Potassium Flashcards

1
Q

Homeostatic mechanisms maintain plasma K + concentration between____

A

3.5 and 5.0 mM

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2
Q

The ___ of the connecting segment (CNT) and cortical CD that play a dominant role in renal K + secretion, whereas alpha-intercalated cells of the outer medullary CD function in renal tubular reabsorption of filtered K + in K+ -deficient states.

A

principal cells

alpha-intercalated cells

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3
Q

Hypokalemia, defined as a plasma K +concentration of <____ mM

A

3.5

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4
Q

Systemic _____ can also cause treatment resistant hypokalemia, due to a combination of reduced cellular uptake of K +and exaggerated renal secretion.

A

hypomagnesemia

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5
Q

_______ can occasionally result from in vitro cellular uptake of K + after venipuncture, for example, due to profound leukocytosis in acute leukemia.

A

Spurious hypokalemia or “pseudohypokalemia”

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6
Q

Associated with a tenfold increase in in-hospital mortality

A

Hypokalemia

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7
Q

Which of the following statements about nonrenal potassium loss is correct?
A. Vomiting causes hypokalemia primarily through direct gastric potassium loss.
B. BK channel upregulation in the colon is a key mechanism in several intestinal disorders.
C. Noninfectious diarrhea does not contribute to significant hypokalemia.
D. Gastric losses from nasogastric suctioning are the main driver of hypokalemia in hospitalized patients.

A

B

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8
Q

_____ have a greater effect on plasma K +concentration than loop diuretics, despite their lesser natriuretic effect.

A

Thiazides

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9
Q

The diuretic effect of thiazides is largely due to inhibition of the _____in DCT cells.

A

Na+ -Cl – cotransporter NCC

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10
Q

High doses of _____can increase obligatory K + excretion by acting as nonreabsorbable anions in the distal nephron.

A

penicillin-related antibiotics (nafcillin, dicloxacillin, ticarcillin, oxacillin, and carbenicillin)

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11
Q

Renal tubular toxins that cause renal K+ and Mg2+ wasting → hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia.

A

Aminoglycosides, amphotericin, foscarnet, cisplatin, ifosfamide.

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12
Q

Liddle’s syndrome is caused by autosomal dominant gain-in-function mutations of _____.

A

ENaC subunits

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13
Q

Patients with Liddle’s syndrome classically manifest severe hypertension with ______, unresponsive to spironolactone yet sensitive to amiloride.

A

hypokalemia

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14
Q

Mutations in thiazide-sensitive Na+/Cl– cotransporter of DCT.

A

Gitelman’s Syndrome

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15
Q

TALH transporter defects (Na+, K+, Cl–).

A

Bartter’s Syndrome

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16
Q

Hypokalemia is a major risk factor for both____

A

ventricular and atrial arrhythmias.

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17
Q

Electrocardiographic changes in hypokalemia include ______; these are most marked when serum K +is <2.7 mmol/L.

A

broad flat T waves, ST depression, and QT prolongation

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18
Q

The paralytic effects of hypokalemia on intestinal smooth muscle may cause _____.

A

intestinal ileus

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19
Q

____ is the mainstay of therapy in hypokalemia.

A

Oral replacement with K+ -Cl-

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20
Q

____, oral or IV, may be appropriate in patients with combined hypokalemia and hypophosphatemia.

A

Potassium phosphate

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21
Q

_____ should be considered in patients with concomitant metabolic acidosis.

A

Potassium bicarbonate or potassium citrate

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22
Q

The use of intravenous administration should be limited to patients _____

A

unable to use the enteral route or in the setting of severe complications (e.g., paralysis, arrhythmia).

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23
Q

Intravenous K+-Cl should always be administered in ______, because the dextrose-induced increase in insulin can acutely exacerbate hypokalemia.

A

saline solutions, rather than dextrose

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24
Q

The peripheral intravenous dose is usually _____of K+-Cl –per liter;

A

20–40 mmol

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25
Q

If hypokalemia is severe (<2.5 mmol/L) and/or critically symptomatic, intravenous K+ -Cl – can be administered through a central vein with cardiac monitoring in an intensive care setting, at rates of _____; higher rates should be reserved for acutely life-threatening complications.

