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PPL Flashcards

1
Q

7600

A

Radio Failure

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2
Q

7500

A

Hijacking

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3
Q

CFIT

A

Controlled flight into terrain.

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4
Q

Stopping a spin (uncoordinated stall)

A

P: Power idle
A: Ailerons neutral
R: Rudder opposite
E: Elevator forward then neutral

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5
Q

3 types of navigational charts

A

WAC: World aeronautical chart.

Sectional:

TAC: Terminal area chart.

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6
Q

Required inspections:

  • VOR
  • Altimeter
  • Transponder
  • ELT
A

VOR: 30 days or 100 hr if for hire.

Altimeter (pitot/static): 24 months

Transponder: 24 months

ELT: 12 months or used for 1 hour or half battery life.

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7
Q

Pilot required documents for flight.

A

Pilot: Medical, Pilots license, and ID.

Student pilot: medical, logbook, ID

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8
Q

91.205

Required equipment for day flight.

A 
T: Tach for each engine
O: Oil pressure gauge
M: Manifold pressure
A: Altimeter 
T: Temp gauge (liquid cooled)
O: Oil temp (air cooled)

F: Fuel gauge 
F: Flotation (over water beyond gliding)
L: Landing gear position indicator
A: Airspeed indicator 
A: Anticollision light system 
M: Magnetic direction indicator
E: ELT
S: Safety belts
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9
Q

91.205

Required equipment for night flight.

A 
F: Fuses
L: Landing lights
A: Anticollision lights
P: Position lights
S: Source of power (alternator)
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10
Q

91.211

Oxygen requirements

A

12,500 ft for > 30 mins = required crew.

14,000 ft for anytime = required crew

15,000 ft = must supply pax

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11
Q

Pitot static system instruments.

A

Airspeed indicator.

Vertical speed indicator.

Altimeter.

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12
Q

Vacuum system instruments.

A

Heading indicator.

Attitude indicator.

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13
Q

Electrical instruments.

A

Turn coordinator.

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14
Q

Magnetic compass errors:

  • UNOS
  • ANDS
A

Undershoot north, overshoot south: when turning N or S.

Accelerate N, decelerate S: when on an easterly/westerly setting.

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15
Q

Special Flight permit.

What is it?

Where do I get it?

A

For A/C that may not meet airworthiness requirements but is capable of safe flight.

Flight service district office (FSDO) or Designated airworthiness Representative (DAR) issue because:

  • flying for mx
  • delivering or exporting A/C
  • testing new production A/C
  • evacuating A/C from danger
  • customer demonstration for new production A/C that has completed production flight tests.
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16
Q

Convective SIGMET

A
  • Severe or greater turbulence.

- Thunderstorm

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17
Q

SIGMET (WS)

A
  • Nonconvective
  • Severe icing not associated with a T-storm
  • Turbulence
  • Hail
  • Dust storm
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18
Q

AIRMET (WA)

A

Lower intensity than SIGMET.

3 types:

  • Sierra: mountain obscuration
  • Tango: turbulence
  • Zulu: icing
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19
Q

4 factors that contribute to torque effect:

A

1) Torque: and the prop turns to the right tends to roll/bank A/C to left.
2) Gyroscopic effect of prop: Gyroscopic precession. If axis of prop is tilted, the resulting force will be exerted 90 degrees ahead in the direction of rotation and in the same direction as the applied force.

3) Corkscrewing effect of slipstream:
Slipstream circles the plane, striking the vertical tale surface on the left side pushing the tail to the right and yawing the plane left.

4) P-Factor:
At high angles of attack, the downward moving prop blade takes a bigger bite of the air, there is greater thrust on the downward blade, causing the plane to yaw left.

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20
Q

Light gun signals:

Steady Green

A

On ground: cleared to takeoff.

In air: clearing to land.

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21
Q

Light gun signals:

Flashing green.

A

On the ground: cleared to taxi.

In air: return for landing.

22
Q

Light gun signals:

Steady red.

A

On ground: Stop.

In air: yield, continue circling.

23
Q

Light gun signals:

Flashing red.

A

On ground: taxi clear of runway.

In air: unsafe, don’t land.

24
Q

Light gun signals:

Flashing white.

A

On ground: return to start.

In air: not used.

25
Q

Light gun signals:

Alternate red/green.

A

On ground and air: exercise extreme caution.

26
Q

Describe electrical system.

