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Post mortem chicken > Poultry PM > Flashcards

Poultry PM Flashcards

1
Q

Name three reasons a carcass might be rejected at PM?

A
  1. Production faults
  2. Welfare problems
  3. Diseases
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2
Q

Which two stages is PM of birds carried out?

A

After de-feathering and after evisceration.

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3
Q

Name three duties of the OV?

A
  1. Daily inspection of viscera and body cavities of representative sample of birds.
  2. Detailed inspection of random sample of birds (or part of birds) declared unfit for human consumption after PM
  3. Any further investigations necessary when suspicion that meat unfit for human consumption.
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4
Q

What is the EU broiler welfare Directive?

A

Council Directive 2007/43-EC laying down minimum rules for protection of chickens for meat production.

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5
Q

When did the Council Directive 2007/43 EC come into force? Why was this law special?

A

1st July 2010

It is the first detailed legislation providing protection of the welfare of the broilers on farm.

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6
Q

Under what were broilers protected during transport and slaughter?

A

Transport Regulations and the Regulation of WATOK.

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7
Q

What is the result of ascities/ oedema?

A

Total rejection of carcass and offal.

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8
Q

What are the two forms of cellulitis and what could it be caused by?

A

Dry and wet.

E.coli.

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9
Q

How to detect cellulitis?

A

Yellow area of skin or below skin - often dried pus.

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10
Q

What is dermatitis caused by in broilers?

A
  1. Contact with irritant substances that are present in the litter e.g. uric acid.
  2. Physical trauma from the toes of other birds.
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11
Q

what is dermatitis rarely caused by?

A

Deficiencies nutritionally e.g. zine or vitamins

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12
Q

Name 4 common secondary bacterial infections of dermatitis?

A
  1. Staphylococci
  2. Streptococci
  3. Clostridia
  4. Erysipelas
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13
Q

Name 5 possible factors causing of dermatitis?

A
  1. poor defeathering
  2. high stocking density
  3. poor litter condition
  4. high lighting levels
  5. poor handling
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14
Q

When is cellulitis condemned?

A

If leisons are of the wet form and they are not clearly localised.

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15
Q

When is cellulitis only partially rejected?

A

If the lesions are localised (dry form) and systemic effects not observed

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16
Q

Name 6 reasons why a bird might be DOA?

A
  1. maximum daily temp over 17 degrees C
  2. Humidity
  3. ravelling to abattoir long
  4. Longer marketing time (from farm to slaughter)
  5. faster growing breeds/ genetic lines
  6. General disease status of flock
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17
Q

Name 3 reasons a bird might be emaciated?

A
  1. management
  2. feed inadequacies
  3. bacterial or viral disease
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18
Q

5 reasons for joint lesions/ arthritis?

A
  1. Reoviruses
  2. Mycoplasma synoviae
  3. Bacterial Infections
  4. Trauma
  5. Nutritional imbalance in rapidly growing broilers
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19
Q

Are joint lesions/ arthritis condemned?

A

They can be passed if no sign of systemic infection and affected area trimmed.

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20
Q

What are the carcasses like with septicaemia?

A

Dark red, soft to touch, dehydrated.

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21
Q

What causes septicaemia?

A

Presence of pathogenic bacteria/ and or proliferation of toxins in the bloodstream.

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22
Q

what are the initial stages of septicaemia?

A

Fever

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23
Q

What happens to a carcass with septicaemia?

A

Total rejection or carcass and offal.

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24
Q

What happens if there is a lot of disease in a flock?

A

If above a certain %, this will trigger action.

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25
Q

Name one trigger level?

A

Food pad dermatitis

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26
Q

Name 7 influencing factors of foot pad dermatitis?

A
  1. litter type and quality
  2. water drinker type
  3. Bird age (older bird producing more faeces, wet litter and more FPD)
  4. Ventilation and drinker management
  5. Feed source and quality
  6. Breed used
  7. Enteric disease
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27
Q

What is the FPD based on?

A

Scoring 100 chickens.

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28
Q

What is score 0, 1 and 2 on FPD?

A 
0 = healthy foot
1 = Mild lesion (significant but restricted)
2= severe lesion (extended and severe)
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29
Q

How do trigger levels work?

