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LDCE EB > Pothi book > Flashcards

Pothi book Flashcards

1
Q

MLLN max bandwidth for leased line
1) 64kbps
2) 256kbps
3) 2mbps (2048kbps)
4) 8 mbps

A

2mbps (2048kbps)

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2
Q

driving distance for HDSL at 2mbps
1) 2 km
2) 5 km
3) 10 km
4) 20 km

A

5 km

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3
Q

primary function of DXC
1) providing VPN
2) capacity expansion
3) enforcing QoS policies
4) video collaboration service

A

capacity expansion

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4
Q

max cross connect capacity of MLLN cluster node
1) 128 mbps
2) 256 mbps
3) 512 mbps
4) 1024 mbps

A

512 mbps

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5
Q

what does MLLN mini node lack as compared to basic node
1) cross connect capacity
2) port capacity

A

port capacity

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6
Q

maximum cross connect capacity of MLLN micro node
1) 63 TS
2) 95 TS
3) 127 TS
4) 255 TS

A

127 TS

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7
Q

primary function of accelerator node
1) DSLAM
2) VPN
3) corporate internet access

A

DSLAM

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8
Q

maximum cross connect capacity of MLLN mini node at CAS level
1) 63 TS
2) 95 TS
3) 127 TS
4) 255 TS

A

95 TS

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9
Q

which MLLN node is used for mobile network BTS connection
1) midi
2) mini
3) micro

A

mini node

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10
Q

________ tier architecture for NIB-1
1) two
2) three
3) four

A

three

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11
Q

protocol used for communication between NMS in NIB-II
1) HSL
2) SNMP
3) HTTP
4) FTP

A

SNMP

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12
Q

primary objective of MPLS based IP network of NIB-II
1) circuit-oriented routing
2) creating common IP infrastructure

A

creating common IP infrastructure

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13
Q

which layer enforces QoS in MPLS
1) core
2) access
3) edge
4) distribution

A

edge layer

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14
Q

which supports data, voice and video
1) layer 2 MPLS VPN
2) layer 3 MPLS VPN

A

layer 3 MPLS VPN

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15
Q

main function of layer 2 edge network in project-1 of NIB-II

A

enforcing QoS policies

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16
Q

project-1 of NIB-II supports
1) layer 2 MPLS VPN
2) layer 3 MPLS VPN
3) both

A

both

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17
Q

MPLS, the purpose of 20-bit label value
1) fault localization
2) error control
3) identifying the prefix
4) identifying the sufix

A

identifying the prefix

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18
Q

In MPLS, function of LER
1) fault localization
2) error control
3) identifying the prefix
4) assigning label

A

assigning label
LER: Label Edge Router

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19
Q

a group of packets sharing the same transport requirement
1) Forward Equivalence Class
2) Transport Equivalence Class
3) Network Equivalence Class
4) Packet Equivalence Class

A

FEC
Forward Equivalence Class

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20
Q

In VPN, the purpose of PE router
1) providing layer-2 functions for CE devices
2) providing layer-3 functions between CE devices

A

providing layer-3 functions between CE devices

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21
Q

GGC servers located at various states. GGC stands for

A

Google Global Cache

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22
Q

which VPN involves direct IP routing between CE devices
1) overlay VPN
2) peer VPN
3) MPLS VPN
4) LSP VPN

A

overlay VPN

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23
Q

which supports both ATM and ethernet for layer-2 encapsulation
1) APON
2) BPON
3) EPON
4) GPON

A

GPON

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24
Q

maximum split ratio supported by PON
1) 1:8
2) 1:16
3) 1:32
4) 1:64

A

1: 64

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25
Q

In FTTH. NGPN stands for

A

Next Generation Play Network

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26
Q

primary application of MSSP
1) inter-city traffic
2) intra-city traffic

A

intra-city traffic

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27
Q

advantages of MSPP in terms of cost reduction
1) 20%
2) 30%
3) 40%

A

40%

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28
Q

project-1 of NIB-II supports number of targeted cities
1)
2)
3)
4)

