PPL Deck 1 Flashcards

1
Q

VFR requirements (distance and ceiling), MVFR

A

5sm, 3000ft

3-5sm, 1k-3k ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define cloud ceiling + difference between broken and overcast

A

Lowest cloud layer
Overcast - solid
Broken - spotty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Takeoffs and landings ideally ___ (direction) the wind?

A

Into.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Aircraft performs better in warm or cold weather and why?

A

Cold, air is more dense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Acronym for basic instruments in an airplane and what does each do?
Which ones need to be adjusted prior to/during flight?

A
AAHTAV
Airspeed
Altimeter (adjust prior to and during)
Heading indicator (adjust during every 15 mins)
Turn coordinator
Attitude indicator
Vertical speed indicator
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define colors on airspeed indicator

A

White - operating range of flaps
Green - normal operating
Yellow - smooth air only
Red - Vne

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Statute and nautical miles = how many feet? How to convert knots to statute miles?

A

1 statute mile = 5280 ft. 1 nautical mile = 6076 ft

1 nautical mile x 1.15 - statute miles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Differences between compass (where is it located?) and heading indicator?

A

Heading is gyroscopically stabilized, not affected by speed/banks/turns
Compass typically located away from electrical and metal to reduce impact of local magnetic fields

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Turn coordinator, another name for the ball, what forces does it measure, and what does it measure and how to fix if turn is not coordinated (and what is it called and also define each)?

A

Inclinometer; centrifugal, gravity, resultant forces; slipping or skidding?
Slipping: angle of bank is not enough for rate of turn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe control surfaces and how each work. Relationship of drag and lift?

A

Aileron (yoke left = left aileron up…down aileron has more drag and more lift…yoke down pitch down/elevator down)
Elevator - determines speed of airplane
Trim - maintains speed of airplane and reduces control pressures needed to maintain
Rudder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define adverse yaw and how to fix

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does throttle and mixture control do?

A

Throttle - similar to accelerator in a car

Mixture = ratio of fuel to air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does using flaps do?

A

More lift at lower airspeed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How does a plane stay in the air? (think propeller/wings/wing design)

A

Propeller - forward
Wings - up
Wing design - curved upper part of wings, low pressure up top, high pressure on bottom, air velocity accelerated over top creating the lift to keep plane in the air.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Phonetic alphabet and numbers

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Name 4 forces

A

Lift, weight, thrust, drag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe a 4-stroke ICE

A
Typical engine in a trainer aircraft
Intake - 
Compression
Power
Exhaust
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describe 6 major parts of an engine

A
Piston
Cylinder (2x spark plugs per)
Valves
Connecting rod
Crankshaft
Crankcase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

More cylinders = what?

A

Smoother engine because more rotation/RPM’s per cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How are most engines cooled?

A

Air-cooled
Oil cooled
Exhaust pipe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Name several purposes of engine oil

A
Cooling
Lubrication
Prevent direct metal to metal contact
Seal
Contaminants
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Two major types of engine oil and when they are used?

A

Mineral oil - brand new engines

Ashless dispersant oil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Why are airplane engines so reliable?

A

2x magnetos; run independently of electrical system; 1x magneto can fail and still be fine + 2x spark plugs per cylinder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does this mean - vented fuel caps?

A

Allows air to replace spent fuel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Warm day, fuel drain valves?

A

Fuel might expand, normal to see some dripping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What to check for in fuel on preflight?

A

Fuel color (blue for 100LL), water separation, and presence of dirt or other contaminants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What color is 100LL and jet?

A

100LL - blue

Jet - clear or straw colored (smells like kerosene)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Describe fuel system for this aircraft

A

Gravity fed fuel system - fuel goes from:

tanks -> selector valve -> reservoir -> auxiliary fuel pump -> cylinders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Curved propeller is similar to wings in what sense?

A

Curved propeller similar to curved top of wings, but instead of generating lift, pulls airplane forward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

RPM relationship between propeller and engine?

A

Same since they’re both connected through the crankshaft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Describe your airplane’s electrical system

A

24V battery
28V alternator
Circuit breaker
Ammeter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Describe a carbureted engine, advantages, disadvantages, mixture position?

A

Primer, puts fuel into cylinder, help start in cold weather, mixture is in full rich position (vs. fuel-injected is typically in idle/cutoff),
Susceptible to carb icing (high humidity and/or 70F and below temps);

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How to recognize carb icing and how to fix?

A

Drop in RPM; use carb heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When to “always” use carb heat?

A

Landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

AROW

A

Airworthiness certificate (AD’s, never expires)
Registration (3 years)
POH
Weight and balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

AIM stands for?

A

Aeronautical Information Manual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

FL20 means?

When is “FL” used?

A

Flight level 20 = 20,000 feet

Anything over 18k feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Default time zone unless otherwise specified?

A

Zulu

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Meaning of: roger/wilco/affirmative/negative

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Taxi speed should be?

A

No faster than a brisk walk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Know which direction to turn aileron and elevator for headwind/tailwind/quartering headwind/tailwind, etc.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Standard traffic pattern unless otherwise indicated?

A

Left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Name all legs of a traffic pattern

A

Upwind, crosswind, downwind, base, final

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Proper way to enter/exit TPA?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How are runways numbered?

A

Magnetic direction (e.g. run 26R is magnetic heading of 260 degrees)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Three common windsocks and direction of the wind?

A

Windsock (fly small to large)

wind tee, tetrahedron (fly big to large))

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are AWOS and ASOS and what do they stand for?

A

Automated weather observation system, Automated surface observation system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

After takeoff, when is it okay to turn?

A

300 feet below TPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

4 fundamental maneuvers and 3 associated control inputs?

A

Turns
Descents
Banks
Straight and level

Pitch/bank/power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

3 primary controls?

A

Aileron, rudder, elevator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Define minor/moderate/steep banks and how to maintain altitude

A

0-20 degrees, 20-45, 45+

Back pressure due to loss of horizontal lift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which of the 6 basic instruments has a lag?

