

Inflight aviation weather advisories are forecasts to advise enroute aircraft of the development of potentially hazardous weather in four types: the SIGMET (WS), the convective SIGMET (WST), the AIRMET (WA; text or graphical product), and the center weather advisory (CWA). All heights are referenced MSL, except in the case of ceilings (CIG) which indicate AGL.

124
Q

What is a convective SIGMET? (AC 00-45)

A
Convective SIGMETs (WST) implies severe or greater turbulence, severe icing and low-level wind shear. They may be issued for any convective situation which the forecaster feels is hazardous to all categories of aircraft. Convective SIGMET bulletins are issued for the Eastern (E), Central (C), and Western (W) United States (convective SIGMETs are not issued for Alaska or Hawaii). Bulletins are issued hourly at H+55. Special bulletins are issued at any time as required and updated at H+55. The text of the bulletin consists of either an observation and a forecast, or just a forecast. The forecast is valid for up to 2 hours. a. Severe thunderstorm due to: • Surface winds greater than or equal to 50 knots. • Hail at the surface greater than or equal to ¾ inches in diameter. • Tornadoes. 
b. Embedded thunderstorms. c. A line of thunderstorms. d. Thunderstorms producing greater than or equal to heavy precipitation that affects 40% or more of an area at least 3,000 square miles.
125
Q

What is a SIGMET (WS)? (AIM 7-1-6)

A

A SIGMET (WS) advises of weather that is potentially hazardous to all aircraft. SIGMETs are unscheduled products that are valid for 4 hours; SIGMETs associated with tropical cyclones and volcanic ash clouds are valid for 6 hours. Unscheduled updates and corrections are issued as necessary. In the conterminous U.S., SIGMETs are issued when the following phenomena occur or are expected to occur: a. Severe icing not associated with thunderstorms. b. Severe or extreme turbulence or clear air turbulence (CAT) not associated with thunderstorms. c. Widespread dust storms or sandstorms lowering surface visibilities to below 3 miles. d. Volcanic ash.

126
Q

What is an AIRMET (WA)? (AC 00-45)

A

Advisories of significant weather phenomena that describe conditions at intensities lower than those which require the issuance of SIGMETs, intended for use by all pilots in the preflight and enroute phase of flight to enhance safety. AIRMET information is available in two formats: text bulletins (WA) and graphics (G-AIRMET). They are issued on a scheduled basis every 6 hours beginning at 0245 UTC. Unscheduled updates and corrections are issued as necessary. Each AIRMET Bulletin includes an outlook for conditions expected after the AIRMET valid period. AIRMETs contain details about IFR, extensive mountain obscuration, turbulence, strong surface winds, icing, and freezing levels.

127
Q

What are the different types of AIRMETs? (AIM 7-1-6)

A

There are three AIRMET types: Sierra, Tango, and Zulu. a. AIRMET Sierra describes IFR conditions and/or extensive mountain obscurations. b. AIRMET Tango describes moderate turbulence, sustained surface winds of 30 knots or greater, and/or nonconvective low-level wind shear. c. AIRMET Zulu describes moderate icing and provides freezing level heights.

128
Q

What is a G-AIRMET? (AC 00-45)

A

A G-AIRMET is a graphical advisory of weather that may be hazardous to aircraft, but are less severe than SIGMETs. G-AIRMETs identify hazardous weather in space and time more precisely than text products, enabling pilots to maintain high safety margins while flying more efficient routes. They are issued at 03:00, 09:00, 15:00 and 21:00 UTC (with updates issued as necessary). Hazards depicted in G-AIRMETs include turbulence, low level wind shear, strong surface winds, Icing, freezing level, IFR, and mountain obscurations

129
Q

Describe the winds and temperature aloft forecasts (FB). (AC 00-45)

A

Winds and temperature aloft forecasts are computer prepared forecasts of wind direction, wind speed, and temperature at specified times, altitudes, and locations. They are produced 4 times daily for specified locations in the continental United States, Hawaii, Alaska and coastal waters, and the western Pacific Ocean. Amendments are not issued to the forecasts. Wind forecasts are not issued for altitudes within 1,500 feet of a location’s elevation. Some of the features of FBs are: a. Product header includes date and time observations collected, forecast valid date and time, and the time period during which the forecast is to be used. b. Altitudes up to 15,000 feet referenced to MSL; altitudes at or above 18,000 feet are references to flight levels (FL). c. Temperature indicated in degrees Celsius (two digits) for the levels from 6,000 through 24,000 feet. Above 24,000 feet, minus sign is omitted since temperatures are always negative at those altitudes. Temperature forecasts are not issued for altitudes within 2,500 feet of a location’s elevation. Forecasts for intermediate levels are determined by interpolation. d. Wind direction indicated in tens of degrees (two digits) with reference to true north and wind speed is given in knots (two digits). Light and variable wind or wind speeds of less than 5 knots are expressed by 9900. Forecast wind speeds of 100 through 199 knots are indicated by subtracting 100 from the speed and adding 50 to the coded direction. For example, a forecast of 250 degrees, 145 knots, is encoded as 7545. Forecast wind speeds of 200 knots or greater are indicated as a forecast speed of 199 knots. For example, 7799 is decoded as 270 degrees at 199 knots or greater. Note: The AWC’s website provides a graphical depiction of the FB wind and temperature forecasts as well as a text version at aviationweather.gov/windtemp.

130
Q

What valuable information can be determined from winds and temperatures aloft forecasts (FB)?

A

Most favorable altitude—based on winds and direction of flight. Areas of possible icing—by noting air temperatures of +2°C to −20°C. Temperature inversions. Turbulence—by observing abrupt changes in wind direction and speed at different altitudes.

131
Q

What are center weather advisories (CWA)? (AC 00-45)

A

A center weather advisory (CWA) is an aviation warning for use by aircrews to anticipate and avoid adverse weather conditions in the en route and terminal environments. The CWA is not a flight planning product; instead it reflects current conditions expected at the time of issuance and/or is a short-range forecast for conditions expected to begin within 2 hours of issuance. CWAs are valid for a maximum of 2 hours. If conditions are expected to continue beyond the 2-hour valid period, a statement will be included in the CWA.

132
Q

Give some examples of the various NWS weather charts you will used during preflight planning. (AC 00-45)

A

a. Surface analysis chart. b. Weather depiction chart—being phased out in favor of the ceiling and visibility analysis (CVA) . c. Short-range surface prognostic chart. d. Significant weather prognostic chart. e. Convective outlook chart. f. Constant pressure analysis chart—being phased out in favor of upper air constant pressure level forecasts. g. Freezing level graphics.

133
Q

What is a surface analysis chart? (AC 00-45)

A

Surface analysis charts are analyzed charts of surface weather observations. The chart depicts the distribution of several items including sea level pressure, the positions of highs, lows, ridges, troughs, the location and character of fronts, and the various boundaries such as drylines, outflow boundaries, sea-breeze fronts, and convergence lines. The chart is produced eight times daily.

134
Q

Describe a ceiling and visibility analysis (CVA). (AC 00-45)

A

A CVA is a real-time analysis (updated every 5 minutes) of current ceiling and visibility conditions across the continental United States. It is intended to aid situational awareness with a quick-glance visualization of current ceiling and visibility conditions across an area or along a route of flight. The CVA provides a viewer-selectable representation of ceiling height (AGL), surface visibility in statute miles (SM), and flight category designation. The overview provided by a CVA should be followed by further examination of METARs, TAFs, AIRMETs, GFAs, FAs, and other weather information.