A

198

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29
Q

what type of connection allows a dialup VPN user to connect to NIB-II through narrowband RAS
1) secure L2TP tunnel
2) SSL
3) SSH

A

secure L2TP tunnel

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30
Q

BSNL GSPS stands for

A

Global Satellite Phone Service

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31
Q

ISDN BRA & PRA channels

A

BRA: 2 channels
PRA: 30 channels

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32
Q

role of MPLS in BSNL enterprise data services
1) providing voice service
2) providing VPN
3) providing mobile service

A

providing VPN

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33
Q

purpose of global audio conferencing services
1) reservation less conferencing for enterprise customers
2) usual conferencing for enterprise customers
3)
4)

A

reservation less conferencing for enterprise customers

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34
Q

primary purpose of web colocation
1) hosting domain names
2) housing a company’s infrastructure without losing control

A

housing a company’s infrastructure without losing control

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35
Q

v-Santhoshi offer is managed enterprise services
1) audio collaboration service
2) video collaboration service
3) data collaboration service
4)

A

video collaboration service

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36
Q

communication provided by BSNL GSPS
1) voice communication
2) messaging
3) data
4) all of the above

A

voice communication and messaging

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37
Q

revenue sharing ratio between BSNL and SaaS providers
20:80
30:70
40:60
50:50

A

40:60

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38
Q

in co-location facilities what services are offered to partners
1) Managed storage
2) cloud hosting
3) dedicated server hosting
4) all of the above

A

all of the above

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39
Q

what services does BSNL provide to mobile VNOs
1) landline services
2) internet services
3) voice, SMS and data services
4) broadband services

A

voice, SMS and data services

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40
Q

What is the satellite business model based on
1) govt funding
2) investment from BSNL
3) revenue sharing between BSNL and SBP
4) public donations

A

revenue sharing between BSNL and SBP
SBP: satellite business partner

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41
Q

which of the following is NOT listed as a potential source of additional revenue for BSNL
1) smart city solution
2) co-location facilities
3) Digital India mission
4) rural-urban digital divide

A

Digital India mission

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42
Q

w.r.t mobile commn, VNO stands for

A

Virtual Network Operator

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43
Q

What is the business model for satellite business
1) BSNL invests capital, SBP provides satellite resources
2) SBP invests capital, BSNL provides satellite resources
3) BSNL and SBP jointly invest capital
4) govt invests capital

A

SBP invests capital, BSNL provides satellite resources

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44
Q

what is emphasized as one of the requirements of M2M partners
1) Technical Capability only
2) Financial capability only
3) both Technical Capability and Financial Capability

A

both Technical Capability and Financial Capability

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45
Q

worlds first live telephone traffic through OFC in 1977 by
1) Bell Labs
2) AT&T

A

AT&T

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46
Q

what can cause Fresnel reflection an OTDR trace
1) fusion splices
2) mechanical splices
3) bends in the fiber
4) connectors

A

connectors

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47
Q

What does an OTDR measure indirectly when assessing splice loss
1) attenuation of the transmitted signal
2) backscattering coefficients of the fiber
3) fiber linear attenuation by LSA method
4) reflected light from Fresnel reflection

A

backscattering coefficients of the fiber

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48
Q

Why might variable attenuators be used in power meter measurements
1) to increase sensitivity of power meter
2) to extend dynamic range
3) to stabilize the photo diode temperature

A

to extend dynamic range

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49
Q

minimum power margin recommended in optical power budgets
1) 1 dB
2) 5 dB
3) 10 dB
4) 15 dB

A

5 dB

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50
Q

What is the purpose of frame in PCM
1) quantization
2) encoding
3) synchronization
4) decoding

A

synchronization

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51
Q

SDH n/w element which allows switching of VC-4 containers and mapping of PDH tributaries
1) TM
2) ADM
3) DXC
4) Regenerators