A

VSI - 6-9 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Define best glide speed

A

Speed at which you travel the most distance per foot of altitude lost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Define angle of attack and why is it important?

A

Angle at which wind is hitting the wing chord

Critical AoA leads to a stall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What happens at critical AoA?

A

Air flow over the top of the wing is not sufficient to keep plane in the air; plane will stall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

How to recover from a nose up and nose down stall?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Concept: crabbing into the wind

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Know the difference between heading, course, and track

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Minimum safe altitudes?

A

Not congested: 500 ft AG
Congested: 1000 feet with 2000 ft radius AG
Sports events: 3000ft, 3 mi radius, +/- 1 hour of event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What to do at higher altitudes and why?

A

Above 3000 ft, lean mixture; air is thinner, less dense, reduce flow of fuel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Discuss EGT

A

Exhaust gas temperature; for max economy, lean until peak EGT (or until engine runs rough), then slightly richen mixture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Tips/precautions for leaning mixture?

A

When in doubt, run on slightly richer side; do not over-lean at high power settings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Define detonation and preignition, symptoms, causes and fixes

A

Detonation: Ignition of fuel in an uncontrolled manner
Preignition: Ignition of fuel resulting as cylinder is moving away from the crankshaft (opposing forces) hence causing large strain on the engine

Symptoms: loss of power

Causes: using low grade of fuel, overleaned mixture, ascending too slowly,

Fixes: Mixture rich, reduce power,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Two types of drag?

A

Parasite (protrusions, landing gear, skin friction); and induced drag (byproduct of lift from the wings).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Where does a stall begin?

A

Wing root, and extends outward. Designed this way (high speed/low speed airfoils depending on design) so that pilot has a heads-up of an impending stall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Parasite drag and induced drag: increase/decrease with relation to speed?

A

Parasite drag increases as speed increases

Induced drag: opposite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Name 4 different types of stalls

A

Power on
Power off
Imminent
Full

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

When will a wing stall?

A

Always at the same angle, but not necessarily the same speed/pitch attitude depending on things like weight and load factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

How does CG and weight placement affect stall and stall recoverability?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Things to be mindful of on extending and retracting flaps…

A

If extending flaps, may need to push nose down to keep airspeed up;

If retracting flaps, only do so once best rate of climb Vy is reached

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

3 factors affecting AoA

A

Speed (lower speed, higher AoA)
Weight (higher weight, higher AoA)
Load factor (higher load, higher AoA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Spin recovery procedure?

A

PARE (power idle, aileron neutral, rudder opposite of spin, elevator forward of neutral)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

When to generally contact tower?

A

About 10 miles out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Strategies to deal with crosswinds

A

Crabbing, forward slip (altitude), side slip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Avoiding wake turbulence

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

How far out to make initial call to tower?

A

Generally 10 miles out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

When is a transponder required and what to squawk?

A
Squawk 1200 (VFR)
Transponder is required in class C and within 30nm of class B AND also above 10,000ft (except below 1200)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Turns around a point - understand the relationship between wind speed/direction, and rate of turn/bank

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Ideally, start an S-turn ___ the wind.

A

Downwind.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What are 3 categories of aircraft and corresponding G’s?

A

Normal (-1 to 4), aerobatic (-3 to 6), and utility (-1 to 5);
Generally tested for 1.5 times, but don’t use that as a safety net

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is load factor also known as and defined as?

A

G’s; defined as air load divided by weight of airplane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Define manuevering speed and how it changes with weight of the plane and why.

A

Speed at which plane will stall before exceeding its load limits.
Decreases as weight of aircraft decreases because aircraft becomes more susceptible to aerodynamic forces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Name 2 types of clouds, what they look like, and what they mean for visibility and smooth/rough air.

A

Stratus: poor visibility, smooth air (layered clouds)
Cumulus: good visibility, turbulence (vertically stacked)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Name the different layers of the atmosphere from the inside out.
Where does most flying occur?

A

troposphere (most flying occurs here), tropopause, stratosphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is an inversion?

A

Temperature increase as altitude increases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Define humidity and dew point and what this means for visibility.

A

Humidity: amount of water vapor in relation to how much it could hold at that temperature
Dew point: temperature at which air is fully saturated with water vapor

If temperature is close to dew point, could have issues with fog/low visibility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Define and give another name for: radiation fog, advection fog
Where/why do each form?

A

Radiation fog: AKA ground fog (usually forms around cities as contaminants are picked up by water vapor; caused when warm land is cooled by the air))
Advection fog: AKA sea fog (usually forms at sea due to differences in temperature; caused when wind transports warm air to cool surface)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What contributes to the formation of fog?

A

Addition of moisture to the air and/or cooling of the air to the dew point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What winds help/hurt the formation of fog?

A

Calm winds are favorable to the formation of fog.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is standard temperature (F/C, and altimeter setting)?

A

59F, 15C, 29.92 inches of mercury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

As altitude increases, does temperature generally increase or decrease? What about pressure?

A

For both, they generally decrease as altitude increases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

1 inch of mercury equates to how many feet?

A

1000 feet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

How do temperature and pressure changes affect the altimeter setting, all things being equal?

A

All other things being equal (e.g. assuming no actual change in altitude and ONLY a change in temperature/pressure), as temperature increases, the altimeter will show a lower altitude than actual. As pressure increases, the same will happen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What conditions are needed for a thunderstorm to form?

A

Moisture, updraft/lift, and unstable air.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What are the stages of a thunderstorm?

A

Formation (cumulus clouds), precipitation (mature stage), and dissipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Hazards of a thunderstorm?

A

Turbulence, wind shear, hail, lightning, poor visibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Name 3 types of a weather briefing and what each could be used for.

A

Standard - standard
Outlook - forecast or if your flight isn’t for X number of hours
Abbreviated - looking for an update to your last briefing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

When looking at the weather, is a high/low-pressure area more likely to result in bad weather, and why?