A

10–20 mmol/h

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26
Q

Strategies to minimize K +losses

A

> Minimizing the dose of non-K+-sparing diuretics
Restricting Na + intake, and using clinically appropriate combinations of non-K+ -sparing and K+ -sparing medications (e.g., loop diuretics with ACE inhibitors).

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27
Q

Hyperkalemia is defined as a plasma potassium level of _____

28
Q

Drugs that impact on the _____ are also a major cause of hyperkalemia.

A

renin-angiotensin-aldosterone axis

29
Q

______ can occur in the setting of excessive muscle activity during venipuncture (e.g., fist clenching), a marked increase in cellular elements (thrombocytosis, leukocytosis, and/or erythrocytosis) with in vitro efflux of K+ , and acute anxiety during venipuncture with respiratory alkalosis and redistributive hyperkalemia.

A

Pseudohyperkalemia

30
Q

_____ has surpassed tuberculosis as the most important infectious cause of adrenal insufficiency.

31
Q

Hyperkalemia due to hypertonic mannitol, hypertonic saline, and intravenous immune globulin is generally attributed to a ______, as water moves out of cells along the osmotic gradient.

A

“solvent drag” effect

32
Q

____ depolarizes muscle cells, causing an efflux of K+ through acetylcholine receptors (AChRs).

A

Succinylcholine

33
Q

A patient receives a large dose of lysine intravenously. What is the most likely mechanism leading to hyperkalemia?
A. Direct inhibition of potassium channels
B. Reduced renal excretion of potassium
C. Cation-K+ exchange at the cellular level
D. Solvent drag effect

36
Q

Which of the following hereditary conditions is characterized by lifelong salt wasting, hypotension, and hyperkalemia?
A. Bartter’s syndrome
B. Gitelman’s syndrome
C. Autosomal recessive pseudohypoaldosteronism type I (PHA-I)
D. Pseudohypoaldosteronism type II (PHA-II)

A

C Autosomal recessive pseudohypoaldosteronism type I (PHA-I)
Explanation: Recessive PHA-I is caused by mutations in ENaC subunits, leading to impaired Na+ reabsorption and K+ secretion, resulting in salt wasting, hypotension, and hyperkalemia.

37
Q

Which of the following features differentiates pseudohypoaldosteronism type II (PHA-II) from Gitelman’s syndrome?
A. Hyperkalemia in PHA-II, hypokalemia in Gitelman’s syndrome
B. Hypertension in Gitelman’s syndrome, hypotension in PHA-II
C. Reduced bone density in Gitelman’s syndrome, increased bone density in PHA-II
D. Metabolic acidosis in Gitelman’s syndrome, metabolic alkalosis in PHA-II

A

A

Hyperkalemia in PHA-II, hypokalemia in Gitelman’s syndrome
Explanation: PHA-II (hereditary hypertension with hyperkalemia) is characterized by hyperkalemia and metabolic acidosis, while Gitelman’s syndrome presents with hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis.

38
Q

What is the primary treatment for pseudohypoaldosteronism type II (PHA-II)?
A. ACE inhibitors
B. Thiazide diuretics
C. Spironolactone
D. Sodium bicarbonate

39
Q

Which genetic mutation is responsible for pseudohypoaldosteronism type II (PHA-II)?
A. Mutations in SCN4A
B. Mutations in WNK1 and WNK4
C. Mutations in SLC12A3
D. Mutations in CYP11B2

40
Q

Cardiac arrhythmias associated with hyperkalemia include ______

A

sinus bradycardia, sinus arrest, slow idioventricular rhythms, ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, and asystole

41
Q

Hyperkalemia can also cause a ____ Brugada pattern in the electrocardiogram (ECG), with a pseudo–right bundle branch block and persistent coved ST-segment elevation in at least two precordial leads.

42
Q

Classically, the ECG manifestations in hyperkalemia progress from
>tall peaked T waves (5.5–6.5 mM), to a
>loss of P waves (6.5–7.5 mM), to a
>widened QRS complex (7.0–8.0 mM), and, ultimately, a to a >sine wave pattern (>8.0 mM).

A

> tall peaked T waves (5.5–6.5 mM), to a
loss of P waves (6.5–7.5 mM), to a
widened QRS complex (7.0–8.0 mM), and, ultimately, a to a >sine wave pattern (>8.0 mM).