A
  • the OV records PM conditions at slaughterhouse
  • data uploaded to central FSA database and pass through trigger system within 48 hours
  • automatic trigger if one condition (or more) goes over the process 1 trigger levels
  • if the house mortality is above a particular level and three or more conditions above process 2 trigger level
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30
Q

If data is confirmed following trigger system, what happens?

A

Data sent back to OV and the keeper of animals and APHA will be alerted. APHA might visit to make sure it does not happen again.

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31
Q

What else might the AVHA require following a system trigger?

A

The farmer to produce a health plan with input of his own vet to prevent it happening again.

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32
Q

Is the process trigger level 1 or 2 higher?

A

Trigger level 1 is higher.

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33
Q

Name 3 examples where partial rejection might occur?

A
  1. localised contamination e.g. bile staining
  2. localised mechanical damage
  3. a condition where only part of the carcass or single organ is affected.
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34
Q

Does sub-acute pericarditis lead to rejection?

A

No, only partial rejection

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35
Q

Does active, severe pericarditis result in rejection?

A

Yes, total rejection

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36
Q

Name another example which will result in complete condemnation?

A

Birds positive to salmonella enteriditis and salmonella typhimurium in the FCI

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37
Q

What will happen if there is no AM or production report/ FCI not available?

A

Total rejection

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38
Q

Name 5 reasons for uncut-badly bled carcasses?

A
  1. failure of the automatic neck cutter (ANC) and back up slaughter men to sever at least one carotid artery due to:
  2. flock of uneven size
  3. poorly adjusted/maintained equipment.
  4. Failure of back-up slaughter man to address inefficiencies
  5. bleeding time insufficient
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39
Q

How can bruising and fractures occur?

A
  • catching teams poorly trained
  • catching machines poorly maintained
  • poor transportation/ crate maintenance e.g. holes and overcrowding
  • poor technique at uncrating and hanging
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40
Q

When does most bruising occur?

A

90% within 12-24 hours of slaughter

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41
Q

what is overscalding caused by?

A

production line halting (mainly due to breakdowns) when carcass still in tank.

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42
Q

what is the appearance of overscald?

A

carcass has a cooked appearance

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43
Q

what is the result of overscald?

A

tissues more susceptible to bacterial growth, deterioration from bacteria and a reduced shelf-life.

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44
Q

How to determine an overscald?

A

Stick to the touch and skin is brighter and whiter.

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45
Q

How to decide if overscald condemned of not?

A

Look at breast muscle, if cooked appearance deeper than 2mm, total condemnation, if less, might be passed as fit for human consumption.

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46
Q

How can you determine if a damage is before or after death?

A

no bruising if after death e.g. machine damage.

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47
Q

When does most mechanical damage occur?

A

At the de-feathering and evisceration machine.

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48
Q

Any bruising or fractures must be recorded under what?

A

the bruising/ fractures entry.

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49
Q

Name two example of other damages caused by processing?

A

Poor plucking where pluckers fail to remove deathers.

Un-eviscerated/ un-opened carcass - evisceration machinery fails.

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50
Q

What is airsaculitis caused by?

A

Respiratory infections.

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51
Q

What often accompanies airsaculitis?

A

Accompanying lesions in the bronchi and lungs.

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52
Q

name 4 factors which could cause airsaculitis?

A
  1. shed conditions e.g. ammonia levels in the air
  2. shed ventilation
  3. bird concentration
  4. shed hygiene
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53
Q

What is airsaculitis indicative of?

A

poor welfare conditions

54
Q

Name the three types of contamination?

A

faecal, bile, crop

55
Q

name 7 reasons for decontamination?

A
  1. poultry not fasted for long enough prior to slaughter - rupture of digestive tract
  2. evisceration machine not adjusted to correct size of birds
  3. insufficient ‘clean in place’ system to machinery
  4. contamination from pluckers, no water supply to pluckers
  5. rubber transfer to carcass by plucker fingers
  6. carcass, falling to floor
  7. cleaning agents e.g. disinfectants
56
Q

How does hepatitis occur?

