Powerpoint Definitions Flashcards

1
Q

Cognitive skills

A

Using critical thinking; a systematic way to form and shape one’s thinking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

interpersonal skills

A

Promoting the dignity and respect of patients and establishing caring relationships

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Ethical/legal skills

A

Establishing a personal moral code and professional role responsibilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Systematic

A

Part of an ordered sequence of activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Dynamic

A

Great interaction and overlapping among the 5 steps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Interpersonal

A

Human being is always at the heart of nursing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Outcome oriented

A

Nurses and patients work together to identify outcomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Universally applicable

A

A framework for all nursing activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Objective data

A

what is observed, factual lab results, or vitals, medical record; check for errors, observer bias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Subjective data

A

What they tell you; verbal reports, use quotes when applicable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Complete Health Assessment

A

initial, comprehensive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Episodic health assessment

A

problem oriented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Interval or follow-up health assessment

A

changes from baseline; focused-digging deeper into ac actual, potential or possible problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

emergency health assessment

A

ABC (airway, breathing, circulation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Primary Objective

A

Gather information to determine another’s concerns and needs regarding health care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Directive Interviewing

A

Use to obtain factual, easily categorized information or in an emergency situation; closed questions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Non-directive Interviewing

A

Use to build rapport, promote communication or help the patient express feelings; open ended questions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Open ended questions

A

specify topic to be explored but patient must elaborate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Facilitation

A

encourage to say more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

silence

A

provides patient with time to think and organize thoughts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

reflection

A

repeating part of what the person just said and can help expressing feeling behind a person’s words

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Empathy

A

recognize a feeling and put it into words; helps the patient to feel accepted and deal with the feeling openly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Clarification

A

use when the patient’s word choice is ambiguous or confusing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Confrontation

A

you have observed a certain action, feeling or statement and you focus the person’s attention to it; give honest feedback

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Interpretation

A

based on your inference or conclusion. Helps the person understand his/her own feelings in relation to the verbal message

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Explanation

A

inform, sharing factual and objective information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Summary

A

final review of what you understand the patient has said; condenses facts and presents your perception of the health problem or need

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

HPI

A

history of present illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

COLDSPA

A

C- character of quality (describe your ___)
O- onset (when did it begin?)
L- location (location)
D- duration (how ling has it been going on?)
S- severity of symptoms (Scale of 1-10)
P- pattern (What makes it better? What makes it worse?)
A- associated factors/how it affects the client (Does it affect ADL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Rx

A

Prescribed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

OTC

A

Over the Counter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Gravida

A

How many times pregnant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Para

A

How many live births

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Review of systems

A

Looking at the past health of the body system. Subjective data. It is giving us their medical history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

BSI

A

blood stream infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

CAUTI

A

catheter-associated urinary tract infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

CDC

A

Center for disease control and prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

CLABSI

A

central line-associated blood stream infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

HAI

A

healthcare-associated infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

ICU

A

intensive care unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

SSI

A

surgical site infeciton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

VAP

A

ventilator-associated pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

AHRQ

A

Agency for healthcare research and quality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

HHA

A

U.S. Department of health and human services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Incubation

A

from time of infection until manifestations of symptoms; can infect others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Prodromal

A

appearance of vague symptoms; not all diseases have this stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Illness

A

signs and symptoms present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Decline

A

number of pathogens decline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Convalescence

A

tissue repair, return to health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Factors that Increase Infection Risk

A

Developmental Stage, Breaks in skin, Illness/injury, smoking, substance abuse, multiple sex partners, medication that decrease immune response, medical procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Factors that support Host Defenses

A

Adequate nutrition, balanced hygiene (enough but not too much), rest/exercise, reducing stress, immunization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Local infection

A

Occurs in a limited region in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Systemic infection

A

spread via blood or lymph, affects amny regions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Acute infection

A

rapid onset of short duration (common cold)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Chronic infection

A

slow development, long duration (osteomyelitis- Bone didn’t heal correctly)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Latent infection

A

infection present with no discernible symptoms (HIV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Malaise

A

Feeling of discomfort, illness, or lack of well-being

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

purulent

A

puffy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

MRSA

A

survives on skin, clothes, surfaces, and equipment; everyone could have it, depends if you are ill or not
(methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

VRE

A

spread of this infection is a result of failure of infection control procedures
(Vancomycin resistant Enterococcus faecium)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

C diff

A

this bacteria is a spore which can survive on surfaces for 5 months and can only be inactivated by bleach
(Clostridium difficile)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

KPC

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae Carbapenemase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

MDRO

A

Multiple drug resistant organisms; need to use drugs that have a lot of side-effects. This happens when people overuse medications or antibiotics and destroy their immune system

64
Q

Endogenous

A

Organism that is harmless in one place and causes infection in another (ex: e-coli);
Normal flora multiply and cause infection as a result of a treatment

65
Q

Exogenous or cross-infection

A

Organism transferred from another source (ex: nurse to patient)
Pathogen acquired from health care environment

