Post operative Management Flashcards

1
Q
Which of the following conditions is most likely to be associated with these arterial blood gas sample results:
pH	7.48
pO2	10.1
HCO3	30
pCO2	4.5
Cl-	96mEq
Respiratory alkalosis
Metabolic acidosis with normal anion gap
Metabolic alkalosis
Metabolic acidosis with increased anion gap
Type 2 respiratory failure
A

Metabolic alkalosis

These arterial blood gas results are classically seen in situations where there is metabolic alkalosis such as may occur following prolonged vomiting.

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2
Q

A 22 year old lady is admitted to the intensive care unit following a laparotomy. She has a central line, pulmonary artery catheter and arterial lines inserted. The following results are obtained:
Pulmonary artery occlusion pressure Low
Cardiac output High
Systemic vascular resistance Low
How may these findings be best interpreted?

	Hypovolaemia
	Septic shock
	Normal
	Fluid overload
	Cardiogenic shock
A

Septic shock

Decreased SVR is a major feature of sepsis. A hyperdynamic circulation is often present. This is the reason for the use of vasoconstrictors.

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3
Q

Which of the drugs listed below confers the greatest risk of malignant hyperthermia?

	Decamethonium halides
	Suxamethonium
	Benzquinonium
	Gallamine
	Vecuronium
A

Suxamethonium

Suxamethonium may cause malignant hyperthermia and 1 in 2800 will have abnormal cholinesterase enzyme and prolonged clinical effect.

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4
Q

Which of the agents listed below is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor?

	Milrinone
	Metaraminol
	Dopamine
	Dobutamine
	Adrenaline
A

Milrinone

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5
Q

A 56 year old man is on the ward 5 days following a high anterior resection for a carcinoma of the recto sigmoid junction. Over the past 12 hours, he has developed increasing lower abdominal pain, a fever of 37.8oC and fast atrial fibrillation. Of the investigations listed below, which is likely to be the most useful?

	Abdominal X-ray
	Abdominal ultrasound scan
	Abdominal CT scan
	Echocardiogram
	Measurement of cardiac enzymes in the blood
A

Abdominal CT scan

New AF following a colonic resection is most likely to represent an anastomotic leak and this will be best seen on CT scanning.

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6
Q

A 28 year old lady with known von Willebrands disease is bleeding following the excision of a sebaceous cyst. Administration of which of the following agents is most likely to be beneficial?

	Desmopressin
	Factor IX concentrate
	Factor VII concentrate
	Factor X concentrate
	Vasopressin
A

Desmopressin

Desmopressin is useful in managing the bleeding from the commonest type of vWD. Vasopressin is less likely to be disease specific and at most would have a vasoconstrictor approach which is likely to be of brief duration.

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7
Q

A 6 week old preterm neonate is due to have surgery for an inguinal hernia. Which of the following fluids should be administered whilst they are nil by mouth?

	10% dextrose
	50% dextrose
	5% dextrose
	25% dextrose
	Hartmanns solution
A

10% dextrose

Neonates are at considerable risk of hypoglycaemia following surgery and should receive 10% dextrose.

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8
Q

A 53 year old man has an arterial blood gas sample taken and the following results are obtained, he is breathing room air.
pH 7.49
pO2 8.5
HCO3 22
pCO2 2.4
Cl- <10meq
Which of the conditions listed below is most likely to account for these findings?

Respiratory alkalosis
Type 2 respiratory failure
Metabolic acidosis with increased anion gap
Metabolic alkalosis
Metabolic acidosis with normal anion gap
A

Respiratory alkalosis

The hyperventilation results in decreased carbon dioxide levels, causing a respiratory alkalosis (non compensated).

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9
Q

A 44 year old man undergoes a distal gastrectomy for cancer. He is slightly anaemic and therefore receives a transfusion of 4 units of packed red cells to cover both the existing anaemia and associated perioperative blood loss. He is noted to develop ECG changes that are not consistent with ischaemia. What is the most likely cause?

	Hyponatraemia
	Hyperkalaemia
	Hypercalcaemia
	Metabolic alkalosis
	Hypernatraemia
A

Hyperkalaemia

The transfusion of packed red cells has been shown to increase serum potassium levels. The risk is higher with large volume transfusions and with old blood.