A

bacterial or viral infection ascends from gut via bile duct through gall bladder leading to obstruction of biliary system, associated with bacterial toxins.

57
Q

What is hepatitis commonly associated with?

A

clostridium perfringens

58
Q

is hepatitis condemned?

A

If localised, then only partial condemnation

59
Q

What is the most common cause of pericarditis?

A

Bacterial infection

60
Q

When does bacterial infection of pericarditis occur?

A

early in life as a chick or during growing period.

61
Q

name two common bacterial pathogens of pericarditis?

A

E. coli and salmonella.

62
Q

can viruses cause pericarditis?

A

yes, but this has not been reported in the UK.

63
Q

When is pericarditis condemned?

A

When presence of secondary conditions or when salmonella test results recieved within the FCI are positive to S. enteritidis or S. typhimurium.

64
Q

Name 4 causes of peritonitis?

A

> trauma
salpingitis
enteritidis
hepatitis

65
Q

name two bacteria associated with peritonitis?

A

E. coli and pasteruella

66
Q

What is perihepatitis caused by?

A

E. coli and less frequently salmonella.

67
Q

What happens with peritonitis or peri-hepatitis on PM?

A

Tends to be total condemnation with offal.

68
Q

name 6 influencing factors of runts?

A
  1. Poor temperature management
  2. Poor farm hygiene leading to high disease/bacterial challenge
  3. breeder flock nutrition
  4. adenovirus and reovirus
  5. diarrhoea
69
Q

What might happen to runt birds at shackling?

A

The FBO might decide to cull due to difficulties with online processing.

70
Q

If not culled, what happens to runt carcasses?

A

They may be passed as fit for human consumption.

71
Q

What is likely at PM runt birds?

A

They will be rejected due to contamination and machine damage.

72
Q

What does salpingitis mean?

A

Egg impaction

73
Q

name 2 bacteria associated with the disease?

A

E.coli, salmonella

74
Q

what two diseases could it occur alongside?

A

Air saculitis or liver disease.

75
Q

Is salpingitis always infectious?

A

No, not always.

76
Q

What happens to salpingitis at PM?

A

If generalised and secondary conditions, unfit however if just offal unfit, just condemnation of oviduct is enough.

77
Q

What is the most common cause of tumours in birds?

A

Viral origin

78
Q

Name the most common type of tumour found in poutlry?

A

Marek disease

79
Q

What is Marek disease caused by?

A

herpes virus

80
Q

Describe another disease causing tumours in birds?

A

Avian Leukosis.

81
Q

What is the benign tumour which tends to be present at hatch? what causes it?

A

Haemangioma. caused by congenital overgrowth of blood capillaries.

82
Q

what is the tumour that only affects the skin?

A

squamous cell carcinoma.

83
Q

What happens to Marek’s disease carcass?

A

condemned in extensive cutaneous form and visceral form.

84
Q

What must airsaculitis be reported as?

A

respiratory disease

85
Q

what common accompanies airsaculitis?

A

peritonitis/ perhepatitis

86
Q

What are the two most common agents of airsaculitis?

A

Mycoplasmas and E. coli

87
Q

What is ascities?

A

Increase of fluid in one or more of the abdominal spaces e.g. gelatinous fluid with floating clots of fibrin.

88
Q

What is often associated with ascites?

A

Liver pathology and septicaemic carcase.

89
Q

In what kind of breeds is the affect of ascites greater?

A

Faster growing breeds.

90
Q

What is an interesting fact about the fluid making up ascities?

A

It tends to be sterile and liver changes tend not to be bacterial.

91
Q

Why might fluid collect in the abdominal cavity?

A

Due to increased blood pressure in the veins returning to the heart. Right sided heart failure due to high growth rate or poor ventilation.

92
Q

why is ascites gelatinous?

A

plasma proteins from blood and liver.

93
Q

what diseases can predispose birds towards bruising due to increased clotting times?

A
  1. aflatoxins

2. toxaemia/ septicaemia

94
Q

if a bruise is a healing lesion, what will its colour be?

A

green

95
Q

when is there total condemnation of cellulitis?

A

Wet form as it is not clearly localised

96
Q

What is cellulitis?