A

DXC

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52
Q

which are of SDH frame is mainly used for running, management and maintenance of n/w
1) payload area
2) AU pointer area
3) Section overhead area
4) Path overhead area

A

Section overhead area

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53
Q

what is the standing wave ratio a measure of in an antenna system
1) efficiency
2) resonant freq
3) impedance match
4) radiation pattern

A

impedance match

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54
Q

What is the theoretical antenna model used for gain reference in most antennas?
1) Dipole antenna
2) Yag-Uda antenna
3) Isotropic radiator
4) Parabolic Antenna

A

Isotropic radiator

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55
Q

How is gain measued for antennas w.r.t a dipole
1) dBd
2) dBi
3) dBm
4) dBw

A

dBd

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56
Q

What is the eligibility requirement for becoming a Public Wi-Fi Partner (PWP)?
a. Minimum annual turnover of Rs. 2 Lakhs
b. Minimum tum over of Rs. 5 Lakhs per year for the last three consecutive years
c. Registered for at least 6 months d. No eligibility criteria

A

Minimum tum over of Rs. 5 Lakhs per year for the last three consecutive years

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57
Q

How is the revenue sharing structured for Enterprise Wi-Fi Plans with 11-20 APs?
a. 25% of the net revenue
b. 28% of the net revenue
c. 30% of the net revenue
d. No revenue sharing for this category

A

30% of the net revenue

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58
Q

What is the objective of the Establishment and Maintenance of Customized Wide Area Network (WAN)?
a. Increase enterprise Wi-Fi coverage
b. Provide basic telecommunication services
c. Build a Wide Area Network on a turnkey basis
d. Offer Voice & Data PABX services

A

Build a Wide Area Network on a turnkey basis

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59
Q
  1. What is the role of empaneled System Integrators (Sls) in the WAN project?
    a. Only marketing activities
    b. Submission of best possible rates
    c. Providing last mile connectivity
    d. No involvement in pricing
A

Providing last mile connectivity

60
Q

What is the eligibility criterion for National Level empanelment as a PABX Franchisee?
a. Minimum annual tum over of Rs. 1.50 Crores
b. Licensed Telecom Service Provider
c. Experience of installing 2000 PABX ports
d. Must be a public limited company

A

Minimum annual tum over of Rs. 1.50 Crores

61
Q

What is the Key Feature of the Free PABX Scheme?
a. PABX franchisee charges rentals for junction connectivity
b. The agreement is entered for a minimum of 3 years
c. Customers are charged for both rentals and call/ data usage
d. Revenue share is not applicable

A

The agreement is entered for a minimum of 3 years

62
Q

What is the primary responsibility of the PABX Franchisee?
a. Provide backhaul voice and data connectivity
b. Collect payments from customers
c. Market the scheme at BSNL’s cost
d. Submitting bids in tenders

A

Market the scheme at BSNL’s cost

63
Q

What is the objective of the Network System Solution?
a. Provide Wi-Fi services
b. Offer PABX services
c. Supply, configure, install, and maintain networking equipment
d. Expand the Enterprise Wi-Fi Model

A

Supply, configure, install, and maintain networking equipment

64
Q

What is the minimum requirement for providing Bulk SMS Solution?
a. Capability to support 1000 TPS per port
b. Minimum turnover of Rs. 2 Crores
c. Experience in selling hardware only
d. SMPP connectivity uptime of 95%

A

Capability to support 1000 TPS per port

65
Q

How does the System Integrator handle Priority Messages in the Bulk SMS Solution?
a. Ignores them
b. Pushes them to any available port
c. Pushes them to appropriate BSNL’s SMSC Ports
d. Directly forwards them to customers

A

Pushes them to appropriate BSNL’s SMSC Ports

66
Q

What should the System Integrator provide for add-on services in Bulk S.MS Solution?
a. Charge extra for each add-on service
b. Provide them for free
c. Only offer services requested by BSNL
d. Never provide add-on services