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10
Q

Which of the following muscle relaxants will tend to incite neuromuscular excitability following administration?

	Atracurium
	Suxamethonium
	Vecuronium
	Pancuronium
	None of the above
A

Suxamethonium

Suxamethonium may induce generalised muscular contractions following administration. This may raise serum potassium levels.

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11
Q

Which of the variables listed below is not considered in the sequential organ failure assessment (SOFA) tool?

	Bilirubin
	Urea
	Mean arterial pressure
	Platelet count
	Creatinine
A

Urea

Urea is not one of the variables considered.

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12
Q

A 23 year old man is recovering from an appendicectomy. The operation was complicated by the presence of perforation. He is now recovering on the ward. However, his urine output is falling and he has been vomiting. Which of the following intravenous fluids should be initially administered, pending analysis of his urea and electrolyte levels?

	Hartmans solution
	Dextran 70
	Pentastarch
	Gelofusin
	5% Dextrose
A

Hartmans solution

He will have sequestration of electrolyte rich fluids in the abdomen and gut lumen. These are best replaced by use of Hartmans solution in the first instance.

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13
Q

A 73 year old man develops disseminated intravascular coagulation following an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair. He receives an infusion of cryoprecipitate. What is the major constituent of this infusion?

	Factor VIII
	Factor IX
	Protein C
	Protein S
	Factor V
A

Factor VIII

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14
Q

A 32 year old man presents to the acute surgical unit with acute pancreatitis. Over the next few days he becomes dyspnoeic and his saturations are 89% on air. A CXR shows bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. His CVP pressure is 16mmHg. What is the most likely diagnosis?

	Cardiac failure
	Pneumococcal pneumonia
	Staphylococcal pneumonia
	Pneumocystis carinii
	Adult respiratory distress syndrome
A

Adult respiratory distress syndrome

Acute pancreatitis is known to precipitate ARDS. ARDS is characterised by bilateral pulmonary infiltrates and hypoxaemia. Note that pulmonary oedema is excluded by the CVP reading < 18mmHg.

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15
Q

Which of the anaesthetic agents below is most likely to induce adrenal suppression?

	Sodium thiopentone
	Midazolam
	Propofol
	Etomidate
	Ketamine
A

Etomidate

Etomidate is a recognised cause of adrenal suppression, this has been associated with increased mortality when used as a sedation agent in the critically ill.

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16
Q

A 63 year old man is commenced on an infusion of packed red cells following a total hip replacement. Which of the following adverse events is most likely?

	ABO mismatching
	Immune mediated intolerance of rhesus incompatible blood
	Pyrexia
	Jaundice
	Graft versus host disease
A

Pyrexia

Mild pyrexia during blood transfusion is the most common event and commonly occurs during transfusion.

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17
Q

A 45 year old man is admitted to the intensive care unit following a laparotomy. He has a central line, pulmonary artery catheter and arterial lines inserted. The following results are obtained:
Pulmonary artery occlusion pressure Cardiac output Systemic vascular resistance
Low Low High
What is the most likely interpretation of this?

	Normal
	Cardiogenic shock
	Septic shock
	Fluid overload
	Hypovolaemia
A

Hypovolaemia

Cardiac output is lowered in hypovolaemia due to decreased preload.

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18
Q

A 32 year male with leukaemia attends the day unit for a blood transfusion. Five days after the transfusion he attends the Emergency Department with a temperature of 38.5, erythroderma and desquamation. What is the most likely explanation?

	Graft versus host disease
	Acute haemolytic transfusion reaction
	Delayed haemolytic transfusion reaction
	Transfusion associated lung injury
	Neutrophilic febrile reaction
A

Graft versus host disease

This is associated with transfusion of unirradiated blood in immunosuppressed patients. Transfusion associated GVHD can occur 4-30 days after a transfusion and follows a sub acute pathway. Patients may also have diarrhoea and abnormal liver function tests. Management involves steroid therapy.

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19
Q

A 63 year old man has been on the intensive care unit for a week with adult respiratory distress syndrome complicating acute pancreatitis. He has required ventilation and is still being mechanically ventilated. What is the best option for maintenance of his airway?