A

Low; warm air rises causing turbulence up above.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Know what a METAR is how to read it, SPECI METAR, TAF,

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What do radars detect?

A

Areas of precipitation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Name 3 kinds of airspeeds and describe each.

A

Indicated - what the airspeed indicator shows
Calibrated - corrected for certain errors (installation, use of flaps, etc.)
True - corrected for changes in air density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What happens to true airspeed as altitude increases, and why?

A

It goes down due to less dense air.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Name 3 different types of altitude/altimeter readings and briefly describe each.

A

Indicated - what the altimeter shows
Pressure - using standard pressure 29.92 inches of mercury
Density - corrected for nonstandard temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What is pressure altitude used for?

A

Used to solve calculator problems of density and airspeed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

If temperature is warmer than standard, is density altitude higher or lower?

A

Higher than pressure altitude.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What do you call altitude AGL/MSL?

A

Absolute is AGL;

True is MSL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Name and describe different types of drag, as well as how to reduce each.

A

Skin friction - dirt, rivets, etc. polish/waxing to reduce.

Interference drag - mixture of air vortices from different parts of the aircraft interacting with one another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Define stability.

A

Ability of an airplane to return to previous position after some kind of interruption.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

How is stability achieved?

A

Dihedral; angle of attack increases on the lower wing, creating more klift and causing it to level out.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Understand weight and balance and how center of gravity affects an airplane’s stall and ability to recover from a stall.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Acronym for right of way rules?

A
EBGAAR
Emergency
Balloon
Glider
Aircraft refueling
Airship
Rotorcraft
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Pass slower aircraft on the right or left?

A

Pass on the right.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Who has right of way? Higher or lower altitude?

A

Aircraft at a lower altitude has right of way.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Light gun signal meanings on ground // in the air:

Solid green
Flashing green
Solid red
Flashing red
White
Flashing red and green
A

Solid green: clear for takeoff // cleared to land
Flashing green: clear to taxi // return to land
Solid red: stop // go around
Flashing red: taxi clear of the active runway // airport unsafe do not use
White: go to starting point // no meaning
Flashing red and green: use extreme caution // use extreme caution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Limitations for flying under basic med?

A

Max 5 passengers, 6 seats, 6000 pounds, below 18,000 feet and max speed 250 knots.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Basic Med requirements?

A

Valid medical issued on or after 7/15/2006; visit a physician for an exam every 4 years, valid driver’s license, Basic Med education course every 2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What is hypoxia and hyperventilation, how to recognize each, and how to fix?

A

Hypoxia - lack of oxygen to the brain; decrease altitude, open air vents
Hyperventilation - irregular breathing oxygen to the lungs; talk or sing to yourself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What altitudes are safe before needing to use supplemental oxygen?

A

Typically safe up to 10,000 feet, 30 mins 12,500 feet, and required above 15,000 feet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What is CO poisoning and how to detect and fix?

A

Odorless tasteless gas, can happen if there’s a leak in the seal of the shroud and you’re using cabin heat. Turn off cabin heat, close vents, open outside air vents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Be aware of runway illusions.

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What items do you need to fly solo?

A

Student pilot certificate, logbook with solo endorsement from CFI, gov’t issued ID like a driver’s license, medical certificate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Solo endorsements valid for how long and restrictions on where can you fly?

Any specific visibility restrictions for day and night?

A

90 days; aside from any CFI-specific limitations (e.g. VFR day/night, wind speed, visibility, cloud ceiling, etc.) cannot fly more than 25nm from home airport without another endorsement (same for class B airspace)

VFR day must be 3nm visibility; 5nm at night

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Position light colors?

A

Left wing: red
Right wing: green
Tail beacon: white

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q
Airport light colors:
Taxi
Runway edge
Runway begin and end
Beacon for military/civilian airports
Obstructions
A
Taxi edge: blue
Runway edge: white
Runway begin and end: green/red
Beacon for military/civilian airports: civilian flashes white/green
Obstructions: red
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

When do lights need to be on for the airplane?

A

Sunset to sunrise (turn on strobe anticollision, nav lights, and landing lights)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Different definitions of night.

A

Beginning of evening civil twilight and end of morning civil twilight
1 hour before sunrise, 1 hour after sunset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

AIM and chart supplements

A

Aeronautical information manual.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What are NOTAMs

A

Critical information for flight safety not available in chart supplement.

129
Q

What directions are latitude and longitude

A

Latitude: left to right
Longitude: up/down

130
Q

Understand sectional symbols (how to identify airport runway length, airport lighting, full-time or part-time, controlled or uncontrolled, length of longest runway, obstacle heights, rotating beacon available or not)

A
131
Q

Know how to convert time zones to Zulu

A
ST/DT
---
East: +5/+4
Central: +6/+5
Mountain: +7/+6
West: +8 hours/+7

Ie. 11:30 MST is 18:30 Zulu

132
Q

What is pilotage and dead reckoning?

A

Pilotage, VFR navigation by visual waypoints and ground references
Dead reckoning - navigation by radio, VOR, or GPS

133
Q

Name the steps to go from true course to compass heading

A

True course, correct for wind = true heading
Then corrected for magnetic variation = magnetic heading
Then corrected for compass deviation = compass heading and you fly this compass heading

134
Q

What is magnetic variation and compass deviation?

A

Magnetic variation: isogonic lines as per sectional
Compass deviation: local magnetic field of the airplane itself on the accuracy of the compass, correct with compass correction chart

135
Q

How to know if winds are given in true or magnetic?

A

Usually if written, it’s true. Otherwise if heard over the radio, magnetic.

136
Q

What is groundspeed if you’re flying 100 knots with a 10 knot tailwind?

A

110 knots.

137
Q

For magnetic variation, how to know if you add or subtract?

A

East is least, west is best (based on the nearest isogonic line’s location)

138
Q

Fuel requirements for day/night VFR flight?