A

Provide them for free

67
Q

What is the duration of the agreement for empanelled System Integrators (Sls)?
a. 2 years
b. 3 years
c. 5 years
d. No fixed duration

A

5 years

68
Q

What does BSNL provide in the Bulk SMS Solution?
a. Backend software only
b. SMPP connectivity
c. Intenational SMS accounts
d. Hardware for all sites

A

SMPP connectivity

69
Q

What does the PABX Franchisee need to provide at customer premises?
a. Only software for PABX
b. Hardware & Software for Voice & Data PABX
c. FCBC, Batteries, MDF, Inter-Connect Cables
d. Only cabling/ wiring

A

Hardware & Software for Voice & Data PABX

70
Q

What is the responsibility of the PABX Franchisee regarding backup devices?
a. Provide backup devices at their own office
b. No backup devices required
c. Hand over old backup to BSNL
d. Maintain backups for a minimum of 6 months

A

Hand over old backup to BSNL

71
Q

What is the primary responsibility of the PABX Franchisee in the Bulk SMS Solution?
a. Handle lawful interception
b. Provide network system solutions
c. Market/promote the PABX services
d. Manage ‘Ihe Financial organization’s existing infrastructure

A

Market/promote the PABX services

72
Q

What is the main objective of Project Smile?
- A. Enhancing staff morale
- B. Improving CSC effectiveness
- C. Reducing operational costs
D. Expanding BSNL’s network

A

Improving CSC effectiveness

73
Q

What is the significance of “Any Time Payment”
machines?
A. Extended hours of cash counters
B. Online reconnection
C. Publicity of ATP
D. Printing of duplicate bills

A

Extended hours of cash counters

74
Q

How did the project address the issue of CAF collection for GSM services and scrutiny by TERM cell?
A. Implementation of scanners
B. Specific alphanumeric numbering pattern
C. Introduction of CSR terminals
D. Storing CAFs at centralized locations

A

Specific alphanumeric numbering pattern

75
Q

What was the primary challenge in Ambience Design?
A. Non-availability of standard CSC design
B. High expenditure on redesign
C. Lack of cooperation from staff
D. Delay in administrative orders

A

Non-availability of standard CSC design

76
Q

What are the top key success factors for Project Smile according to the report?
- A. Reduction of operational costs
- B. 24 x 7 bill acceptance and extended timings
- C. Ambience redesign
- D. CSR terminal installations

A

24 x 7 bill acceptance and extended timings

77
Q

What is suggested as a future focus for BSNL to increase customer satisfaction?
- A. Increasing operational costs
- B. Outsourcing counter staff
- C. Treating CSCs as revenue centers
- D. Expanding BSNL’s network

A

Treating CSCs as revenue centers

78
Q

Which factor does the report BSNL should focus on for future initiatives?
- A. Centralized servers
- B. Young staff
- C. BCCS compatibility
- D. Reduction of operational costs

A

Centralized servers

79
Q

What area does the report emphasize for future training of CSC personnel?
- A. IT tools
- B. Customer service
- C. Technical operations
- D. Personality development

A

IT tools

80
Q
  1. does the report suggest needs to be given to a nodal officer for backend activities?
    - A. CSR terminals
    - B. CAFs
    - C. Administrative password
    - D. Operational guidelines
A

Administrative password

81
Q

What is the primary reason for the increased importance of Service Level Agreements (SLAs) in recent years?
a. Steep rise and growth of the manufacturing industry
b. Decreased outsourcing of services
c. Increased complexity of technical service atmosphere
d. Lack of interest in cost-cutting efforts

A

Increased complexity of technical service atmosphere

82
Q

Why do companies outsource their critical business activities to service providers?
a. To increase their costs
b. To maintain outdated infrastructure
c. To achieve higher expertise and modern infrastructure
d. To reduce the volume of business