	Nasotracheal tube
	Endotracheal tube
	Tracheostomy
	Guedel airway
	Laryngeal mask
A

Tracheostomy

Tracheostomy is often used to facilitate long term weaning. The percutaneous devices are popular. These involve a seldinger type insertion of the tube. A second operator inserts a bronchoscope to ensure the device is not advanced through the posterior wall of the trachea. Complications include damage to adjacent structures and bleeding (contra indication in coagulopathy).

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20
Q

A patient with tachycardia and hypotension is to receive vasopressors. Which of the following conditions are most likely to be treated with vasopressors?

	Hypovolaemic shock
	Septic shock
	Neurogenic shock
	Cardiogenic shock
	None of the above
A

Septic shock

The term septic shock has a precise meaning and refers to refractory systemic arterial hypotension in spite of fluid resuscitation. Patients will therefore usually require vasopressors.

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21
Q

A 24 year old man is recovering from a right hemicolectomy for Crohns disease. He is oliguric and dehydrated owing to a high output ileostomy. His electrolytes are normal. Which of the following intravenous fluids should be administered?

	0.9% sodium chloride
	Hartmanns solution
	0.45% sodium chloride
	5% dextrose
	10% dextrose
A

Hartmanns solution

Of the solutions given Hartmans is the most suitable. Consideration should also be given to potassium supplementation.

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22
Q

Infusion with which of the following blood products is most likely to result in an urticarial reaction?

	Packed red cells
	Fresh frozen plasma
	Platelets
	Cryoprecipitate
	Factor VIII concentrate
A

Fresh frozen plasma

Pyrexia is the most common adverse event in transfusing packed red cells
Urticaria is the most common adverse event following infusion of FFP

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23
Q

Which of the arterial blood gas analyses would most likely be seen in a patient with a high output ureterosigmoidostomy?

	pH 7.64, pO2 10.0 kPa pCO2 2.8 kPa, HCO3 20
	pH 7.25, pO2 8.9, pCO2 3.2, HCO3 10
	pH 7.20, pO2 6.2, pCO2 8.2, HCO3 27
	pH 7.60, pO2 8.2, pCO2 5.8, HCO3 40
	pH 7.45, pO2 7.2, pCO2 2.5, HCO3 24
A

pH 7.25, pO2 8.9, pCO2 3.2, HCO3 10

There is acidosis. To compensate the patient will attempt to raise the pH level in the blood by hyperventilating, hence the low CO2 level .

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24
Q

A 54-year-old man is admitted for an elective hip replacement. Three days post operatively you suspect he has had a pulmonary embolism. He has no past medical history of note. Blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg with a pulse of 90/min. The chest x-ray is normal. Following treatment with low-molecular weight heparin, what is the most appropriate initial lung imaging investigation to perform?

	Pulmonary angiography
	Echocardiogram
	MRI thorax
	Ventilation-perfusion scan
	Computed tomographic pulmonary angiography
A

Computed tomographic pulmonary angiography

CTPA is the first line investigation for PE according to current BTS guidelines

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25
Q

Which of the intravenous fluid combinations listed below should be considered for replacement of losses from a high output ileostomy in a 2 year old?

	0.9% saline with added potassium
	Hartmanns solution
	10% dextrose with added potassium
	0.45% saline with added potassium
	2.7% saline with added potassium
A

0.9% saline with added potassium

In children with ongoing losses, these should be replaced with 0.9% sodium chloride with added potassium.

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26
Q

Which of the agents listed below can be administered via the peripheral route in the non cardiac arrest setting?

	Milrinone
	Noradrenaline
	Adrenaline
	Metaraminol
	Dobutamine
A

Metaraminol

As a general rule, inotropes and vasopressors can only be administered via a central vein. Metaraminol is an exception to this as it can be administered via a peripheral line.

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27
Q

Administration of neostigmine to a patient who has received a non depolarizing muscle relaxant is most likely to result in which of the following?

	Prolongation of muscle relaxation
	Tachycardia
	Hypertension
	Bradycardia
	Decreased gut peristalsis
A

Bradycardia

Neostigmine can cause bradycardia and atropine is often administered concomitantly to counter this effect.

28
Q

Which of the following agents is most likely to be helpful in controlling refractory hypotension in a 23 year old female with severe pyelonephritis?