A

Day: 30 mins reserve fuel
Night: 45 minutes

139
Q

Remember, for planning an XC trip, also know how to calculate fuel required and estimated trip time (adding 5 mins of time for each stop to account for taxiing)

A
140
Q

Understand what a VOR, VORTAC, and TACAN are and their limitations

A

Distance and line of sight limitation.

VORTAC has distance measuring capability.

141
Q

How accurate are GPS and WAAS?

A

12 meters / 3 meters.

142
Q

Define an air mass and how they’re classified.

A

Air mass is a body of air with relatively similar temperature and humidity characteristics.
Defined with 3 letters/categories:
1. Land or water
2. Warm or cold
3. Region (PATE): polar, arctic, tropical, equatorial.

143
Q

Is a warm air mass heated or cooled from below?

A

Cooled from below.

144
Q

What is a front? What happens when you cross a front?

A

The zone between conflicting air masses.

Wind changes direction when crossing a front; caution for wind shear.

145
Q

When direction does air generally flow. What about high pressure and low pressure?

A

Generally from high to low pressure;

Low pressure air typically flows counter clockwise

146
Q

How can fronts be classified? Describe each along with characteristics of each. How is each depicted on a chart?

A

Stationary: indicates a front is not moving, so conditions (ie. poor visibility, fog, etc.) can last for a long time (depicted with cold and warm front symbols alternating)
Occluded: violent weather, warm front is overtaken by a cold front pushing air upwards and typically resulting in the formation of cumulus clouds (depicted with half circles and triangles)
Warm: can produce thunderstorms, warm air replaces cold air (depicted with half circles)
Cold: can produce thunderstorms, cold air replaces warm air (depicted with triangles)

147
Q

What are squall lines?

A

Series of thunderstorms.

148
Q

What is a prog chart?

A

VFR short-term forecast up to 24,000 feet.

149
Q

Know what a PIREP is, how to read one, and the difference between UA and UUA.

A
150
Q

What is VFR flight following and where is it allowed?

A

Class E airspace, workload permitting.

151
Q

Basic airspace rules (shape, who can fly, limitations, entry and equipment requirements, how is it depicted on sectionals).
Class A

A
FL180 up to FL600
IFR only
Transponder required
Two-way radio contact must be maintained with ATC. 
Not depicted on sectionals.
152
Q

Basic airspace rules (shape, who can fly, limitations, entry and equipment requirements, how is it depicted on sectionals).
Class B

A
Shaped like upside down multi-layer wedding cake
Student pilot with specific endorsement, PPL can fly
Transponder required within 30nm of class B airspace
Speed limits: 250 knots in class B, 200 knots flying under class B shelf
Must have specific ATC permission to enter and maintain two-way radio contact
Depicted as a solid blue line on sectionals.
153
Q

Basic airspace rules (shape, who can fly, limitations, entry and equipment requirements, how is it depicted on sectionals).
Class C

A
Shaped like a 2-layered upside down wedding cake
Student pilot OK as long as other restrictions are adhered to (e.g. distance for solo flight as a student pilot)
Speed restricted to 200 knots
Transponder required within class C
Must make contact with ATC and maintain two-way comms. 
Depicted on sectionals as solid magenta line.
154
Q

Basic airspace rules (shape, who can fly, limitations, entry and equipment requirements, how is it depicted on sectionals).
Class D

A

Student pilots OK
Must make contact with ATC prior to entering.
Dotted blue line

155
Q

Basic airspace rules (how is it depicted on sectionals, and what altitudes does it start/end at?)
Class E

A

Can be dotted or shaded magenta or shaded blue.
Altitudes:

Dotted magenta is surface class E 
Shaded magenta inside - class E starts at 700 feet
Outside shaded magenta - class E starts at 1200 feet
Outside shaded blue - class E starts at 1200 feet
156
Q

What is special VFR, when can it be used, and what are the requirements?

Any differences between SVFR at day versus night?

A

Allows for VFR flight in controlled airspace with a minimum of 1nm visibility and remaining clear of clouds. Must be requested by the pilot.

If SVFR is being requested at night, pilot must be instrument rated.

157
Q

Special use airspace acronym and brief description of each.

A

WCRAMP
Warning (hazardous to non-participating aircraft)
Controlled firing
Restricted (when active, must get permission to enter)
Alert
Military (GA can enter but not recommended personally)
Prohibited (no flight allowed)

158
Q

Military training routes and what would something like this mean:
IR109
VR1175

A

IR109 would mean instrument training flights above 1500 feet

VR is visual training route below 1500 feet (4 digit route number)

159
Q

What is a TFR?

A
160
Q

What are the 3 main squawk codes and when would they be used?

A

7700 - emergency
7600 - loss of communication
7500 - plane has been hijacked

161
Q

What is VFR flight following and what airspace is it offered?

A

Offered in class E.

162
Q

5 main steps for departing a towered airport?

A
ATIS
Clearance delivery
Ground
Tower
Departure
163
Q

Where does the magnetic compass lead/lag the airplane, and what errors is it prone to?

A

NOSE/ANDS
North opposite, south exaggerated
Accelerate shows more north error, deceleration shows more south error

164
Q

Generally, does an airplane need more runway for takeoff or landing?

A

Generally, more distance needed for takeoff.

165
Q

2 numbers needed to determine takeoff and landing distance required? (also define each factor)

A

Ground roll (distance required for aircraft to be airborne) )and total distance over an obstacle (50ft at end of runway) (ground roll + air distance needed to clear the obstacle).

166
Q

If told to contact ground point niner, what frequency should I switch to?

A

121.9 (most ground is 121.x)

167
Q

What is Vy and Vx?

A

Vy - best rate of climb

Vx - best angle of climb (over an obstacle)

168
Q

What effect does using flaps have on takeoff/landing?

A

On takeoff, generates more lift at a lower airspeed allowing plane to take off sooner
On landing, allow the airplane to descend at a steeper angle

169
Q

What are the altitude rules?