66
Q

Medical Asepsis

A

A state of cleanliness that decreases the potential for the spread of infection

67
Q

Contact Isolation

A
Used when pathogen is transmitted by:
Direct contact
Indirect contact
Contact with the patient environment
(ex: MRSA, C diff)
68
Q

Droplet Precautions

A

Used when pathogen is transmitted by:
Close respiratory or mucus membrane contact with large respiratory DROPLETS (propell 3ft., do not remain suspended in the air)

69
Q

Airborne Precautions

A

Used when pathogen is transmitted by:
Small droplets stay suspended in the air
Small droplets dispersed long distances
Suspended droplets are inhaled

Transmission can occur via ventilation systems, shaking sheets, sweeping

Private room required (neg. pressure room)

70
Q

Vital Signs

A

Assessment of vital or critical physiological functions
Variation could indicate different things
“Stable vital signs indicate physiological well-being, they do not guarantee it.”
Temp., pulse, respiration, BP, Pain assessment

71
Q

Body Temperature

A

The degree of heat maintained by the body; the difference between heat produced by the body & heat lost to the environment

72
Q

Basal Metabolic Rate

A

(BMR) drops about 5% every decade

73
Q

Radiation

A

Diffusion or dissemination of heat by electromagnetic waves; body gives off heat from an uncovered surface

74
Q

Conduction

A

Dissemination of heat by motion between areas of unequal density; use a fan on patient with fever

75
Q

Exaporation

A

Conversion of a liquid to a vapor; body fluid in the form of perspiration (insensible loss) is vaporized from skin

76
Q

Convection

A

Transfer of heat to another object through contact; Body transfers heat to an ice pack causing the ice to melt

77
Q

Tympanic membrane Temp.

A

Fast, simple, convenient
Core temp
Do not use if pt. has had recent ear surgery
Ear wax alters readings

78
Q

Oral Temp

A

Surface temp
Simple/convenient
Bradypnea can cause false temp elevation

79
Q

Anal/rectal temp

A
Most accurate core temp
Doesn't reflect change as easily as oral
Stool can cause inaccurate reading
Potential rectal injury
Stimulates vagal nerve (will make temp drop)
80
Q

Axillary Temp

A

Surface temp
Least accurate
Sweating affects the reading

81
Q

Temporal-arterial temp

A

Core temp
Fast, safe
Any covering falsely increases reading

82
Q

Pulse

A

The rhythmic expansion of an artery produced as blood travels away from the heart

83
Q

Stroke Volume

A

Quantity of blood forced out of the left ventricle with each contraction; Averages 70ml; Pulse rate increases to compensate if there is loss of volume

84
Q

Cardiac Output

A

Total quality of blood pumped/min;

CO=SV+PR (cardiac output=stroke volume+pulse rate)

85
Q

Bradycardia

A

Heart rate below 60 bpm

86
Q

Tachycardia

A

Heart rate above 100 bpm

87
Q

Pulse Rhythm

A

Interval between heartbeats

Can be irregular or regular

88
Q

Regular Pulse Rhythm

A

Evenly spaced beats, may vary slightly with respiration

89
Q

Regularly Irregular Pulse Rhythm

A

regular pattern overall with “skipped” beats

90
Q

Irregularly Irregular

A

chaotic, no real pattern, very difficult to measure rate accurately

91
Q

Types of Quality with Pulse

A
Equal bilateral volume
Three point scale
3+ Full, bounding
2+ Normal
1+ Weak, thready
0 Absent
92
Q

Pulse deficit

A

the difference between the two pulse rates

93
Q

Mechanical respiration

A

Physically breathing

94
Q

Pulmonary ventilation

A

movement of air in and out of lungs

95
Q

Inhilation

A

breathing in

96
Q

Exhalation

A

Breathing out

97
Q

Chemical respiration

A

Exchange of O2 and CO2 between the alveoli and pulmonary blood supply

98
Q

Tachypnea

A

more than 20 respirations/min

99
Q

Bradypnea

A

less than 12 respirations/min

100
Q

Blood Pressure

A

The force of the blood against arterial walls; measured in mmHg; rises as ventricles contracts and falls as heart relaxes

101
Q

Systolic

A

Peak pressure exerted against the arterial walls as the ventricles contract & eject blood; top number

102
Q

Diastolic

A

Minimum pressure exerted against arterial walls between cardiac contractions

103
Q

Pulse Pressure

A

The difference between the systolic and diastolic and reflects the stroke volume; bottom number

104
Q

Mean Arterial Pressure

A

(MAP) Pressure forcing blood into the tissues

105
Q

Ausculatory Gap

A

a loss and later return of the korotkoff sound while taking a blood pressure; occurs in patients with hypertension

106
Q

Orthostatic vital signs

A

Serial measurements of pulse and blood pressure taken when:
– Volume depletion is suspected
–Pt. is hypertensive or is taking antihypertensive meds
–pt. reports fainting or syncope
–Assess in 3 positions: lying, sitting, standing
Present when a drop of >20mmHg is SBP or pulse increases by >20bpm