	Noradrenaline
	Adrenaline
	Dobutamine
	Dopamine
	Milrinone
A

Noradrenaline

Since the main issue here is vasodilation, a vasoconstrictor is most likely to be helpful.

29
Q

Which arterial blood gas sample best represents widespread mesenteric infarction?

	pH 7.64, pO2 10.0 kPa pCO2 2.8 kPa, HCO3 20
	pH 7.25, pO2 8.9, pCO2 3.2, HCO3 10
	pH 7.20, pO2 6.2, pCO2 8.2, HCO3 27
	pH 7.60, pO2 8.2, pCO2 5.8, HCO3 40
	pH 7.45, pO2 7.2, pCO2 2.5, HCO3 24
A

pH 7.25, pO2 8.9, pCO2 3.2, HCO3 10

This is usually associated with acidosis, hyperventillation and reduction in bicarbonate.

30
Q

A 17 year old man undergoes an elective right hemicolectomy. Post operatively he receives a total of 6 litres of 0.9% sodium chloride solution, over 24 hours. Which of the following complications may ensue?

	Hyperchloraemic acidosis
	Hypochloraemic alkalosis
	Hyperchloraemic alkalosis
	Acute renal failure
	None of the above
A

Hyperchloraemic acidosis

Excessive infusions of any intravenous fluid carry the risk of development of tissue oedema and potentially cardiac failure. Excessive administration of sodium chloride is a recognised cause of hyperchloraemic acidosis and therefore Hartmans solution may be preferred where large volumes of fluid are to be administered.

31
Q

A 28 year old man with Crohn’s disease has undergone a number of resections. His BMI is currently 18 and his albumin is 18. He feels well but does have a small localised perforation of his small bowel. The gastroenterologists are giving azathioprine. What is the most appropriate advice regarding feeding?

	Nil by mouth
	Nil by mouth and continuous intra venous fluids until surgery
	Enteral feeding
	Parenteral feeding
	Nutritional supplements
A

Parenteral feeding

This man is malnourished, although he is likely to require surgery it is best for him to be nutritionally optimised first. As he may have reduced surface area for absorption and has a localised perforation TPN is likely to be the best feeding modality.

32
Q

A 51 year old man is shot in the abdomen and sustains a significant intra abdominal injury. A laparotomy, bowel resection and end colostomy are performed. An associated vascular injury necessitates a 6 unit blood transfusion. He has a prolonged recovery and is paralysed and ventilated for 2 weeks on intensive care. He receives total parenteral nutrition and is eventually weaned from the ventilator and transferred to the ward. On reviewing his routine blood tests the following results are noted:

Full blood count
Hb 11.3 g/dl
Platelets 267 x 109/l
WBC 10.1 x109/l

Urea and electrolytes
Na+	131 mmol/l
K+	4.6 mmol/l
Urea	2.3 mmol/l
Creatinine	78 µmol/l
Liver function tests
Bilirubin	25 µmol/l
ALP	445 u/l
ALT	89 u/l
γGT	103 u/l

What is the most likely underlying cause for the abnormalities noted?

	Delayed type blood transfusion reaction
	Bile leak
	Anastomotic leak
	Total parenteral nutrition
	Gallstones
A

Total parenteral nutrition

TPN is known to result in derangement of liver function tests. Although, cholestasis may result from TPN, it would be very unusual for gallstones to form and result in the picture above. Blood transfusion reactions typically present earlier and with changes in the haemoglobin and although they may cause hepatitis this is rare nowadays.

33
Q

Which statement regarding post operative cognitive impairment is true?

Use of Benzodiazepines preoperatively reduces long-term post operative cognitive dysfunction
Pain does not cause delirium
Delirium has no impact on length of hospital stay
A regional anaesthetic rather than a general anaesthetic is more likely to contribute to post operative cognitive impairment
Visual hallucinations are not a feature of delirium
A

Use of Benzodiazepines preoperatively reduces long-term post operative cognitive dysfunction

Anaesthetic technique and Post operative cognitive impairment (POCD):
Use of benzodiazepines preoperatively reduces long-term POCD (9.9% vs. 5%)
Do not stop drugs for cognitive function
Regional techniques reduce POCD in first week, but no difference at 3 months

34
Q

A 75 year old man is admitted to the intensive care unit following a laparotomy. He has a central line, pulmonary artery catheter and arterial lines inserted. The following results are obtained:
Pulmonary artery occlusion pressure High
Cardiac output Low
Systemic vascular resistance High
How may these findings be best interpreted?