A

Heading 0-179, above 3000ft must be odd + 500 (3500/5500/7500/etc)
Heading 180 - 359, above 3000ft must be even + 500 (4500/6500/8500/etc)

170
Q

How are clouds classified based on their altitude?

A

Low, middle, high, and vertically if they span all 3 levels

171
Q

Name 2 types of clouds, and characteristics like visibility and turbulence

A

Stratus and cumulus
Stratus - layered, poor visibility, usually low turbulence
Cumulus - vertical, good visibility, high turbulence

172
Q

Where are there typically more temperature changes (land or water) and why?

A

Since water can absorb more heat than land, land typically has more variations in temperature

173
Q

What is another name for high clouds and sub-classifications?

A

Cirrus;

Cirrostratus, cirrocumulus

174
Q

What is another name for middle clouds and sub-classifications?

A

Alto;

Altostratus and altocumulus

175
Q

Are high clouds typically made of more ice or water?

A

Ice.

176
Q

Are middle clouds usually made of more water or ice?

A

Water

177
Q

What is a name for a stratus cloud producing precipitation?

A

Nimbostratus.

178
Q

What is a type of thunderstorm cloud?

A

Cumulonimbus

179
Q

Describe adiabatic cooling and adiabatic change in general. .

A

As elevation increases, pressure decreases, and the temperature of the pocket of air decreases because there is more space between the molecules resulting in fewer collisions.
Adiabatic change is the change in temperature of an air pocket due to compression or expansion.

180
Q

When can you expect wind shear?

A

When taking off or landing within a few hours of sunrise, winds calm at surface, sky clear, and if winds 2-4k above the airport are blowing 20+ knots, expect a stall due to wind shear

181
Q

What is a temperature inversion?

A

When temperature increases as altitude increases.

182
Q

Winds aloft: above what temperature is it automatically considered negative?
What altitudes have no temp readings?

A

No temps at 3k

Above 24k ft considered auto-negative

183
Q

What are AIRMET/SIGMETs

A
184
Q

What is a convective outlook?

A

Shows significant weather.

185
Q

How to read winds aloft: 2518+06 (9k ft)

A

wind from 250, 18 knots, +6C temperature

186
Q

What is a standard rate of turn and when should this be used?

A

3 degrees per second (indicated by the turn coordinator)

Applicable for instrument flying

187
Q

What to do if you need help? How about an emergency frequency?

A
5 C's
Climb
Conserve
Confess
Communicate
Comply

121.5 is the emergency frequency

188
Q

What type of approach is requested if you have non-operating instruments?

A

No-gyro approach; the controller tells me when to start/stop turns

189
Q

What are AWOS & ASOS and their limitations?

A

Automated weather observation system; automated surface observation system
Localized automated; can be inaccurate due to very localized winds, birds, insects, anything obstructing or only impacting thee instruments themselves

190
Q

What is one method to find yourself if you’re lost?

A

Assume no winds, calculate where you would be based on your heading, time flown, and groundspeed. Draw a 5-8 mile circle and you’re probably in there somewhere.

191
Q

Solo time vs PIC time

A
192
Q

Define nighttime for purposes of currency requirements

A

1 hour after sunset, 1 hour before sunrise

193
Q

When is supplemental oxygen required?

A

12.5k for 30 or more minutes;

Passengers required at 15k or above

194
Q

Define complex vs. high performance airplanes

A

Example of complex: retractable landing gear, adjustable pitch propleller
Example of high performance: more than 200hp

195
Q

When do airplanes need to be checked?

A

Annual inspections + 100 hour if being used for hire

196
Q

Required inspections?

A
AV1ATES
Annual inspection
VOR every 30 days for IFR flight
100-hour inspection if used for hire
Altimeter every 24 months for IFR flight
Transponder - every 24 months
ELT - every 12 months, after 1 hour of continuous use, or half of expected life is used
Service bulletins/AD's
197
Q

How is a closed runway marked?

A

Marked with an “X” on the runway.

198
Q

Why is weight and balance important

A
199
Q

What is CG?

A
200
Q

How much weight does aviation fuel add?

A

6 pounds per gallon.

201
Q

Define datum, arm, moment, and CG and how to calculate each.

A

Datum is just a reference point used to measure for certain balance calcs.
Arm is the distance from the datum to that point;
Moment is arm multiplied by weight (inch pounds);
CG = moment divided by weight

202
Q

Describe a constant-speed propeller and the advantages; another name for RPM gauge, and what is controlled by the throttle?.

A

Engine RPM is controlled by adjusting the pitch of the propeller, allows for more efficiency over a wide speed range

RPM AKA tachometer;

Manifold pressure gauge is controlled by the throttle

203
Q

Proper way to increase power in a constant-speed propeller?

A

Increase RPM first before increasing manifold pressure

204
Q

Most high performance airplanes use what type of engine and why? Any disadvantages?

A

Fuel injected;allows for more precise leaning + EGT gauge to help with this.

Disadvanatges; possible vapor lock where fuel evaporates before it enters the engine.

205
Q

What is a turbocharger?

A

Maintains manifold pressure to allow for more power at higher altitudes

206
Q

What is TAA?

A

Technically Advanced Aircraft; 2 or more flight displays.

207
Q

What is manifold pressure referring to and what are its normal readings?

A

Manifold pressure is the pressure of the fuel air mixture before it enters the cylinder
Normal readings:
engine off: ambient air temp
engine idle: 12-25
engine full power: slightly below ambient temp

208
Q

How is airspace depicted on a sectional

A
209
Q

Know cloud clearance and visibility requirements for all airspace classes

A
210
Q

Understand class E airspace (dotted magenta and shaded magenta)

A
211
Q

Know how to determine latitude/longitude on a sectional. Which directions increase/decrease?

A
212
Q

What docs must you have to fly the airplane?