43
Q

Hyperkalemia from a variety of causes can also present with ascending paralysis, denoted _______ to differentiate it from familial hyperkalemic periodic paralysis (HYPP).

A

secondary hyperkalemic paralysis

44
Q

The presentation may include diaphragmatic paralysis and respiratory failure.

A

Secondary hyperkalemic paralysis

45
Q

Initial laboratory tests for hyperkalemia should include _____

A

electrolytes, BUN, creatinine, serum osmolality, Mg2+ and Ca2+ , a complete blood count, and urinary pH, osmolality, creatinine, and electrolytes.

46
Q

_____ are required for calculation of the transtubular K + gradient (TTKG)

A

Serum and urine osmolality

47
Q

TTKG >7–8: Consistent with ______ (appropriate renal K+ excretion).

A

hyperkalemia

48
Q

TTKG <3: Consistent with ______ (appropriate renal K+ retention).

A

hypokalemia

49
Q

However, patients with significant hyperkalemia (plasma K + concentration _____ mM) in the absence of ECG changes should also be aggressively managed, given the limitations of ECG changes as a predictor of cardiac toxicity.

50
Q

What is the first priority in the diagnostic approach to hyperkalemia?
A. Measure serum aldosterone levels
B. Assess the need for emergency treatment
C. Obtain a detailed dietary history
D. Calculate the transtubular potassium gradient (TTKG)

51
Q

A patient with hyperkalemia has a urine sodium concentration <25 mmol/L. What is the most likely cause?
A. Tubular resistance to aldosterone
B. Reduced distal sodium delivery
C. Hypertonicity-induced potassium redistribution
D. Primary aldosterone deficiency

A

B

A urine sodium concentration <25 mmol/L indicates insufficient sodium delivery to the distal nephron, limiting potassium secretion.

52
Q

Hyperkalemia Treatment: In hyperkalemic patients with glucose concentrations of _____ mg/dL, insulin should be administered without glucose, again with close monitoring of glucose concentrations.

A

≥200–250

53
Q

The recommended dose of insulin in treatment of hyperkalemia

A

The recommended dose is 10 units of intravenous regular insulin followed immediately by 50 mL of 50% dextrose (D50 W, 25 g of glucose total);

54
Q

_____, most commonly albuterol, are effective but underused agents for the acute management of hyperkalemia.

A

β2 -Agonists

55
Q

______ have an additive effect on plasma K + concentration; however, ~20% of patients with ESRD are resistant to the effect of _____; hence, these drugs should not be used without insulin.

A

Albuterol and insulin with glucose

β2 -agonists

56
Q

____ has no role in the acute treatment of hyperkalemia, but may slowly attenuate
hyperkalemia with sustained administration over several hours.

A

Intravenous bicarbonate

57
Q

The cation exchange resin _
exchanges Na + for K+ in the gastrointestinal tract
and increases the fecal excretion of K

A

sodium polystyrene sulfonate (SPS)

58
Q

The recommended dose of SPS is _ of powder, almost always given in a premade suspension with 33% sorbitol.

59
Q

_typically of the colon or ileum, is a rare but usually fatal complication of SPS

A

Intestinal necrosis

60
Q

Notably a major side effect of novel intestinal potassium binders

A

Hypomagnesemia

61
Q

Therapy with _______ may be beneficial in hypovolemic patients with oliguria and decreased distal delivery of Na+ , with the associated reductions in renal K + excretion.

A

intravenous saline

62
Q

_______ can be used to reduce plasma K+ concentration in volume-replete or hypervolemic patients with sufficient renal function for a diuretic response; this may need to be combined with intravenous saline or isotonic bicarbonate to achieve or maintain euvolemia.

A

Loop and thiazide diuretics

63
Q

______ is the most effective and reliable method to reduce plasma K +concentration

A

Hemodialysis

64
Q

Which therapy is most effective for rapidly removing potassium in severe or refractory hyperkalemia?
A. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (SPS)
B. Loop diuretics with isotonic saline
C. Hemodialysis
D. Patiromer

65
Q

Which of the following potassium binders is associated with hypomagnesemia as a side effect?
A. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (SPS)
B. Patiromer
C. Sodium zirconium cyclosilicate (ZS-9)
D. Loop diuretics