	Hypovolaemia
	Normal
	Neurogenic shock
	Septic shock
	Cardiogenic shock
A

Cardiogenic shock

In cardiogenic shock pulmonary pressures are often high. This is the basis for the use of venodilators in the treatment of pulmonary oedema.

35
Q

Which statement is false about pethidine?

It is thirty times more lipid soluble than morphine
Structurally similar to morphine
Pethidine has a toxic metabolite (norpethidine) which is cleared by the kidney
Pethidine is metabolized by the liver
Can be given intramuscularly
A

Structurally similar to morphine

It has a different structure. It is much more lipid soluble than morphine. It produces less biliary tract spasm than morphine.

36
Q

Which of the following anaesthetic agents is least likely to be associated with depression of myocardial contractility?

	Propofol
	Etomidate
	Sodium thiopentone
	Ether
	None of the above
A

Etomidate

Of the agents mentioned, etomidate has the most favorable cardiac safety profile

37
Q

A 22 year old lady undergoes a total thyroidectomy for Graves disease. 6 hours post operatively she develops respiratory stridor and develops a small haematoma in the neck. What is the most appropriate course of action?

	Perform a cricothyroidotomy
	Re-open the neck wound
	Perform a percutaneous tracheostomy
	Reassure the patient and prescribe an anxiolytic
	Insert a nasopharyngeal airway
A

Re-open the neck wound

This is true emergency and evacuation and release of pressure must be performed immediately, in this case by removal of skin clips on the ward. Attempts to access the airway surgically will delay this and can result in death.

38
Q

A 23 year old man is undergoing an open inguinal hernia repair as a daycase procedure and is being given sevoflurane. What is the best option for maintaining his airway during the procedure?

	Insertion of endotracheal tube
	Insertion of nasotracheal tube
	Insertion of nasopharyngeal airway
	Insertion of laryngeal mask
	Use of Guedel airway
A

Insertion of laryngeal mask

This procedure will be associated with requirement for swift onset of anaesthesia and recovery. Muscle paralysis is not required and this would an ideal case for laryngeal mask airway.

39
Q

Which of the following is a not a diagnostic criteria for brain death?

	No response to sound
	No corneal reflex
	Absent oculo-vestibular reflexes
	No response to supraorbital pressure
	No cough reflex to bronchial stimulation
A

No response to sound

40
Q

You are the cardiothoracic surgical registrar reviewing a patient referred for an aortic valve replacement. The 40-year-old man is being investigated for progressive breathlessness in a previous respiratory clinic. The notes show he has smoked for the past 25 years. Pulmonary function tests reveal the following:

FEV1 1.4 L
FVC 1.7 L
FEV1/FVC 82%

What is the most likely explanation?

	Asthma
	Bronchiectasis
	Kyphoscoliosis
	Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
	Laryngeal malignancy
A

Kyphoscoliosis

These results show a restrictive picture, which may result from a number of conditions including kyphoscoliosis. The other answers cause an obstructive picture.

41
Q

Which of the following muscle relaxants is an agent that is degraded by hydrolysis and may produce histamine release?

	Atracurium
	Panciuronium
	Curare
	Suxamethonium
	Vecuronium
A

Atracurium

Atracurium is degraded by a process of ester hydrolysis. This uses non specific plasma esterases.

42
Q

A 78 year old man presents with a ruptured aortic aneurysm. This is repaired but the operation is difficult as it has a juxtarenal location. A supra renal cross clamp is applied. Post operatively he is found to be oliguric and acute renal failure is suspected. Which of the following statements relating to acute post-operative renal failure are untrue?

Intravenous dopamine does not prevent acute renal failure.
It is more common after emergency surgery.
Use of excessive amounts of intravenous fluids may lead to falsely normal serum creatinine measurements.
Vasopressor drugs have a strong renoprotective effect
It is minimised by normalisation of haemodynamic status.
A

Vasopressor drugs have a strong renoprotective effect

Vasopressor use is linked to renal failure as they are a marker of haemodynamic compromise.

43
Q

Which of the following is most suggestive of malnutrition?