A

Driver’s license or other gov’t issued photo ID;
Pilot certificate;
Medical certificate;

213
Q

Name some limitations as a student pilot/pilot

A

Cannot carry passengers as a student pilot;

cannot fly for compensation (can only accept pro rata share of expenses for flight);

214
Q

What privileges do you have as a private pilot?

A

Act as PIC;
Fly for charity;
Assist in search and rescue ops;

215
Q

Do you need to have your logbook with you?

A

No. Only as a student pilot.

216
Q

What type of pilot certificate do I have and when does it expire?

A

Student pilot expires 60 calendar months (24 over age 40);

Same for PPL;

217
Q

What to do to keep your certificate current as a PPL?

A

Maintain valid medical cert and BFR’s

218
Q

What are the currency requirements for carrying passengers?

A

Day: 3 TOL’s within prior 90 days;
Night: 3 full stops within prior 90 days;

Must be same type aircraft category, class, and type.

219
Q

Define ‘night’ and when you can do night time currency landings.

A

1 hour after sunset and 1 hour before sunrise for night currency;
defined as: time between evening civil twilight and morning civil twilight

220
Q

How long are medical certificates good for?

A
3rd class over 40/under 40: 24/60 calendar months
2nd class over 40/under 40: not sure, lookup in FAR/AIM
1st class over 40/under 40: 6 months/12 months
221
Q

What documents are required in the aircraft?

A
AROW
Airworthiness certificate (never expires as long as AD's are complied with);
Registration (expires 3 years)
POH
Weight and balance
222
Q

With regards to certification, privileges and limitations of airmen, what are some examples of category, class, and type?

A

Category: airplane, rotorcraft, glider, etc.
Class: land, sea, single engine, multi engine, etc.
Type: specific to aircraft or if required by FAA

223
Q

If you change your address, how long to report to FAA?

A

30 days.

224
Q

Does airworthiness cert expire?

A

No as long as maintenance, required inspections, and AD’s are complied with.

225
Q

What section states we have to follow the POH?

A

FAR 91.9

226
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring the plane is airworthy and safe?

A

Owner/operator.

227
Q

What are the required inspections for an aircraft?

A
AV1ATES
Annual inspection
VOR every 30 days for IFR flight
100-hour inspection if used for hire
Altimeter every 24 months
Transponder: 24 months
ELT: 12 months (or 1 hour of continuous use or more than 50% of battery life used)
Service bulletins and AD's
228
Q

What is an airworthiness directive?

A

FIxes sometihng with the plane, like a recall for cars, must be complied with.

229
Q

What are several types of AD’s

A

Critical, one-time, and recurring.

230
Q

Can you fly over an annual or 100-hour inspection?

A

Only with a special permit from your FSDO;
Within 10 hours only if you’ll pass the 100-hour mark while en route to place of inspection. This does not reset the clock for the next 100 hour inspection.

231
Q

When can 100-hour and annual inspection be substituted for one another?

A

An annual can substitute for a 100-hour because it is more thorough.

232
Q

When is an ELT not required?

A

When doing a training flight within 50nm of your home airport.

233
Q

What are day VFR equipment requirements?

A
ATOMATOFLAMES
Altimeter
Tachometer
Oil Pressure gauge
Magnetic compass
Airspeed indicator
Temperature gauge
Oil temperature gauge
Fuel indicator (quantity)
Landing gear indicator
Anti collision lights
Manifold pressure indicator
ELT
Seatbelts
234
Q

What are night VFR requirements?

A
Day VFR in addition to the following:
FLAPS
Spare set of fuses (or 3 of each type)
Landing lights
Anti collision lights
Position lights
Source of electricity (battery)
235
Q

What would you do if you found equipment is inoperative?

A

See flow chart Louis gave me.

236
Q

What is a minimum equipment list? What is an example?

A

MEL; list of FAA approved equipment that can be inoperative and still allow for legal operation of flight.
Example: Some POH’s for aircraft could say landing light is OK to be INOPE for day VFR.

237
Q

Who can change the MEL?

A

Only with FAA approval.

238
Q

What are the 4 forces of flight?

A

Lift, weight, thrust, drag

239
Q

What are primary flight controls?

A

Rudder, ailerons, elevator

240
Q

What are secondary flight controls?

A

Trim, flaps

241
Q

Describe how lift is created.

A
242
Q

Explain different types of drag. Increase/decrease with speed?

A

Parasite drag: protrusions such as dirt, screws, fixed landing gear. Increases with speed.
Interference drag: intersection of drag from different sections of the airplane
Induced drag: drag as a byproduct of lift, decreases with higher airspeed (think wingtip vortices)

243
Q

What is Vg and relation to drag?

A

Vg is best glide speed, it is where induced and parasite drag meet (airspeed)

244
Q

What is camber and can it be changed?

A

Curve of the wing, change flaps angle to change it.

245
Q

Where can a counterweight be located and its purpose?

A
246
Q

What is the angle of incidence and can it be changed?

A

Angle of the wing chord and fuselage. Cannot be changed.

247
Q

Understand relation to CG and its effect on stall and stall recovery if too far forward/aft

A
248
Q

What causes a wing to stall?

A

When critical angle of attack is exceeded.

249
Q

How does temperature/weight/air density impact aircraft performance likke takeoff and landings, and why?

A

Higher temps usually mean longer ground roll and landing distances because the air is less dense.
Heavier aircraft means the same;
Air density is the same;

250
Q

What are different types of airspeed and definitions?

A

Indicated airspeed;
Calibrated airspped (installation errors, use of flaps, etc.)
True airspeed: correction for non-standard temperature and pressure
Ground speed: corrected for wind

251
Q

What are the different types of altitude readings?

A

Indicated altitude:
Pressure altitude: 29.92 standard inches of mercury, used to solve math problems for airspeed and density
Density altitude: pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature

252
Q

What is the difference betwene true altitude and absolute altitude?

A

Absolute altitude is AGL, true is MSL.