A

To achieve higher expertise and modern infrastructure

83
Q

What is the fundamental concept that governs Service Level Management (SLM)?
a. “If you can hide, you can manage”
b. “If you can measure, you can manage”
c. “If you can delay, you can improve”
d. “If you can ignore, you can improve”

A

“If you can measure, you can manage”, “If you can manage, you can improve”

84
Q

What is a key factor in finalizing the service level between parties?
a. The availability of the best service
b. The consideration of cost factor
c. The reliance on latest technology
d. The lack of customer satisfaction

A

The consideration of cost factor

85
Q

What is the purpose of tolerance limits in a Service Level Agreement?
a. To maximize the service levels
b. To minimize the service levels
c. To set upper and lower limits for expected service levels
d. To eliminate the need for service levels

A

To set upper and lower limits for expected service levels

86
Q

What is the significance of the waiting time example?
a. It highlights the need for excessive service.
b. It emphasizes the importance of customer satisfaction.
c. It promotes the idea of unnecessary cost reduction.
d. It discourages setting tolerance limits.

A

It emphasizes the importance of customer satisfaction.

87
Q

How are B2C SLAs different from B2B SLAs in terms of negotiation and enforcement?
a. B2C SLAs are unilaterally announced, while B2B SLAs are negotiated.
b. B2C SLAs are legally binding, while B2B SLAs are not.
c. B2C SLAs are less effective, while B2B SLAs are more effective.
d. B2C SLAs require registration, while B2B SLAs do not.

A

B2C SLAs are unilaterally announced, while B2B SLAs are negotiated.

88
Q

What is the objective of Service Level Management (SLM)?
a. To maximize resource usage
b. To maximize customer satisfaction
c. To achieve continuous improvement in the quality of services
d. To eliminate the need for measurement

A

To achieve continuous improvement in the quality of services

89
Q

What is the primary purpose of meaningful metrics in a service level agreement (SLA)?
A) To collect a large amount of data
B) To disclose every business information
C) To derive critical performance indicators
D) To increase the complexity of SLA negotiations

A

To derive critical performance indicators

90
Q

What is the purpose of business process metrics in an SLA?
A) To measure technical attributes
B) To quantify key technical metrics
C) To measure Interactions between customers and service
providers
D) To calculate system uptime and network connectivity

A

To measure Interactions between customers and service

91
Q

Which type of obligation arises in a simple SLA where a service is
offered against payment?
A) Interdependent obligations
B) Conditional obligations
C) Independent obligations
D) Circumstantial obligations

A

Independent obligations

92
Q

In a B2B (business-to-business) SLA, how are penalties typically decided?
A) Based on public impression and customer subscriptions
B) As self-imposed credits to customers
C) Keeping liquidated damages in mind
D) Without considering the severity of the breach

A

Keeping liquidated damages in mind

93
Q

What is the purpose of a dispute resolution clause in an SLA?
A) To encourage litigation
B) To specify penalties for breaches
C) To outline the process of resolving disputes amicably
D) To create fear in the minds of defaulting parties

A

To outline the process of resolving disputes amicably

94
Q

What step is recommended in the dispute resolution process before resorting to arbitration or litigation?
A) Expert Opinion or Umpire
B) Reference to a joint committee
C) Drafting of an effective arbitration agreement
D) Termination clause negotiation

A

Reference to a joint committee

95
Q
  1. What does adhoc arbitration refer to in dispute resolution?
    A) Arbitration with ad-hoc rules specified by an institution
    B) Arbitration without specifying any arbitration center
    C) Arbitration based on expert opinions
    D) Arbitration with predefined rules and procedures
A

Arbitration without specifying any arbitration center

96
Q

Why is it important to draft an effective arbitration agreement?
A) To increase litigation before arbitration
B) To create unnecessary delays in dispute resolution
C) To avoid unnecessary litigation before arbitration
D) To encourage Court intervention in arbitration proceedings

A

To avoid unnecessary litigation before arbitration

97
Q

What should be included in a termination clause in an SLA?
A) Post termination financial consequences
B) Penalties for minor breaches
C) Lengthy legal procedures
D) Unclear termination conditions