Hypoalbuminaemia
BMI of 22 kg/m2 and unintentional weight loss of > 5% over 3-6 months
BMI of 18.5 kg/m2
Reduced skin turgor
Unintentional weight loss of > 10% over 3- 6 months in a 60 Kg female who is 1.6m tall
A

Unintentional weight loss of > 10% over 3- 6 months in a 60 Kg female who is 1.6m tall

An unintentional weight loss of >10% in a three to six month period is highly suggestive of malnutrition. This is particularly true of people with a normal/ low BMI. Hypoalbuminaemia is not, in itself, a reliable marker of nutrition.

44
Q

A 52 year old man is recovering following an elective right hemicolectomy for carcinoma of the caecum. His surgery is uncomplicated, when should oral intake resume?

	Only once bowels have been opened to stool
	Only once the patient has passed flatus
	Between 24 and 48 hours of surgery
	More than 48 hours after surgery
	Within 24 hours of surgery
A

Within 24 hours of surgery

As part of the enhanced recovery principles oral intake in this setting should resume soon after surgery. Administration of liquid and even light diet does not increase the risk of anastomotic leak.

45
Q

With which of the following blood products is iatrogenic septicaemia with a gram positive organism most likely?

	Cryoprecipitate
	Platelets
	Packed red cells
	Factor VIII concentrate
	Factor IX concentrate
A

Platelets

Platelets are stored at room temperature and must be used soon after collection. This places them at increased risk of culturing gram positive organisms. Iatrogenic infection with gram negative organisms is more likely with packed red cells as these are stored at 4 degrees.
Infections with blood products of this nature are both rare.

46
Q

Which of the following is a recognised feature of ketamine when used as an anaesthetic agent?

	Malignant hyperpyrexia
	Adrenal suppression
	Myocardial depression
	Dissociative anaesthesia
	Marked respiratory depression
A

Dissociative anaesthesia

Unlike most anaesthetic agents ketamine does not cause myocardial or marked respiratory depression. It is not associated with the adrenal suppression that may occur with etomidate. It is however, associated with a state of dissociative anaesthesia which patients may find distressing.

47
Q

A 45 year old lady with cirrhosis of the liver is recovering following an emergency para umbilical hernia repair. She has been slow to resume oral intake and has been receiving regular boluses of normal saline for oliguria. Which of the following intravenous fluids should be considered?

	5% dextrose with 20mmol KCL
	1.8% saline
	Human albumin solution 4.5%
	10% dextrose with 20mmol KCL
	0.45% sodium chloride
A

Human albumin solution 4.5%

In patients who are hypoalbuminaemic the use of albumin solution may help promote a diuresis and manage fluid overload.

48
Q

A 73 year old man undergoes a right below knee amputation for end stage peripheral vascular disease. He is reviewed in the clinic 8 weeks post operatively and complains of a persistent, burning discomfort over his amputation site stump. On examination, his wound has healed and proximal pulses have a biphasic signal on doppler ultrasound. What is the most appropriate management?

	Commence amitryptyline
	Commence fentanyl patch
	Arrange duplex scan
	Arrange MRI scan of the stump
	Commence carbamazepine
A

Commence amitryptyline

This patient has neuropathic pain. Amitryptyline is the treatment of choice. Carbamazepine is mainly used for trigeminal neuralgia.

49
Q

A homeless 42 year old male had an emergency inguinal hernia repair 24 hours previously. He has a BMI of 15. His electrolytes are normal. What is the best initial feeding regime?

Give 10 kcal/kg/day initially, oral thiamine 200-300mg/day, vitamin B co strong1 tds and supplements.
Give 35 kcal/kg/day initially, oral thiamine 200-300mg/day, vitamin B co strong 1 tds and supplements.
No change to diet needed
Oral thiamine 200-300mg/day, vitamin B co strong1 tds and supplements.
Give 35 kcal/kg/day initially
A

Give 10 kcal/kg/day initially, oral thiamine 200-300mg/day, vitamin B co strong1 tds and supplements.

This patient is at high risk of refeeding syndrome.

50
Q

A 48 year old man is recovering on the high dependency unit following a long and complex laparotomy. His preoperative medication includes an ACE inhibitor for blood pressure control. For the past two hours he has been oliguric with a urine output of 10ml/hr-1. What the most appropriate immediate course of action?