253
Q

What factors affect air density and how

A

Temperature: hottre, less dense air;

pressure: low pressure, less air density;
humidity: the more humid, the less dense the air is

254
Q

What is the difference between takeoff and ramp weight?

A

Ramp weight: max approved weight for taxiing and ground maneuvers

255
Q

How much does 1 gallon of 100LL weigh?

A

6 pounds

256
Q

Know the V speeds for aircraft by heart

A

Vy, Vx, Vso (stall speed in landing config), Vne, Vno (smooth air yellow arc), Vfe (flaps), and Va maneuvering speed

257
Q

Difference between Vx and Vy and when to use each

A
258
Q

Name some reasons for left-turning tendencies.

A

Spiraling slipstream, p factor (descending propeller has a greater AoA and therefore left yawing tendency

259
Q

Explain stability and how airplanes achieve this.

A

Wing dihedral; AoA of the down wing is greater, creating more lift and thus returning it to wings level.

260
Q

How does the airspeed indicator work?

A

Uses the pitot-static ports and measures the difference between air entering the pitot tube and static pressure (air unaffected by the aircraft’s flight path)

261
Q

How does the altimeter work?

A

Altimeter measure the difference between the static pressure inside the case and an aneroid wafer sealed inside a case internally at 29.92 inches of mercury pressure. As the airplane climbs and outside pressure decreases, the aneroid wafer expands.

262
Q

How does the VSI work?

A

Instrument casing, Diapharagm inside a case, small pinhole designed as a calibrated leak; as you descend, ambient pressure increases, but calibrated leak doesn’t allow the air to escape immediately, so air pressure in the case is lower than the diaphragm; diaphragm expands, and pushes VSI down. Delay by 6-9 seconds.

263
Q

Understand how pitot-static instruments respond to blockages

A
264
Q

Describe the gyroscopic instruments and how they work. What are 2 fundamental principles of gyroscopic instruments?

A

2 principles: rigidity in space (while spinning, a gyroscope stays fixed, like a bicycle wheel). And precession: when a force is applied to a gyroscope, the maximum resultant force is felt 90 degrees later ahead of the rotation (think of a circular disc).

Attitude indicator: also operates off rigidity in space; gyroscope, not impacted by precession, operates of principle of rigidity in space
Heading indicator: subject to precession due to friction, needs to be adjusted 10-15 mins;
Turn coordinator: electrically powered gyro that uses precession to measure rate of turn.

265
Q

What are magnetic variation and compass deviation?

A
266
Q

What types of errors are present in a magnetic compass and when would you encounter these errors?

A

ANDS; NOSE
When turning from a northern heading, compass will initially show more opposite turn error. Soth heading - exaggerated

On a east/west headings, acceleration will show more North error. Deceleration will show more south error.

267
Q

What does normally aspirated mean?

A

There is no turbocharger.

268
Q

Describe the engine in the C152 aircraft.

A
269
Q

What is the purpose of engine oil?

A

Cools, lubricates, seals, prevent direcft metal to metal contact, and carries contaminants awan from engine.

270
Q

What are the oil capacity requiremnets of this aircraft?

A
271
Q

Know how to use a plotter on a sectional.

A
272
Q

Describe the fuel system for your airplane.

A
273
Q

What colors are fuel?

A

100LL is blue, Jet is clear or straw colored. If they’re mixed together they become clear.

274
Q

What are stall strips, where are they placed?

A

Placed on the leading edge of a wing close to the wing root; designed to help pilots retain directionalm control in the event of a stall.

275
Q

What is standard temp and pressure?

A

15C, 59F, 29.92 inches of mercury

276
Q

What are isobars and what do their distances mean?

A

Isboars connect equal lines of pressure. If they’re close, it means strong winds.

277
Q

What are the characteristics of high and low pressure areas? (e.g. direction of air)

A

Think of a screwdriver: high pressure air descends in a clockwise manner.
Low pressure, warm air rises, typically causing turbulence and bad weather, air rises in a counter clockwise manner.

278
Q

What is a ridge and trough?

A

Ridge: area of high pressure and descending air
Trough: low pressure, rising air

279
Q

What needs to be present for a thunderstorm to form?

A

Moisture, unstable air, updraft

280
Q

What are the stages of a thunderstorm?

A

Cumulus formation, mature (precipitation), dissipation

281
Q

WHat is wind shear?

A
282
Q

Define dew point and humudity and what it means when these 2 are close together.

A

Dew point - temp at which air is fully saturated with water moisture;
Humudity: percent of water moisture in the air;
When close, will likely see mist or fog

283
Q

What types of fog are there and how do they form?

A

Advection fog (sea fog): warm air moves over colder land or water
Radiation fog (land): forms as air near the ground cools (also, think near cities or other places where it can pick up contaminants from the air)
Upslope: moist unstable air cooled as wind pushes it up a slope
Precipitation fog: warm air falls through cool air - evaporation from the rain saturates the cool air and fog forms

284
Q

Describe different types of icing, size, and brief explanation of each

A
Carb ice
Structural icing (forms on surface of the aircraft)
Rime ice (smaller droplets, freezes immediately on contact)
Clear ice (larger droplets, trickles on surface of plane then freezes.a bit later but not instantly)
285
Q

Briefly describe the different types of weather briefings.

A

Standard:
Abbreviated: just looking for certain things or to update a prior briefing
Outlook: when you will be departing more than 6 hours in the future

286
Q

What is a METAR, when is it issued and how long is it valid for?

A

Airport information, weather, issued hourly, good for the hour

287
Q

What is a TAF, where is it valid, and when is it issued?

A

Weather forecast, issued 4 times a day, valid for area within 5nm of airport

288
Q

Know how to read a GFA tool (aviation weather.gov website)

A
289
Q

What is an airmet, the different types, and brief description of each?

A

Airmet is a weather advisory that could affect general aviation aircraft;
Sierra: IFR or mountain obscurations
Tango: turbulence
Zulu: icing

290
Q

What is a sigmet and the different types?