A

Post termination financial consequences

98
Q

Why are annexures important in an SLA?
A) To complicate the SLA
B) To include unnecessary documents
C) To provide an index for important documents
D) To increase the length of the SLA

A

To provide an index for important documents

99
Q

What is the purpose of authorized signatories in an SLA?
A) To increase the complexity of the agreement
B) To allow anyone to modify contractual terms
C) To specify the official mode of communication
D) To have the right to amend or modify contractual terms

A

To have the right to amend or modify contractual terms

100
Q

What does the termination clause in an SLA help to avoid?
A) Penalties for breaches
B) Heavy costs and complications
C) Communication issues
D) Liquidated damages

A

Heavy costs and complications

101
Q

In which scenario might conditional obligations be exercised?
A) Unilaterally by one party
B) Only during natural calamities
C) On specific conditions
D) During routine service provision

A

On specific conditions

102
Q

What should be considered while finalizing rewards and penalties in an SLA?
A) Increasing the fear in the minds of defaulting parties
B) Self-imposed penalties without consideration
C) Compensation for losses only
D) Cautioning both parties about their obligations

A

Cautioning both parties about their obligations

103
Q

What ancient technique involved the use of fire and smoke signals for transmitting information?
- A) Telegraphs
- B) Optical fiber
- C) Semaphore
- D) Photophone

A

Semaphore

104
Q

For a 10GBASE-SR system demanding 2000 MHz*km, what is the maximum distance OM2 multimode fiber can be used?
A. 82 meters
B. 300 meters
C. 550 meters
D. 500 meters

A

82 meters

105
Q

Which ITU-T G.652 compliant fiber is known as the first single-mode fiber?
A. G.652A
B. G.652B
C. G.652C
D. G.652D

A

G.652A

106
Q

What is the purpose of ITU-T G.653 compliant dispersion-shifted fibers?
A. Minimizing dispersion at 1310nm
B. Minimizing dispersion at 1550nm
C. Non-linear effects in transmission
D. Suitable for long-haul applications

A

Minimizing dispersion at 1550nm

107
Q

Which version of ITU-T G.655 fibers is introduced to extend WDM applications into the S-band?
A. G.655a
B. G.655b
C. G.655c
D. G.655E

A

G.655b

108
Q
  1. Why are power margins included in optical power budgets?
    - A. To allow for system upgrades
    - B. To account for fiber aging
    - C. To facilitate loopback testing
    - D. All of the above
A

All of the above

109
Q

What does the link power budget help determine in a fiber optic communication link?
- A. Maximum transmission speed
- B. Optimal wavelength for transmission
- C. Distance the fiber optic span can be used over
- D. Number of splices in the fiber optic link

A

Distance the fiber optic span can be used over

110
Q

What is the purpose of the worst-case design approach in optical fiber systems?
- A) To maximize dispersion values
- B) To minimize dispersion values
C) To exceed the dispersion value determined for the system
design
- D) To ignore dispersion values

A

To exceed the dispersion value determined for the system
design

111
Q

How is Receiver Sensitivity defined in optical communication?
- A) Maximum power for a I x IO—IO BER
- B) Minimum power for a I x IO—IO BER
- C) Average power for a I x 10—5 BER
- D) Peak power for a I x 10—5 BER

A

??