A

28 volt, direct-current, Powered by engine driven 60 amp alternator and 24 volt battery.

27
Q

7700

28
Q

Main types of inflight icing.

A
  • Stuctural
  • Induction system
  • Instrument icing
29
Q

3 types of structural ice.

A

Clear: remaining liquid flows out over a/c surface, gradually freezing into a sheet of solid ice.

Rime: drops are small, liquid portions freeze rapidly after initial impact and doesn’t have time to spread over the wing.

Mixed: drops vary in size or when liquid and snow or ice particles mix. Ice becomes imbedded in clear and created very rough accumulation.

30
Q

Wind shear: rate of change of wind velocity (direction and/or speed) per unit distance.

What three areas are of special concern?

A
  • wind shear with a low level temp inversion.
  • wind shear in a frontal zone or thunderstorm.
  • clear air turbulence at high levels associated with a jet stream or strong circulation.
31
Q

DECIDE Model.

A

D- Detect action necessary

E- Estimate significance of action

C- Choose desirable outcome

I- Identify actions needed to achieve desired outcome

D- Do necessary action

E- Evaluate effects of action

32
Q

IMSAFE

A
  • Illness
  • Medication
  • Stress
  • Alcohol (.04)
  • Fatigue
  • Emotion
33
Q

NOTAMS: Notices to airmen.

A

FDC: Flight Data Center NOTAMS are regulatory in nature such as changes to an instrument approach procedure or airway. Temporary flight restrictions are issued as FDC NOTAMS.

(D): NOTAMS given (in addition to local dissemination) distant dissemination beyond the area of responsibility of the Flight service station.

34
Q

Pax brief: SAFETY

A 
S: Seatbelts
A: Air vents
F: Fire extinguisher 
E: Emergency exits and plan
T: Traffic and talking
Y: Your questions?
35
Q

AV1ATE

A 
A: Annual
V: VOR (30 days) if IFR
1: 100 hour
A: Altimeter/ Pitot static (24 months)
T: Transponder (24 months)
E: ELT (12 months)
36
Q

Clouds clearance in B

A

3 miles visibility, clear of clouds.

37
Q

Cloud clearance above 10,000 MSL

A
  • 5 statute miles visibility.
  • 1,000 above
  • 1,000 below
  • 1 statute mile horizontally

“5-111”

38
Q

Clouds clearance in controlled airspace.

A
  • 3 statute miles visibility.
  • 1,000 ft above.
  • 500 ft below.
  • 2,000 ft horizontally

“3-152”

39
Q

Cloud clearance uncontrolled, above 1,200 ft.

Echo

A
  • 1 statute mile visibility
  • 1000ft above
  • 500 ft below
  • 2000 ft horizontally

“1-152”

At night: “3-152”

40
Q

Uncontrolled under 1200 AGL.

Golf

A
  • 1 mile visibility
  • clear of clouds.

At night: “3-152”

Exception: Pattern work at night within 1/2 mile of airport, 1sm, clear of clouds.

41
Q

What is hypoxia?

A

Lack of oxygen.

Symptoms:

  • drowsiness
  • dizziness
  • sense of well being.
42
Q

What is Hyperventilation?

A

Decrease in carbon dioxide.

Symptoms:

  • drowsiness
  • suffocation
  • light headed
43
Q

How does carbon monoxide poisoning occur?

A

Exhaust fumes escaping through manifold cracks.

Symptoms:

  • drowsiness
  • dizziness
  • headache
44
Q

What causes motion sickness?

A

Brain receiving conflicting messages about the state of the body.

Symptoms:

  • dizziness
  • sweating
  • vomiting
45
Q

91.213

Inoperative equipment.

A

3 places to check:

  • AD’s
  • POH
  • 91.205

If not required you must deactivate and remove or deactivate and placard.

46
Q

How does carbon monoxide poisoning occur?

A

Exhaust fumes escaping through manifold cracks.

Symptoms:

  • drowsiness
  • dizziness
  • headache
47
Q

PAVE

A
  • personal
  • aircraft
  • environment
  • external pressures
48
Q

AWOS

A

Automated weather observation system.

Minute by minute wx transmitted to the pilot. Will include prefix AUTO.

49
Q

ASOS

A

Automated surface observation system.

Continuous minute by minute observation that generate METARs and other wx info. Transmitted over VHF.

50
Q

TAF

A

Terminal aerodrome forecasts.

Forecast.

Private Pilot oral (1 decks)

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