A
significant weather (e.g. regular sigmet: severe turbulence, icing, dust storms)
convective sigmet - thunderstorms (winds greater than 50 knots, hail)
291
Q

What is a winds and temps aloft chart?

A

Shows winds and temps.

292
Q

What is a surface analysis chart?

A

It shows pressure systems, fronts, and local weather (like wind speed and reaction)

293
Q

What preflight action is required by the FAR’s?

A
NWKRAFT
NOTAMs
Weather
KNown ATC delays
Runway lengths
Alternate landing places
Fuel requirements
Takeoff and landing distances
294
Q

What are the fuel requirements for day and night?

A

30 mins day VFR; 45 mins night VFR (after calculating to destination)

295
Q

What are the right of way rules?

A
EBGAAR
Emergency
Balloon
Glider
Aircraft refueling
Airship
Rotorcraft
296
Q

Define minimum safe altitudes, and what are min altitude requirements?

A

Altitude that allows one to recover in an emergency;
500ft over a non-congested area;
1000ft within a 2000ft radius in congested area;
3000ft above and 3000ft radius +/- 1 hour of a large event like sporting event;

297
Q

What are light gun signals and what does each mean?.

A

On the ground / in the air:::

Solid green: clear for takeoff / clear to land
Flashing green: clear to taxi / come back to land
White: go to starting point / no meaning
Steady red: stop / circle do not land
Flashing red: exit clear of the active runway / airport unsafe do not use
Flashing green and red: use extreme caution

298
Q

What are pilotage and dead reckoning?

A

Pilotage: navigation by visual references landmarks;

Dead reckoning: navigation by radio nav aids like VOR or GPS;

299
Q

Define magnetic variation and how are they depicted on a sectional?

A

The difference between true north and magnetic north. (isogonic lines on a sectional. east is least, west is best)

300
Q

What should you do if you are lost in flight?

A
5 C's
Climb
Circle
Conserve
Communicate
Confess
301
Q

What is hypoxia, how to recognize, and how to fix?

A

Lack of oxygen, feeling of euphoria of disoriented, reduce altitude, open cabin windows

302
Q

What is hyperventilation, how to recognize, how to fix?

A

Irregular breathing and intake of oxygen to the lungs, feels like you can’t catch your breath, talk or sing to yourself to normalize the rhythm of breathing in and out

303
Q

What are runway illusions?

A

Narrow runway - tend to think you’re higher than you actually are
Wide runway: opposite of above
Night landings: think you’re higher than you actually are
Upsloping runway: think you’re higer than you actually are (think of my first solo XC to KCRQ)
Downsloping runway: opposite of above

304
Q

What are the hazardous attitudes?

A
AIIMR
Antiauthority
Invulnerability
Impulsivity
Macho
Resignation
305
Q

What are smoe ways to mitigate risk? (acronyms)

A
IMSAFE, PAVE
Illness
Medication
Stress
Alcohol
Fatigued
Eaten
PAVE:
Pilot (IMSAFE)
Aircraft (AV1ATES, AROW, ATOMATOFLAMES/FLAPS)
enVironment (NWKRAFT)
External (pressure from passengers)
306
Q

Explain how a carbureted engine works.

A
307
Q
Performance specs:
Rate of climb at sea level
Service ceiling
Takeoff ground roll + over 50ft obstacle
Landing ground roll + 50ft obstacle
Maximum ramp and takeoff weights
Fuel capacity (usable and non-usable)
Oil capacity (min and max)
Engine
A

Rate of climb at sea level: 715FPM
Service ceiling: 14,700 feet
Takeoff ground roll + over 50ft obstacle: 725ft / 1340ft
Landing ground roll + 50ft obstacle: 475 / 1200ft
Maximum ramp and takeoff weights: 1675 lbs ramp and 1670 lbs takeoff
Fuel capacity (usable and non-usable)
Oil capacity (min and max): 4 - 7 quarts
Engine: Avco lycoming 110 BHP at 2550 RPM (O-235-L2C)

308
Q
Speeds for C152:
Takeoff climb out speed
Vy
Vx
Vy over 10,000 ft
Landing flaps up
Landing flaps 30
Short field flaps 30
A
Takeoff climb out speed: 65-75 knots
Vy: 67 knots
Vx: 55 knots
Vy over 10,000 ft: 61 knots
Landing flaps up: 60-70 knots
Landing flaps 30: 55-65 knots
Short field flaps 30: 54 knots
309
Q

Va speeds and what not to do?

A

1670 pounds: 104 knots
1500 pounds: 98 knots
1350 pounds: 93 knots

No sudden movements above the speeds listed above.

310
Q

Speeds:
Operating range of full flaps
Green/yellow/red arcs

A

White arc for ful flaps: 35-85 knots
Green arc: 40-111 knots
Yellow arc: 111 knots - 149 knots
Red arc: 149 knots

311
Q

Empty weight of C152?

A

1141 pounds

312
Q

Describe your engine.

A
LHAND acronym
Lycoming O-235-L2C 110HP @ 2550 RPM
Horizontally opposed
Aircooled
Normally aspirated
Direct driven
313
Q

Name airspace from ground up if pointing to a certain point on sectional

A
Remember, class E is "everywhere"
Class G typically up to 14,500 ft
314
Q

AWOS/ASOS what are the differences?

A

AWOS is privately owned, ASOS is government owned.

Think of privately owned as better. More frequent updates, etc.

315
Q

Weather associated with cold/warm fronts?

A

Cold front: showers, thunderstorms, cumulus clouds

Warm front: showers, stratiform clouds, poor visibility

316
Q

Describe lenticular clouds.

A
317
Q

WHat does the thunderstorm anvil tell you and how far to stay awa from a t-storm?

A

20 miles; direction of the t-storm.

318
Q

Instruments in the pitot-static system and how does it respond to blockages?

A
319
Q

The vacuum moves what systems?

A

Heading and attitude indicator, engine driven vacuum