112
Q

What does Optical Path Power Penalty account for in optical communication systems?
- A) Only fiber losses
- B) Total degradations due to several factors
- C) Only laser chirp
- D) Only inter-symbol interference

A
113
Q

ln which frequency range is the hom antenna typically used?
A) VHF
B) UHF
C) Microwave
D) HF

A

Microwave

114
Q

What does a parabolic antenna utilize to reflect waves into a plane wave for high gain in microwave applications?
- A) Refractor
- B) Reflector
- C) Lens
- D) Prism

A

Reflector

115
Q

What is the main component of a patch antenna?
- A) Reflector
- B) Ground Plane
- C) Lens
- D) Horn

A

Ground Plane

116
Q

Which feed mechanism uses a small horn antenna at the focus to radiate a directional pattern toward the parabolic reflector?
- A) Center Feed
- B) Horn Feed
- C) Cassegrain Feed
- D) Isotropic Feed

A

Horn Feed

117
Q

What is the feed mechanism in a parabolic antenna often called, as it radiates electromagnetic energy toward the reflector?
A) Transmitter
B) Primary Antenna
C) Secondary Antenna
D) Tertiary Antenna

A

Primary Antenna

118
Q

How is the half-power beamwidth (HPBW) defined in the context of antenna radiation pattens?
A) The angular separation between the half power points.
B) The total power radiated by the antenna.
C) The frequency range where the antenna operates optimally.
D) The distance from the antenna where power loss is negligible.

A

he angular separation between the half power points.

119
Q

What is the primary purpose of the Cassegrain feed in a parabolic antenna?
- A) To block unwanted signals
B) To improve antenna aesthetics
- C) To redirect emissions from the primary antenna
D) To enhance ground plane reflections

A

To redirect emissions from the primary antenna

120
Q

In microwave antennas, what is often used as the reference for gain measurements?
- A) Dipole Antenna
- B) Isotropic Radiator
- C) Parabolic Antenna
- D) Yagi Antenna

A

Isotropic Radiator

121
Q

What factor determines the gain of a parabolic antenna?
- A) Frequency and size
- B) Frequency and illumination
- C) Size and illumination
- D) Wavelength and frequency

A

Size and illumination

122
Q

What is the purpose of diversity schemes in microwave links?
- A) To increase power efficiency
- B) To combat fading and interference
- C) To reduce antenna size
- D) To enhance signal modulation

A

To combat fading and interference

123
Q

Which satellite was the first truly geostationary satellite launched in orbit?
- A. Syncom 1
- B. Telstar 1
- C. Intelsat 1
D. Syncom 3

A

Syncom 3

124
Q

What is the primary application of Direct Broadcast Satellites (DBS)?
- A. Navigation
- B. Internet services
- C. Satellite television
- D. Telephony

A

Satellite television

125
Q

Modulation technique is commonly used in satellite communication?*
- A. Amplitude modulation (AM)
- B. Frequency modulation (FM)
- C. Phase-shift keying (PSK)
- D. Quadrature amplitude modulation (QAM)

A

Phase-shift keying (PSK)

126
Q

What does the term “Saturated Flux Density” (SFD) refer to in satellite
- A. Signal strength at the receiver
* B. Atmospheric interference
- C. Flux density at die saturation point of a transponder
- D. Noise power spectral density

A

Flux density at die saturation point of a transponder

127
Q

What is the significance of the “Link Margin”
in satellite communication?
- A. Measures signal strength
- B. Compensates for unforeseen losses
- C. Determines satellite orbit
- D. Evaluates modulation techniques

A

Compensates for unforeseen losses

128
Q

Which orbit type has an altitude range of 150 to 1,000 km?
- A. Low Earth Orbit (LEO)
- B. Medium Earth orbit (MEO)
- C. Geostationary Orbit (GEO)
- D. Polar Orbit

A

Low Earth Orbit (LEO)

129
Q

What is the primary advantage of VSAT broadband networking in terms of service availability?
a. Limited by terrestrial infrastructure
b. Ubiquity
c. High-cost factor
d. Limited multicast support

A

Ubiquity

130
Q

What technology does Dynamic Link Allocation (DLA) use in VSAT to adjust modulation, coding, and gain based on link conditions?
a. Fiber optics
b. Satellite encryption
c. Wireless transmission
d. Turbo Product Coding

A

Turbo Product Coding

131
Q

In VSAT architecture, what role does the hub play in a star network configuration?
a. Centralized communication point
b. Terrestrial network connection
c. Mesh network coordinator
d. Remote site receiver