	Stop the ACE inhibitor
	Administer a fluid challenge
	Start an infusion of nor adrenaline
	Administer intravenous frusemide
	Insert a Swann-Ganz Catheter
A

Administer a fluid challenge

Hypovolaemia is the most likely cause for oliguria and a fluid challenge is the most appropriate action. Blind administration of inotropes to hypovolaemic patients is unwise, with the possible exception of cardiac patients.

51
Q

A 50 year old man has an arterial blood gas sample taken and the following results are obtained, he is breathing room air.
pH 7.20
pO2 7.5
HCO3 22
pCO2 8.1
Cl- 10meq
Which of the conditions listed below is most likely to account for these findings?

Type 1 respiratory failure
Metabolic alkalosis
Metabolic acidosis with normal anion gap
Metabolic acidosis with increased anion gap
Type 2 respiratory failure
A

Type 2 respiratory failure

This is a sign of acute type 2 respiratory failure (non compensated). This is the result of carbon dioxide retention.

52
Q

A 48 year old man is due to undergo a laparotomy for small bowel obstruction. What is the best option for maintaining his airway?

	Insertion of cuffed endotracheal tube
	Insertion of uncuffed endotracheal tube
	Insertion of laryngeal mask
	Insertion of nasopharyngeal airway
	Percutaneous tracheostomy
A

Insertion of cuffed endotracheal tube

Patients who are due to undergo laparotomies for bowel obstruction have either been vomiting or at high risk of regurgitation of gastric contents on induction of anaesthesia. A rapid sequence induction with cricothyroid pressure applied to occlude the oesophagus is performed. A cuffed endotracheal tube is then inserted. Once correct placement of the ET tube is confirmed the cricothyroid pressure can be removed.

53
Q

A 45 year old man is involved in a polytrauma and requires a massive transfusion of packed red cells and fresh frozen plasma. Three hours later he develops marked hypoxia and his CVP is noted to be 10mm Hg. A chest x-rays shows bilateral diffuse pulmonary infiltrates. What is the most likely diagnosis?

	Pulmonary embolus
	Myocardial stunning
	Myocardial infarct
	Fluid overload
	Transfusion associated lung injury
A

Transfusion associated lung injury

Transfusion lung injury may occur after infusion of plasma components. Microvascular damage occurs in the lungs leading to diffuse infiltrates on imaging. Mortality is high.

54
Q

A 52 year old man undergoes a laparotomy for perforated bowel after a colonoscopy. 2 days after surgery the nursing staff report there is pink, serous fluid discharging from the wound. What is the next most appropriate management step?

	IV antibiotics for wound infection
	No further management
	Examine the wound for separation of the rectus fascia
	Insert a drain into the wound
	CT abdomen
A

Examine the wound for separation of the rectus fascia

The seepage of pink serosanguineous fluid through a closed abdominal wound is an early sign of abdominal wound dehiscence with possible evisceration. If this occurs, you should remove one or two sutures in the skin and explore the wound manually, using a sterile glove. If there is separation of the rectus fascia, the patient should be taken to the operating room for primary closure.

55
Q

A 63 year old man undergoes a subtotal colectomy and iatrogenic injury to both ureters is sustained. He develops renal failure and his serum potassium is found to be elevated at 6.9 mmol/L. An ECG is performed, what is the most likely finding?

	Increased PR interval
	Prominent U waves
	Narrow QRS complexes
	Peaked T waves
	Low ST segments
A

Peaked T waves

Peaked T waves are the first and most common finding in hyperkalaemia.

56
Q

A 56 year old man with chronic schizophrenia undergoes a cholecystectomy. He receives metoclopramide for post operative nausea. Twenty minutes later he becomes agitated and develops marked oculogyric crises and oromandibular dystonia. Which of the following drugs may best alleviate his symptoms?

	Procyclidine
	Lorazepam
	Chlorpromazine
	Haloperidol
	Sulpiride
A

Procyclidine

This man has developed an acute dystonic reaction. Administration of further anti dopaminergic drugs will worsen the situation. Procyclidine will help to reverse the event. This is most likely to have occurred because the patient is on long term anti psychotics and has then received metoclopramide.