107
Q

Pain Threshold

A

The point at which patients experience pain

This differs person to person

108
Q

Pain Tolerance

A

Amount of pain a person is willing to endure

This differs person to person

109
Q

Acute pain

A

Rapid in onset, varies in intensity and duration

Protective in nautre

110
Q

Chronic Pain

A

may be limited, intermittent, or persistent
Lasts beyond the normal healing period
Periods of remission or exacerbation are common

111
Q

Intractable Pain

A

Chronic
Resistant to relief
Frustrating for both patient and healthcare provider
Must be approached with multiple methods to provide relief

112
Q

Environment

A

includes the physical and psychosocial factors that contribute to each person’s life and well being

113
Q

Factors affecting Safety

A
Age/Development
Lifestyle
Environmental factors
Mobility/heath status
Cognitive awareness
Emotional State
Ability to communicate
Safety awareness
114
Q

Theory Assumption

A

Believed that the environment could be maintained in a fashion that allowed nature to promote health/healing in the patient

115
Q

Nightingale’s ____ Canons of Nursing

A

13

116
Q

Flat bed position

A

Used for sleeping, maintaining proper spine alignment, and bed making

117
Q

Fowlers or High Fowlers Position

A

Sitting at a 45-60 angle, knees are flexed to decrease the risk of shearing
Used for: feeding/eating, easing dyspnea, and watching TB

118
Q

Semi-Fowlers Position

A

HOB 15-30 angle, knees are flexed

Used for decreasing the risk of aspiration in patients receiving tube feedings

119
Q

Trendelenburg Position

A

HOB down and FOB up,

Used for increasing circulation to vital organs, patient in shock, promoting postural drainage from basal lobes of lung

120
Q

Reverse Trendelenburg

A

HOB up FOB down
Used for promoting stomach emptying (hernia- out pouching around the stomach), can also help with orthostatic hypotension before standing

121
Q

The 4 Sources of Laws

A

The constitution, Statutes, Administrative bodies, and the courts

122
Q

The constitution

A

Superior law of the land, gives power to the states

123
Q

Statutes

A

Nurse Practice Act

124
Q

Administrative bodies

A

State Boards of Nursing

125
Q

The Couts

A

Case of law

126
Q

Assault

A

a threat or an attempt to make bodily contact with another person without that person’s consent

127
Q

Battery

A

an assault that is carried out and includes willful, angry, and violent or negligent touching of another person’s body or clothes or anything attached or held by that person

128
Q

Defamation of Character

A

an intentional tort in which one party makes derogatory remarks about another that diminishes the other party’s reputation

129
Q

Slander

A

oral defamation of character

130
Q

Libel

A

written defamation of character

131
Q

HIPAA

A

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act,

Protect the privacy of personal health information

132
Q

Patient’s Rights under HIPAA

A

see and copy their health record, update their health record, list of the disclosures, request a restriction on certain uses or disclosures, choose how to receive health information

133
Q

Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act

A

(EMTALA) provide emergency medical treatment regardless of their ability to pay

134
Q

Americans with Disabilities Act

A

(ADA) provides protection against discrimination of people with disabilities, must be provided reasonable accommodations

135
Q

Patient Self Determination Act

A

(PSDA) Advanced Directives, living will, patient gives direction about their wishes, Power of Attorney

136
Q

Ethics

A

the study of how we behave or how we should determine the right thing to do in our interactions with others

137
Q

Bioethics

A

Autonomy (respect for person)
Non-maleficence (Do no harm)
Benevolence (Doing good)
Justice (fair distribution of burden and benefit)

138
Q

Value

A

a belief about the worth of something, about what matters

139
Q

Altruism

A

concern for the welfare and well-being of others

140
Q

Autonomy

A

the right to self-determination

141
Q

Human Dignity

A

respect for the inherent worth and uniqueness of individuals and populations

142
Q

Integrity

A

acting in accordance with an appropriate code of ethics and accepted standards of practice

143
Q

qSocial Justice

A

upholding moral, legal, and humanistic principles

144
Q

Ethical dilemma

A

occurs when 2 or more clear moral principles apply but support mutually inconsistent courses of action

145
Q

Ethical distress

A

occurs when the nurse knows the right thing to do but wither personal or institutional factors make it difficult to follow the correct course of action

146
Q

Advocacy

A

the protection and support of another’s rights

147
Q

Patient Medical Record

A

accurate and prompt recording of observations, relevant information about the patient, patient progress, results of treatments, tests, surgical procedures, physical assessment, etc

148
Q

Informatics

A

the managing and processing of information necessary to make decisions

149
Q

Nursing Informatics

A

informatics applied to nursing practice, education, and research

150
Q

Data

A

discrete entities that are described objectively without interpretation

151
Q

Information

A

groupings of data put into meaningful structure

152
Q

Knowledge

A

formed when group data (information) is added to other structured information

153
Q

Wisdom

A

appropriate use of knowledge in managing or solving human problems

154
Q

Kardex

A

A summary worksheet reference of basic information that traditionally is not part of the record. It usually contains: client data, medical diagnoses, allergies, medical orders, and activities permitted

155
Q

Osteomyelitis

A

Bone didn’t heal correctly

156
Q

Osteomyelitis

A

Bone didn’t heal correctly