A

inflammation of the connective tissue between the skin and muscle caused by infection.

97
Q

What is wet cellulitis associated with?

A

septicaemia

98
Q

Why do some chicks develop cellulitis?

A

bacterial infection is able to reach the sub-cutaneous tissues before the naval has fully healed. controlled by immune system, but not fully healed.

99
Q

what bactteria usually cause cellulitis?

A

E. coli

100
Q

Name three risk factors associated with cellulitis?

A
  1. increased use of slow-feathering briolers with a prominent abdomen
  2. higher density in sheds
  3. higher litter humidity
101
Q

At want point are DOAs completely condemned?

A

At shackling point.

102
Q

what are the two biggest stressers for the birds?

A

Transport and thermal stress.

103
Q

What are the three forms of dermatitis?

A
  1. breast burn, hock burn, pododermatitis
  2. scabby hip dermatitis (brown encrustation)
  3. gangrenous dermatitis (necrosis, SC fluid and cooked appearance
104
Q

name two clear features of emaciation?

A

protrusion of sternum and concavity of the breast muscles.

105
Q

In acute hepatitis, what colour is the liver?

A

cherry red

106
Q

In the later stages of hepatitis, what colour is the liver?

A

pale brown/ bronzed.

107
Q

What is hepatosis?

A

Cholangiohepatitis

108
Q

What does high levels of cholangiohepatitis mean?

A

a feed related problem favouring proliferation of bacteria (clostridia) in the gut.

109
Q

what is angular limb deformity associated with?

A

Nutritional imbalance or growth plate trauma in young chicks

110
Q

What is twisted leg?

A

Slipped tendon - nutritional imbalance or angular limb deformity.

111
Q

What can joint deformities sometimes be associated with?

A

Cellulitis - in this case, systemic infection.

112
Q

Do joint issues tend to affect one or both legs?

A

one of the joints only

113
Q

how to tell if machine damage or earlier trauma?

A

the presence of bruising.

114
Q

how long should carcasses spend in the scalding tank?

A

4-5 minutes.

115
Q

what happens if lots of overscalding?

A
  1. reduction of line speed
  2. plant staff to be placed under the direction of the inspector for support on the removal of such carcasses from the line.
116
Q

what happens with pericarditis when salmonella test has not been recieved?

A

OV must make the professional decision that he deems necessary as to the length of rejection.

117
Q

what is the most common cause of pericarditis?

A

Bacterial infection.

118
Q

Name 4 reasons for high incidence of pericarditis?

A
  1. disease problems in breeder flocks
  2. poor egg hygiene
  3. poor farm hygiene
  4. respiratory virses.
119
Q

Perihepatitis and peritonitis should result in what?

A

complete rejection

120
Q

What can perihepatitis and peritonitis mean?

A

Mareks,IBD, respiratory disease or hygiene issues on farm or hatchery.

121
Q

what is the cause of poor plucking or evisceration failure?

A
  1. scalding tank not hot enough to enable effective plucking.
  2. plucker’s not set to bird’s size
  3. evisceration machine not set to bird’s size.
122
Q

if bird;s are culled on the hang line because of runting, are they fit for human consumption?

A

no

123
Q

what should happen to runted and stunted birds?

A

they should be culled on the farm at the earliest opportunity.

124
Q

in what birds is salpingitis commonly found?

A

End of lay hens, turkeys and ducks.

125
Q

what is septicaemia?

A

Blood poisoning resulting in a dark, soft, dehydrated carcass.

126
Q

what does squamous cell carcinoma look like?

A

Crater-like ulcers

127
Q

what causes fibrosarcoma, fibromyoma?

A

virus

128
Q

Where would you see Avian Leukosis tumours?

A 
LEMO:
Lymphoid - liver, spleen, cloaca
Eythroid - liver spleen cherry red
Myeloid - liver, spleen and kidneys
Osteroporosis - thickening of long bones.
129
Q

how is Marek’s controlled?

A

vaccination or cleaning and disinfection on farms between crops.

130
Q

why is it such a welfare issue if carcasses not bled well?

A

They might regain consciousness before scalding tank.

Post mortem chicken (1 decks)

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