57
Q

Which of the following anaesthetic agents has the strongest analgesic effect?

	Sodium thiopentone
	Ketamine
	Midazolam
	Etomidate
	None of the above
A

Ketamine

Ketamine has a moderate to strong analgesic effect. It may be used for emergency procedures outside the hospital environment to induce anaesthesia for procedures such as emergency amputation.

58
Q

Which statement is true on enteral feeding?

A PEG can only be used 12 hours after insertion
A motility agent is avoided for ITU patients with an Nasogastric tube
A regime of 24 hours continuous feeding is recommended for ITU patients
It is associated with more hepatic synthetic disruption than use of TPN
Enteral feeding is not possible in upper GI dysfunction
A

A regime of 24 hours continuous feeding is recommended for ITU patients

59
Q

Which of the following does not need monitoring during home parenteral nutritional support?

	Folate levels
	Zinc levels
	Vitamin D
	Thyroid function
	Bone densitometry
A

Thyroid function

60
Q

Which of the following is not typically included in total parenteral nutritional solutions?

	Fibre
	Lipid
	Potassium
	Glucose
	Magnesium
A

Fibre

There is no indication for inclusion of fibre in solutions of TPN, nor would it be safe to do so.

61
Q

A 28 year old man with poorly controlled Crohns disease is nutritionally compromised. The decision is made to start TPN, via which of the following routes should it be best administered?

Internal jugular vein via a central venous catheter
Internal carotid artery
Cephalic vein via peripheral cannula
Basilic vein via peripheral cannula
Common femoral vein via a central venous catheter
A

Internal jugular vein via a central venous catheter

Since TPN solutions are irritant to veins they are best administered via a central line. The femoral route has a higher incidence of line associated sepsis and is thus best avoided in this setting.

62
Q

Which of the following statements relating to the use of human albumin solution is false?

When administered in the peri operative period it does not increase the length of stay in hospital compared with crystalloid solutions
Concentrated solutions may produce diuresis in patients with liver failure
It may restore plasma volume in cases of sodium and water overload
It may be associated with risk of acquiring new variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
Hepatitis C remains a concern when large volumes are infused
A

Hepatitis C remains a concern when large volumes are infused

Human albumin solution went out of vogue following the Cochrane review in 2004 that showed it increased mortality. This view has been challenged and subsequent studies have confirmed it to be safe for use. Viruses are inactivated during the preparation process. However, theoretical risks regarding new varient CJD still exist. Outcomes in the peri operative setting are similar whether colloid, crystalloid or albumin are used.

63
Q

Use of which of the following muscle relaxants is least likely to result in histamine release?

	Atracurium
	Tubocurarine
	Doxacurium
	Mivacurium
	Suxamethonium
A

Suxamethonium

Drugs in the tetrahydroisoquinoline such as atracurium cause histamine release. Vecuronium and suxamethonium do not do this.

64
Q

Which of the anaesthetic agents listed below is associated with hepatotoxicity?

	Halothane
	Sevoflurane
	Propofol
	Ketamine
	Desflurane
A

Halothane

Halothane is largely of historical interest and that is because of its hepatotoxicity.

65
Q

A 22 year old fit and well male undergoes an emergency appendicectomy. He is given suxamethonium. An inflamed appendix is removed and the patient is returned to recovery. On arrival in the recovery area; the patient develops a tachycardia of 120 bpm and a temperature of 40 oC. He has generalised muscular rigidity. What is the most likely diagnosis?

	Acute dystonic reaction
	Malignant hyperthermia
	Pelvic abscess
	Epilepsy
	Serotonin syndrome
A

Malignant hyperthermia

Anaesthetic agents, such as suxamethonium, can cause malignant hyperthermia in patients with a genetic defect

66
Q

A 45 year old man develops acute respiratory distress syndrome during an attack of severe acute pancreatitis. Which of the following is not a feature of adult respiratory distress syndrome?

It usually consists of type I respiratory failure.
Patients typically require high ventillatory pressures.
A Swann Ganz Catheter would typically have a reading in excess of 18mmHg.
It may complicate acute pancreatitis.
It may heal with fibrosis.
A

A Swann Ganz Catheter would typically have a reading in excess of 18mmHg.

Right heart pressure should be normal.