A

Centralized communication point

132
Q

What is the primary function of VSATs in the DSPT network?
a. Providing broadband Internet
b. Offering VPN services
c. Enabling satellite phone connectivity
d. Supporting video streaming

A

Enabling satellite phone connectivity

133
Q

What technology is used in VSAT networks to provide connectivity in areas with limited terrestrial infrastructure?
a. Fiber optics
b. Demand Assigned Multiple Access (DAMA)
c. Satellite encryption
d. Turbo Product Coding

A

Demand Assigned Multiple Access (DAMA)

134
Q

What is the frequency range used in Ku band VSAT networks?
a. 1.5 GHz - 2.7 GHz
b. 10.7 GHz - 12.75 GHz
c. 3.4 GHz - 4.2 GHz
d. 13.75 GHz - 14.5 GHz

A

13.75 GHz - 14.5 GHz

135
Q

What is the typical topology used in VSAT networks for the DSPT system?
a. Point to point
b. Star
c. Mesh
d. Hybrid star/mesh

A

Star

136
Q

What is the maximum download speed mentioned for BSNL’s Broadband V -SAT system?
- A. I Mbps
- B. 2 Mbps
- C. 4 Mbps
- D. 8 Mbps

A

4 Mbps

137
Q

What is the purpose of a Dynamic Link Allocadon (DLA) in VSAT networks? **
- A. Provides dynamic IP addresses
B. Adjusts modulation, coding, and gain based on the link
environment
- C. Encrypts data for security
- D. Routes data through multiple paths

A

Adjusts modulation, coding, and gain based on the link

138
Q

What is the role of the Gateway Networking Equipment in a VSAT architecture? **
- A. Connects to the satellite
B. Interfaces with terrestrial networks like MLLN, MPLS, and NIB
- C. Amplifies satellite signals
- D. Provides power supply to the VSAT system

A

Interfaces with terrestrial networks like MLLN, MPLS, and NIB

139
Q

What is the primary advantage of using VSAT for broadband data communications?
- A. Lower latency
- B. Multicast support
- C. Unlimited bandwidth
- D. Direct fiber-optic connection

A

Multicast support

140
Q

How is the National Optical Fiber Network (NOFN) funded?
- A. Private investrnents
- B. State govemment contributions
- C. Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF)
- D. Corporate sponsorships

A

Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF)

141
Q

What is the technology utilized in NOFN for providing connectivity to Gram Panchayats?
- A. ADSL (Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line)
- B. GPON (Gigabit Passive Optical Network)
- C. DSL (Digital Subscriber Line)
- D. 4G LTE (Long-Term Evolution)

A

GPON (Gigabit Passive Optical Network)

142
Q

What is the main feature of the GPON equipment used in the NOFN project?
- A. Imported from foreign manufacturers
- B. Indigenously designed and developed by C-DOT
- C. Exclusive use of dark fiber
- D. Utilizes radio and satellite media

A

Indigenously designed and developed by C-DOT

143
Q

What is the primary technology used in the Network for Spectrum (NFS) project?
- A. 4G LTE
- B. DSL
- C. GPON
- D. Exclusive Optical Fiber based network

A

Exclusive Optical Fiber based network

144
Q

What is the primary focus of the NFS project?
- A. Urban broadband connectivity
- B. Rural broadband penetration
- C. Enhancing Army’s operational communication
- D. Expanding cable TV networks

A

Enhancing Army’s operational communication

145
Q

What is the role of states in the implementation of the NOFN
- A. Funding the project
- B. Providing free Rights of Way for optical fiber network
C. Managing the Network Management System
D. Indigenously designing GPON equipment

A

Providing free Rights of Way for optical fiber network

146
Q

What is the technology used in GPON that allows higher efficiency and higher bandwidth?
A. ADSL
B. Dark Fiber
- C. Frame Segmentation
D. Radio Media

A

Frame Segmentation

LDCE EB (4 decks)

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